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CLUSTER III
PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION 3
Philippine Respiratory Therapist Licensure Examination
NAME:
1. Prior to intubation in an emergency,
injection of air into the pilot line fails to
inflate the cuff. You should
a. check the cuff for leaks
b. check the valve on the pilot line
c. replace the endotracheal tube
d. inspect the pilot line for patency
2. Which of the following conditions will cause
a DECREASE in the FIO2 delivered to a
patient receiving oxygen at 4 L/min via a
nasal cannula?
a. decrease in patient inspiratory flow
b. increase in patient inspiratory time
c. increase in patient minute ventilation
d. decrease in patient tidal volume
3. When adjusting the sensitivity control during
pressure-cycled ventilation, the respiratory
therapist would be altering the:
a. Volume of gas available to the patient
on inhalation.
b. Effort required to cycle the machine
off as the patient exhales.
c. Maximum amount of pressure to be
delivered to the patient.
d. Effort required to activate the
machine as the patient inhales.
4. What size suction catheter would you select
to suction a patient with a 9.0 mm ID
tracheostomy tube?
a. 10 Fr
b. 12 Fr
c. 14 Fr
d. 16 Fr
5. A patient who is receiving an aerosol
treatment with acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
and hypertonic saline via a SVN suddenly
becomes dyspneic. The most likely cause
of this problem is:
a. hypercapnia
b. bronchospasm
c. pneumothorax
d. Fluid overload
6. A patient who is being mechanically
ventilated has just received vecuronium
(Norcuron). Which of the following is the
most important ventilator alarm to monitor to
ensure patient safety?
a. I:E ratio
b. Circuit temperature
c. High pressure
d. Low pressure
7. A patient receiving continuous heated
aerosol therapy with room air by a T-piece
develops subcutaneous emphysema around
the tracheostomy site, neck, and chest. After
nothing unequal breath sounds, the most
appropriate diagnostic procedure would be:
a. A chest radiograph
b. A maximum inspiratory pressure
(MIP) measurement
c. Timed forced expiratory volumes
d. An arterial blood gas analysis
8. Which of the following would be most
appropriate to recommend for a patient with
dyspnea who has a 40% pneumothorax?
a. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator
b. Perform chest physiotherapy
c. Insert an endotracheal tube
d. Insert a chest tube
9. A neonate is having a seizure and requires
heavy sedation. After intubation, which of the
following should the respiratory therapist
recommend?
a. CPAP
b. Pressure support ventilation
c. Pressure controlled ventilation
d. Volume controlled ventilation
10. Approximately how many hours will it take to
empty an H cylinder of oxygen that contains
1200 psig and is flowing at 12 L/min?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9
11. A patient with hypoxemia is receiving 10 cm
H2O PEEP with an FiO2 of 0.40. Shortly
after increasing the PEEP to 15 cm H2O, the
respiratory therapist notes that the cardiac
output measurement decreased from 4.5 to
2.7 L.min. Which of the following is the most
appropriate action?
a. Maintain the present therapy and
measure cardiac output in 1 hour.
b. Decrease PEEP to 10 cm H2O and
increase the FiO2 to 0.50
c. Increase PEEP to 20 cm H20 and
maintain the FiO2 at 0.40
d. Discontinue PEEP and increase the
FiO2 to 1.0
12. A patient who is receiving volume-controlled
ventilation has a sudden increase in airways
resistance. Which of the following will
change?
a. Oxygen concentration
b. Rate
c. PEEP
d. peak inspiratory pressure
13. A mechanically ventilated patient has
developed an auto-PEEP of 10 cm H2O. The
patient also experiences extreme difficulty in
triggering the ventilator to initiate inspiratory
flow. The problem persists following
adjustment of the flow, frequency, and tidal
volume settings on the ventilator. The
therapist should recommend:
a. Bronchoscopy
b. Changing the sensitivity level to -1cm
H2O
c. sedation
d. starting mechanical PEEP at 8cm
H2O
14. A 50 kg patient is being mechanically
ventilated with the following settings: SIMV
of 10/min, VT of 700 ml. FIO2 of 30%, peak
flow of 60 L/min, PEEP of 4 cm H2O. Since
air trapping is evident, the physician asks
what should be done to minimize or eliminate
air
trapping.
The
therapist should
recommend:
a. Increasing the frequency
b. Decreasing the flow
c. Increasing the PEEP
d. Decreasing the tidal volume
15. An 80 kg patient who is being mechanically
ventilated with the following settings: SIMV
of 10/min, VT of 600 ml, FIO2 of 40%, peak
flow of 40L/min and PEEP of 4 cm H2O. The
patient suddenly develops an auto-PEEP of
8 cm H2O due to air trapping. What should
the therapist recommend?
a. Increase SIMV rate to 12/min
b. Increase VT to 700 ml
c. Increase PEEP to 7 H2O
d. Discontinue PEEP
16. During patient education and training, the
respiratory therapist discovers that a patient
is unable to use a metered dose inhaler
(MDI) correctly. The patient lacks the
coordination to perform a breath-hold
maneuver for longer than five seconds. The
respiratory therapist should:
a. Instruct the patient to activate the MDI
twice before each inhalation
b. Add a spacer and educate patient to
use the set up correctly
c. Discontinue the MDI treatments and
notify physician
d. Change to a small volume nebulizer
17. A COPD patient with has moderate amount
of retained secretions in both lungs. He is
alert but unable to breathe deep and cough
productively. In order to facilitate removal of
secretions, the respiratory therapist should
use a(n):
a. Bronchoscope
b. Nasogastric tube
c. oropharyngeal airway
d. nasopharyngeal airway
18. A home care therapist is setting up an
oxygen concentrator for a patient who
requires continuous oxygen therapy. As a
safety precaution to accompany the oxygen
concentrator, the therapist should also setup a(n):
a. Oxygen analyzer with alarm features
b. Size “E” oxygen cylinder
c. Carbon monoxide analyzer
d. Electric power generator
19. A mechanically ventilated patient become
hypoxic whenever endotracheal suctioning
is done via an open suction catheter set up.
in order to minimize or reduce these hypoxic
incidents, the respiratory therapist should:
a. Increase the ventilator tidal volume
b. Increase the SIMV rate
c. Change to a closed suction setup
d. Change to a non-invasive positive
pressure ventilator
20. An 80 kg patient with head injury and flail
chest, has been intubated with a size 6
endotracheal tube (ETT) prior to mechanical
ventilation. The cuff pressure is being kept at
40 cm H2O to prevent cuff leak. The RCP
should:
a. Use minimal leak technique and
adjust the cuff pressure to 30 cm H2O
b. Keep the cuff pressure at 40cm H2O
c. Change to size 7.5 ETT
d. Maintain current set up
21. After assisting a physician with an RT
intubation, the RRT is asked to evaluate the
placement of the ET tube.
Which of the following procedures
should the RRT perform?
I.
Listen for the bilateral breath sounds.
II.
Auscultate the epigastrium.
III.
Obtain an ABG.
IV.
Measure the patient’s negative
inspiratory force.
a. I, II only
b. II, III only
c. I, IV only
d. I, II, IV only
22. While checking an aerosol mist tent, the
respiratory therapist is unable to see any
aerosol particles in the tent. The therapist
should:
a. Decrease the F, Oz setting on the
aerosol-producing device.
b. Check the patency of the jet and
capillary tube on the aerosol device.
c. Check the coolant level in the
refrigeration unit.
d. Empty any water that has collected in
the condensation bottle.
23. The respiratory therapist is preparing to
initiate oxygen therapy by a nasal cannula at
2 L/min for a 58 year old patient who has
admitted with chest pain. Upon entering the
patient's room, the therapist finds him
slumped over in bed and unresponsive to
verbal and tactile stimuli. The therapist
should do which of the following first?
a. Call for help
b. Administer oxygen
c. Begin external cardiac compression
d. Deliver a precordial thump
24. The following ABG data were obtained from
a chronic CO2 retaining patient who was
breathing room air:
PO2 40 torr
PCO2 65 torr
pH 7.30
Which type of oxygen therapy would be
appropriate?
a. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
b. Partial rebreathing mask at 10 L/min.
c. Simple O2 mask at 10 L/min.
d. Air entrainment mask at 24% O2.
25. An RT is called to the ICU to assist with the
intubation of a patient. The anesthesiologist
is inserting a double-lumen ET tube. Which
of the following conditions is most likely to
warrant the insertion of this type of artificial
airway?
a. Severe adult respiratory distress
syndrome (ARDS)
b. Tracheal malacia
c. Unilateral interstitial fibrosis
d. Diffuse idiopathic consolidated
pneumonia.
26. The patient with a head injury is being
mechanically ventilated at a rate of 18 /min.
The delivered tidal volume is 900 mL. The
patient's current arterial blood gas results
are below:
pH - 7.50
PaCO2 - 28 torr
PaO2 - 90 torr
HCO3 - 21 mEq/L
BE - -1 mEq/L
The most appropriate recommendation
for this patient would be to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Maintain the present settings
Decrease the ventilator rate
Decrease the tidal volume
Add mechanical dead space
27. Which of the following drugs would be most
appropriate to recommend as a substitute for
metaproterenol sulfate (Alupent) for a patient
who has bronchospasm and whose cardiac
rate increases by 60/beats/min with each
treatment?
a. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
b. Beclomethasone (Vanceril)
c. Racemic epinephrine (Vaponephrin)
d. Albuterol (Proventil)
28. All of the following are true concerning the
use of a transcutaneous PO2 monitor
EXCEPT:
a. A low calibration point is done with a
"zero" solution or gas.
b. The site should be changed every 3 to
4 hours.
c. Skin temperature control should be set
at 37C.
d. PtcO2 values should be correlated
with
arterial
blood
samples
periodically.
29. In which of the following patient should
pressure support be initiated?
a. A patient with absent or depressed
respiratory drives with an endotracheal
tube in place.
b. A patient receiving SIMV who exhibits
signs of increased spontaneous
ventilatory effort.
c. A patient with low lung compliance,
atelectasis, and severe refractory
hypxemia.
d. A patient in the postanesthesia care
unit (PACU) who requires short-term
ventilatory support.
30. Which of the following is most effective in
destroying all micro organisms?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Acetic acid
Pasteurization
Ethylene oxide
Isopropyl alchohol
b. decrease the SIMV rate
c. increase the peak flow
d. increase the tidal volume to 800 Ml
31. The respiratory therapist is using a pulse
oximeter to monitor SpO2 on a 54 year old
man who was rescued from a fire. The
electrode is placed on the left ear lobe. The
measured SpO2 is 90%. However, the
patient's SaO2, obtained from an arterial
blood sample analyzed by a co-oximeter is
79%. Which of the following is the most likely
explanation for the difference in saturation?
a. Operator error
b. Pigmentation of the patient's skin
c. Presence of increased COHb
d. Oximeter out of calibration
32. The respiratory therapist is reviewing a
postoperative patient's care plan. The
physician has changed the patient's therapy
from incentive spirometry to IPPB. What is
the most likely goal, for this change?
a. Delivery
of
aerosolized
bronchodilators.
b. Improvement in alveolar oxygenation.
c. Prevention of lower lobe atelectasis.
d. Promotion of airway clearance.
33. All of the following statements about
endotracheal intubation of an adult are
correct EXCEPT:
a. A curved blade is used to directly lift
epiglottis.
b. The patient's head should be placed in
the sniffing position.
c. The patient should be hyper
oxygenated before each intubation
attempt.
d. An intubation attempt should be
discontinued after 10-20 seconds if
unsuccessful and manual ventilation
resumed.
34. A patient receiving mechanical ventilation
has the following ventilator settings and
arterial blood gas results:
Ventilator Settings
Blood Gases
Mode
SIMV
pH
7.56
VT
750 ml
PaCO2
26 torr
Set Rate
12
HCO3
22 mEq/L
Spon Rate 0
PaO2
92 torr
FIO2
SaO2
96%
0.55
Which of the following should
recommend?
a. decrease the FIO2 to 0.50
you
35. A physician orders intubation and
mechanical ventilation in the CMVassist/control mode for a 190 lb adult male
patient with ARDS. Which of the following
ventilatory parameters would be most
appropriate for this patient?
Rate/min
VT (mL)
A
10
800
B
18
1300
C
8
900
D
20
450
a.
b.
c.
d.
A
B
C
D
36. A physician orders a "T-tube trial" for a
patient receiving ventilatory support in the
assist-control mode with an FIO2 of 0.50.
What FIO2 would you deliver to the patient
during her spontaneous breathing period?
a. 0.30
b. 0.70
c. 0.60
d. 0.50
37. Which of the following statements is true
regarding to a fenestrated trach tube ( with
a non-fenestrated inner cannula ) when it is
used on a spontaneously breathing patient?
a. Cuff must be inflated when the trach
tube opening is plugged
b. Cuff must be deflated when the trach
tube opening is plugged
c. Patient may talk when the trach tube
opening is plugged and cuff inflated
d. This tube should not be used on a
spontaneously breathing patient
38. Mr. Benedict, a 40 years old, 60 kg patient
has just been intubated with a size 7 ETT.
Following intubation and inflation of the cuff,
the cuff pressure reads 42 cmh20. What
should the RT do at this time?
a. Add air to the cuff
b. Remove air from the cuff
c. Do nothing because the cuff
pressure is within the normal range
d. Change to a size 6 ETT
39. Before the suctioning of a patient,
auscultation reveals coarse breath sounds
during both inspiration and expiration. After
suctioning, the coarseness disappears, but
expiratory wheezing is heard over both lung
fields. What is most likely the problem?
a. The patient has developed a mucous
plug and should undergo
bronchoscopy.
b. Secretions are still present and the
patient should be suctioned again
c. The patient has hyperactive airways
and has developed bronchospasm.
d. A pneumothorax has developed and
the patient needs a chest tube
40. What is the standard size for endotracheal
or tracheostomy tube adapters?
a. 22 mm internal diameter
b. 15 mm external diameter
c. 22 mm external diameter
d. 15 mm internal diameter
41. Ideally, the distal tip of a properly positioned
endotracheal tube (in an adult man) should
be positioned about how far above the
carina?
a. 1 to 3 cm
b. 3 to 6 cm
c. 7 to 9 cm
d. 4 to 6 inches
42. When properly positioned and with the cuff
inflated, the mask of a laryngeal mask
airway (LMA) seals off the:
a. soft palate
b. nasopharynx
c. esophagus
d. laryngeal inlet
43. A patient on mechanical ventilation was
given 4 puffs of albuterol 5 minutes ago
through a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) and
holding chamber placed 18 inches from the
circuit’s airway connector. The patient
continues to exhibit clinical signs of
increased airway resistance but has
demonstrated no apparent side effects from
the drug. Which of the following would you
recommend at this time?
a. Remove the circuit-holding chamber
and repeat MDI actuation
b. Discontinue the albuterol and switch
to a systemic bronchodilator
c. Move the MDI closer to the patient’s
airway and repeat use
d. Repeat administration until the
desired response is achieved
44. A patient receiving ventilatory support is
being provided with humidification using a
heat-moisture exchanger (HME). A
physician orders a bronchodilator drug
administered through a metered-dose
inhaler (MDI) via the ventilator circuit.
Which of the following must be performed to
ensure delivery of the drug to the patient?
a. A heated humidifier should replace
the HME when using the MDI
b. The inspiratory flow setting of the
ventilator should be increased
c. The HME must be removed from the
circuit during MDI use
d. The VT setting of the ventilator
should be decreased.
45. Which of the following nebulizers uses a
piezoelectric transducer to generate liquid
particle aerosols?
a. hydrodynamic nebulizer
b. centrifugal nebulizer
c. ultrasonic nebulizer
d. jet nebulizer
46. A physician has ordered the antiviral agent
ribavirin (Virazole) to be administered by
aerosol to an infant with bronchiolitis. Which
of the following devices would you
recommend in this situation?
a. ultrasonic (piezoelectric) nebulizer
b. hydrodynamic (Babbington)
nebulizer
c. small-particle aerosol generator
(SPAG)
d. large-volume heated jet nebulizer
47. What is the minimum flow setting for a
simple mask applied to an adult?
a. 3 L/min
b. 5 L/min
c. 8 L/min
d. 10 L/min
48. You design an air-entrainment system that
mixes air with O2 at a fixed ratio of 1:7 (1 L
air to 7 L O2). About what O2 will this device
provide?
a. 40%
b. 33%
c. 80%
d. 90%
49. You must deliver the highest possible FIO2
to a 67-year-old man with pulmonary
edema breathing at a rate of 35/min. Which
of the following O2 delivery systems would
be most appropriate?
a. partial rebreathing mask at 12 to 15
L/min
b. simple mask at 12 to 15 L/min
c. nonrebreathing mask at 12 to 15
L/min
d. aerosol mask with nebulizer set to
100%
50. A physician orders 2 L/min O2 through a
simple mask to a 33-year-old postoperative
woman with moderate hypoxemia breathing
room air (PaO2 = 52 mm Hg). What would
be the correct action at this time?
a. Recommend a flow of at least 5
L/min to wash out carbon dioxide
(CO2).
b. Carry out the physician’s prescription
exactly as written
c. Recommend that the mask be
changed to a cannula at 2 L/min.
d. Do not apply the O2 until the medical
director has been contacted
51. The gauge on an E cylinder of O2 reads 800
psig. About how long would the contents of
this cylinder last, until completely empty, at
a flow of 3 L/min?
a. 1 hour 45 minutes
b. 1 hour 15 minutes
c. 2 hours 10 minutes
d. 2 hours 40 minutes
52. The respiratory therapist is called to a
patient's room to check the oxygen setup.
The flow to the patient's mask is supplied
by an air flow meter running at 15 L/min and
an O2 flow meter running at 15 L/min. The
delivered oxygen percentage from this
device is which of the following?
a. 24%
b. 35%
c. 40%
d. 60%
53. You are planning a patient transport that will
take about 1 hours. The patient requires
manual ventilation with 10 L/min of O2.
What is the minimum number of full E
cylinders you would take with you?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
54. A well-fitted nonrebreathing mask, adjusted
so that the patient’s inhalation does not
deflate the bag (flows approximately 10
L/min), should provide inspired O2
concentrations in what range?
a. 45% to 60%
b. 55% to 70%
c. 70% to 85%
d. 75% to 90%
55. A physician wants a stable FIO2 of 0.5 for a
newborn infant with severe hypoxemia.
Which of the following systems would you
select?
a. O2 hood with blender and unheated
humidifier
b. O2 hood with blender and heated
humidifier
c. O2 hood with blender and unheated
humidifier
d. infant incubator with O2 input of 10
L/min
56. You are giving a 80% He:20% O2 mixture to
an asthmatic patient through a
nonrebreathing mask with a compensated
Thorpe tube O2 flowmeter set at 8 L/min.
What is the actual flow being delivered to
the patient?
a. 12 L/min
b. 10 L/min
c. 14 L/min
d. 18 L/min
57. What cylinder factor is used to compute the
duration of flow for a 22 cu/ft O2 or air E
cylinder?
a. 0.16
b. 0.28
c. 3.14
d. 2.41
58. Given the following data, what is the
patient’s total arterial O2 content?
pH 7.41
HCO3 26 mEq/L
PaCO2 37 mm Hg
SaO2 95%
PaO2 88 mm Hg
Hb 14 g/dL
a. 12 mL/dL
b. 14 mL/dL
c. 16 mL/dL
d. 18 mL/dL
59. An adult patient in respiratory failure has
the following blood gases on a simple
oxygen mask at 8 L/min: pH=7.19;
PaCO2=68 torr; HCO3=28 mEq/L; PaO2= 85
torr. The attending physician orders
intubation and ventilatory support. Which of
the following FIO2 would you initially select
for this patient?
a. 0.25
b. 0.30
c. 0.45
d. 0.60
60. A 35 year old postoperative is in no apparent
distress and has clear breath sounds. Which
of the following should the respiratory
therapist select to prevent atelectasis?
a. IPPV
b. Incentive spirometer
c. Mechanical chest percussor
d. Aerosolized bronchodilator therapy
61. If a patient's pulse rate increases by 40/min
during a respiratory care treatment, the
respiratory therapist should do which of the
following?
a. Terminate the treatment and notify the
physician of the patient's reaction.
b. Continue the treatment as ordered and
and monitor the patient's pulse.
c. Shorten the duration of the treatment.
d. Let the patient rest for 5 minutes and
then continue the treatment as
ordered.
62. After a bland aerosol treatment rhonchi are
detected. The respiratory therapist should:
a. Encourage the patient to cough.
b. Recommend administration of a
bronchodilator.
c. Recommend
discontinuation
of
therapy.
d. Discontinue the treatment and
administer oxygen.
63. Which of the following would the respiratory
therapist select to treat a patient who has
obstructive sleep apnea?
a. Nasal cannula
b. Chest cuirass ventilator
c. Bilevel positive airway pressure
d. Airway pressure-release ventilation
64. The recommend time
endotracheal suctioning is:
a. 1-5 sec
b. 5-10 sec
c. 10-15 sec
d. 15-20 sec
duration
for
65. You enter a room alone and find a patient
unresponsive and without pulse. You call for
help and a defibrillator but no one responds.
Which of the following actions would be
appropriate in this case?
a. immediately deliver three precordial
thumps
b. wait for an AED/defibrillator to arrive
c. intubate and begin mechanical
ventilation
d. immediately
begin
chest
compressions
66. Types of reservoir cannulas include which of
the following?
I.
Mustache
II.
Pulse demand
III.
Pendant
IV.
High flow
a.
I and II
b.
II and III
c.
I, III, and IV
d.
II, III, and IV
67. Which of the following can help to minimize
the likelihood of mucosal trauma during
suctioning?
I. Use a large catheter as possible
II. Rotate the catheter while withdrawing
III. Use a rigid catheter as possible
IV. Limit the amount of negative pressure
a. I,II
b. II,IV
c. III,IV
d. I,II,IV
68. While checking a crash cart for intubation
equipment, you find the following: suction
equipment, O2 apparatus, two laryngoscope
and assorted blades, five tube, Magill
forceps,
lubricating
gel,
and
local
anesthesia, what is missing?
I.
Berman OPA
II.
Syringe(s)
III.
Resuscitator bag or mask
IV.
Tube stylet
a. I,II,III
b. II,IV
c. II,III,IV
d. I,II,III,IV
69. If a Venturi mask is set at 28% and the liter
flow is set above the set liter flow prescribed
on the device, what FIO2 is being delivered?
a. 28%
b. 32%
c. 100%
d. 80%
70. Your ventilated patient has an exhaled tidal
volume of 700 mL. Because of refractory
hypoxemia, 6 cm of PEEP therapy is started.
The peak pressure is 25 cm water. The
compliance factor has been determined to
be 4 mL/cm water. Calculate the static
compliance (Cst) for this patient.
a. 19 mL/cm water
b. 24 mL/cm water
c. 28 mL/cm water
d. 32 mL/cm water
71. Your ventilated patient has an exhaled tidal
volume of 700 mL. Because of refractory
hypoxemia, 6 cm of PEEP therapy is started.
The peak pressure is 25 cm water. The
compliance factor has been determined to
be 4 mL/cm water. Calculate the dynamic
complance (Cdyn) for this
a. 16 mL/cm water
b. 19 mL/cm water
c. 24 mL/cm water
d. 32 mL/cm water
72. The therapist is assisting in a synchronized
cardioversion procedure for a patient with
atrial flutter. The patient is appropriately
sedated and breathing spontaneously at a
rate of 14/min. After two shocks of 100J and
200 J, the rhythm changes to ventricular
fibrillation. The therapist should immediately
perform
a. Synchronized shock at 300 J
b. Unsynchronized shock at 300J
c. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
d. Carotid artery massage
73. You are going to assess in the ambulance
transport of the 25-year old patient. The
patient has an oral Et tube, an you are
going to manually ventilate his lung during
the trip. Which of the following would you
choose to help you ensure that the ET tube
stays properly placed with in the trachea?
a. Pulse oximeter
b. Capnograph
c. ECG
d. Disposable exhaled CO2 detector
74. A patient in the Emergency Department is
being treated for a large right-sided tension
pneumothorax. The treatment should consist
of placing a chest tube at the:
a. 2nd or 3rd intercostal space along the
mid-clavicular line, below the intended
rib
b. 2nd or 3rd intercostal space along the
mid-clavicular line , above the
intended rib
c. 5th through 7th intercostal space along
the mid-axillary line, above the
intended rib
d. 5th through 7th intercostal space along
the mid-axillary line, below the
intended rib
75. You are asked to position a patient for
orotracheal intubation. You should place the
patient's head
a. in the sniffing position
b. straight with the torso, with the neck
hyperextended
c. tilted forward toward the chest
d. turned to the right, with the neck
hyperextended
76. For single-rescuer resuscitation of a child (18 years old), the proper rate, depth of
external
chest
compressions
and
compression to breath ratio is:
a. Rate of 100/min, depth of one inch and
ratio of 30:2
b. Rate of 80/min, depth of 1 to 1½ inches
and ratio of 15:2.
c. Rate of 100/min, depth of 1 to 1½
inches and ratio of 30:2
d. Rate of 80/min, a depth of 1½ to 2
inches and ratio of 30:2.
77. A Pseudomononas outbreak has occurred in
the bronchoscopy unit. In order to eliminate
contamination of the equipment and spread
of nosocomial infection, the bronchoscopes
should be sterilized by:
a. Steam autoclave
b. Gluteraldehyde
c. enzyme solution
d. ethylene oxide
78. A 70-kg (154-lb) patient with a stroke is being
mechanically ventilated in the A/C mode with
the following settings:
I:E ratio, 1:2
FIO2, 0.35
Rate, 12
Mechanical dead space, 150 mL
His ABG results are as follows:
pH, 7.30
PaCO2, 51 torr
HCO3, 24 mEq/L
PaO2, 107 torr
On this basis of this information, it would be
most appropriate to recommend:
a. Decreasing the FIO2
b. Decreasing the minute ventilation
c. Increasing the respiratory rate
d. Decreasing the mechanical dead
space
79. A year 21 old man arrives in the emergency
department (ED) after being rescued from a
house fire. Physical examination reveals
burns on the upper chest and face, and
marked edema of the face and oropharynx.
The results of an arterial blood gas sample
obtained while the patient was breathing
room air are below:
Ph - 7.55
PaCO2 - 26 torr
PaO2 - 105 torr
HCO3 - 22 mEq/L
BE - 0 mEq/L
Based on the patient's condition at this time,
the respiratory therapist should recommend
which of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Intubate the patient
Administer IPPB with ethanol
Administer metaproterenol ( Alupent )
Administer aerosol therapy
80. Over the past three hours, the RRT has
recorded the data in Table 5-2 on the
ventilator flowsheet of a 70-kg patient who
is receiving mechanical ventilation in the
control mode.
Ventilator Flowsheet Data
TIME
PPLATEAU PIP
20 cm
30 cm
H2O
H2O
1900 700 cc
21 cm
35 cm
2000 700 cc
H2O
H2O
2100 700 cc
22 cm
50 cm
H2O
H2O
What should the RRT do in response to this
data?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
VTEXHALED
Reposition the endotracheal tube.
Increase the pressure limit.
Perform endotracheal suctioning.
Administer a bronchodilator.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III, IV only
d. I, III only
81. A 65-year-old COPD patient is admitted to
the emergency department complaining of
shortness of breath. His family informs the
physician that the patient recently caught
the flu and that his condition has worsened
during the past few days. He appears
dyspneic and has an irregular ventilator
pattern with a ventilatory rate of 30
breaths/min. His VT is 400 cc, and his radial
pulse is 122 beats/min. The patient is lucid
and responds to questioning. Room Air
ABGs reveal the following:
PO2 50 torr
PCO2 68 torr
pH 7.29
HCO3 32 mEq/liter
SO2 75%
[Hb] 18 g%
A nasal cannula with a flow rate of 6
L/min. is installed for this patient per
physician’s orders. When the RRT returned to
this patient’s room after being away for about
20 minutes, she observes the patient to be
asleep. His ventilator rate is now 10
breaths/min., and his tidal volume has fallen to
300 cc. He is confused, does not respond well
to questioning, and slumbers off to sleep again.
Which statement(s) correctly describe(s) this
situation?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
The fact that this patient is no longer
tachypneic is a sign of improvement.
His somnolence and reduced
sensorium indicate the possibility of
CO2 narcosis.
The oxygen administered to this patient
is being provided by the appropriate
device for this situation.
The patient should be left alone (i.e.,
not awakened) because this is the first
time in a few days that he has been
able to rest.
a. I, IV only
b. III, IV only
c. II only
d. I only
82. In establishing a respiratory care plan for a
cystic fibrosis patient, which of the following
types of equipment would be the most
therapeutically useful?
a. Incentive spirometer
b. Positive expiratory pressure (PEP)
mask
c. Pneumotachometer
d. Ultrasonic nebulizer
83. The RT is setting up a pneumatically
powered mechanical ventilator in the home
of an oxygen-dependent chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD) patient. After
adjusting the ventilator settings, the RRT
connects the patient’s liquid oxygen system
to the ventilator. Despite the connection to
this pressure source, the ventilator’s lowpressure alarm continuously sounds. What
might be the cause of this situation?
a. The liquid oxygen system is an
inappropriate supply source for the
ventilator.
b. The low pressure alarm is set too
low.
c. The liquid oxygen system’s flowcontrol valve needs to be opened
further.
d. The liquid oxygen system’s pressurerelease valve is stuck in the open
position.
84. While administering an IPPB treatment, the
respiratory therapist notices that the
pressure rises slowly toward the set
pressure, but reaches the set pressure only
when the patient actively exhales. Which of
the following is the most likely explanation?
a. The inspiratory flow is too high.
b. The nebulizer drive line is kinked.
c. There is a leak in the expiratory valve.
d. The expiratory valve sticks before
opening.
85. For drainage of the superior and inferior
lingula segments, the patient should be
positioned:
1. With the foot of the bed elevated 14
inches
2. One fourth turn up from the front-down
position on the bed
3. One fourth turn up from the back-down
position on the bed
4. With the foot of the bed elevated 30
degrees
5. Flat on his or her back
a. 1 and 3
b. 4 and 5
c. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 5
86. After several days of receiving PD and
percussion therapy to all lobes in the left
lung, the patient’s chest radiograph shows
improvement except for the lateral basal
segment of the left lower lobe. In what
position should he now be placed for PD?
a. Right side down with the head of the
bed down 30 degrees
b. Right side down with bed flat
c. Left side down with the head of the
bed down 30 degrees
d. Flat on his back with the bed flat and
a pillow beneath the knees
87. Which of the following is the most
appropriate airway clearance method for an
infant with cystic fibrosis?
a. Exercise
b. PDPV
c. MIE
d. PEP
88. In assessing an adult outpatient for airway
clearance therapy, you notice the following:
(1) no history of cystic fibrosis or
bronchiectasis, (2) sputum production of 30
to 50 ml/day, (3) an effective cough, and (4)
good hydration. Which of the following
would you recommend?
a. MIE
b. IPV
c. PDPV
d. PEP
89. A physician orders postural drainage for a
patient with aspiration pneumonia in the
superior segments of the left lower lobe.
Which of the following positions would you
recommend for this patient?
a. patient supine with a pillow under
knees, bed flat
b. head down, patient prone with a
pillow under abdomen
c. patient prone with a pillow under
abdomen, bed flat
d. head down, patient supine with a
pillow under knees
90. A physician orders postural drainage for a
patient with an abscess in the right middle
lobe. Which of the following positions would
you recommend for this patient?
a. patient supine with a pillow under
knees, bed flat
b. head down, patient prone with a
pillow under abdomen
c. patient prone with a pillow under
abdomen, bed flat
d. head down, patient half-rotated to
left, right lung up
91. During the administration of IPPB, the
respiratory care practitioner notices the
machine repeatedly cycles on shortly after
the patient has begun expiration. In order to
correct this problem, the practitioner should
check which of the following controls?
I. sensitivity control
II. Flow control
III. Inspiratory pressure control
IV. Rate control
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. I and IV only
92. Which of the following are appropriate
volume goals for intermittent positivepressure breathing (IPPB) therapy?
1. 10 to 15 ml/kg ideal body weight
2. At least 30% of the inspiratory capacity
(IC)
3. Pressure level as high as 30 to 35 cm
H2O
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1
93. You are working in the ER when an
automobile crash victim arrives by
ambulance. She is conscious, screaming
and hysterical from the extreme pain of a
broken lower leg. What would you
recommend for sedation?
a. Morphine sulfate
b. Ibuprofen
c. Succinylcholine chloride
d. Ipratropium bromide
94. You are administering an aerosolized
bronchodilator to your patient. Her
pretreatment PR was 85 bpm. You would
stop the treatment if her PR reached
a. 90 bpm
b. 100 bpm
c. 110 bpm
d. 120 bpm
95. A patient in cardiogenic shock has a blood
pressure of 70/40. The respiratory therapist
should recommend which of the following
medications to treat this patient’s
hypotension?
a. Dopamine (Intropin)
b. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
c. Nitroprusside (Nipride)
d. Furosemide (Lasix)
96. The following hemodynamic data is
recorded for a patient:
Heart rate 86/min
Cardiac output 3.9 L/min
SVR 3200 dynes. sec. cm-5
Blood pressure 162/98
Which of the following medications is the
most appropriate recommendation?
a. albuterol (Proventil)
b. furosemide (Lasix)
c. dopamine (Intropin)
d. nitroprusside (Nipride)
97. A physician has ordered albuterol
(Proventil) and deoxyribonuclease (DNase)
by aerosol for a cystic fibrosis patient who
also receives postural drainage TID. You
should administer these therapies in which
of the following sequences?
a. deoxyribonuclease (DNase), postural
drainage, albuterol (Proventil)
b. postural drainage, albuterol
(Proventil), deoxyribonuclease
(DNase)
c. albuterol (Proventil),
deoxyribonuclease (DNase), postural
drainage
d. deoxyribonuclease (DNase),
albuterol (Proventil), postural
drainage
98. You are assisting in the treatment and
evaluation of a heroin overdose patient in
the ER who is hypoventilating. The
physician asks you to recommend a drug to
help reverse the effects of the narcotic and
enable the patient's breathing to return to
normal. Which of the following drugs would
you recommend?
a. vecuronium (Norcuron)
b. fentanyl (Sublimaze)
c. indomethacin (Indocin)
d. naloxone (Narcan)
99. Which of the following is the most
appropriate method to open a patient’s
airway who is suspected of having a neck
fracture?
a. jaw thrust maneuver
b. head-tilt chin lift
c. hyperextension of the neck
d. place the patient in Trendelenburg
100. During properly performed external
chest compression on infants, how much
should the sternum be compressed?
a. 0.5 to 1.0 inch
b. 1.0 to 1.5 inches
c. 1.5 to 2.0 inches
d. 2.0 to 2.5 inches
101. What is the initial energy level for a
biphasic defibrillation of an adult patient?
a. 120 to 200 J
b. 200 to 300 J
c. 300 to 360 J
d. 400 J
102. The respiratory therapist is called to the
emergency department to assess a 3-yearold male brought in after being pulled from
the bottom of a swimming pool. He is
unresponsive and pale with peripheral
cyanosis.
Vital signs are below:
Heart rate 52/min
Blood pressure 56/24 mm Hg
Respiratory rate 10/min with intercostal
retractions
Temperature 33oC (91.4oF)
Which of the following treatments are
appropriate?
I. endotracheal intubation
II. Heated aerosol mask at 100% O2
III. Manual ventilation with 100% O2
IV. Chest compressions
a. I and III only
b. II and IV only
c. I and IV only
d. I, III and IV only
103. What is the normal disparity between
end-tidal PCO2 and PaCO2?
a. End-tidal PCO2 is 1 to 5 mm Hg
higher than PaCO2
b. End-tidal PCO2 is 1 to 5 mm Hg less
than PaCO2
c. End-tidal PCO2 is 5 to 10 mm Hg
less than PaCO2
d. End-tidal PCO2 is 5 to 10 mm Hg
higher than PaCO2
104. Therapeutic indications for fiberoptic
bronchoscopy include which of the
following?
1. Inspect the airways
2. Retrieve foreign bodies
3. Obtain specimens for analysis
4. Aid endotracheal intubation
a. 2 and 4
b. 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
105. During fiberoptic bronchoscopy, a
patient receiving intravenous fentanyl
exhibits signs of respiratory depression.
Which of the following would you
recommend?
a. Decrease the oxygen flow rate and
continue monitoring
b. Increase the oxygen flow rate and
continue monitoring
c. Immediately administer naloxone
(Narcan)
d. Immediately administer neostigmine
or prostigmine
106. The respiratory therapist notices on a
patient’s chest tube drainage system that
there is fluctuation of the water level in the
water-seal chamber with each patient
breath and air bubbles seen only in the
suction control chamber, which has a
suction pressure of 15 cm H2O. The most
appropriate action is which of the following?
a. Withdraw the chest tube until
bubbling starts in the water-seal
chamber
b. Recommend a chest radiograph to
determine whether the
pneumothorax has resolved
c. Clamp the chest tube and check for
leaks
d. Insert the chest tube farther, until
bubbling stops in the vacuum
chamber
107. Which of the following is the LEAST
important area for the respiratory therapist
(RT) to discuss with the home care patient?
a. Pathology of the disease process
b. Cleaning of equipment
c. Side effects of prescribed therapy
d. Importance of proper therapy
techniques
108. Which of the following will best
determine a patient’s compliance with the
smoking cessation program?
a. PaO2
b. SpO2
c. FEV1
d. CO monitoring
109. A 15 year old patient with cystic fibrosis
has copius amounts of secretions. She
cannot tolerate PDT because she gets a
headache
when
tipped
head-down.
Aerosolized bronchodilators and mucolytic
agents are ordered every 4 hrs by SVN.
What else would you recommend?
a. Add incentive Spirometry
b. Give the aerosolized medications by
IPPB therapy.
c. Add PEP therapy
d. Modify the PDT position so that the
head is not lower that the patient’s
body.
110. What is the average distance from the tip
of a properly positioned oral endotracheal
tube to the incisors of an adult man?
a. 16 to 18 cm
b. 19 to 21 cm
c. 21 to 23 cm
d. 24 to 26 cm
111. The therapeutic objective in the
management of a patient who has a head
trauma and is receiving ventilatory support
is to:
a. Release air from the pleural space
b. Lower the minute ventilation
c. increase intrathoracic pressure
d. Reduce intracranial pressure
112. A pulmonary rehabilitation patient who is
exercising on a treadmill complains of
shortness of breath and sudden, intense
central chest pain. The problems do not go
away when resting. The patient's pulse is
thready, and the blood pressure is lower
than normal. What is the FIRST thing that the
respiratory therapist should recommend?
a. Arterial blood gas
b. Electrocardiogram
c. Serum electrolytes
d. Chest radiograph
113. To calculate a dead space to tidal volume
ratio (VD/VT), which of the following must be
known?
I. PaO2
II. PvO2
III. PaCO2
IV. PECO2
a. I, II
b. III, IV
c. II, IV
d. II, III, IV
114. A patient should be extubated after a full
inspiration to:
a. Ensure CO2 removal
b. Provide a large enough volume for
an effective cough to remove
secretions
c. Avoid injuring the vocal cords
d. Ensure that the lungs are full of
supplemental oxygen
115. A 60-year-old patient with a diagnosis of
bilateral lower-lobe pneumonia is brought to
the emergency department. An assessment
reveals a temperature of 38.5° C (101.3° F),
a respiratory rate of 35 breaths/min, a pulse
of 115 beats/min, and decreased breath
sounds in both lower lobes; furthermore,
she is not alert. What type of therapy should
the respiratory therapist suggest?
a. IS
b. IPPB
c. Flutter valve
d. PEP
116. The following settings are used on a
ventilator with a constant flow pattern. What
is the calculated inspiratory: expiratory ratio?
RR 30 bpm
FLOW
60 L/min
IT 0.5 sec
FIO2
100%
a. 1:1
b. 1:2
c. 1:3
d. Insufficient data to calculate answer
117.
Which of the following bronchial
hygiene techniques is most suitable for
small infants?
a. Postural drainage, percussion,
vibration
b. Positive airway pressure
c. Aggressive suctioning with a 14 Fr
catheter
d. High frequency oscillation
118.
Causes of weaning failure:
a. RSBI > 100
b. PaCO2>40 mmHg
c. RR >20
d. All of the choices
119. When using a straight blade to intubate
an adult patient, the tip of the blade should
be placed:
a. Above the epiglottis
b. Directly on the epiglottis
c. In the vallecula
d. Past the epiglottis at the vocal cords
120. All of the following medications are given
to the patient as a management to his case.
Which of the following is a bronchodilator?
a. Prednisone
b. Albuterol
c. Pneumococcal vaccine
d. Ipratropium
e. Metoprolol
121. An air entertainment type mask would
most likely be used on a patient suffering
from which of the following disorders?
a. Advanced stage emphysema
b. Bronchial asthma
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning
d. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
e. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
122. The RT is administering 5L oxygen via a
nasal cannula to a 70 kg patient with a
normal ventilator pattern. which of the
following most closely approximates this
patient’s FiO2?
a. 30%
b. 35%
c. 40%
d. 45%
e. 50%
123. Which of the following oxygen delivery
device(s) can provide an accurate FiO2
regardless of the patient’s ventilator
pattern?
I.
Venturi mask
II. Simple face mask
III. Nasal cannula
IV. Nasal catheter
V. Partial rebreathing mask
a. I
b. V
c. I, V
d. II, III, IV
e. II, III, IV, V
124. A patient receiving 3 L/min O2 through a
nasal cannula has a measured SpO2 of
93% and no clinical signs of hypoxemia. At
this point, what should you recommend?
a. Decreasing the flow to 2 L/min
and rechecking the SpO2
b. Maintaining the therapy as is and
rechecking the SpO2 on the next
shift
c. Increasing the flow to 4 L/min and
rechecking the SpO2
d. Discontinuing the O2 therapy
125. The patient exhibits bradycardia. Which
of the following is a drug to address this
problem?
a. Atropine
b. Calcium gluconate
c. Epinephrine
d. Metoprolol
e. Aspirin
126. Which of the following best describes
the role of atropine in rapid sequence
intubation?
a. Decreases the heart rate
b. Dilates the pupils
c. Dries airway secretions
d. Increases the blood pressure
127. Blood gas results for a patient receiving
mechanical ventilation with an Fl02 0.60 and
PEEP of 5 cm H20 are as follows:
pH
7.41
PaC02
32 torr
Pa02
55 torr
HC03
22 mEq/L
BE
2 mEq/L
Which of the following may help correct the
blood gas abnormality?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Increase Fl02
Increase peak flow rate
Increase PEEP
Sedate the patient
a. III only
b. I and II only
c. I, II and III only
d. III and IV only
128. A COPD patient has the following arterial
blood gas data while breathing 2 liters/min.
of oxygen from a nasal cannula.
Pa02
55 torr
PaC02
70 torr
pH
7.30
HC03
34mEq/L
B.E.
10 mEq/L
The patient complains of increased
shortness of breath. The physician wants to
initiate ventilator support. Which of the
following forms of mechanical ventilator
assistance would be appropriate for the RT
to recommend?
a. Non-invasive positive pressure
ventilation
b. Nasal CPAP breathing
c. Controlled positive pressure
breathing
d. Inverse ratio ventilation
129. A patient receiving postoperative
incentive spirometry asks if this therapy will
help get rid of his snoring, daytime
sleepiness and morning headaches. In
communicating this information to the
patient’s surgeon, you would recommend
which of the following?
a. Lateral neck radiograph
b. Arterial blood gas
c. Polysomnography
d. Diffusing capacity
130. A patient is receiving oxygen by a non
rebreathing mask at 8 L/min. The respiratory
therapist notices that the reservoir bag on
the mask empties during inspiration. The
therapist should immediately:
a. Change the partial rebreathing mask
b. Remove the mask
c. Increase the flow
d. Intubate the patient
131. A patient with endotracheal tube in place
is receiving oxygen enrichment by a heated
all purpose nebulizer. Water is collecting in
the delivery hose. The respiratory therapist
should:
a. Reduce the oxygen flow
b. Drain the tubing frequently
c. Unplug the theater
d. Position the tubing so that the
condensate drains back into the
reservoir
132. A volume ventilator is set to cycle on at
a respiratory rate of 12 BPM. The I:E ratio is
1:1.5. Which of the following inspiratory and
expiratory times are correct?
Inspiratory
Expiratory
a. 1.0 seconds
2.5 seconds
b. 1.5 seconds
3.0 seconds
c. 2.0 seconds
3.0 seconds
d. 2.5 seconds
2.5 seconds
133. At an FiO2 of 0.30 a pulse oximeter
attached to the right index finger or a 6 week
old neonate displays an SaO2 of 87% and a
pulse of 64/min. A heart monitor reads a
simultaneous heart rate of 120/min. Which of
the following would be the most appropriate
action?
a. Suction the neonate
b. Increase the FiO2 to 0.40
c. Reposition the pulse oximeter
d. Ventilate the neonate with 100%
02
134. A 1 week old neonate with RDS currently
receiving 10 cm H2O CPAP through nasal
sprongs with an FiO2 of 0.60. Evaluation
reveals intercostal and sternal retractions
and an SpO2 of 88%. The neonate is
breathing at a rate of 68/min. Which of the
following should the respiratory therapist
recommend?
a. Change to mask CPAP
b. Institute mechanical ventilation
c. Make no changes at the present
time
d. Increase the CPAC level to 12cm
H2O
135. A patient is receiving non-invasive
positive pressure ventilation by full-face
mask. Initial measurements are:
IPAP 15 cm H2O
EPAP 5 cm H2O
Oxygen 3 L/min
Measured tidal volume 460-600 mL
Three hours later, the measured tidal
volume is 300-400 mL with the same
settings. Which of the following could
explain the decreased tidal volume?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1. Inadequate oxygen flow
2. Gastric distension
3. Decreased compliance
4. Increased diuresis
1&3
1&4
2&3
2&4
136. For which of the following patients would
application of noninvasive positive pressure
ventilation (NPPV) likely be most difficult?
a. a patient with acute exacerbation
of COP
b. a patient with Duchenne muscular
dystrophy
c. a patient with copious secretions
requiring suctioning
d. a
patient
with
cardiogenic
pulmonary edema
137. A patient has a corrected tidal volume of
600mL, PIP of 65cmH20, Pplat of 48cmH20
and Peep of 12cmH20. Calculate the
patient’s static compliance.
a. 9ml/cmH20
b. 11mL/cmH20
c. 13ml/cmH2
d. 17ml/cmH20
138. A 70 kg patient receiving mechanical
ventilation has a tidal volume of 500 ml,
frequency of 12, PIP of 45 and PEEP of 10.
When an inspiratory hold plateau of .5 sec
is activated, the static pressure is 35
cmH2O. Determine the patient’s dynamic
compliance.
a. 25. 3mL/ cmH20
b. 11.2 mL/cmH20
c. 8.7 mL/cmH20
d. 11. 1 mL/ cmH20
139. Moist, crepitant crackles indicate which
of the following?
a. Pulmonary edema
b. Atelectasis
c. Pleural effusion
d. Asthma
140. While administering acetyl cysteine
(Mucomyst) with a hand-held nebulizer, the
respiratory therapist notes that the patient is
developing marked congestion with copious
sputum production. The therapist's most
appropriate action would be to:
a. Dilute the acetyl cysteine with saline.
b. Terminate the therapy and clear
secretions.
c. Increase the dose of acetyl cysteine
to help thin the secretions.
d. Administer the acetyl cysteine with a
positive pressure breathing machine
141. A patient recovering from abdominal
surgery is having difficulty developing an
effective cough. Which of the following
actions would you recommend to aid this
patient in generating a more effective
cough?
1. Coordinating coughing with pain
medication
2. Using the forced expiration
technique (FET)
3. Supplying manual epigastric
compression
4. “Splinting” the operative site
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1, 2, and 4
c. 2, 3, and 4
d. 3 and 4
142. McGill forceps are used during which of
the following procedures?
a. Oral intubation
b. Tracheotomy
c. Insertion of LMA
d. Nasotracheal intubation
143. This airway must be used on the
unconscious patient
a. LMA
b. Nasopharyngeal airway
c. OPA
d. None of the above
144.
Inspiratory stridor is the major sign of
a. Tracheal malacia
b. Glottic edema
c. Tracheal fistula
d. Esophageal intubation
145. A patient has just been intubated and the
CO2 detector on the proximal end of the ET
tube reads near zero. Which statement is the
regarding this situation?
a. The tube is in the trachea
b. The tube is in the esophagus
c. The tube should be withdrawn 2 cm
d. The tube is in the right mainstem
bronchus
146. To prevent hypoxemia during suctioning
an orally intubated patient, you should do
which of the following?
a. press alarm silence prior to suctioning
b. set vacuum pressure to 100–120 mm
Hg before procedure
c. administer 100% oxygen through the
ventilator for 1–2 minutes before
suctioning
d. maintain the set FIO2 and increase
PEEP prior to suctioning
147. An oropharyngeal airway is
appropriate for a patient who:
a. Is having seizures
b. Requires manual ventilation
c. Is conscious and alert
d. Is heavily sedated
least
148. When checking a nondisposable steel
laryngoscope blade prior to intubation, you
note that the bulb does not light when
connected to the handle. Your first step
should be to
a. Recheck
the
handle/
blade
connection
b. Replace the blade
c. Replace the batteries
d. Replace/ check the bulb
149. What is the most negative pressure that
should supply the suction catheter when
suctioning an adult?
a. -60 mmHg
b. -80 mmHg
c. -120 mmHg
d. -160 mmHg
150. After intubation, you determine a right
mainstem intubation. The next appropriate
action to take is to:
a. Continue to ventilate the patient
b. Deflate the cuff and withdraw the tube
1 to 2 cm
c. Inflate the cuff with an additional 3 to
5 mL of air
d. Remove the tube