Submissions
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Item 1
In Immunofixation Electrophoresis, an antibody is: _____
A. Distributed uniformly throughout the gel.
B. Applied on the top surface of the gel.
C. Added to troughs cut into the gel.
D. Driven through the gel by application of electrical current.
Response: A
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Item 2
Which of the following is true of a Reverse Agglutination test_____
A. The antigen is a natural particle.
B. Antigen molecules are artificially bound to particles.
C. Antibody is attached to particles.
D. The Antigen–Antibody reaction is competitive (no agglutination indicates a positive result).
Response: B
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Item 3
Identify the cell: _____
A. Eosinophil
B. Neutrophil
C. Macrophage
D. Dendritic Cell
Response: A
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 4
IDENTIFY THE PATTERN OF THE PRECIPITIN BANDS: _____
A. IDENTITY
B. PARTIAL IDENTITY
C. NON-IDENTITY
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 5
The Particle-Counting Immunoassay Method counts the number of: _____
A. Agglutinated Particles.
B. Free Antibody Molecules.
C. Free Latex Particles.
D. Antigen–Antibody Bonds.
Response: C
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 6
Hepatitis Testing using test KITS can be performed in a laboratory using: _____
A. Capture Assay.
B. Immunochromatography.
C. Fluorescence Polarization.
D. Chemiluminescence.
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 7
Which of the following is an advantage of Radio Immunoassay over Capture Assay_____
A. Use in diverse, nonlaboratory settings.
B. Cost of equipment.
C. Detecting Small Molecules.
D. Cost of reagents.
Response: C
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 8
The process by which particulate antigens such as cells aggregate to form larger complexes when
specific antibody is present is called: _____
A. Sensitization.
B. Precipitation.
C. Agglutination.
D. Flocculation.
Response: C
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 9
The instrument used to detect the Antigen-Antibody complexes measured the amount of light
scattered as an incident beam passed through the sample suspension. This principle is known as:
_____
A. Turbidimetry.
B. Passive Immunodiffusion.
C. Nephelometry.
D. Electrophoresis.
Response: C
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 10
Which assay poses the greatest risk of exposure to biohazards_____
A. Radioimmunoassay.
B. Enzyme Immunoassay.
C. Fluorescence Polarization.
D. Chemiluminescent Immunoassays.
Response: A
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 11
When carrier particles are coated with an antigen that is not normally found on them, this is known
as: _____
A. Direct Agglutination.
B. Passive Agglutination.
C. Reverse Passive Agglutination.
D. Hemagglutination.
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 12
Which best describes Hemagglutination Tests_____
A. Patient antibody reacts with Hemoglobin.
B. The reaction involves red blood cells.
C. Patient antibody is always involved.
D. Hemoglobin binds to antigen.
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 13
In performing blood typing using the tube method, if the red cell button is not resuspended
properly, what are the most likely results_____
A. False Positive.
B. False Negative.
C. Does not affect the results.
D. Makes the reaction weaker.
Response: A
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 14
A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen is bound to a large carrier, the antibody is
soluble, and the antigen and carrier bind and form an insoluble complex that is detected
macroscopically. What type of assay is described_____
A. Precipitation.
B. Agglutination.
C. Flocculation.
D. Neutralization.
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 15
If antibody is uniformly distributed in a gel and antigen is added to a well cut into the gel, the
process is called: _____
A. Single Diffusion.
B. Double Diffusion.
C. Immunofixation.
D. Retro Diffusion.
Response: B
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Item 16
A patient's serum sample is added to a solution containing Particulate Antigen, but no
agglutination is observed. What should be done next_____
A. Perform Serial Dilutions of the Sample.
B. Report out as a Negative Test.
C. Add more Particulate Antigen.
D. Read the reaction in dim light.
Response: A
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 17
Identify the cell: _____
A. MONOCYTE
B. MAST CELL
C. LYMPHOCYTE
D. BASOPHIL
Response: D
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 18
A tissue section is fixed to a microscope slide, then incubated with a fluorescently labeled
antibody that binds to an antigen expressed by cells in that tissue. The preparation is then washed
and inspected with a fluorescent microscope. This technique is called: _____
A. Direct Immunofluorescence.
B. Indirect Immunofluorescence.
C. Fluorescence Polarization.
D. Autofluorescence.
Response: A
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 19
Identify the cell: _____
A. Eosinophil
B. Neutrophil
C. Macrophage
D. Dendritic Cell
Response: C
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 20
An immunoassay is performed in the following manner to look for an antigen (Ag) in the patient
serum: Patient serum + labeled Ag + known antibody (Ab) are added together and incubated.
Unbound material is washed off. The amount of labeled Ag is then measured. What assay is
performed_____
A. Homogeneous.
B. Competitive.
C. Capture.
D. ELISA.
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 21
Which statement about noncompetitive enzyme immunoassays is true_____
A. Binding sites for patient antigen are limited.
B. Washing in between steps is not necessary.
C. All patient antigen is allowed to react with binding sites.
D. Color is indirectly proportional to the concentration.
Response: C
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 22
The assembly of particles into visible clumps is called: _____
A. Precipitation.
B. Agglutination.
C. Equivalence.
D. Sensitization.
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 23
If crossed lines result in an Ouchterlony Immunodiffusion Reaction with antigens A and B, this
indicates that antigens A and B: _____
A. Are identical.
B. Are entirely different.
C. Share a Common Epitope, with A being a more Complex Antigen.
D. Share a Common Epitope, with B being a more Complex Antigen.
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 24
Extremely high analyte concentrations can cause False-Negative Results (Hook Effect) in which
type of assay_____
A. Homogeneous Competitive.
B. Heterogeneous Competitive.
C. Homogeneous Noncompetitive.
D. Heterogeneous Noncompetitive.
Response: B
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Item 25
Identify the cell: _____
A. Eosinophil
B. Neutrophil
C. Macrophage
D. Dendritic Cell
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 26
The law of mass action states that: _____
A. Any free reactants will rapidly bind together.
B. The number of antibody binding sites must equal the number of antigen-binding sites.
C. Free reactants are in equilibrium with bound reactants.
D. The rate of binding equals the rate of dissociation.
Response: B
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Item 27
Which compound would be an appropriate label in a Chemiluminescent Assay_____
A. Horseradish Peroxidase.
B. Iodine-125.
C. Fluorescein.
D. Ruthenium Derivative.
Response: D
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 28
The standard method for detecting antinuclear antibodies (in certain Autoimmune Diseases)
is:_____
A. Direct Immunofluorescence.
B. Indirect Immunofluorescence.
C. Fluorescence Polarization.
D. Autofluorescence.
Response: A
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Item 29
Identify the cell: _____
A. MONOCYTE
B. MAST CELL
C. LYMPHOCYTE
D. BASOPHIL
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 30
An antigen is fixed to a microscope slide, then incubated with patient serum. After washing,
fluorescently labeled anti-human immunoglobulin is applied. After an additional wash, the slide is
inspected with a fluorescent microscope. This technique is called: _____
A. Direct Immunofluorescence.
B. Indirect Immunofluorescence.
C. Fluorescence Polarization.
D. Autofluorescence.
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 31
IDENTIFY THE PATTERN OF THE PRECIPITIN BANDS: _____
A. IDENTITY
B. PARTIAL IDENTITY
C. NON-IDENTITY
Response: C
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 32
If an Ouchterlony immunodiffusion pattern shows an arc equidistant between antigens A and B,
this indicates that the antigens: _____
A. Are identical.
B. Are entirely different.
C. Share a Common Epitope, with A being a more Complex Antigen.
D. Share a Common Epitope, with B being a more Complex Antigen.
Response: A
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 33
The signal measured in a Fluorescence Polarization Immunoassay is the:_____
A. Wavelength of absorbed light.
B. Angle of light scattering.
C. Intensity of light emission.
D. Orientation of emitted light waves.
Response: D
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 34
Quenching of the signal emitted by the label is of particular concern in: _____
A. Radioimmunoassay.
B. Enzyme Immunoassay.
C. Fluorescence Polarization.
D. Chemiluminescent Immunoassays.
Response: D
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 35
A good enzyme for use in an immunoassay should have a: _____
A. Rapid Degradation Rate.
B. High Substrate Conversion Rate.
C. High Cost.
D. Toxic Enzymatic Product.
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 36
Identify the cell: _____
A. MONOCYTE
B. MAST CELL
C. LYMPHOCYTE
D. BASOPHIL
Response: C
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 37
Select the technique that would most likely be used to determine the concentration of a
therapeutic drug. _____
A. Radioimmunoassay.
B. Chemiluminescent Assay.
C. Fluorescence Polarization Immunoassay.
D. Enzyme Immunoassay.
Response: C
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 38
The production of Insoluble Complexes that absorb or scatter light but are too small to see directly
is called: _____
A. Precipitation.
B. Agglutination.
C. Equivalence.
D. Sensitization.
Response: A
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 39
The measurement of light scattered at an angle by the antigen–antibody complexes in a solution
is called: _____
A. Turbidimetry.
B. Nephelometry.
C. Agglutination.
D. Equivalency.
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 40
Which assay format is the best choice for measuring small molecules, such as drugs and small
peptide hormones_____
A. Latex Agglutination.
B. Fluorescence Polarization.
C. Capture ELISA.
D. Homogeneous Enzyme Immunoassay.
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 41
The End-Point Radial Immunodiffusion Assay: _____
A. Is read after antigen–antibody equivalence is reached.
B. Is the most rapid immunodiffusion method.
C. Requires only a negative control for interpretation.
D. Can be converted to a kinetic method by application of electrical current.
Response: D
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Item 42
Point-of-care testing is performed most easily using: _____
A. Homogeneous Enzyme Immunoassay.
B. Immunofixation Assay.
C. Immunochromatographic Assay.
D. Capture ELISA.
Response: C
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 43
In which of the following testing situations is there a direct relationship between the amount of
bound label and the amount of patient antigen present_____
A. Competitive radioimmunoassay using labeled antigen.
B. Competitive enzyme immunoassay using labeled antigen.
C. Noncompetitive enzyme immunoassay using a second labeled antibody.
D. Any of the above.
Response: C
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 44
If a serum sample does not cause agglutination when mixed with a particular antigen, then you
should: _____
A. Report that the patient does not have an antibody against that antigen.
B. Test a more diluted sample to overcome possible prozone effects.
C. Increase the particle surface charge by altering the pH.
D. Decrease the viscosity of the sample.
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 45
A laboratory scientist is performing an antibody screen using an Agglutination-Based Test. The
reaction can be described as several large clumps with a clear background. Because agglutination
occurred, it is likely that the concentrations of antibody and antigen within the reaction were within
which zone of the precipitation curve_____
A. The Zone of Equivalence.
B. Prozone.
C. Postzone.
D. All of the above.
Response: B
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Item 46
Select the technique that would most likely be used to determine the concentration of a
therapeutic drug. _____
A. Radioimmunoassay.
B. Chemiluminescent Assay.
C. Fluorescence Polarization Immunoassay.
D. Enzyme Immunoassay.
Response: C
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 47
Identify the pattern of the precipitin bands: _____
A. Non-identity
B. Identity
c. Partial Identity
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 48
If an Ouchterlony Immunodiffusion pattern shows an arc between Antigens A and B with an
extended line pointing to Antigen B, this indicates that the Antigens: _____
A. Are identical.
B. Are entirely different.
C. Share a Common Epitope, with A being a more Complex Antigen.
D. Share a Common Epitope, with B being a more Complex Antigen.
Response: C
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 49
Which assay format has the lowest equipment cost_____
A. Enzyme Immunoassay.
B. Immunochromatography.
C. Fluorescence Polarization.
D. Chemiluminescence.
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 50
Which of the following is characteristic of a Passive Agglutination test_____
A. The antigen is naturally found on particles.
B. Antigen molecules are artificially bound to particles.
C. Antibody is attached to particles.
D. The antigen–antibody reaction is competitive (no agglutination indicates a positive result).
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 51
A serological test that uses Red Blood Cells coated with Exogenous Antigens such as bacterial
polysaccharides as a method to detect patient antibodies against those exogenous antigens is
called: _____
A. Latex Agglutination.
B. Hemagglutination.
C. Neutralization.
D. Complement Fixation.
Response: B
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 52
Identify the cell: _____
A. Eosinophil
B. Neutrophil
C. Macrophage
D. Dendritic Cell
Response: D
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 53
When a patient's red blood cells combine with anti-A typing serum to produce a positive result,
this reaction is known as: _____
A. Passive Agglutination.
B. Reverse Passive Agglutination.
C. Hemagglutination.
D. Flocculation.
Response: D
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Item 54
Identify the cell: _____
A. MONOCYTE
B. MAST CELL
C. LYMPHOCYTE
D. BASOPHIL
Response: A
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Item 55
Which best characterizes Agglutination Inhibition Reactions_____
A. The antigen is naturally expressed on particles.
B. Antigen molecules are artificially bound to particles.
C. Antibody is attached to particles.
D. No agglutination indicates a positive result.
Response: D
Score: 1 out of 1