MCQ FOR B.PHARM, 1ST YEAR, PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
UNIT-1:
1. The condition of equilibrium in the body is known as?
a. hemostasis
b. homeostasis
c. translation
d. transcription BE
e. None of the above
2. Do the body cells also try to bring the condition back to normal?
a. Always
b. yes when condition is severe
c. sometime when condition is mild
d. never
e. None of the above
3. What factors comes under social environment which disturb homeostasis?
a.
temp
b. lack of o2
c. blood glucose level
d. None of the above
e. None of the above
4. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
a. severe disruption in homeostasis can even lead to surgery
b. positive feedback is growth of output signal
c. childbirth after 8th month pregnancy is positive feedback
d. output is generated in form of hormones and nerve impulses
e. None of the above
5. Caspases are involved in:
a. Necrosis
b. Apoptosis
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Inflammation
e. None of the above
6. Coagulative necrosis is founded in which infection
a. TB
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Gangrene
d. Fungal infection
e. None of the above
7. Apoptosis is alternatively called as?
a. Ischemic cell death
b. Programmed cell death
c. Post traumatic cell death
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
8. Irreversible cell injury in cell is?
a. Deposition of Ca++ in mitochondria
b. Swelling
c. Mitotic figure
d. Ribosomal detachment
e. e. None of the above
9. Which of the following is an example of hypertrophy?
a. increased liver size after partial hepatectomy
b. increased size of the female breast at puberty
c. increased respiratory epithelium seen in vitamin A deficiency
d. increased size of the uterus in pregnancy
e. None of the above
10. Regarding atrophy, all are correct EXCEPT
a. Persistence of residual bodies
b. decreased microfilaments
c. Decreased rough endoplasmic reticulum
d. Decreased autophagic vacuoles
e. None of the above
11. Pinocytosis
a. adds to the cell membrane
b. is the uptake of small particulate matter
c. involves the uptake of soluble macromolecules
d. involves the uptake of opsinised bacteria
e. None of the above
12. With regard to mechanisms of cellular adaptation, which of the following statements is TRU
E?
a. Hyperplasia refers to an increase in cell size.
b. TNF always acts as an inhibitor of hyperplasia.
c. The myocardium adapts to increased workload by hypertrophy and hyperplasia.
d.
Barrett's metaplasia is squamous to columnar epithelium in the distal oesophagus
e. None of the above
13. In the mononuclear phagocyte system:
a. Aggregations of macrophages in the kidney are known as Kupffer cells.
b. The life span of tissue macrophages is about three days.
c. Chemotactic stimuli for monocytes include C5a and certain growth factors.
d. Monocytes transform into smaller macrophages when they reach extravascular tissue
e. None of the above
14. Which of the following isn’t a cause of metastatic calcification?
a. Increased secretion of parathyroid hormone.
b. Atherosclerosis.
c. Vitamin D related disorders.
d. Mild hypercalcemia.
e. none of the above
15. Nuclear fragmentation is known as:
a. Karyolysis.
b. Hypoxia.
c. Karyorrhexis.
d. Pyknosis.
e. none of the above
16. Accumulation of abnormal substance of abnormal cell metabolism causes?
a. Storage disease
b. Inborn error of metabolism
c. aging pigment
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
17. “Accumulation of carbon of lung” is an example of?
a. Lack of enzyme machinery to remove
b. Overproduction
c. Inadequate metabolism
d. None of the above
e. None of the above
18. Dystropic calcification is seen in:
a. Rickets
b. Hyper parathyroidism
c. Antheromatous plaque
d. Vitamin – A intoxication
e. None of the above
19. Which of the following condition will cause respiratory alkalosis?
a. Fever
b. Anxiety
c. Laryngeal obstruction
d. Salicylate toxicity
e. None of the above
20. Causes of lactic acidosis include all EXCEPT
a. Acute myocardial infraction
b. Hypoxia
c. Circulatory failure
d. Infection
e. None of the above
21. Increased permeability in acute inflammation is due to?
a. Histamine
b. IL – 2
c. TGFB
d. FGF
e. None of the above
22. The hallmark of acute inflammation is
a. Increased blood flow
b. Increased vascular permeability
c. Vascular stasis
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
23. In acute inflammation the tissue response consist of all EXCEPT:
a. Vasodilation
b. Exudation
c. Neutrophilic response
d. Granuloma formation
e. None of the above
24. Leukocytes move into the tissues from the vasculature (extravasation)
a. by the action of actin and myosin
b. predominantly as monocytes on the first day post injury
c. in response to C3b
d. in response to the Fc fragment of IgG
e. None of the above
25. The most common peripheral circulating lymphocyte is the
a. B-cell
b. T-cell
c. macrophage
d. Natural killer cell
e. None of the above
26. The complex process of leukocyte movement through the blood vessel are all EXCEPT:
a. More protein
b. Adhesion
c. Migration
d. Phagocytosis
e. None of the above
27. Which of the following cell types is most likely to cause histamine-mediated
increased vascular permeability?
a. Endothelial cells
b. Fibroblasts
c. Lymphocytes
d. Mast cells
e. None of the above
28. Following are required for wound healing EXCEPT:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
zinc
copper
vitamin C
calcium
None of the above
29. Primary closure of incised wounds must be done within:
a. 2 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 6 hours
d. 12 hours
e. None of the above
30. Maximum collagen in wound healing is seen at
a. End of the first week
b. End of the second week
c. End of the third week
d. End of 2 months
e. None of the above
31. -Granuloma is formed of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Macrophages
b. Giant cells
c. Eosinophils
d. Lymphocytes
e. None of the above
32. Which of the following types of infraction may be followed by gangrene?
a. Intestinal infraction
b. Cerebral infraction
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Renal infraction C
e. None of the above
UNIT-2
33. COPD is regarded as
a. An inherited autosomal recessive blood disorder which results in excessive destruction of red
blood cells caused by variant or missing genes
b. Characterized by persistent airflow limitation that is usually progressive and associated with
an enhanced chronic inflammatory response in the airways and the lung to noxious particles
or gases.
c. The chronic inflammation is associated with airway hyper‐responsiveness that leads to
recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness and coughing particularly at
night or early morning
d. long-term negative iron balances and Progressive loss of iron stores in the form of
hemosiderin and ferritin
e. None of the above
34. Pathophysiology of COPD includes
a. Destruction of lung parenchyma leads to an imbalance of proteinases/antiproteinases
b. The production IGEmast cell degradationinflammationshortness of breath
c. unable to enter into the portal blood to combine with plasma transferrin binding protein due
to increase in plasma Hepcidin, which blocks the Ferroprotein transporter and causes
degeneration
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
35. Pathophysiology of Bronchitis includes
a. Destruction of lung parenchyma leads to an imbalance of proteinases/antiproteinases
b. The production IGEmast cell degradationinflammationshortness of breath
c. unable to enter into the portal blood to combine with plasma transferrin binding protein due
to increase in plasma Hepcidin, which blocks the Ferroprotein transporter and causes
degeneration
d. mucus production Bronchial walls become thickened and lumen narrows and mucus plug
the airway Alveoli adjacent tto the bronchioles may become damaged and fibrosed 
Alter function of alveolar macrophagesInfection
e. None of the above
36. Panacinar emphysema is
a. Abnormal dilation or destruction of the respiratory bronchiole, the central portion of the
acinus. It is commonly associated with cigarette smoking
b. Refers to enlargement or destruction of all parts of the acinus. Seen in alpha-1 antitrypsin
deficiency and in smokers
c. Distal acinar - the alveolar ducts are predominantly affected.
d. all of the above
e. None of the above
37. Which of the following provides relief for COPD?
a. Broncho dilators
b. albendazole
c. Antibiotic
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
38. Asthma is regarded as
a. An inherited autosomal recessive blood disorder which results in excessive destruction of
red blood cells caused by variant or missing genes
b. Reduces the amount of available striatal dopamine (inhibitory effects)
c. The chronic inflammation is associated with airway hyper‐responsiveness that leads to
recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness and coughing particularly at
night or early morning
d. long-term negative iron balances and Progressive loss of iron stores in the form of
hemosiderin and ferritin
e. None of the above
39. Pathophysiology of Asthma includes
a. Due decresaed serotonin (5- HT), norepinephrine (NE), and dopamine (DA and brain
Derived growth factor (BNDF)
b. The production IGEmast cell degradationinflammationshortness of breath
c. unable to enter into the portal blood to combine with plasma transferrin binding protein due
to increase in plasma Hepcidin, which blocks the Ferroprotein transporter and causes
degeneration
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
40. Blood tests for Investigations of Asthma
a. increase in the number of eosinophils in peripheral blood (> 0.4 × 109/L)
b. decrease in the number of eosinophils in peripheral blood (< 0.4 × 109/L)
c. destroys healthy red blood cells, or an autoimmune reaction occurs
d. inhibition of the number of eosinophils in peripheral blood (< 0.4 × 109/L)
e. None of the above
41. Which of the following is test for asthma?
a. Skin-prick tests (SPT)
b. Widal test
c. haemoglobin test
d. all of the above
e. None of the above
42. What is Pyelonephritis?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Inflammation of nephron
Inflammation of Digestive system
Enzymatic disorder
Pulmonary disorder
e. None of the above
43. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of ARF?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Oliguria
Possible edema and fluid retention
Elevated blood urea nitrogen levels
All of the above
e. None of the above
44. Clinical featuresof ARF
a.
b.
c.
d.
Syndrome of acute nephritis and Pre-renal syndrome
Syndrome accompanying tubular pathology
A and B
None of the above
e. None of the above
45. Increased endothelial injury causes
a.
b.
c.
d.
Decreased NOS and PG
Thickening of vessels and Collagen deposit
Increase cytosolic calcium
Mucus secretion increase
e. None of the above
46. Severe hyperkalaemia, variably defined as______, is a medical emergency
a.
b.
c.
d.
>6.5 or 7 mmol/L
>0.5 or 1 mmol/L
>60 or 70 mmol/L
A&B
e. None of the above
47. Why does reducing how much salt you eat help prevent high blood pressure?
a. It reduce fluid buildup in body
b. It allows vessels to relax
c. It raises level of HDL (“good”) cholesterol
d. It helps keep your heart beat stable
e. None of the above
48. The numbers in a blood pressure reading?
a. Vary, depending on the time of day your blood pressure is checked
b. Get lower with high levels of stress
c. Are the same for people of the same age and weight?
d. Stay the same throughout the day
e. None of the above
49. Which of the following statement is true?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Atherosclerosis is a type of arteriosclerosis
Arteriosclerosis is a type of atherosclerosis
Arteriosclerosis is the same atherosclerosis
No link between atherosclerosis and arteriosclerosis
e. None of the above
50. All of the following statements regarding the atherosclerosis are true EXCEPT?
a. Omega – 3 fatty acid decrease LDL
b. Atherosclerosis is less important in age more than 45 yrs. age
c. Cigarette smoking is independent risk factor for M.I.
d. C reactive protein is independent risk factor for M.I.
e. None of the above
51. Atheroma resulting in angina has the following characteristic except
a. Thin fibrous cap
b. Thick fibrous cap
c. Lack of macrophage
d. Lack of smooth muscle cell
e. None of the above
52. .In atherosclerosis, increased LDL in monocyte-macrophage due to
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
LDL receptors on the macrophage
LDL receptors on the endothelium
Lipids in LDL get oxidized
All of the above
None of the above
53. This is one of the symptoms of Coronary artery disease
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sleep problems
Headache
Diarrhoea
Pain or discomfort in the chest, lower jaw or arms
e. None of the above
54. Ischemia is
a. restriction of blood supply to tissues
b. Overflow of blood to tissues
c. Inadequate deoxygenated blood carrying veins
d. the medical term for shortness of breath
e. None of the above
55. Bronchial Asthma is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Inflammatory disease of airway
Allergic disease of airway
Hyporesponsiveness of airway
Hyperresponsiveness of airway
None of the above
56. Universal finding in Asthma is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Hypoxia
Hypercarbia
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosi
None of the above
57. Anti-inflammatory action on airways is seen with
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Fluticasone
Ipratropium bromide
Budesonide
Theophylline
None of the above
58. α1 Antitrypsin deficiency is associated with:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
centralizer emphysema
panaciner-emphysema
irregular emphysema
paraseptal-emphysema
None of the above
59. Bilateral upper lobe bronchiectasis suggests a diagnosis of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Tuberculosis
Cystic Fibrosis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Recurrent Aspiration
None of the above
60. The alveolar epithelium of lungs is
a. ciliated squamous
b.nonciliated squamous
c. nonciliated columnar
d.ciliated columnar
e. None of the above
61. Which of the following is not associated with chronic kidney disease?
a. Polyhydramnios
b. Intrauterine growth retardation
c. Premature delivery
d. Down’s syndrome
e. None of the above
62. Which of the following statements about treatment of renal acidosis is false?
a. Fruit and vegetable diet is effective
b. Sodium bicarbonate lowers angiotensin production in the kidney
c. Sodium bicarbonate reduces the rate of decline in GFR
d. Sodium bicarbonate causes high blood pressure
e. None of the above
63. Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Raised jugular venous pressure is a reliable marker of fluid overload
High blood pressure indicates increased total body sodium
Increased total body sodium usually causes high blood pressure
Sleeping in a chair worsens leg oedema
e. None of the above
64. Renal correction of acute hyperkalemia will result in
a.
b.
c.
d.
alkalosis 3
acidosis
Increased secretion of H+
increased secretion of Na+
e. None of the above
65. Which of the following statement regarding acute renal failure is FALSE?
a. Renal oxygen requirement reduces as renal blood flow falls.
b. Renal cellular hypoxia & acute tubular necrosis when renal blood flow falls below 20%
normal.
c. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is caused by Group B streptococcal infection
d. More than 95% of acute glomerulonephritis is due to post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
e. none of the above
66. The plasma level of the following substance is first to increase in renal failure:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Potassium
Creatinine
Sodium
Hydrogen
e. None of the above
UNIT-3
67. Thalassemia is regarded as
a. An inherited autosomal recessive blood disorder which results in excessive destruction of
red blood cells caused by variant or missing genes
b. Reduces the amount of available striatal dopamine (inhibitory effects)
c. Mood disorder characterized by persistently low mood and a feeling of sadness and loss of
interest
d. long-term negative iron balances and Progressive loss of iron stores in the form of
hemosiderin and ferritin
e. None of the above
68. Pathophysiology of Thalassemia includes
a. Due decresaed serotonin (5- HT), norepinephrine (NE), and dopamine (DA and brain
Derived growth factor (BNDF)
b. The production of either the alpha or beta chains are reduced,causing in excessive destruction
of red blood cells
c. unable to enter into the portal blood to combine with plasma transferrin binding protein due
to increase in plasma Hepcidin, which blocks the Ferroprotein transporter and causes
degeneration
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
69. Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency is
a. inability to synthesize DNA leads to ineffectual erythropoiesis resulting in excess
haemoglobin and enlarged erythroid precursors being produced
b. Unable to enter into the portal blood to combine with plasma transferrin binding protein due
to increase in plasma Hepcidin, which blocks the Ferroprotein transporter and causes
degeneration
c. catalyses the conversion of G-6-phosphate into Ribulose-5-phosphate causing reduces the
ability of RBCs to withstand the effect of various oxidising drugs/agents
d. inability to synthesize DNA leads to ineffectual erythropoiesis resulting in excess
haemoglobin and enlarged erythroid precursors being produced
e. None of the above
70. Osmotic fragility is increased in
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Sickle cell anemia
Thalassemia
Hereditary spherocytosis
Chronic lead poisoning
None of the above
71. Chronic Hemolysis from which conditions may be associated with iron deficiency:
a. PNH
b. Thalassemia
c. Hereditary spherocytosis
d. G6PD deficiency
e. None of the above
72. HbA2 concentration in thalassemia trait is –
a. 1
b. 1-2.5
c. 2.5-3.5
d. >3.5
e. None of the above
73. Thalassemia occurs due to which mutations –
1. Missense
2. Splicing
3. Transition
4. Frame-shift
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
5. Truncation
3
4
1&2
2& 4
None of the above
74. All of the following red cell abnormality provides protection against malaria except:
a. G6PD deficiency
b. Thalassemia
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Acanthocytosis
e. None of the above
75. The heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule consists of:
a. Porphyrin ring with a molecule of Fe in the center
b. A polypeptide chain containing Fe
c. A pyrrole ring with four molecules of Fe in the center
d. Four porphyrin rings, each containing a molecule of Fe in the center
e. None of the above
76. Factors affecting sickling in sickle cell anemia area. HbS concentration
b. HbA
c. pH
d. Oxygenation
e. None of the above
77. Which of the following anemia is not due to diminished erythropoiesis?
a. aplastic anemia
b. iron-deficiency anemia
c. megaloblastic anemia
d. hereditary erythropoiesis
e. None of the above
78.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which enhances the transport of iron into the enterocyte?
Hepcidin
Divalent Metal Transporter -1{DMT 1}
Ferroportin
Heparin
None of the above
79. Absorption of iron mainly occurs in
a. stomach
b. duodenum
c. jejunum
d. ileum
e. None of the above
80. All are lab findings in iron deficiency anemia except
a. decreased serum iron
b. decreased total iron-binding capacity
c. decreased serum ferritin
d. decreased mean corpuscular volume
e. None of the above
81. This can help on the diagnosis of the genetic basis of a disorder
a.
b.
c.
d.
PCR
ELISA
ABO blood group
NMR
e. None of the above
82. This measure does not help to prevent diabetes complications
a. controlling blood lipids and blood pressure
b. Prompt detection of diabetic eye and kidney disease
c. Eliminating all carbohydrates from the diet
d. controlling blood glucose
e. None of the above
83. Presence of RBC in urine is known as
a.
b.
c.
d.
Proteinuria
Hematuria
Urolithiasis
Nephritis
e. None of the above
84. Insulin is a natural hormone secreted by which organ or gland
a. The kidney
b. The liver
c. The pancreas
d. The spleen
e. None of the above
85. Type – 2 diabetes can cause long term damage in the
a. Kidneys
b. Eyes
c. Nerves
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
86. When the body does not respond to the insulin it makes this is called
a. Type 1 diabetes
b. Type 2 diabetes
c. Type 3 diabetes
d. A & B
e. None of the above
87. The main hormone secreted by the Thyroid gland
a. T4
b.T3
c. (a) and (b)
d.TSH
e. None of the above
88. Iodine deficiency can cause
a. Goitre
b.Thyroid cancer
c. Solitary thyroid nodules
d.Thyroiditis
e. None of the above
89. Grave’s disease or Basedow’s disease is due to
a. Hyperactivity of adrenal cortex
b.Hypoactivity of the thyroid gland
c. Hyperactivity of thyroid gland
d.Hypoactivity of islets of Langerhans
e. None of the above
90. Medications for hypothyroidism include treatment that:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Replaces insulin
Replaces ADH
Replaces TH
Replaces surfactant
None of the above
91. ____________ encloses thyroid, responsible for its movement during swallowing
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Prevertebral fascia
Pretracheal fascia
Investing layer of the deep cervical fascia
Superficial fascia
None of the above
92. A condition marked by low TSH levels is called ___________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hypothyroidism
Goitre
Hyperthyroidism
Thyroid cancer
e. None of the above
93. What is the most common type of seizure?
a. The grand male seizure
b. The absence seizure
c. The simple seizure
d. The complex seizure
e. None of the above
94. Patients with epilepsy often suffer with?
a. Depression
b. Anxiety
c. Migrant headaches
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
95. What are lewy bodies?
a. Protein deposits found in brain
b. Pockets of air found in brain
c. Microscopic crystalline matter found in brain
d. A build of slat found in brain
e. None of the above
96. How is Parkinson’s disease is treated
a. Medicine
b. Surgery
c. Radiation
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
97. There are how many stages of Parkinson’s disease?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 7
e. None of the above
98. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Suicide is twice as frequent in the elderly population.
Depression in more common in men than in women
Depression is more common in hospitalized patients than in those in the community.
More patients avoid becoming depressed if they move to a safer environment.
e. None of the above
99. Parkinson’s disease (PD) includes
a. Destruction of dopamine producing neurons within the basal ganglia
b. Reduces the amount of available striatal dopamine (inhibitory effects)
c. Difficulty in controlling and initiating voluntary movements
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
100. Diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease (PD)
a. Biosensors
b. Imaging
c. Breath tests
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
101. A stroke is
a. It is an autoimmune disorder that can cause hypothyroidism, or underactive thyroid.
b. They are solid or fluid-filled lumps that form within the thyroid gland.
c. occurs when a blood vessel in the brain ruptures and bleeds, or when there’s a blockage in
the blood supply to the brain
d. A chronic neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects the motor functioning of the
body by attacking the neurons of the basal ganglia that break down or die.
e. None of the above
102. Thrombotic stroke includes
a. Loss of normal regulatory control of hormone
b. Alteration in secretion and metabolism of hormones
c. artery can get narrow over a period of time because of the cholesterol (plaque) stacks
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
103. Parkinson’s disease (PD) is
a. It is an autoimmune disorder that can cause hypothyroidism, or underactive thyroid.
b. They are solid or fluid-filled lumps that form within the thyroid gland.
c. Due to deficiency of iodine in the mother's diet during pregnancy.
d. A chronic neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects the motor functioning of the
body by attacking the neurons of the basal ganglia that break down or die.
e. None of the above
104. Type 1 DM is also called as
a. Insulin- dependent diabetes mellitus" (IDDM)
b. Gestational Diabetes
c. Non-insulin- dependent diabetes mellitus" (NIDDM)
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
105. Diagnosis of diabetes
a. Barium swallow
b. X-ray that visualizes structures of the upper GI tract
c. Oral Glucose Tolerance Test
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
106. Hashimoto's disease is
a. It is an autoimmune disorder that can cause hypothyroidism, or underactive thyroid.
b. They are solid or fluid-filled lumps that form within the thyroid gland.
c. Due to deficiency of iodine in the mother's diet during pregnancy.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
107. Types of Peptic ulcer includes
a. Acute Peptic Ulcer
b. Duodenal ulcer and Gastric ulcer:
c. Esophageal ulcer
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
108. H.pylori induced ulcer
a. Cytokines, histamine, lipopolysaccharides, certain enzymes
b.
c.
d.
e.
Urease convert in acidic media urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide
Leukocytes adhesion occurs causing nflammation
All of the above
None of the above
109. Drug induced ulcer is by
a. Drugs for example NSAIDS as aspirin(non-selectively inhibit cox1 and cox2 in human
body
b. Arachidonic acid in cells activates and Activation of Prostaglandins
c. Damage mucosal lining lead to ulcer
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
110. Upper gastrointestinal series (UGI) includes
a.
b.
c.
d.
Barium swallow
X-ray that visualizes structures of the upper GI tract
Sputum test
All of the above
e. None of the above
111. Infectious Pathogens which causes cancer
a.
b.
c.
d.
Proton Pump Inhibitors(PPIs):
Antibiotics
Surgery
All of the above
e. None of the above
UNIT-4
112.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hepatitis is defined as
Inflammation of liver
Inflammation of kidney
Inflammation of intestine
None of the above
e. None of the above
113. Name types of Hepatitis
a. Toxic hepatits
b. Alcohl Hepatitis
c. Viral Hepatitis
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
114. Hepatitis C is transmitted by
a.
b.
c.
d.
Transfusion
Transplant from infected donar
Contaminated equipments
All of the above
e. None of the above
115. Acute Hepatitis begins
a.
b.
c.
d.
With a preicteric phase ( before onset of jaundice)
Multiplication of bacteria in macrophages
Ecessive release of bilirubin fron ducts
All of the above
e. None of the above
116. Diagnosis of Hepatitis
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Detection of iIgM and IgG in serum
PCR of facces
Sputum test
All of the above
None of the above
117. Alcoholc liver disease includes
a. Hepatic steatosis
b. Alcoholic hepatitis
c. Cirrhosis
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
118. Alcoholc liver disease is caused due to
a. Alcohol consumption and pattern of drinking
b. hepatitis C infection and iron oveload
c. Proton Pump Infection
d. None of the above
119. Symptoms of Alcoholc liver disease
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Jaundice symptoms
Vomiting and fainting
Migrane
All of the above
None of the above
120. Alcoholc liver disease has following steps
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Granulomatous inflammation
Decrease NAD and Increase NADH
Increase Fat producton
All of the above
None of the above
121. Treatment of Alcoholic liver disease involves
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Atenolol
Corticosteroids
Colchicine
All of the above
None of the above
122. Rheumatoid arthritis
a. Idiopathic chronic ulcerative IBD
b. Granulomatous inflammation
c. Inflammation of joints
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
123. Etiology of Rheumatoid arthritis
a. Imunological derangementdetection of circulation antibody Presence of antigenantibody complex in synovial fluidAutoantibodies like antinuclear factor
b.
c.
d.
e.
Trigger eventsinfectious agentshormonal fluid
Both A and B
All of the Above
None of the above
124. Pathophysiology of Rheumatoid arthritis involves
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Activation of genetic susceptibilty
CD 4+T cells activation
Activation of TNF-alpha, INF-gamma, IL-1
All of the above
None of the above
125. Dignosis of Rheumatoid arthritis involves
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
RF Blood test and WBC Count
ESR Determination
Radiology and X-Ray
All of the above
None of the above
126. Treatment of Rheumatoid arthritis involves
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
NSAID
Corticosteriod
Salbutamol
All of the above
None of the above
127. Which of the following antigenic type of hepatitis B virus is present in the envelope ?
a. HbsAg
b. HBcAg
c. HBeAg
d. HBxAg
e. None of the above
128. Incubation period of HBV virus ?
a. 30 – 180 days
b. 2 days
c. 1 week
d. 10 days
e. None of the above
129. A few days after the first symptom begins, person suffering from hepatitis – A may begin
to experience
a. Diarrhea
b. Jaundice, Diarrhea and Vomiting
c. Dark – colored urine, light colored feces and jaundice
d. Fever, Tiredness, Loss of appetite and Nause
e. None of the above
130. Which antibody appears in the serum at the onset of symptom of acute hepatitis – A
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE
e. None of the above
131. Hepatitis – C virus has how many amino acids
a. 1000 amino acids
b. 2000 amino acids
c. 1500 amino acids
d. 3000 amino acids
e. None of the above
132. Hepatitis – C virus is which type of virus
a. Single stranded, enveloped, having diameter of 30 – 60nm
b. Double stranded, non – enveloped with a diameter of 30 – 60nm
c. Both the above statements are incorrect
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
133. The defective satellite virus is
a. Hepatitis – B
b. Hepatitis – C
c. Hepatitis – D
d. Hepatitis – E
e. None of the above
134. Incubation period for hepatitis – D is
a. 1 week
b. 10 – 15 days
c. Approx. 35 days
d. 2 – 3 days
e. None of the above
135. What is most common site of gout attack?
a. Big toe
b. Foot
c. Knee
d. Ankle
136. Uric acid is usually eliminated from the body by way of?
a. Breathing
b. Urine
c. Metabolization of liver
d. Sweat
e. None of the above
137. Gout is caused by the buildup of what substance in the body
a. WBC
b. Synovial fluid
c. Uric acid
d. Blood plasma
e. None of the above
138. Which test cannot be used to aid in the diagnosis or monitoring of progression of
rheumatoid arthritis?
a. ESR
b. RF Test
c. Anti – CD
d. Heterophile AB
e. None of the above
139. The sudden appearance or worsening of RA symptom is referred to as an
a. Outbreak
b. Flare
c. Burst
d. Eruption
e. None of the above
140. How is osteoporosis treated?
a. Medicines
b. Surgery
c. X – ray treatment
d. It can’t be treated
e. None of the above
141. Which test is used to do screening for osteoporosis?
a. Blood test
b. Special type of X – rays
c. Urine test
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
142. Which of the viruses below causes cancer resulting from chronic infection?
a. HSV
b. HPV
c. HBV
d. All of the above
e. none of the above
143. Cancer of the blood cell is referred to as?
a. Kaposi sarcoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Mesothelioma
d. Leukemia
e. None of the above
144. Colonization in UTI means
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Bacteria colonizes in the periuretheral area
Bacteria colonizes in the bladder epithelial area
Bacteria colonizes in the kidney
All of the above
None of the above
145. Pyelonephritis means
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Infection of renal parenchyma area
Infection of renal bladder epithelial area
Infection of periuretheral area
All of the above
None of the above
146. Symptoms of Urinary Tract Infection
a. Dysuria
b. pyelonephritis
c. Hematuria
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
147. Positive Urine Culture
a. >105 organisms/mL
b. >108 organisms/mL
c. <105 organisms/mL
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
148. Treatment of Complicated Cystitis
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Fluoroquinolone
Amoxicillin,
cephalosporin
All of the above
None of the above
149. Typhoid fever is also called as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Enteric fever
Black fever
Yellow fever
All of the above
None of the above
150. Typhoid fever cause by Bacteria
a. Salmonella Typhi.
b. E. coli
c. N. gonorehea
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
151. Onset of Typhoid fever is obseerevd when,
a. Ingest contaminated food
b.
c.
d.
e.
Intact with enterocytes during 1-3 weeks of incubaton period
After end of incubaton period baclli enters blood stream
All of the above
None of the above
152. Incubation period of Typhoid fever is typically about
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
3-10 days
20-34 days
50-64 days
10-14 days
None of the above
153. Serologic test for Typhoid fever is by doing
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Widal Test and ELISA
Identify Salmonella antibodies
Fluorescent antibody study
All of the above
None of the above
154. What is meningitis?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Inflammation of leptomeninges
Inflammation of CSF
Inflammation in liver
All of the above
None of the above
155. Clinical signs of meningitis
a. Kernig’s
b. Brugzinski’s
c. Alport syndrome
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
156. Classification of meningitis
a. Bacterial meningitis
b.
c.
d.
e.
Acute viral meningitis
Chronic meningitis
All of the above
None of the above
157. Pathophysiology in meningitis includes
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Colonization in nasophryngeal region
Rapid multiplication of organism in CSF
Release of various inflammatory mediators
All of the above
None of the above
158. Test for meningitis
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Widal Test and ELISA
Identify Salmonella antibodies
Fluorescent antibody study
CSF Analysis
None of the above
159. Leprosy is caused by
a. Mycobacterium leprae
b. Helicobacter leprae
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
160. Mode of transmission of Leprosy is
a.
Direct contact
b.
Materno- foetal transmission
c. Water and food contamination
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
161. Which of the following belong to the type of Leprosy?
a. Tuberculoid Leprosy
b.
c.
d.
e.
Borderline Leprosy
Lepromatous Leprosy
All of the above
None of the above
162. Mycobacterium leprae belong to which of the following
a. Acid fast bacillus
b.
c.
d.
e.
Base fast bacillus
Neutral bacillus
All of the above
None of the above
163. Complications of Leprosy
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Disfigurement
Muscle weakness
Iritis
All of the above
None of the above
164. Tuberculosis is caused by
a. Mycobacterium leprae
b. Helicobacter tuberculosis
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
165. Mode of transmission of Leprosy is
a. Inoculation of the organisms into the skin
b. Inhalation of organisms
c. Ingestion sputum
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
166. Secondary tuberculosis is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Endogenous source such as reactivation of dormant primary complex.
Exogenous source such as fresh dose of reinfection by the tubercle bacilli.
Exogenous source such as fresh dose of reinfection by the tubercle lepra
All of the above
None of the above
167. Pathophysiology of TB
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Inhalation of bacteria
Multiplication of bacteria in macrophages
Lesions occurs causing damages to lungs
All of the above
None of the above
168. Diagnosis of TB
a. Bacteriological test
b. Sputum test
c. Tuberculin skin test
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
169. UTI is defined as
a. Idiopathic chronic ulcerative IBD
b. Granulomatous inflammation
c. Inflammation of urinary tract
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
170. Pyelonephritis
a. Acute and chronic ulcero-inflammatory colitis
b. Effect on mucosa and submucosa of rectum and decending colon
c. Inflammation of large intestine and colon
d. Infection of renal parenchyma causes an inflammation
e. None of the above
171. Symptoms of UTI
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Dyuria
Flank pain
Nematuria
All of the above
None of the above
172. Recurrent cystitis can be treated
a. fluid intake of at least 2liters/day
b. Drugs: trimethoprim, nitrofurontoin, ciprofloxine
c. Atenolol
d. Salbutamol
e. None of the above
173. Non-gonococcal urethritis is caused by
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Mycoplasma trachomatis
Chlamydia trachomatis
Mycoplasma genitalum
All of the above
None of the above
ANSWERS KEY
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. C
5. B
6. A
7. A
8. A
9. D
10. D
11. C
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. C
16. A & B
17. A
18. C
19. C
20. D
21. A
22. B
23. D
24. A
25. B
26. D
27. D
28. E
29. C
30. B
31. C
32. A
33. B
34. A
35. D
36. C
37. A
38. C
39. B
40. A
41. A
42. A
43. D
44. C
45. A
46. A
47. A
48. A
49. A
50. B
51. C
52. C
53. D
54. A
55. C
56. A
57. A & C
58. B
59. B
60. B
61. D
62. D
63. D
64. B
65. C
66. B
67. A
68. B
69. B
70. C
71. A
72. D
73. D
74. D
75. D
76. E
77. D
78. B
79. B
80. B
81. A
82. C
83. B
84. C
85. D
86. B
87. C
88. A
89. C
90. C
91. B
92. C
93. A
94. D
95. A
96. A & B
97. C
98. D
99. D
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
D
C
C
D
A
C
A
D
D
D
A&B
D
A
D
D
A
A&B
D
A&B
A&B
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
B&C
B&C
C
D
D
D
A&B
A
A
C
C
D
A
D
C
A
B
C
D
B
A
B
B&C
D
A
A
D
A
A
A
A
C
D
D
A&B
A&B
D
D
D
A
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
A&B
D
A
D
C
D
A&B
D
D
C
D
D
A&B
B&C