Study Guide for Military Competency Test
Review
1. On a post flight inspection of your aircraft after an
aborted takeoff due to an elevator malfunction, you
find that the elevator control cable has broken.
According to NTSB 830, you
must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office.
2. Notification to the NTSB is required when there
has been substantial damage
which adversely affects structural strength or
flight characteristics.
3. NTSB Part 830 requires an immediate notification
as a result of which incident?
Any required flight crewmember being unable to
perform flight duties because of illness.
4. Which incident would require that the nearest
NTSB field office be notified immediately?
In-flight fire.
5. Which airborne incident would require that the
nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately?
Flight control system malfunction or failure.
6. During flight a fire, which was extinguished,
burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What
action is required by regulations?
An immediate notification by the operator of the
aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office.
7. When should notification of an aircraft accident
be made to the NTSB if there was substantial
damage and no injuries?
Immediately.
8. You are acting as PIC, and the pilot acting as SIC
becomes incapacitated due to chest pains. You
should
immediately notify the NTSB.
9. What period of time must a person be hospitalized
before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a
"serious injury"?
48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of
the injury.
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10. How many days after an accident is a report
required to be filed with the nearest NTSB field
office?
10.
11. The operator of an aircraft that has been involved
in an incident is required to submit a report to the
nearest field office of the NTSB
only if requested to do so.
12. While taxiing for takeoff, a small fire burned the
insulation from a transceiver wire. What action
would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830?
No notification or report is required.
13. While taxiing on the parking ramp, the landing
gear, one wheel, and two tires are damaged by
striking ground equipment. What action would be
required to comply with NTSB Part 830?
No notification or report is required.
14. An aircraft is being towed and strikes another
aircraft on the ramp. Are you required to notify the
NTSB?
No notification or report is required.
15. What is the maximum bearing error (+ or -)
allowed for an operational VOR equipment check
when using an FAA-approved ground test signal?
4 degrees.
16. Which data must be recorded in the aircraft
logbook or other record by a pilot making a VOR
operational check for IFR operations?
Date of check, place of operational check, bearing
error, and signature.
17. When must an operational check on the aircraft
VOR equipment be accomplished to operate under
IFR? Within the preceding
30 days.
18. A pilot performing a published instrument
approach is not authorized to perform a procedure
turn when
receiving a radar vector to a final approach
course or fix.
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19. Pilots are required to have the anti-collision light
system operating
during all types of operations, both day and night.
20. If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or
anti-collision light system, no person may operate
that aircraft
after sunset to sunrise.
21. If not equipped with required position lights, an
aircraft must terminate flight
at sunset.
22. Which is required equipment for powered
aircraft during VFR night flights?
Anti-collision light system.
23. Which is required equipment for powered
aircraft during VFR night flights?
An electric landing light, if the flight is for hire.
24. When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being
used for navigation on VFR flight, it is important to
exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that
may be converging on the VOR from other
directions.
25. With a blood alcohol level at or above .04
percent, a pilot cannot fly until
at least 8 hours after consuming alcohol, no
longer under the influence of alcohol, and the
blood alcohol falls below .04 percent.
26. If 8 hours or more have passed since last
consuming alcohol, a pilot with a blood alcohol level
greater than or equal to .04 percent cannot fly until
the blood alcohol falls below .04 percent and no
longer under the influence of alcohol.
27. A pilot convicted of operating a motor vehicle
while either intoxicated by, impaired by, or under
the influence of alcohol or a drug is required to
provide a
written report to the FAA Security and
Hazardous Materials Safety Office (AXE-700)
not later than 60 days after the conviction.
28. A pilot convicted for the violation of any Federal
or State statute relating to the process, manufacture,
transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs
is grounds for
suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating,
or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 61.
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29. To avoid landing at the wrong airport or on the
wrong runway, a pilot should
follow the instrument approach chart for the
appropriate runway.
30. Regulations which refer to "commercial
operators" relate to that person who
for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage
by aircraft in air commerce of persons or
property, other than as an air carrier.
31. Regulations which refer to "operate" relate to
that person who
causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use.
32. Regulations which refer to the "operational
control" of a flight are in relation to
exercising authority over initiating, conducting,
or terminating a flight.
33. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling
speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which
the airplane is controllable?
VS.
34. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling
speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a
specified configuration?
VS1.
35. 14 CFR part 1 defines VF as
design flap speed.
36. 14 CFR part 1 defines VLE as
maximum landing gear extended speed.
37. Structural damage or failure is more likely to
occur in smooth air at speeds above
VNO.
38. The term Airport means an area of land or water
that is
used or intended to be used for the landing and
takeoff of aircraft, and includes its buildings and
facilities, if any.
39. Pitch setting means
the propeller blade setting as determined by the
blade angle measured as specified by the
propeller instruction manual.
40. If an airplane category is listed as utility, it
would mean that this airplane could be operated in
which of the following maneuvers?
Limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved).
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41. Airworthiness Directives
require compliance or the aircraft is unairworthy.
42. What should an owner or operator know about
Airworthiness Directives (AD`s)?
They are mandatory.
43. You find out that the aircraft you fly at the local
flying club has a new airworthiness directive (AD).
Where do you look to confirm the aircraft is in
compliance?
In the appropriate aircraft records.
51. You are the PIC of a small, single-engine
reciprocating engine, propeller aircraft and want to
know if you can fly an instructional flight for hire.
Here is the maintenance data:
Total hours - 5,116
Time since last annual inspection - 4 months
Hours at last 100-hour inspection - 5,018
Overfly hours at last inspection - 4
No, the 100 hour inspection was due at 5,114
hours.
Note: 5018 + 100 - 4 = 5114 < 5116
44. You are PIC of a flight and determine that the
aircraft you planned to fly has an overdue
Airworthiness Directive (AD). Which of the
following is an appropriate decision?
You cancel the flight and have the aircraft
scheduled for maintenance.
52. An aircraft carrying passengers for hire has been
on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours of time
in service. Under which condition, if any, may that
aircraft be operated beyond 100 hours without a new
inspection?
The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not
more than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place
at which the inspection can be done.
45. You have been hired by an owner to manage his
aircraft in a 14 CFR Part 91 operation. The owner
has received an Airworthiness Directive in the mail.
Who holds the responsibility to ensure the aircraft is
in compliance with the AD?
The owner or operator of the aircraft.
53. Aircraft maintenance records must include the
current status of the
life-limited parts of each airframe, engine,
propeller, rotor, and appliance.
46. An aircraft on a stopover at an airport 450 miles
from its home airport. A mechanic discovers a
discrepancy. Who is responsible for maintaining the
airworthiness of the aircraft by having the defect
corrected?
The owner or operator.
47. Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an
aircraft in an airworthy condition?
Owner or operator of the aircraft.
48. You have been hired by an owner to manage his
aircraft in a 14 CFR Part 91 operation. The owner
has received an Airworthiness Directive in the mail.
Who holds the responsibility to ensure the aircraft is
in compliance with the AD?
The owner or operator of that aircraft.
49. How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of
an aircraft remain valid?
As long as the aircraft is maintained and
operated as required by Federal Aviation
Regulations.
50. Which is true concerning required maintenance
inspections?
An annual inspection may be substituted for a
100-hour inspection.
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54. According to 14 CFR Part 91, what may you
find in the maintenance records?
Total time on the airframe, each engine, each
propeller, each rotor and each appliance on an
aircraft.
55. After an annual inspection has been completed
and the aircraft has been returned to service, an
appropriate notation should be made
in the aircraft maintenance records.
56. Under what condition could an aircraft`s engine
logbook show no previous operating history?
When the aircraft`s engine has been rebuilt by
the manufacturer.
57. A new maintenance record being used for an
aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must
include previous
changes as required by Airworthiness Directives.
58. What information is required to be entered into
an aircraft maintenance record after the aircraft is
returned to service following an annual inspection?
The maintainer's certification number and
signature.
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59. After an aircraft has been altered in a manner
that changed its flight characteristics, what must be
accomplished before carrying passengers?
An operational check by an appropriately rated
pilot.
60. If an aircraft's operation in flight was
substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the
aircraft documents must show that it was test flown
and approved for return to service by an
appropriately-rated pilot prior to being operated
with passengers aboard.
61. What documentation is required when a pilot has
performed preventive maintenance on an aircraft?
The pilot is to make an entry in the aircraft’s
maintenance records.
62. What maintenance may a certificated pilot, who
does not hold an Airframe and Powerplant certificate,
perform?
Pilot may perform any maintenance that does not
involve complex assembly operations.
63. During your preflight inspection, you notice that
the airspeed indicator is indicating 15 knots at all
times. According to 14 CFR Part 91,is this aircraft
able to be flown in VFR conditions?
No, the airspeed indicator is a required
instrument for VFR flight.
64. The primary purpose of a minimum equipment
list (MEL) is to
list the equipment that can be inoperative and
still not affect the airworthiness of an aircraft.
65. Authority for approval of a minimum equipment
list (MEL) must be obtained from the
FAA district office.
66. Which action is appropriate if an aircraft,
operating under 14 CFR Part 91 and for which a
master minimum equipment list has not been
developed, is determined to have an inoperative
instrument or piece of equipment that does not
constitute a hazard to the aircraft? The item should
be
deactivated and placarded “inoperative” but
repairs can be deferred indefinitely.
67. Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be
found?
In the current, FAA-approved flight manual,
approved manual material, markings, and
placards, or any combination thereof.
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68. Can an aircraft be operated after it is sold with an
aircraft dealer's registration?
No, the new owner must register the aircraft
before flying it.
69. A second-class medical certificate issued to a
commercial pilot on April 10, this year, permits the
pilot to exercise which of the following privileges?
Commercial pilot privileges through April 30,
next year.
70. To exercise the privileges of a Commercial Pilot
Certificate, a person must
hold at least a Second-Class Medical Certificate.
71. May a pilot in the U.S. Military use a current
U.S. Armed Forces medical examination to exercise
the privileges of an FAA Commercial Pilot
Certificate?
No, the medical examination may not be used to
exercise the privileges of an FAA Commercial
Pilot Certificate.
72. Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a
medical certificate shall present it for inspection
upon the request of any
local law enforcement officer. (FAA
Administrator, NTSB rep., or any federal, state,
or local law enforcement officer.)
73. Commercial pilots are required to have a valid
and appropriate pilot certificate in their physical
possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when
acting as pilot in command.
74. When acting as pilot-in-command or as a
required crew member, a pilot must have in his or
her personal possession or readily accessible in the
aircraft a current
medical certificate, if required, and an
appropriate pilot certificate
75. Does a commercial pilot certificate have a
specific expiration date?
No, it is issued without a specific expiration date.
76. You just received your commercial pilot
certificate and plan to act as PIC for compensation.
You may do so provided you
are qualified in accordance with 14 CFR Part 61
and with the applicable parts.
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77. A person with a commercial pilot certificate may
act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying
persons or property for compensation or hire, if that
person
is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR Part 61
and with the applicable parts that apply to the
operation.
78. What limitation is imposed on a newly
certificated commercial pilot - airplane, if that
person does not hold an instrument rating? The
carriage of passengers
for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50
NM, or for hire at night is prohibited.
79. When is the pilot in command required to hold a
category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft
being flown?
On flights when carrying another person.
80. A pilot with a Commercial Pilot Certificate plans
to operate an aircraft as Pilot in Command with a
maximum gross takeoff weight in excess of 12,500
pounds carrying passengers. What additional
requirement needs to be satisfied?
The pilot needs a type rating to operate as pilot in
command.
81. Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in
command is required to hold a type rating when
operating any
aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum
certificated takeoff weight.
82. Which of the following are considered aircraft
class ratings?
Single-engine land, multiengine land, singleengine sea, and multiengine sea.
83. Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot in
command must have accomplished the required
takeoffs and landings in
the same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a
type rating is required).
84. To act as pilot in command of an airplane that is
equipped with retractable landing gear, flaps, and
controllable-pitch propeller, a person is required to
receive and log ground and flight training in such
an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement
certifying proficiency.
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85. To act as pilot-in-command of an airplane with
more than 200 horsepower, a person is required to
receive and log ground and flight training from
an authorized instructor in such an airplane.
86. Which of the following would require the PIC to
receive additional training and a logbook
endorsement from an appropriately rated instructor
prior to acting as PIC?
When acting as PIC in an airplane with more
than 200 horsepower.
87. To act as PIC of a high performance airplane,
which training or experience would meet the
additional requirements.
Received and logged ground and flight training in
a high performance airplane and a received a
logbook endorsement.
88. You have just received your commercial
certificate and have never flown a tailwheel aircraft
before. To act as PIC of a tailwheel aircraft, you
must receive
ground and flight training from an authorized
instructor and receive an endorsement.
89. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft
operated under 14 CFR Part 91, a commercial pilot
must have satisfactorily accomplished a flight
review or completed a proficiency check within the
preceding
24 calendar months.
90. To serve as second in command of an airplane
that is certificated for more than one pilot
crewmember, and operated under
Part 91, a person must
within the last 12 months become familiar with
the required information, and perform and log
pilot time in the type of airplane for which
privileges are requested.
91. To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that
is certified for more than one pilot crewmember, and
operated under Part 91, a person must
complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check
within the preceding 12 calendar months in an
airplane that is type certificated for more than
one pilot.
92. According to 14 CFR Part 61, what is required
for a person to serve as PIC in a turbojet-powered
airplane?
A PIC proficiency check within the past 12
months.
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93. What flight time must be documented and
recorded by a pilot exercising the privileges of a
commercial certificate?
Flight time showing training and aeronautical
experience to meet requirements for a certificate,
rating or flight review.
94. When may a pilot log time as SIC?
When occupying a crewmember station in an
aircraft that requires more than one pilot and the
SIC is fully qualified.
95. You have performed 15 takeoffs and landings in
a single engine land airplane in the last 60 days. This
satisfies PIC recency requirements for
Single engine land.
96. You have accomplished 25 takeoffs and landings
in multi-engine land airplanes in the previous 45
days. For a flight you plan to conduct today, this
meets the PIC recency of experience requirements to
carry passengers in which airplanes?
Multi-engine land airplane.
101. To act as pilot in command of an airplane
towing a glider, the tow pilot is required to have
a logbook endorsement from an authorized glider
instructor certifying receipt of ground and flight
training in gliders, and be proficient with
techniques and procedures for safe towing of
gliders.
102. You are PIC of a flight. During your preflight
you notice a mechanical discrepancy that you think
makes the aircraft unairworthy. Who is responsible
for this determination?
The pilot-in-command.
103. You are the PIC conducting a preflight
inspection with the aircraft owner prior to a crosscountry flight. Who is responsible for determining
that the aircraft is airworthy?
PIC.
104. What person is directly responsible for the final
authority as to the operation of the airplane?
Pilot in command.
97. If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience
requirements for night flight and official sunset is
1800 CST, the latest time passengers should be
carried is
1859 CST.
105. An aircraft is on a stop 460 NM from base. It
develops a mechanical problem. You get a
technician to fix the problem. Who is responsible for
the airworthiness of the aircraft?
Pilot in command.
98. To act as the pilot-in-command (PIC) of an
airplane that is carrying passengers at night, the PIC
must
complete 3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop
in the same category and class aircraft at night.
106. Who is responsible for determining if an
aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
The pilot in command.
99. You just accepted out-of-state employment that
will require you to change your address. How long
may you exercise the privileges of your pilot
certificate before notifying the FAA of your address
change?
30 days.
100. To act as pilot in command of an airplane
towing a glider, a pilot must have accomplished,
within the preceding 12 months, at least
three actual or simulated glider tows while
accompanied by a qualified tow pilot.
107. A pilot in command (PIC) of a civil aircraft
may not allow any object to be dropped from that
aircraft in flight
if it creates a hazard to persons and property.
108. You have been asked to fly over a public event.
Are you allowed to drop candy to the crowd?
Yes, if you determine it does not pose a hazard to
persons or property.
109. You are the PIC carrying passengers back from
a football game. One appears to be intoxicated. Can
you carry that passenger?
No, you may not carry an intoxicated passenger.
110. You are pilot-in-command of a VFR flight that
you think will be within the fuel range of your
aircraft. As part of your preflight planning you must
obtain weather reports, forecasts, and fuel
requirements for the flight.
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111. You are a pilot in command of a VFR crosscountry flight. As part of your preflight planning,
you must
obtain a flight weather briefing.
119. Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from
an instrument approach unless the
flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility
prescribed in the approach procedure being used.
112. In your preflight planning, a weather briefing is
required for
any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
120. On an instrument approach where a DH or
MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below,
or continue the approach unless the
aircraft is continuously in a position from which
a descent to a normal landing, on the intended
runway, can be made.
113. Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot
in command must become familiar with all available
information concerning that flight. In addition, the
pilot must
be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of
intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements,
and alternatives available, if the planned flight
cannot be completed.
114. Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot
in command must become familiar with all available
information concerning that flight. In addition, the
pilot must
be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of
intended use, and the alternatives available, if the
flight cannot be completed.
115. In your preflight planning, you must identify an
alternate airport for
any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
116. If weather conditions are such that it is required
to designate an alternate airport on your IFR flight
plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive
at the first airport of intended landing, fly from that
airport to the alternate airport, and fly thereafter for
45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
117. For an airport with an approved instrument
approach procedure to be listed as an alternate
airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather
conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above
the following weather minimums.
Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for
nonprecision.
118. For an airport without an approved instrument
approach procedure to be listed as an alternate
airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather
conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a
ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent,
approach, and landing under basic VFR.
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121. You are taking a 196 nautical mile VFR cross
country flight in mountainous terrain. Which of the
following actions must the pilot in command take?
Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to
passengers.
122. You are taking a 123 nautical mile VFR flight
from one airport to another. Which of the following
actions must the pilot in command take?
Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to
passengers.
123. You are taking a 173 nautical mile night VFR
cross country flight. Which of the following actions
must the pilot in command take?
Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to
passengers.
124. You are taking a 196 nautical mile VFR cross
country flight in mountainous terrain. Which of the
following actions must the pilot in command take?
Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to
125. Prior to departing on a VFR cross country flight
over mountainous terrain, what action must the pilot
in command perform?
Confirm the Airworthiness certificate is visible to
passengers and crew.
126. Which of the following preflight actions is the
pilot in command required to take in order to comply
with the United States Code of Federal Regulations
regarding day Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to
passengers.
127. When operating a U.S.-registered civil aircraft,
which document is required by regulation to be
available in the aircraft?
A current, approved Airplane Flight Manual.
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128. Portable electronic devices which may cause
interference with the navigation or communication
system may not be operated on U.S.-registered civil
aircraft being operated
under IFR.
129. Portable electronic devices which may cause
interference with the navigation or communication
system may not be operated on a U.S.- registered
civil aircraft being flown
in air carrier operations.
130. You are planning an IFR cross-country. One of
your passengers wants to use her electronic tablet to
read. Is this allowed?
Yes, if you determine it will not interfere with the
communication and navigation systems.
131. You are planning an IFR flight, and one of your
passengers has a heart pacemaker. Is this passenger
allowed to fly in the aircraft?
Yes, heart pacemakers are allowed.
132. No person may operate an aircraft that has an
experimental airworthiness certificate
when carrying persons or property for hire.
133. Which is true with respect to operating
limitations of a "primary'' category airplane?
No person may operate a "primary" category
airplane carrying passengers or property for
compensation or hire.
134. Which is true with respect to operating
limitations of a "restricted'' category airplane?
No person may operate a "restricted" category
airplane carrying passengers or property for
compensation or hire.
135. The carriage of passengers for hire by a
commercial pilot is
not authorized in a "limited" category aircraft.
136. Which is required to operate an aircraft towing
an advertising banner?
A certificate of waiver issued by the
Administrator.
137. No person may operate a large civil aircraft of
U.S. registry which is subject to a lease, unless the
lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the FAA
Aircraft Registration Branch, Technical Section,
Oklahoma City, OK, within how many hours of its
execution?
24.
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138. Which is true with respect to formation flights?
Formation flights are
not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
139. Which is true with respect to formation flights?
Formation flights are
not authorized, except by arrangement with the
pilot in command of each aircraft.
140. Which is true with respect to operating near
other aircraft in flight? These flights are
not authorized, when operated so close to another
aircraft they can create a collision hazard.
141. What is the minimum altitude and flight
visibility required for acrobatic flight?
1,500 feet AGL and 3 miles.
142. What is the minimum flight visibility and
proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at
6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?
3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet
below.
143. The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight
increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude
of
10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL.
144. According to 14 CFR part 91, what is the
appropriate VFR cruising altitude, when above
3,000 feet AGL, for a flight on a magnetic course of
090°?
5,500 feet.
145. VFR cruising altitudes are required to be
maintained when flying
more than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic
course.
146. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or
unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator,
the minimum altitude for IFR flight is
2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over
designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above
the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.
147. According to 14 CFR Part 91, at what
minimum altitude may an airplane be operated
unless necessary for takeoff and landing?
An altitude allowing for an emergency landing
without undue hazard, if a power unit fails.
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148. No person may operate an aircraft in simulated
instrument flight conditions unless the
other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot,
who holds at least a private pilot certificate and is
appropriately rated.
149. What altimeter setting is required when
operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?
29.92" Hg.
157. The pilot in command of an aircraft operated
under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as
soon as practical to ATC when
experiencing any malfunctions of navigational,
approach, or communications equipment,
occurring in flight.
158. Who has the final authority to accept or decline
any “land and hold short” (LAHSO) clearance?
Pilot-in-command.
150. When weather information indicates that
abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will
be above _____ inches of mercury, flight operations
will not be authorized contrary to the requirements
published in NOTAMs.
31.00
159. A Pilot-in-command may accept a 'land and
hold short' (LAHSO) clearance provided he or she
determines that the aircraft can safely land and stop
within the
Available Landing Distance.
151. As pilot-in-command of an aircraft, you may
deviate from an ATC clearance when
there is an in-flight emergency requiring
immediate action.
160. A pilot-in-command has the final authority to
accept or decline 'land and hold short' (LAHSO)
clearance
under any conditions.
152. After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a
pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the
pilot
receives an amended clearance or has an
emergency.
161. The commercial pilot operating as the pilot in
command of an aircraft may accept or decline a land
and hold short clearance (LAHSO)
any time.
153. What action must be taken when a pilot in
command deviates from any rule in 14 CFR Part 91?
Upon the request of the Administrator, send a
written report of that deviation to the
Administrator.
154. You are on a VFR flight and your route takes
you through an active restricted area. You must
obtain prior approval from the controlling
agency.
155. What action should a pilot take when operating
under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is
being conducted.
156. The pilot in command of an aircraft operated
under IFR, in controlled airspace, not in radar
contact, shall report by radio as soon as possible
when
passing each designated reporting point, to
include time and altitude.
162. As part of their preflight planning, pilots should
determine if their destination airport has
'land and hold short' (LAHSO) operations.
163. A pilot-in-command may accept a 'Land and
Hold Short' (LAHSO) clearance provided he or she
determines that the aircraft can safely land and stop
within the Available Landing Distance.
164. Once a pilot-in-command accepts a 'Land and
Hold Short' (LAHSO) clearance, the clearance must
be adhered to, just as any other ATC clearance,
unless
an amended clearance is obtained or an
emergency occurs.
165. To conduct 'land and hold short' (LAHSO)
operations, pilots should have, readily available, the
Chart Supplement.
166. To conduct 'land and hold short' (LAHSO)
operations, pilots should have, readily available,
the runway slope and LAHSO information for
each airport of intended landing.
167. To conduct LAHSO a pilot should have readily
available
runway slope information.
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168. What should you expect when you are told that
LAHSO operations are in effect at your destination
airport?
That ATC will give you a clearance to land and
hold short of a specified point on the runway.
169. When should pilots decline a “land and hold
short” (LAHSO) clearance?
When it will compromise safety.
170. A ‘land and hold short’ (LAHSO) clearance
does not preclude a rejected landing.
171. Prior to accepting a “land and hold short”
clearance (LAHSO) a pilot must confirm the aircraft
can stop
in the Available Landing Distance.
172. A pilot in command is required to be aware of
all of the information pertinent to the flight. This
should include what information about the
destination airport?
Land and hold short operations (LAHSO).
173. If given a landing clearance on runway 16 and
told to hold short runway 6, how can a pilot
determine the available landing distance?
Ask the controller.
174. What is the minimum visibility and ceiling
required for a pilot to receive a “land and hold short”
clearance?
3 statute miles and 1,000 feet.
175. What information should a pilot have available
when encountering LAHSO?
Published available landing distance data for the
expected destination.
176. What is the general direction of movement of
the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe
a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead
and at your altitude? The other aircraft is
headed away from you.
177. How can you determine if another aircraft is on
a collision course with your aircraft?
There will be no apparent relative motion
between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
178. An airplane is converging with a helicopter.
Which aircraft has the right-of-way?
The aircraft on the right.
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179. While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are
converging at a 90° angle, and the helicopter is
located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft
has the right-of-way, and why?
The helicopter, because it is to the right of the
airplane.
180. While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are
converging at a 90° angle, and the airplane is located
to the right of the helicopter. Which aircraft has the
right-of-way, and why?
The airplane, because it is to the right of the
helicopter.
181. Two aircraft of the same category are
approaching an airport for the purpose of landing.
The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
at the lower altitude.
182. During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1
sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft
are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way?
The pilot of aircraft
#1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.
183. A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes
a multiengine airplane approaching from the left.
Which pilot should give way?
The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give
way; the single-engine airplane is to its right.
184. Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which
airplane has the right-of-way?
Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed
on the right.
185. An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which
aircraft has the right-of-way?
Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed
on the right.
186. With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?
Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in
forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to
wingtip vortices generated by airplanes.
187. During a takeoff made behind a departing large
jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of
wingtip vortices by
being airborne prior to reaching the jet’s
flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
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188. To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large
jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff,
at which point on the runway should you plan to
become airborne?
Past the point where the jet touched down.
198. To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR
(SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is
required?
The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the
airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.
189. Which procedure should you follow to avoid
wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course
from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at
your altitude?
Make sure you are slightly above the path of the
jet.
199. When operating an airplane for the purpose of
takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under
special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds
and what visibility are required?
Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility
must be at least 1 SM.
190. Your flight takes you in the path of a large
aircraft. In order to avoid the vortices, you should fly
above the flight path of the large aircraft.
200. At some airports located in Class D airspace
where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and
landings under special VFR are
authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at
least 1 SM.
191. Choose the correct statement regarding wake
turbulence.
The primary hazard is loss of control because of
induced roll.
192. When landing behind a large aircraft, which
procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
Stay above its final approach flightpath all the
way to touchdown.
193. Which is true with respect to vortex circulation?
The vortex strength is greatest when the
generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.
194. Which is true with respect to vortex circulation
in the wake turbulence generated by an aircraft?
The vortex strength is greatest when the
generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.
195. In accordance with14 CFR Part 91,
supplemental oxygen must be used by the required
minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30
minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of
12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet
MSL.
201. What designated airspace associated with an
airport becomes inactive when the control tower at
that airport is not in operation?
Class D, which then becomes Class E.
202. In the contiguous United States, the vertical
limits of the Federal Low Altitude Airways extend
from
1,200 feet AGL up to the bottom of the overlying
controlled airspace.
203. When exiting the runway, the runway exit sign
indicates the
direction to turn to exit onto the named taxiway.
204. (Figure 64) You see this sign when holding
short of the runway. You receive clearance to back
taxi on the runway for a full-length runway 8
departure. Which way should you turn when first
taxiing on to the runway for takeoff?
Right.
196. You are planning a VFR flight and a portion of
your flight will have you flying at 13,500 feet MSL
for 45 minutes. Will the use of supplemental oxygen
be required?
Supplemental oxygen is required for any flight
exceeding 30 minutes at this altitude.
197. You are conducting a flight with passengers
above 15,000 feet MSL. What are the oxygen
requirements?
Crew must use and passengers must be provided
supplemental oxygen at or above this altitude.
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205. (Refer to Figure 61) This sign is a visual clue
that
confirms the aircraft’s location to be on taxiway
“A.”.
208. (Refer to figure 51, H) You are taxiing to an
active runway and you see this sign. This sign means
that
you are approaching an ILS critical area..
206. Under what conditions would a pilot make right
turns in a traffic pattern at an airport in Class G
airspace without an operating control tower?
The airport has visual markings indicating that
turns should be made to the right.
207. (Refer to figure 61) You received an ATC
clearance, "Cessna 123AB, taxi to runway 17 via
taxiway alpha, tango.
You are on Taxiway A. You must take a 45
degree right turn for taxiway T.
209. Which is correct concerning preventive
maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot?
A record of preventive maintenance must be
entered in the maintenance records.
210. A pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offense
involving alcohol or drugs is required to provide a
written report to the
FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700)
within 60 days of the conviction.
211. Required flight crewmembers' safety belts must
be fastened
while the crewmembers are at their stations.
212. Each required flight crewmember is required to
keep his or her shoulder harness fastened
during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is
unable to perform required duties.
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213. With U.S.-registered civil airplanes, the use of
safety belts is required during movement on the
surface, takeoffs, and landings for
each person over 2 years of age on board.
222. One leg of your trip will be within 4 NM and
2,500 feet AGL of a Class D airport. What should
your speed be?
200 knots.
214. A coded transponder equipped with altitude
reporting equipment is required for
Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.
223. Which is true regarding flight operations in
Class B airspace?
The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before
operating an aircraft in that area.
215. A coded transponder equipped with altitude
reporting equipment is required for
1. Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.
2. all airspace of the 48 contiguous U.S. and the
District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL
(including airspace at and below 2,500 feet above
the surface).
1.
216. In the contiguous U.S., excluding the airspace
at and below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded
transponder equipped with Mode C capability is
required in all airspace above
10,000 feet MSL.
217. In accordance with 14 CFR Part 91,
supplemental oxygen must be used by the required
minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30
minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of
12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet
MSL.
218. Approved flotation gear, readily available to
each occupant, is required on each airplane if it is
being flown for hire over water,
beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
219. The maximum cumulative time that an
emergency locator transmitter may be operated
before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is
60 minutes.
220. What transponder equipment is required for
airplane operations within Class B airspace? A
transponder
with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C
capability.
221. What is the maximum indicated airspeed
authorized in the airspace underlying Class B
airspace?
200 knots.
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224. Which is true regarding pilot certification
requirements for operations in Class B airspace?
The pilot in command must hold at least a private
pilot certificate.
225. Which is true regarding flight operations in
Class B airspace?
The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC
transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
226. A standard airworthiness certificate remains in
effect as long as the aircraft receives
required maintenance and inspections.
227. An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it
has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with
regulations within the preceding
24 calendar months.
228. If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft
has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply
with regulations within a specified period, what is
the limitation on its use?
Its use is not permitted.
229. Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil
airplanes require that during movement on the
surface, takeoffs, and landings, a safety belt and
shoulder harness (if installed) must be properly
secured about each
person on board.
230. If the minimum safe speed for any particular
operation is greater than the maximum speed
prescribed in 14 CFR Part 91, the
aircraft may be operated at that speed.
231. When approaching to land at an airport, without
an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the
pilot should
make all turns to the left, unless otherwise
indicated.
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232. When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an
airport with an operating control tower, in Class E
airspace, a pilot must establish communications
prior to
4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
239. (Refer to Figure 52, Point 7) The floor of Class
E airspace over the town of Woodland is
both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.
233. When approaching to land at an airport with an
ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must
establish communications prior to
4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
234. You are operating out of a non-towered satellite
airport within Class C airspace.
Your aircraft must be equipped with an ATC
transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
235. Which is true regarding flight operations to or
from a satellite airport, without an operating control
tower, within the Class C airspace area?
Each person must establish and maintain twoway radio communication with the ATC serving
facility as soon as practicable after departing.
236. Which is true regarding flight operations in
Class A airspace?
Must conduct operations under instrument flight
rules.
237. Which is true regarding flight operations in
Class A airspace?
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC
transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
238. Which is true concerning the blue and magenta
colors used to depict airports on Sectional
Aeronautical Charts?
Airports with control towers underlying Class B,
C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.
To the inside of the shading, Class E airspace begins
at 700 ft. AGL. Where the outer edge of the magenta
area ends, Class E airspace begins at 1,200 ft. AGL.
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240. (Refer to figure 52 point 9) The alert area
depicted within the magenta lines is an area in which
there is a high volume of pilot training activities
or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of
which is hazardous to aircraft.
241. When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport
on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the
boundary of
Class D airspace.
242. (Refer to figure 53, point 3) The floor of the
controlled airspace over Firebaugh Airport (F34) is
700 feet AGL.
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243. (Refer to Figure 54 point 1) You are departing
Livermore airport (LVK) VFR enroute to San
Francisco (SFO). You must have
an ATC clearance.
245. (Refer to Figure 52, point 8) The traffic pattern
altitude at the Auburn (AUN) airport is 1,000 feet
AGL. May you practice landings under VFR when
the AWOS is reporting a ground visibility of 2 miles?
No, the reported ground visibility must be at least
3 miles.
244. (Refer to Figure 54, Area 4.) You have received
a VFR clearance to enter the San Francisco Class B
airspace at 8,500 feet by Area 4 on the Sectional
Chart. What are the VFR cloud clearance and
visibility requirements in the Class B airspace?
3 SM visibility and clear of clouds.
246. (Figure 52, Area 6.) What is the purpose of the
star that follows the CT-120.65 in the information
box for the Sacramento Mather (MHR) Airport?
That the control tower has limited hours of
operation.
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247. The segmented circle indicates that the airport
traffic is
left-hand for Runway 36 and right- hand for
Runway 18.
251. Figure 52. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 1.) The floor of the Class E airspace above
Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at
3,823 feet MSL.
2623 + 1200
248. True course measurements on a Sectional
Aeronautical Chart should be made at a meridian
near the midpoint of the course because the
angles formed by lines of longitude and the
course line vary from point to point.
252. Figure 52. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 2.) The highest obstruction with high intensity
lighting within 10 NM of Sacramento International
Airport (SMF) is how high above ground?
512 feet.
249. What must a pilot do or be aware of when
transitioning an Alert Area?
Be aware that the area may contain unusual
aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot
training.
250. Which statement is true about isogonic lines?
Isogonic lines are lines of equal variation.
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253. Figure 52. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
area 2.) When departing the RIO LINDA (L36)
Airport to the northwest at an altitude of 1,000 feet
AGL, you
are not required to contact any ATC facilities if
you do not enter the Class C Airspace.
254. Figure 52. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 4.) The terrain at the obstruction approximately
8 NM east southeast of the Lincoln Airport is
approximately how much higher than the airport
elevation?
827 feet.
Tower height 1245, base 297, airport elevation 121
1245-297-121 = 827
255. Figure 52. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 5.) The floor of the Class E airspace over
University Airport (area 5) is
700 feet AGL.
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256. Figure 52. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 6.) Borges-Clarksburg Airport is
a nonpublic use airport.
Borges-Clarksburg Airport (west of 6) is a private,
i.e., nonpublic-use, airport as indicated by the term
“(Pvt)” after the airport name.
258. Figure 53. Sectional Chart Excerpt. GIVEN:
Location Madera Airport (MAE)
Altitude 1,000 ft. AGL
Position 7 NM north of Madera (MAE)
Time 3 p.m. local
Flight visibility 1 SM
You are VFR approaching Madera Airport for a
landing from the north. You
are required to descend to below 700 feet AGL to
remain clear of Class E airspace and may
continue for landing.
257. Figure 53. Sectional Chart Excerpt. You are
planning a VFR west bound flight departing the
FRESNO CHANDLER EXECUTIVE (FCH) airport
and you will be passing through the active Lemoore
C and A MOAs. What action should you take?
Exercise extreme caution while in the boundaries
of the MOA.
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259. Figure 53. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
area 4.) You plan to depart on a day VFR flight from
the Firebaugh (F34) airport. The floor of the
controlled airspace over Firebaugh Airport (F34) is
700 feet AGL.
260. Figure 53. Sectional Chart Excerpt. What is
indicated by the star next to the “L” in the airport
information box for the MADERA (MAE) airport
north of area 2?
Lighting limitations exist.
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261. Figure 53. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 1.) This thin black shaded line is most likely
a military training route.
262. Figure 53. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 2.) The 16 indicates
the maximum elevation figure for that
quadrangle.
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263. Figure 54. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 6.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan
Oakland International (OAK) which extends from
the surface upward has a ceiling of
both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.
265. Figure 54. Sectional Chart Excerpt. What is the
ceiling of the Class D Airspace of the Byron (C83)
airport (Area 2)?
Class D Airspace does not exist at Byron
(C83).
On the northwest side of OAK the base is 2,100 ft.
MSL and on the southeast side of OAK the base is
3,000 ft. MSL.
264. Figure 54. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 1.) What minimum altitude is required to avoid
the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?
2,901 feet MSL.
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No dashed blue line surrounding Byron (C83)
Airport.
266. Figure 54. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
area 3.) What is the significance of R-2531? This is
a restricted area
where often invisible hazards exist.
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267. Figure 54. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 4.) The thin magenta line represents
the San Francisco Mode C veil, which requires
the use of an appropriate transponder.
272. An instrument rated pilot is planning a flight
under IFR on July 1, this year. Before conducting
the flight, the pilot must have
performed and logged the prescribed tasks and
repetitions required for instrument currency no
earlier than January 1, this year.
273. A person may act as pilot in command of both
type A and type B aircraft under IFR, if an
instrument proficiency check has been passed in
type A since the beginning of the 12th month, and
in type B since the beginning of the 6th month
before time to serve.
274. What are the minimum certificate and rating
requirements for the pilot in command of a turbojet
airplane with two engines being operated by a
Commuter Air Carrier (as defined in part 298) under
IFR?
Airline transport pilot; airplane category;
multiengine class rating; airplane type rating, if
required.
268. Alert Areas are special use airspace depicted
within magenta lines on sectional charts in which
there is a high volume of pilot training activities
or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of
which is hazardous to aircraft.
269. After a post-flight inspection, you notice a
discrepancy. Who is responsible to correct the
discrepancy prior to the next flight?
The owner or designated operator.
270. With respect to the certification of aircraft,
which is a category of aircraft?
Normal, utility, acrobatic.
271. With respect to the certification of aircraft,
which is a class of aircraft?
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
275. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727
and B-737. A flight test is completed in
ATP: B-747, B-727, and B-737.
276. A commercial pilot has DHC Dash-8 400 and
CRJ type ratings. A flight test is completed for an
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B737. What
pilot privileges may be exercised?
ATP - B737, CRJ, and Dash-8 400.
277. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a
type rating to be added to a commercial pilot
certificate, in an approved simulator, is
not required to have a medical certificate.
278. When a type rating is to be added to an airline
transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is
scheduled in an approved flight training device
and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is
not required to have a medical certificate.
279. When a type rating is to be added to an airline
transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is
scheduled in an approved flight simulator and an
aircraft, the applicant is
required to have a least a current third-class
medical certificate.
280. What should you consider when planning to
land at another airport?
Land and hold short procedures.
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281. As part of their preflight planning process,
pilots should check if their destination airport has:
LAHSO.
291. With respect to the certification of aircraft,
which is a class of aircraft?
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
282. When conducting Land and Hold Short
Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily
available:
the published Available Landing Distance (ALD),
landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of
all LAHSO combinations at the destination
airport.
292. An instrument rated pilot is planning a flight
under IFR on July 1, this year. Before conducting
the flight, the pilot must have
performed and logged the prescribed tasks and
repetitions required for instrument currency no
earlier than January 1, this year.
283. The most effective technique to use for
detecting other aircraft at night is to
avoid staring directly at the point where another
aircraft is suspected to be flying.
284. How can an instrument pilot best overcome
spatial disorientation?
Read and interpret the flight instruments, and
act accordingly.
285. In what type of operation, not regulated by 14
CFR Part 119, may a commercial pilot act as pilot in
command and receive compensation for services?
Nonstop flights within a 25 SM radius of an
airport to carry persons for intentional parachute
jumps.
286. You are acting as a commercial pilot, but are
not operating under the regulations of 14 CFR Part
119. Which of these operations are you authorized to
conduct?
Aerial application and aerial photography.
287. Who is responsible for filing a Near Midair
Collision (NMAC) Report?
Pilot and/or flight crew of aircraft involved in the
incident.
288. Pilots and/or Flight Crew members involved in
NMAC occurrences are urged to report each incident
immediately:
By radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC
Facility or FSS.
289. After a post-flight inspection, you notice a
discrepancy. Who is responsible to correct the
discrepancy prior to the next flight?
The owner or designated operator.
290. With respect to the certification of aircraft,
which is a category of aircraft?
Normal, utility, acrobatic.
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293. A person may act as pilot in command of both
type A and type B aircraft under IFR, if an
instrument proficiency check has been passed in
type A since the beginning of the 12th month, and
in type B since the beginning of the 6th month
before time to serve.
294. What are the minimum certificate and rating
requirements for the pilot in command of a turbojet
airplane with two engines being operated by a
Commuter Air Carrier (as defined in part 298) under
IFR?
Airline transport pilot; airplane category;
multiengine class rating; airplane type rating, if
required.
295. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727
and B-737. A flight test is completed in
ATP: B-747, B-727, and B-737.
296. A commercial pilot has DHC Dash-8 400 and
CRJ type ratings. A flight test is completed for an
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B737. What
pilot privileges may be exercised?
ATP - B737, CRJ, and Dash-8 400.
297. When a type rating is to be added to an airline
transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is
scheduled in an approved flight training device
and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is
is not required to have a medical certificate.
298. When a type rating is to be added to an airline
transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is
scheduled in an approved flight simulator and an
aircraft, the applicant is?
required to have a least a current third- class
medical certificate.
299. What should you consider when planning to
land at another airport?
Land and hold short procedures.
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300. As part of their preflight planning process,
pilots should check if their destination airport has:
LAHSO.
301. When conducting Land and Hold Short
Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily
available:
the published Available Landing Distance (ALD),
landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of
all LAHSO combinations at the destination
airport.
302. The most effective technique to use for
detecting other aircraft at night is to
avoid staring directly at the point where another
aircraft is suspected to be flying.
303. How can an instrument pilot best overcome
spatial disorientation?
Read and interpret the flight instruments, and
act accordingly.
304. You have accomplished 25 takeoffs and
landings in multi-engine land airplanes in the
previous 45 days. For a flight you plan to conduct
today, this meets the PIC recency of experience
requirements to carry passengers in which airplanes?
Multi-engine land airplane.
310. Which list accurately reflects some of the
documents required to be current and carried in a
U.S. registered civil airplane flying in the United
States under day Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
Airworthiness certificate, approved airplane
flight manual, and aircraft registration certificate.
311. The holder of a commercial pilot certificate
while exercising commercial pilot privileges is
restricted from operating under BasicMed
at anytime.
312. If a military training route has flights operating
at or below 1,500 feet AGL, it will be designated by
IR or VR and a four digit number.
313. When approaching to land at an airport, without
an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, a
helicopter pilot should
avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft.
314. (Refer to Figure 50.) The segmented circle
indicates that the airport traffic is
left-hand for runway 36 and right-hand for
runway 18.
305. A transponder will become unserviceable when
it is off by more than
125 feet.
306. What regulations are in the terms and
conditions of a Standard Airworthiness Certificate?
Parts 21, 43, and 91.
307. Minimum safe altitude rules authorize
helicopter pilots to
fly at less than 500 feet it they do not create a
hazard to persons and property on the surface.
308. Minimum safe altitude rules require that
helicopter pilots
comply with routes and altitudes prescribed by
the FAA.
309. For the purpose of airworthiness, a dealer
registration certificate is the same as the owner's
certificate when
required for flight testing.
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315. (Refer to Figure 54, point 2.) After departing
from Byron Airport (C83) with a northeast wind,
you discover you are approaching Livermore Class
D airspace and flight visibility is approximately 21/2 miles. You must
stay below 700 feet to remain in Class G and land.
317. (Refer to Figure 52, point 8.) The floor of the
Class E airspace over the town of Auburn is
700 feet AGL.
The magenta shading indicates Class E airspace begins at
700 feet. The VFR minimum in controlled airspace below
10,000 feet is 3 SM. Therefore, with 2-1/2 miles visibility,
you must stay below 700 feet to remain in Class G
airspace.
316. (Refer to Figure 52, point 6.) Van Vleck airport
is
a nonpublic use airport.
318. (Refer to Figure 52, point 4.) The obstruction
within 10 NM closest to Lincoln Regional Airport
(LHM) is how high above the ground?
296 feet.
Pvt: Non-public use having emergency or landmark value.
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319. The thinner outer magenta circle depicted
around Class B Airspace is
a Mode C “veil” boundary where a balloon may
penetrate without a transponder, provided it
remains below 10,000 feet MSL.
322. Where can you find more information about
parachute operations?
Chart Supplement.
323. Which of the following best describes a
destination sign?
Indicates the direction to the takeoff runway.
324. The ‘yellow demarcation bar’ marking
indicates
runway with a displaced threshold that precedes
the runway.
325. When turning onto a taxiway from another
taxiway, the "taxiway directional sign" indicates the
designation and direction of the taxiway(s)
leading out of an intersection.
326. The “taxiway location” sign serves to
identify taxiway on which an aircraft is located.
327. What is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
Defines direction and designation of exit taxiway
from runway.
320. (Refer to Figure 54, point 1.) A helicopter flight
over Livermore Airport (LVK) at 3,000 feet MSL
requires a transponder, but ATC communication
is not necessary.
328. The “taxiway ending” marker
Indicates taxiway does not continue.
321. Which of these circumstances requires
immediate notification of the NTSB office?
An overdue aircraft that was potentially involved
in an accident.
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329. (Figure 60.) Sign 1 is an indication
That the taxiway does not continue.
332. (Figure 51) When taxiing up to an active
runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical
area when short of which symbol?
H.
330. (Refer to figure 60) You are taxiing and see
sign 2 on the left side of the intersection you are
approaching. You see sign 1 in front of you across
the intersection. Does taxiway A continue through
the intersection?
No, the taxiway does not continue.
331. The runway holding position sign is located on
runways that intersect other runways.
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333. Figure 51. While clearing an active runway you
are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when
you pass which symbol
H.
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334. Figure 51. The pilot generally calls ground
control after landing when the aircraft is completely
clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft
is past the solid-line side of symbol G.
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335. Figure 51. Airport Signs. (Refer to F.) This sign
confirms your position on
runway 22.
337. Figure 64. Sign. If cleared for an intersection
takeoff on runway 8, you see this sign at the
intersection hold short position. Which way should
you turn when taxiing onto the runway?
Left.
Continued on next page.
336. Figure 56. Two Signs. Sign 1 confirms your
position on
routing to runway 22.
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Link to the FAA Commercial Knowledge Test Supplement,
which is referenced in this study guide:
https://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/supplements/media/commercial_akts.pdf
You will be given a copy of this supplement when you take test. Most of this supplement you can ignore, but take
a look at the following pages:
Sectional Aeronautical Chart Legend (page 1-1) – MOST IMPORTANT PAGE
En Route Low Altitude Segment (pages 2-43, 2-44)
Sectional Chart Excerpts (pages 2-40, 2-41, 2-42)
Airport Signs (pages 2-39, 2-45, 2-46, 2-47, 2-48)
Continued on next page.
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Practice Test
1. On a post flight inspection of your aircraft after an
aborted takeoff due to an elevator malfunction, you
find that the elevator control cable has broken.
According to NTSB 830, you
A. should notify the NTSB within 10 days.
B. must file a NASA report immediately.
C. must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office.
2. Notification to the NTSB is required when there
has been substantial damage
A. which adversely affects structural strength or
flight characteristics.
B. to an engine caused by engine failure in flight.
C. which requires repairs to landing gear.
3. NTSB Part 830 requires an immediate notification
as a result of which incident?
A. Engine failure for any reason during flight.
B. Any required flight crewmember being unable to
perform flight duties because of illness.
C. Damage to the landing gear as a result of a hard
landing.
4. Which incident would require that the nearest
NTSB field office be notified immediately?
A. In-flight fire.
B. Ground fire resulting in fire equipment dispatch.
C. Fire of the primary aircraft while in a hanger
which results in damage to other property of more
than $25,000. (Hangar fire)
5. Which airborne incident would require that the
nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately?
A. Cargo compartment door malfunction or failure.
B. Cabin door opened in-flight.
C. Flight control system malfunction or failure.
6. During flight a fire, which was extinguished,
burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What
action is required by regulations?
A. A report must be filed with the avionics inspector
at the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office
within 48 hours.
B. An immediate notification by the operator of the
aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office.
C. No notification or report is required.
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7. When should notification of an aircraft accident
be made to the NTSB if there was substantial
damage and no injuries?
A. Immediately.
B. Within 30 days.
C. Within 10 days.
8. You are acting as PIC, and the pilot acting as SIC
becomes incapacitated due to chest pains. You
should
A. immediately notify the Civil Aeromedical
Institute.
B. immediately notify the local Flight Standards
District Office.
C. immediately notify the NTSB.
9. What period of time must a person be hospitalized
before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a
"serious injury"?
A. 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of
the injury.
B. 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances.
C. 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date
of the injury.
10. How many days after an accident is a report
required to be filed with the nearest NTSB field
office?
A. 2.
B. 10.
C. 7.
11. The operator of an aircraft that has been involved
in an incident is required to submit a report to the
nearest field office of the NTSB
A. only if requested to do so.
B. within 7 days.
C. within 10 days.
12. While taxiing for takeoff, a small fire burned the
insulation from a transceiver wire. What action
would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830?
A. An immediate notification must be filed by the
operator of the aircraft with the nearest NTSB field
office.
B. A report must be filed with the avionics inspector
at the nearest FAA field office within 48 hours.
C. No notification or report is required.
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13. While taxiing on the parking ramp, the landing
gear, one wheel, and two tires are damaged by
striking ground equipment. What action would be
required to comply with NTSB Part 830?
A. An immediate notification must be filed by the
operator of the aircraft with the nearest NTSB field
office.
B. No notification or report is required.
C. A report must be filed with the nearest FAA field
office within 7 days.
14. An aircraft is being towed and strikes another
aircraft on the ramp. Are you required to notify the
NTSB?
A. A report must be filed with the nearest FAA field
office within 7 days.
B. Immediate notification to the NTSB is required.
C. No notification or report is required.
15. What is the maximum bearing error (+ or -)
allowed for an operational VOR equipment check
when using an FAA-approved ground test signal?
A. 4 degrees.
B. 8 degrees.
C. 6 degrees.
16. Which data must be recorded in the aircraft
logbook or other record by a pilot making a VOR
operational check for IFR operations?
A. VOR name or identification, place of operational
check, amount of bearing error, and date of check.
B. Date of check, place of operational check, bearing
error, and signature.
C. VOR name or identification, amount of bearing
error, date of check, and signature.
17. When must an operational check on the aircraft
VOR equipment be accomplished to operate under
IFR? Within the preceding
A. 30 days or 30 hours of flight time.
B. 10 days or 10 hours of flight time.
C. 30 days.
18. A pilot performing a published instrument
approach is not authorized to perform a procedure
turn when
A. receiving a radar vector to a final approach course
or fix.
B. maneuvering at minimum safe altitudes.
C. maneuvering at radar vectoring altitudes.
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19. Pilots are required to have the anti-collision light
system operating
A. during all types of operations, both day and night.
B. anytime the pilot is in the cockpit.
C. anytime an engine is in operation.
20. If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or
anti-collision light system, no person may operate
that aircraft
A. after dark.
B. 1 hour after sunset.
C. after sunset to sunrise.
21. If not equipped with required position lights, an
aircraft must terminate flight
A. 30 minutes after sunset.
B. at sunset.
C. 1 hour after sunset.
22. Which is required equipment for powered
aircraft during VFR night flights?
A. Anti-collision light system.
B. Gyroscopic direction indicator.
C. Gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator.
23. Which is required equipment for powered
aircraft during VFR night flights?
A. Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric
pressure.
B. Flashlight with red lens, if the flight is for hire.
C. An electric landing light, if the flight is for hire.
24. When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being
used for navigation on VFR flight, it is important to
A. make 90° left and right turns to scan for other
traffic.
B. exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that
may be converging on the VOR from other
directions.
C. pass the VOR on the right side of the radial to
allow room for aircraft flying in the opposite
direction on the same radial.
25. With a blood alcohol level at or above .04
percent, a pilot cannot fly until
A. the blood alcohol falls to .04 percent.
B. at least 12 hours after consuming alcohol under
the influence of alcohol, and the blood alcohol falls
below .02 percent.
C. at least 8 hours after consuming alcohol, no
longer under the influence of alcohol, and the blood
alcohol falls below .04 percent.
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26. If 8 hours or more have passed since last
consuming alcohol, a pilot with a blood alcohol level
greater than or equal to .04 percent cannot fly until
A. a minimum of 12 hours have passed and the
blood alcohol falls below .04 percent.
B. a minimum of 12 hours have passed and no
longer under the influence of alcohol.
C. the blood alcohol falls below .04 percent and no
longer under the influence of alcohol.
27. A pilot convicted of operating a motor vehicle
while either intoxicated by, impaired by, or under
the influence of alcohol or a drug is required to
provide a
A. the notification of the conviction to an FAA
Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) not later than 60
days after the motor vehicle action.
B. written report to the FAA Security and Hazardous
Materials Safety Office (AXE-700) not later than 60
days after the conviction.
C. written report to the FAA Civil Aerospace
Medical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the
motor vehicle action.
28. A pilot convicted for the violation of any Federal
or State statute relating to the process, manufacture,
transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs
is grounds for
A. suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating,
or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 61.
B. a written report to be filed with the FAA Security
and Hazardous Materials Safety Office (AXE- 700)
not later than 60 days after the conviction.
C. notification of this conviction to the FAA Civil
Aerospace Medical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days
after the conviction.
31. Regulations which refer to "operate" relate to
that person who
A. causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use.
B. is the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls.
C. acts as pilot in command of the aircraft.
32. Regulations which refer to the "operational
control" of a flight are in relation to
A. acting as the sole manipulator of the aircraft
controls.
B. the specific duties of any required crewmember.
C. exercising authority over initiating, conducting,
or terminating a flight.
33. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling
speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which
the airplane is controllable?
A. VS1.
B. VSO.
C. VS.
34. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling
speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a
specified configuration?
A. VS1.
B. VSO.
C. VS.
35. 14 CFR part 1 defines VF as
A. maximum flap extended speed.
B. design flap speed.
C. flap operating speed.
36. 14 CFR part 1 defines VLE as
A. maximum landing gear extended speed.
B. maximum landing gear operating speed.
C. maximum leading edge flaps extended speed.
29. To avoid landing at the wrong airport or on the
wrong runway, a pilot should
A. contact Unicom to get the latest field information.
B. follow the instrument approach chart for the
appropriate runway.
C. contact tower for verification.
37. Structural damage or failure is more likely to
occur in smooth air at speeds above
A. VNE.
B. VA.
C. VNO.
30. Regulations which refer to "commercial
operators" relate to that person who
A. is the owner of a small scheduled airline.
B. for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage
by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property,
as an air carrier.
C. for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage
by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property,
other than as an air carrier.
38. The term Airport means an area of land or water
that is
A. scheduled for use as an airport.
B. used or intended to be used for the landing and
takeoff of aircraft, and includes taxiways and other
ground movement areas.
C. used or intended to be used for the landing and
takeoff of aircraft, and includes its buildings and
facilities, if any.
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39. Pitch setting means
A. the existing, pilot-selected propeller pitch on a
variable pitch propeller.
B. the propeller blade setting as determined by the
blade angle measured as specified by the propeller
instruction manual.
C. the manifold pressure and RPM combination
selected for cruise flight.
40. If an airplane category is listed as utility, it
would mean that this airplane could be operated in
which of the following maneuvers?
A. Limited acrobatics, including spins
(if approved).
B. Only lazy eights, chandelles and steep turns.
C. Any maneuver including acrobatics and spins.
41. Airworthiness Directives
A. are advisory in nature and are generally not
addressed immediately.
B. require compliance or the aircraft is unairworthy.
C. are the responsibility of maintenance personnel.
42. What should an owner or operator know about
Airworthiness Directives (AD`s)?
A. They are voluntary.
B. They are mandatory.
C. For Informational purposes only.
43. You find out that the aircraft you fly at the local
flying club has a new airworthiness directive (AD).
Where do you look to confirm the aircraft is in
compliance?
A. Verbal confirmation from the person who
completed the maintenance.
B. The aircraft status sheet.
C. In the appropriate aircraft records.
44. You are PIC of a flight and determine that the
aircraft you planned to fly has an overdue
Airworthiness Directive (AD). Which of the
following is an appropriate decision?
A. You cancel the flight and have the aircraft
scheduled for maintenance.
B. No maintenance is available so you wait until
after the trip to comply with the AD.
C. You make the flight because you can overfly an
AD by 10 hours.
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45. You have been hired by an owner to manage his
aircraft in a 14 CFR Part 91 operation. The owner
has received an Airworthiness Directive in the mail.
Who holds the responsibility to ensure the aircraft is
in compliance with the AD?
A. The person that manages the aircraft.
B. Aircraft operated under 14 CFR Part 91
operations do not have to comply with an AD.
C. The owner or operator of the aircraft.
46. An aircraft on a stopover at an airport 450 miles
from its home airport. A mechanic discovers a
discrepancy. Who is responsible for maintaining the
airworthiness of the aircraft by having the defect
corrected?
A. The mechanic.
B. Pilot-in-command.
C. The owner or operator.
47. Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an
aircraft in an airworthy condition?
A. Pilot in command or operator.
B. The lead mechanic responsible for that aircraft.
C. Owner or operator of the aircraft.
48. You have been hired by an owner to manage his
aircraft in a 14 CFR Part 91 operation. The owner
has received an Airworthiness Directive in the mail.
Who holds the responsibility to ensure the aircraft is
in compliance with the AD?
A. The owner or operator of that aircraft.
B. The person that manages the aircraft.
C. Aircraft operated under 14 CFR Part 91
operations do not have to comply with an AD.
49. How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of
an aircraft remain valid?
A. As long as the aircraft has a current Registration
Certificate.
B. As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated
as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.
C. Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major
damage.
50. Which is true concerning required maintenance
inspections?
A. A 100-hour inspection may be substituted for an
annual inspection.
B. An annual inspection is required even if a
progressive inspection system has been approved.
C. An annual inspection may be substituted for a
100-hour
inspection.
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51. You are the PIC of a small, single-engine
reciprocating engine, propeller aircraft and want to
know if you can fly an instructional flight for hire.
Here is the maintenance data:
Total hours - 5,116
Time since last annual inspection - 4 months
Hours at last 100-hour inspection - 5,018
Overfly hours at last inspection - 4
A. No, it has overflow by 4 hours.
B. Yes, you have 2 hours remaining until the next
100 hour inspection.
C. No, the 100 hour inspection was due at 5,114
hours.
52. An aircraft carrying passengers for hire has been
on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours of time
in service. Under which condition, if any, may that
aircraft be operated beyond 100 hours without a new
inspection?
A. The aircraft may be dispatched for a flight of any
duration as long as 100 hours has not been exceeded
at the time it departs.
B. The aircraft may be flown for any flight as long
as the time in service has not exceeded 110 hours.
C. The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not
more than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at
which the inspection can be done.
53. Aircraft maintenance records must include the
current status of the
A. life-limited parts of each airframe, engine,
propeller, rotor, and appliance.
B. life-limited parts of only the engine and airframe.
C. applicable airworthiness certificate.
54. According to 14 CFR Part 91, what may you
find in the maintenance records?
A. The list of items that need to be replaced at the
next maintenance activity.
B. Total time on the airframe, each engine, each
propeller, each rotor and each appliance on an
aircraft.
C. The address of a list of suppliers of non-aircraft
parts.
55. After an annual inspection has been completed
and the aircraft has been returned to service, an
appropriate notation should be made
A. on the airworthiness certificate.
B. in the FAA-approved flight manual.
C. in the aircraft maintenance records.
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56. Under what condition could an aircraft`s engine
logbook show no previous operating history?
A. When the aircraft`s engine has been rebuilt by the
manufacturer.
B. If the aircraft had been imported from a foreign
country.
C. This would indicate an error by maintenance
personnel.
57. A new maintenance record being used for an
aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must
include previous
A. annual inspections performed on the engine.
B. changes as required by Airworthiness Directives.
C. operating hours of the engine.
58. What information is required to be entered into
an aircraft maintenance record after the aircraft is
returned to service following an annual inspection?
A. Certificate number of approving facility.
B. Date and location where the aircraft was returned
to service.
C. The maintainer's certification number and
signature.
59. After an aircraft has been altered in a manner
that changed its flight characteristics, what must be
accomplished before carrying passengers?
A. The person that performed the alteration must
state that the aircraft is safe for flight.
B. An operational check by an appropriately rated
pilot.
C. A letter of authorization from an FAA field office
that approved the alteration must be issued.
60. If an aircraft's operation in flight was
substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the
aircraft documents must show that it was test flown
and approved for return to service by an
appropriately-rated pilot prior to being operated
A. with passengers aboard.
B. for compensation or hire.
C. under VFR or IFR rules.
61. What documentation is required when a pilot has
performed preventive maintenance on an aircraft?
A. The pilot is to make an entry in the aircraft’s
maintenance records.
B. Pilot performed maintenance does not need to be
documented.
C. Only major repairs and alterations need to be
documented.
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62. What maintenance may a certificated pilot, who
does not hold an Airframe and Powerplant certificate,
perform?
A. Only an Airframe and Powerplant certificated
pilot may perform maintenance.
B. Pilots cannot perform maintenance.
C. Pilot may perform any maintenance that does not
involve complex assembly operations.
63. During your preflight inspection, you notice that
the airspeed indicator is indicating 15 knots at all
times. According to 14 CFR Part 91,is this aircraft
able to be flown in VFR conditions?
A. Yes, as long as there is an approved minimum
equipment list for this aircraft.
B. No, the airspeed indicator is a required instrument
for VFR flight.
C. Yes, this aircraft is airworthy for flight in VFR
conditions.
64. The primary purpose of a minimum equipment
list (MEL) is to
A. list the equipment that can be inoperative and still
not affect the airworthiness of an aircraft.
B. provide a list of equipment that must be
operational at all times on the aircraft.
C. list the minimum equipment that must be installed
in all aircraft as required by airworthiness directives.
65. Authority for approval of a minimum equipment
list (MEL) must be obtained from the
A. Administrator.
B. aircraft manufacturer.
C. FAA district office.
66. Which action is appropriate if an aircraft,
operating under 14 CFR Part 91 and for which a
master minimum equipment list has not been
developed, is determined to have an inoperative
instrument or piece of equipment that does not
constitute a hazard to the aircraft? The item should
be
A. deactivated and placarded “inoperative” but
repairs can be deferred indefinitely.
B. removed and repaired prior to the next flight.
C. placarded “inoperative” and repaired during the
next inspection.
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67. Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be
found?
A. On the Standard Airworthiness Certificate issued
by the FAA for the aircraft type certificated.
B. In the airframe and engine maintenance
handbooks.
C. In the current, FAA-approved flight manual,
approved manual material, markings, and placards,
or any combination thereof.
68. Can an aircraft be operated after it is sold with an
aircraft dealer's registration?
A. Yes, but only for 30 days.
B. No, the new owner must register the aircraft
before flying it.
C. Yes, but only temporarily for 120 days.
69. A second-class medical certificate issued to a
commercial pilot on April 10, this year, permits the
pilot to exercise which of the following privileges?
A. Private pilot privileges through, but not after,
March 31, next year.
B. Commercial pilot privileges through April 10, 2
years later.
C. Commercial pilot privileges through April 30,
next year.
70. To exercise the privileges of a Commercial Pilot
Certificate, a person must
A. hold at least a Second-Class Medical Certificate.
B. have a BasicMed checklist signed by a certifying
physician.
C. have received an endorsement from an authorized
instructor.
71. May a pilot in the U.S. Military use a current
U.S. Armed Forces medical examination to exercise
the privileges of an FAA Commercial Pilot
Certificate?
A. No, the medical examination may not be used to
exercise the privileges of an FAA Commercial Pilot
Certificate.
B. Yes, the military examination may be used for
any civilian flight operations.
C. No, a military medical examination may not be
used for any civilian flight operations.
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72. Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a
medical certificate shall present it for inspection
upon the request of any
A. authorized representative of the Department of
Transportation.
B. local law enforcement officer. (FAA
Administrator, NTSB rep., or any federal, state, or
local law enforcement officer.)
C. person in a position of authority.
73. Commercial pilots are required to have a valid
and appropriate pilot certificate in their physical
possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when
A. acting as pilot in command.
B. carrying passengers only.
C. piloting for hire only.
74. When acting as pilot-in-command or as a
required crew member, a pilot must have in his or
her personal possession or readily accessible in the
aircraft a current
A. logbook endorsement to show that a flight review
has been satisfactorily accomplished.
B. medical certificate, if required, and an appropriate
pilot certificate
C. endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a
flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
75. Does a commercial pilot certificate have a
specific expiration date?
A. Yes, it expires at the end of the 24th month after
the month in which it was issued.
B. No, it is issued without a specific expiration date.
C. No, but commercial privileges expire if a flight
review is not satisfactorily completed each 12
months.
76. You just received your commercial pilot
certificate and plan to act as PIC for compensation.
You may do so provided you
A. are qualified in accordance with 14 CFR Part 61
and with the applicable parts.
B. completed a PIC proficiency check in the last 12
months.
C. are certified in any category/class of aircraft.
77. A person with a commercial pilot certificate may
act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying
persons or property for compensation or hire, if that
person
A. holds appropriate category, class ratings, and
meets the recent flight experience requirements of
14 CFR Part 61.
B. is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR Part 61
and with the applicable parts that apply to the
operation.
C. is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR Part 61
and has passed a pilot competency check given by
an authorized check pilot.
78. What limitation is imposed on a newly
certificated commercial pilot - airplane, if that
person does not hold an instrument rating? The
carriage of passengers
A. for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50
NM for night flights, but not limited for day flights.
B. or property for hire on cross-country flights at
night is limited to a radius of 50 NM.
C. for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50
NM, or for hire at night is prohibited.
79. When is the pilot in command required to hold a
category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft
being flown?
A. All solo flights.
B. On practical tests given by an examiner or FAA
Inspector.
C. On flights when carrying another person.
80. A pilot with a Commercial Pilot Certificate plans
to operate an aircraft as Pilot in Command with a
maximum gross takeoff weight in excess of 12,500
pounds carrying passengers. What additional
requirement needs to be satisfied?
A. The pilot needs a type rating to operate as pilot in
command.
B. A proficiency check needs to be performed before
carrying passengers.
C. No additional requirements need to be satisfied to
operate the aircraft.
81. Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in
command is required to hold a type rating when
operating any
A. aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot.
B. multiengine airplane having a gross weight of
more than 12,000 pounds.
C. aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum
certificated takeoff weight.
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82. Which of the following are considered aircraft
class ratings?
A. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air.
B. Single-engine land, multiengine land, singleengine sea, and multiengine sea.
C. Transport, normal, utility, and acrobatic.
83. Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot in
command must have accomplished the required
takeoffs and landings in
A. the same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a
type rating is required).
B. the same category and class of aircraft to be used.
C. any category aircraft.
84. To act as pilot in command of an airplane that is
equipped with retractable landing gear, flaps, and
controllable-pitch propeller, a person is required to
A. make at least six takeoffs and landings in such an
airplane within the preceding 6 months.
B. receive and log ground and flight training in such
an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement
certifying proficiency.
C. hold a multiengine airplane class rating.
85. To act as pilot-in-command of an airplane with
more than 200 horsepower, a person is required to
A. receive and log ground and flight training from a
qualified pilot in such an airplane.
B. obtain an endorsement from a qualified pilot
stating that the person is proficient to operate such
an airplane.
C. receive and log ground and flight training from an
authorized instructor in such an airplane.
86. Which of the following would require the PIC to
receive additional training and a logbook
endorsement from an appropriately rated instructor
prior to acting as PIC?
A. When acting as PIC in an airplane with more than
200 horsepower.
B. When acting as PIC in an airplane with advanced
avionics.
C. When acting as PIC in an airplane that was
manufactured prior to 1965.
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87. To act as PIC of a high performance airplane,
which training or experience would meet the
additional requirements.
A. Logged at least five hours as SIC in a high
performance or turbine-powered airplane in the last
12 calendar months.
B. Received and logged ground and flight training in
a high performance airplane and a received a
logbook endorsement.
C. Received and logged ground and flight training in
an airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps, and
controllable-pitch propeller.
88. You have just received your commercial
certificate and have never flown a tailwheel aircraft
before. To act as PIC of a tailwheel aircraft, you
must receive
A. ground training from an authorized instructor in
your type of aircraft.
B. flight training from an authorized instructor and
complete a pilot proficiency check.
C. ground and flight training from an authorized
instructor and receive an endorsement.
89. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft
operated under 14 CFR Part 91, a commercial pilot
must have satisfactorily accomplished a flight
review or completed a proficiency check within the
preceding
A. 12 calendar months.
B. 24 calendar months.
C. 6 calendar months.
90. To serve as second in command of an airplane
that is certificated for more than one pilot
crewmember, and operated under
Part 91, a person must
A. receive and log flight training from an authorized
flight instructor in the type of airplane privileges are
requested.
B. hold at least a commercial pilot certificate with an
airplane category rating.
C. within the last 12 months become familiar with
the required information, and perform and log pilot
time in the type of airplane for which privileges are
requested.
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91. To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that
is certified for more than one pilot crewmember, and
operated under Part 91, a person must
A. complete a flight review within the preceding 24
calendar months.
B. receive and log ground and flight training from an
authorized flight instructor.
C. complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check
within the preceding 12 calendar months in an
airplane that is type certificated for more than one
pilot.
92. According to 14 CFR Part 61, what is required
for a person to serve as PIC in a turbojet-powered
airplane?
A. A proficiency check within the past 24 months in
the same family of aircraft.
B. A PIC proficiency check within the past 12
months.
C. A review flight within the past 24 months in the
same type aircraft.
93. What flight time must be documented and
recorded by a pilot exercising the privileges of a
commercial certificate?
A. Flight time showing training and aeronautical
experience to meet requirements for a certificate,
rating or flight review.
B. Only flight time for compensation or hire with
passengers aboard which is necessary to meet the
recent flight experience requirements.
C. All flight time flown for compensation or hire.
94. When may a pilot log time as SIC?
A. When the PIC is an appropriately qualified
instructor in the same category and class of aircraft.
B. When the SIC is the sole manipulator of the
controls.
C. When occupying a crewmember station in an
aircraft that requires more than one pilot and the SIC
is fully qualified.
95. You have performed 15 takeoffs and landings in
a single engine land airplane in the last 60 days. This
satisfies PIC recency requirements for
A. Single engine land.
B. multiengine and single engine land.
C. multiengine land.
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96. You have accomplished 25 takeoffs and landings
in multi-engine land airplanes in the previous 45
days. For a flight you plan to conduct today, this
meets the PIC recency of experience requirements to
carry passengers in which airplanes?
A. Multi or single-engine land.
B. Single-engine land airplane.
C. Multi-engine land airplane.
97. If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience
requirements for night flight and official sunset is
1800 CST, the latest time passengers should be
carried is
A. 1859 CST.
B. 1759 CST.
C. 1959 CST.
98. To act as the pilot-in-command (PIC) of an
airplane that is carrying passengers at night, the PIC
must
A. complete 3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop
in the same category and class aircraft at night.
B. complete 3 takeoffs and 3 landings in any
category at night.
C. designate a second-in-command if in instrument
meteorological conditions.
99. You just accepted out-of-state employment that
will require you to change your address. How long
may you exercise the privileges of your pilot
certificate before notifying the FAA of your address
change?
A. 60 days.
B. 45 days.
C. 30 days.
100. To act as pilot in command of an airplane
towing a glider, a pilot must have accomplished,
within the preceding 12 months, at least
A. three actual glider tows under the supervision of a
qualified tow pilot.
B. three actual or simulated glider tows while
accompanied by a qualified tow pilot.
C. ten flights as pilot in command of an aircraft
while towing a glider.
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101. To act as pilot in command of an airplane
towing a glider, the tow pilot is required to have
A. a logbook endorsement from an authorized glider
instructor certifying receipt of ground and flight
training in gliders, and be proficient with techniques
and procedures for safe towing of gliders.
B. at least a private pilot certificate with a category
rating for powered aircraft, and made and logged at
least three flights as pilot or observer in a glider
being towed by an airplane.
C. a logbook record of having made at least three
flights as sole manipulator of the controls of a glider
being towed by an airplane.
102. You are PIC of a flight. During your preflight
you notice a mechanical discrepancy that you think
makes the aircraft unairworthy. Who is responsible
for this determination?
A. A certificated aircraft mechanic.
B. The pilot-in-command.
C. The owner or operator.
103. You are the PIC conducting a preflight
inspection with the aircraft owner prior to a crosscountry flight. Who is responsible for determining
that the aircraft is airworthy?
A. Owner.
B. Operator.
C. PIC.
104. What person is directly responsible for the final
authority as to the operation of the airplane?
A. Certificate holder.
B. Pilot in command.
C. Airplane owner/operator.
107. A pilot in command (PIC) of a civil aircraft
may not allow any object to be dropped from that
aircraft in flight
A. unless the PIC has permission to drop any object
over private property.
B. unless reasonable precautions are taken to avoid
injury to property.
C. if it creates a hazard to persons and property.
108. You have been asked to fly over a public event.
Are you allowed to drop candy to the crowd?
A. Yes, if you determine it does not pose a hazard to
persons or property.
B. No, it would violate regulations.
C. Yes, if the sponsor determines it does not pose a
hazard to persons or property.
109. You are the PIC carrying passengers back from
a football game. One appears to be intoxicated. Can
you carry that passenger?
A. Yes, as long as there is another passenger to take
care of him.
B. No, you may not carry an intoxicated passenger.
C. Yes, as long as he is secured in his seatbelt for the
entire flight.
110. You are pilot-in-command of a VFR flight that
you think will be within the fuel range of your
aircraft. As part of your preflight planning you must
A. obtain weather reports, forecasts, and fuel
requirements for the flight.
B. be familiar with all instrument approaches at the
destination airport.
C. list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and
confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at
the destination airport.
105. An aircraft is on a stop 460 NM from base. It
develops a mechanical problem. You get a
technician to fix the problem. Who is responsible for
the airworthiness of the aircraft?
A. Pilot in command.
B. Owner or operator.
C. Technician.
111. You are a pilot in command of a VFR crosscountry flight. As part of your preflight planning,
you must
A. file a flight plan if the flight is beyond 50 NM.
B. file a flight plan.
C. obtain a flight weather briefing.
106. Who is responsible for determining if an
aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
A. A certificated aircraft mechanic.
B. The pilot in command.
C. The owner or operator.
112. In your preflight planning, a weather briefing is
required for
A. any flight conducted for compensation or hire.
B. any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
C. IFR flights only.
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113. Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot
in command must become familiar with all available
information concerning that flight. In addition, the
pilot must
A. list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and
confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at
the destination airport.
B. be familiar with all instrument approaches at the
destination airport.
C. be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of
intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, and
alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be
completed.
114. Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot
in command must become familiar with all available
information concerning that flight. In addition, the
pilot must
A. list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and
confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at
the destination airport.
B. be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of
intended use, and the alternatives available, if the
flight cannot be completed.
C. be familiar with all instrument approaches at the
destination airport.
115. In your preflight planning, you must identify an
alternate airport for
A. IFR flights only.
B. any flight conducted for compensation or hire.
C. any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
116. If weather conditions are such that it is required
to designate an alternate airport on your IFR flight
plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive
at the first airport of intended landing, fly from that
airport to the alternate airport, and fly thereafter for
A. 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
B. 30 minutes at slow cruising speed.
C. 1 hour at normal cruising speed.
117. For an airport with an approved instrument
approach procedure to be listed as an alternate
airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather
conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above
the following weather minimums.
A. Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for
nonprecision.
B. Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 NM for precision.
C. Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 NM for
nonprecision.
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118. For an airport without an approved instrument
approach procedure to be listed as an alternate
airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather
conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a
A. ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility 3 SM.
B. ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility 3 NM.
C. ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent,
approach, and landing under basic VFR.
119. Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from
an instrument approach unless the
A. visual approach slope indicator and runway
references are distinctly visible to the pilot.
B. flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility
prescribed in the approach procedure being used.
C. flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the
minimums prescribed in the approach being used.
120. On an instrument approach where a DH or
MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below,
or continue the approach unless the
A. aircraft is continuously in a position from which a
descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway,
can be made.
B. flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the
published minimums for that approach.
C. approach and runway lights are distinctly visible
to the pilot.
121. You are taking a 196 nautical mile VFR cross
country flight in mountainous terrain. Which of the
following actions must the pilot in command take?
A. File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service
Station.
B. Ensure all items in the baggage area are strapped
down.
C. Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to
passengers.
122. You are taking a 123 nautical mile VFR flight
from one airport to another. Which of the following
actions must the pilot in command take?
A. File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service
Station.
B. Ensure each passenger has a legible photo
identification.
C. Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to
passengers.
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123. You are taking a 173 nautical mile night VFR
cross country flight. Which of the following actions
must the pilot in command take?
A. Perform a VOR check prior to takeoff.
B. Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to
passengers.
C. File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service
Station.
124. You are taking a 196 nautical mile VFR cross
country flight in mountainous terrain. Which of the
following actions must the pilot in command take?
A. Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to
passengers.
B. File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service
Station.
C. Ensure all items in the baggage area are strapped
down.
125. Prior to departing on a VFR cross country flight
over mountainous terrain, what action must the pilot
in command perform?
A. Confirm the Airworthiness certificate is visible to
passengers and crew.
B. Perform a VOR check.
C. Take a mountain flying awareness course
(MFAC).
126. Which of the following preflight actions is the
pilot in command required to take in order to comply
with the United States Code of Federal Regulations
regarding day Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
A. File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service
Station.
B. Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to
passengers.
C. Verify approved position lights are not burned out.
127. When operating a U.S.-registered civil aircraft,
which document is required by regulation to be
available in the aircraft?
A. An Owner's Manual.
B. A manufacturer's Operations Manual.
C. A current, approved Airplane Flight Manual.
128. Portable electronic devices which may cause
interference with the navigation or communication
system may not be operated on U.S.-registered civil
aircraft being operated
A. under IFR.
B. in passenger carrying operations.
C. along Federal airways.
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129. Portable electronic devices which may cause
interference with the navigation or communication
system may not be operated on a U.S.- registered
civil aircraft being flown
A. along Federal airways.
B. within the U.S.
C. in air carrier operations.
130. You are planning an IFR cross-country. One of
your passengers wants to use her electronic tablet to
read. Is this allowed?
A. No, it is not authorized.
B. Yes, if you determine it will not interfere with the
communication and navigation systems.
C. Only if her device has been certified for flight.
131. You are planning an IFR flight, and one of your
passengers has a heart pacemaker. Is this passenger
allowed to fly in the aircraft?
A. No, because a heart pacemaker is a portable
electronic device.
B. Yes, only in instrument meteorological conditions.
C. Yes, heart pacemakers are allowed.
132. No person may operate an aircraft that has an
experimental airworthiness certificate
A. when carrying persons or property for hire.
B. under instrument flight rules (IFR).
C. when carrying property for hire.
133. Which is true with respect to operating
limitations of a "primary'' category airplane?
A. A "primary" category airplane is limited to a
specified operating radius from its home base.
B. No person may operate a "primary" category
airplane carrying passengers or property for
compensation or hire.
C. A pilot of a "primary" category airplane must
hold a commercial pilot certificate when carrying
passengers for compensation or hire.
134. Which is true with respect to operating
limitations of a "restricted'' category airplane?
A. A pilot of a "restricted" category airplane is
required to hold a commercial pilot certificate.
B. A "restricted" category airplane is limited to an
operating radius of 25 miles from its home base.
C. No person may operate a "restricted" category
airplane carrying passengers or property for
compensation or hire.
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135. The carriage of passengers for hire by a
commercial pilot is
A. not authorized in a "utility" category aircraft.
B. authorized in "restricted" category aircraft.
C. not authorized in a "limited" category aircraft.
136. Which is required to operate an aircraft towing
an advertising banner?
A. Approval from ATC to operate in Class E
airspace.
B. A certificate of waiver issued by the
Administrator.
C. A safety link at each end of the towline which has
a breaking strength not less than 80 percent of the
aircraft's gross weight.
137. No person may operate a large civil aircraft of
U.S. registry which is subject to a lease, unless the
lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the FAA
Aircraft Registration Branch, Technical Section,
Oklahoma City, OK, within how many hours of its
execution?
A. 24.
B. 48.
C. 72.
138. Which is true with respect to formation flights?
Formation flights are
A. not authorized when visibilities are less than 3
SM.
B. not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
C. authorized when carrying passengers for hire,
with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of
each aircraft in the formation.
139. Which is true with respect to formation flights?
Formation flights are
A. not authorized, except by arrangement with the
pilot in command of each aircraft.
B. not authorized, unless the pilot in command of
each aircraft is trained and found competent in
formation.
C. authorized when carrying passengers for hire,
with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of
each aircraft in the formation.
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140. Which is true with respect to operating near
other aircraft in flight? These flights are
A. not authorized, when operated so close to another
aircraft they can create a collision hazard.
B. not authorized, unless the pilot in command of
each aircraft is trained and found competent in
formation.
C. authorized when carrying passengers for hire,
with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of
each aircraft in the formation.
141. What is the minimum altitude and flight
visibility required for acrobatic flight?
A. 3,000 feet AGL and 1 mile.
B. 1,500 feet AGL and 3 miles.
C. 2,000 feet MSL and 2 miles.
142. What is the minimum flight visibility and
proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at
6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?
A. 3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet
below.
B. 1 mile visibility; clear of clouds.
C. 5 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 1,000 feet
below.
143. The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight
increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude
of
A. 14,500 feet MSL.
B. 10,000 feet MSL regardless of height above
ground.
C. 10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL.
144. According to 14 CFR part 91, what is the
appropriate VFR cruising altitude, when above
3,000 feet AGL, for a flight on a magnetic course of
090°?
A. 4,500 feet.
B. 5,500 feet.
C. 5,000 feet.
145. VFR cruising altitudes are required to be
maintained when flying
A. at 3,000 feet or more AGL, based on true course.
B. at 3,000 feet or more above MSL, based on
magnetic heading.
C. more than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic
course.
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146. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or
unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator,
the minimum altitude for IFR flight is
A. 2,000 feet over all terrain.
B. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over
designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the
highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.
C. 3,000 feet over designated mountainous terrain;
2,000 feet over terrain elsewhere.
147. According to 14 CFR Part 91, at what
minimum altitude may an airplane be operated
unless necessary for takeoff and landing?
A. An altitude allowing for an emergency landing
without undue hazard, if a power unit fails.
B. In congested areas, you must maintain 500 feet
over obstacles, and no closer than 500 feet to any
person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
C. In uncongested areas, 1,000 feet over any
obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet.
148. No person may operate an aircraft in simulated
instrument flight conditions unless the
A. other control seat is occupied by at least an
appropriately rated commercial pilot.
B. pilot has filed an IFR flight plan and received an
IFR clearance.
C. other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot,
who holds at least a private pilot certificate and is
appropriately rated.
149. What altimeter setting is required when
operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?
A. Current reported altimeter setting of a station
along the route.
B. 29.92" Hg.
C. Altimeter setting at the departure or destination
airport.
150. When weather information indicates that
abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will
be above _____ inches of mercury, flight operations
will not be authorized contrary to the requirements
published in NOTAMs.
A. 31.00
B. 32.00
C. 30.50
151. As pilot-in-command of an aircraft, you may
deviate from an ATC clearance when
A. flying in the outer ring of Class C airspace.
B. operating under VFR in Class B airspace.
C. there is an in-flight emergency requiring
immediate action.
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152. After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a
pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the
pilot
A. receives an amended clearance or has an
emergency.
B. requests an amended clearance.
C. is operating VFR on top.
153. What action must be taken when a pilot in
command deviates from any rule in 14 CFR Part 91?
A. Upon landing, report the deviation to the nearest
FAA Flight Standards District Office.
B. Advise ATC of the pilot in command's intentions.
C. Upon the request of the Administrator, send a
written report of that deviation to the Administrator.
154. You are on a VFR flight and your route takes
you through an active restricted area. You must
A. obtain prior approval from the controlling agency.
B. de-conflict from military aircraft in the airspace.
C. contact ATC on frequency 121.5.
155. What action should a pilot take when operating
under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
A. Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency
prior to entering the MOA.
B. Operate only on the airways that transverse the
MOA.
C. Exercise extreme caution when military activity is
being conducted.
156. The pilot in command of an aircraft operated
under IFR, in controlled airspace, not in radar
contact, shall report by radio as soon as possible
when
A. passing FL 180.
B. passing each designated reporting point, to
include time and altitude.
C. changing control facilities.
157. The pilot in command of an aircraft operated
under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as
soon as practical to ATC when
A. experiencing any malfunctions of navigational,
approach, or communications equipment, occurring
in flight.
B. climbing or descending to assigned altitudes.
C. requested to contact a new controlling facility.
158. Who has the final authority to accept or decline
any “land and hold short” (LAHSO) clearance?
A. ATC tower controller.
B. ATC approach controller.
C. Pilot-in-command.
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159. A Pilot-in-command may accept a 'land and
hold short' (LAHSO) clearance provided he or she
determines that the aircraft can safely land and stop
within the
A. Available Landing Time.
B. Assigned Runway Distance.
C. Available Landing Distance.
160. A pilot-in-command has the final authority to
accept or decline 'land and hold short' (LAHSO)
clearance
A. under any conditions.
B. under limited conditions.
C. only when operating on an IFR flight plan.
161. The commercial pilot operating as the pilot in
command of an aircraft may accept or decline a land
and hold short clearance (LAHSO)
A. at night.
B. any time.
C. when operating for hire.
162. As part of their preflight planning, pilots should
determine if their destination airport has
A. 'land and hold short' (LAHSO) operations.
B. lighted markers on catenary wiring.
C. Runway Aiming Point Markings.
163. A pilot-in-command may accept a 'Land and
Hold Short' (LAHSO) clearance provided he or she
determines that the aircraft can safely land and stop
A. within the Landing Runway Length.
B. within the Available Landing Distance.
C. under any conditions.
164. Once a pilot-in-command accepts a 'Land and
Hold Short' (LAHSO) clearance, the clearance must
be adhered to, just as any other ATC clearance,
unless
A. an amended clearance is obtained or an
emergency occurs.
B. Available Landing Distance decreases or density
altitude increases.
C. the wind changes or Available Landing Distance
decreases.
165. To conduct 'land and hold short' (LAHSO)
operations, pilots should have, readily available, the
A. Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
B. published Terminal Procedures (TERPS).
C. Chart Supplement.
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166. To conduct 'land and hold short' (LAHSO)
operations, pilots should have, readily available,
A. a current copy of the airport and taxiway
markings guide as well as LAHSO guides.
B. the runway slope and LAHSO information for
each airport of intended landing.
C. the published air traffic control LAHSO
procedures for each airport of intended landing.
167. To conduct LAHSO a pilot should have readily
available
A. published LAHSO procedure.
B. runway slope information.
C. current ATC guide for airport runway markings,
lights, signs, LAHSO, and runway safety.
168. What should you expect when you are told that
LAHSO operations are in effect at your destination
airport?
A. That ATC will give you a clearance to land and
hold short of a specified point on the runway.
B. All aircraft must operate on an IFR clearance due
to high traffic volume.
C. Delays due to low IFR conditions and high traffic
volume.
169. When should pilots decline a “land and hold
short” (LAHSO) clearance?
A. If runway surface is contaminated.
B. When it will compromise safety.
C. Only when the tower controller concurs.
170. A ‘land and hold short’ (LAHSO) clearance
A. precludes a “Go Around” by ATC.
B. requires a runway exit at the first taxiway.
C. does not preclude a rejected landing.
171. Prior to accepting a “land and hold short”
clearance (LAHSO) a pilot must confirm the aircraft
can stop
A. in the Available Landing Distance.
B. prior to the intersecting taxiway.
C. prior to the intersecting runway.
172. A pilot in command is required to be aware of
all of the information pertinent to the flight. This
should include what information about the
destination airport?
A. Land and hold short operations (LAHSO).
B. Customs availability at an airport of entry.
C. Available airport services.
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173. If given a landing clearance on runway 16 and
told to hold short runway 6, how can a pilot
determine the available landing distance?
A. The full runway length is available.
B. Ask the controller.
C. Use rule of thumb to determine the distance.
174. What is the minimum visibility and ceiling
required for a pilot to receive a “land and hold short”
clearance?
A. 3 nautical miles and 1,000 feet.
B. 3 statute miles and 1,500 feet.
C. 3 statute miles and 1,000 feet.
175. What information should a pilot have available
when encountering LAHSO?
A. Published available landing distance data for the
expected destination.
B. FAA Advisory Circular on airport markings,
signs, and LAHSO.
C. Aeronautical Information Manual content relating
to LAHSO.
176. What is the general direction of movement of
the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe
a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead
and at your altitude? The other aircraft is
A. crossing to your left.
B. approaching you head-on.
C. headed away from you.
177. How can you determine if another aircraft is on
a collision course with your aircraft?
A. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same
point in space.
B. There will be no apparent relative motion
between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
C. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger
and closer at a rapid rate.
178. An airplane is converging with a helicopter.
Which aircraft has the right-of-way?
A. The aircraft on the left.
B. The aircraft on the right.
C. The faster of the two aircraft.
179. While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are
converging at a 90° angle, and the helicopter is
located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft
has the right-of-way, and why?
A. The airplane, because airplanes have the right-ofway over helicopters.
B. The helicopter, because helicopters have the
right-of-way over airplanes.
C. The helicopter, because it is to the right of the
airplane.
180. While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are
converging at a 90° angle, and the airplane is located
to the right of the helicopter. Which aircraft has the
right-of-way, and why?
A. The airplane, because it is to the right of the
helicopter.
B. The helicopter, because helicopters have the
right-of-way over airplanes.
C. The airplane, because airplanes have the right- ofway over helicopters.
181. Two aircraft of the same category are
approaching an airport for the purpose of landing.
The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
A. that is more maneuverable.
B. at the lower altitude.
C. at the higher altitude.
182. During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1
sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft
are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way?
The pilot of aircraft
A. #2; aircraft #2 is to the left of aircraft #1.
B. #2; aircraft #2 is to the right of aircraft #1
C. #1; aircraft #1 is to the right of
aircraft #2.
183. A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes
a multiengine airplane approaching from the left.
Which pilot should give way?
A. The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give
way; the single-engine airplane is to its right.
B. The pilot of the single-engine airplane should
give way; the other airplane is to the left.
C. Each pilot should alter course to the right.
184. Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which
airplane has the right-of-way?
A. Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed
on the left.
B. Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed
on the right.
C. Airplane A; the pilot should alter course to the
right to pass.
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185. An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which
aircraft has the right-of-way?
A. Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed
on the right.
B. Airplane; the airplane pilot should alter course to
the left to pass.
C. Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed
on the left.
191. Choose the correct statement regarding wake
turbulence.
A. Vortex generation begins with the initiation of the
takeoff roll.
B. The primary hazard is loss of control because of
induced roll.
C. The greatest vortex strength is produced when the
generating airplane is heavy, clean, and fast.
186. With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?
A. Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not
vortex circulation.
B. The vortex strength is greatest when the
generating aircraft is flying fast.
C. Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in
forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to
wingtip vortices generated by airplanes.
192. When landing behind a large aircraft, which
procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
A. Stay above its final approach flightpath all the
way to touchdown.
B. Stay well below its final approach flightpath and
land at least 2,000 feet behind.
C. Stay below and to one side of its final approach
flightpath.
187. During a takeoff made behind a departing large
jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of
wingtip vortices by
A. being airborne prior to reaching the jet’s
flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
B. maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout.
C. extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until
well beyond the jet’s rotation point.
193. Which is true with respect to vortex circulation?
A. Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not
vortex circulation.
B. When vortex circulation sinks into ground effect,
it tends to dissipate rapidly and offer little danger.
C. The vortex strength is greatest when the
generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.
188. To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large
jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff,
at which point on the runway should you plan to
become airborne?
A. At the point where the jet touched down, or just
prior to this point.
B. Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where
the jet touched down.
C. Past the point where the jet touched down.
189. Which procedure should you follow to avoid
wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course
from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at
your altitude?
A. Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude
and course.
B. Make sure you are slightly above the path of the
jet.
C. Make sure you are slightly below the path of the
jet and perpendicular to the course.
194. Which is true with respect to vortex circulation
in the wake turbulence generated by an aircraft?
A. The vortex strength is greatest when the
generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.
B. Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not
vortex circulation.
C. When vortex circulation sinks into ground effect,
it tends to dissipate rapidly and offer little danger.
195. In accordance with14 CFR Part 91,
supplemental oxygen must be used by the required
minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30
minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of
A. 10,500 feet MSL up to and including 12,500 feet
MSL.
B. 12,000 feet MSL up to and including 18,000 feet
MSL.
C. 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet
MSL.
190. Your flight takes you in the path of a large
aircraft. In order to avoid the vortices, you should fly
A. at the same altitude as the large aircraft.
B. below the altitude of the large aircraft.
C. above the flight path of the large aircraft.
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196. You are planning a VFR flight and a portion of
your flight will have you flying at 13,500 feet MSL
for 45 minutes. Will the use of supplemental oxygen
be required?
A. Supplemental oxygen is required for any flight
over 12,500 feet MSL.
B. Supplemental oxygen is required for any flight
exceeding 30 minutes at this altitude.
C. Supplemental oxygen is required for crew
members only.
197. You are conducting a flight with passengers
above 15,000 feet MSL. What are the oxygen
requirements?
A. Crew must use and passengers must be provided
supplemental oxygen at or above this altitude.
B. The crew must use supplemental oxygen at this
altitude.
C. Crew must use supplemental oxygen after being
at or above this altitude for 30 minutes.
198. To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR
(SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is
required?
A. The Class D airspace must be specifically
designated as a night SVFR area.
B. The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the
airplane need not be equipped for instrument flight,
as long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR
minimums.
C. The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the
airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.
201. What designated airspace associated with an
airport becomes inactive when the control tower at
that airport is not in operation?
A. Class B.
B. Class D, which then becomes Class E.
C. Class D, which then becomes Class C.
202. In the contiguous United States, the vertical
limits of the Federal Low Altitude Airways extend
from
A. 1,200 feet AGL up to the bottom of the overlying
controlled airspace.
B. surface to 14,500 feet MSL.
C. 700 feet MSL up to and including 18,000 feet
AGL.
203. When exiting the runway, the runway exit sign
indicates the
A. direction to turn to exit onto the named taxiway.
B. designation and direction of taxiway leading out
of an intersection.
C. direction to take-off runway.
204. (Figure 64) You see this sign when holding
short of the runway. You receive clearance to back
taxi on the runway for a full-length runway 8
departure. Which way should you turn when first
taxiing on to the runway for takeoff?
A. Left.
B. Right.
C. Need more information.
199. When operating an airplane for the purpose of
takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under
special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds
and what visibility are required?
A. 500 feet beneath clouds, and the ground visibility
must be at least 1 SM.
B. Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility
must be at least 1 SM.
C. Remain clear of clouds, and the flight visibility
must be at least 1 NM.
200. At some airports located in Class D airspace
where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and
landings under special VFR are
A. not authorized.
B. authorized only if the ground visibility is
observed to be at least 3 SM.
C. authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at
least 1 SM.
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205. (Refer to Figure 61) This sign is a visual clue
that
A. warns the pilot of approaching taxiway “A.”
B. indicates “A” holding area is ahead.
C. confirms the aircraft’s location to be on taxiway
“A.”.
208. (Refer to figure 51, H) You are taxiing to an
active runway and you see this sign. This sign means
that
A. you are approaching a runway protected area.
B. you are approaching an ILS critical area.
C. you are approaching a runway safety area.
206. Under what conditions would a pilot make right
turns in a traffic pattern at an airport in Class G
airspace without an operating control tower?
A. All turns in a traffic pattern are made to the left at
a non-towered controlled airport.
B. The airport has visual markings indicating that
turns should be made to the right.
C. Turns in a traffic pattern are made to the right at a
non-towered controlled airport in an airplane with
other aircraft in the area.
207. (Refer to figure 61) You received an ATC
clearance, "Cessna 123AB, taxi to runway 17 via
taxiway alpha, tango.
A. You are on Taxiway A. You must take a 45
degree right turn for taxiway T.
B. You are on taxiway E. You must take a 90 degree
right turn onto taxiway A for taxiway T.
C. You must request further taxi instructions.
209. Which is correct concerning preventive
maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot?
A. Records of preventive maintenance must be
entered in the FAA-approved flight
B. A record of preventive maintenance is not
required.
C. A record of preventive maintenance must be
entered in the maintenance records.
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210. A pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offense
involving alcohol or drugs is required to provide a
written report to the
A. nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office
(FSDO) within 60 days of the conviction.
B. FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700)
within 60 days of the conviction.
C. FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within
60 days of the conviction.
211. Required flight crewmembers' safety belts must
be fastened
A. only during takeoff and landing when passengers
are aboard the aircraft.
B. only during takeoff and landing.
C. while the crewmembers are at their stations.
212. Each required flight crewmember is required to
keep his or her shoulder harness fastened
A. during takeoff and landing only when passengers
are aboard the aircraft.
B. while the crewmembers are at their stations,
unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.
C. during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is
unable to perform required duties.
213. With U.S.-registered civil airplanes, the use of
safety belts is required during movement on the
surface, takeoffs, and landings for
A. safe operating practice, but not required by
regulations.
B. each person over 2 years of age on board.
C. commercial passenger operations only.
214. A coded transponder equipped with altitude
reporting equipment is required for
A. all airspace of the 48 contiguous U.S. and the
District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL
(including airspace at and below 2,500 feet above
the surface).
B. Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.
C. Both.
215. A coded transponder equipped with altitude
reporting equipment is required for
1. Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.
2. all airspace of the 48 contiguous U.S. and the
District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL
(including airspace at and below 2,500 feet above
the surface).
A. 1.
B. Both 1 and 2
C. 2.
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216. In the contiguous U.S., excluding the airspace
at and below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded
transponder equipped with Mode C capability is
required in all airspace above
A. 14,500 feet MSL.
B. 10,000 feet MSL.
C. 12,500 feet MSL.
217. In accordance with 14 CFR Part 91,
supplemental oxygen must be used by the required
minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30
minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of
A. 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet
MSL.
B. 10,500 feet MSL up to and including 12,500 feet
MSL.
C. 12,000 feet MSL up to and including 18,000 feet
MSL.
218. Approved flotation gear, readily available to
each occupant, is required on each airplane if it is
being flown for hire over water,
A. more than 50 statue miles from shore.
B. in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore.
C. beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
219. The maximum cumulative time that an
emergency locator transmitter may be operated
before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is
A. 45 minutes.
B. 60 minutes.
C. 30 minutes.
220. What transponder equipment is required for
airplane operations within Class B airspace? A
transponder
A. with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C
capability.
B. with 4096 code capability is required except
when operating at or below 1,000 feet AGL under
the terms of a letter of agreement.
C. is required for airplane operations when visibility
is less than 3 miles.
221. What is the maximum indicated airspeed
authorized in the airspace underlying Class B
airspace?
A. 156 knots.
B. 200 knots.
C. 230 knots.
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222. One leg of your trip will be within 4 NM and
2,500 feet AGL of a Class D airport. What should
your speed be?
A. 150 knots.
B. 250 knots.
C. 200 knots.
223. Which is true regarding flight operations in
Class B airspace?
A. Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the
pilot in command is instrument rated.
B. The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before
operating an aircraft in that area.
C. Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
224. Which is true regarding pilot certification
requirements for operations in Class B airspace?
A. The pilot in command must hold at least a private
pilot certificate with an instrument rating.
B. Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
C. The pilot in command must hold at least a private
pilot certificate.
225. Which is true regarding flight operations in
Class B airspace?
A. The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC
transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
B. The pilot in command must hold at least a private
pilot certificate with an instrument rating.
C. The pilot in command must hold at least a
Commercial (unrestricted) pilot certificate.
226. A standard airworthiness certificate remains in
effect as long as the aircraft receives
A. required maintenance and inspections.
B. an annual inspection.
C. an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection
prior to their expiration dates.
227. An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it
has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with
regulations within the preceding
A. 30 days.
B. 12 calendar months.
C. 24 calendar months.
228. If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft
has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply
with regulations within a specified period, what is
the limitation on its use?
A. It may be used when in Class G airspace.
B. It may be used for VFR flight only.
C. Its use is not permitted.
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229. Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil
airplanes require that during movement on the
surface, takeoffs, and landings, a safety belt and
shoulder harness (if installed) must be properly
secured about each
A. flight crewmember only.
B. person on board.
C. flight and cabin crewmembers.
230. If the minimum safe speed for any particular
operation is greater than the maximum speed
prescribed in 14 CFR Part 91, the
A. operator must have a Memorandum of Agreement
(MOA) with the controlling agency.
B. aircraft may be operated at that speed.
C. operator must have a Letter of Agreement with
ATC.
231. When approaching to land at an airport, without
an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the
pilot should
A. make all turns to the left, unless otherwise
indicated.
B. fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.
C. enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.
232. When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an
airport with an operating control tower, in Class E
airspace, a pilot must establish communications
prior to
A. 8 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.
B. 5 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.
C. 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
233. When approaching to land at an airport with an
ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must
establish communications prior to
A. 10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.
B. 30 SM, and be transponder equipped.
C. 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
234. You are operating out of a non-towered satellite
airport within Class C airspace.
A. Prior to takeoff, you must establish
communication with the ATC controlling facility.
B. Your aircraft must be equipped with an ATC
transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
C. You must contact clearance delivery prior to
departure if VFR.
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235. Which is true regarding flight operations to or
from a satellite airport, without an operating control
tower, within the Class C airspace area?
A. Each person must establish and maintain twoway radio communication with the ATC serving
facility as soon as practicable after departing.
B. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC
transponder.
C. Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish
communication with the ATC controlling facility.
239. (Refer to Figure 52, Point 7) The floor of Class
E airspace over the town of Woodland is
A. 700 feet AGL over the part of the town and no
floor over the remainder.
B. 1,200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor
over the remainder.
C. both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.
236. Which is true regarding flight operations in
Class A airspace?
A. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance
measuring equipment (DME).
B. Must conduct operations under instrument flight
rules.
C. Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC
transponder.
237. Which is true regarding flight operations in
Class A airspace?
A. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance
measuring equipment (DME).
B. May conduct operations under visual flight rules.
C. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC
transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
238. Which is true concerning the blue and magenta
colors used to depict airports on Sectional
Aeronautical Charts?
A. Airports with control towers underlying Class A,
B, and C airspace are shown in blue, Class D and E
airspace are magenta.
B. Airports with control towers underlying Class B,
C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.
C. Airports with control towers underlying Class C,
D, and E airspace are shown in magenta.
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240. (Refer to figure 52 point 9) The alert area
depicted within the magenta lines is an area in which
A. there is a high volume of pilot training activities
or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which
is hazardous to aircraft.
B. the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
C. the flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is
subject to restriction.
242. (Refer to figure 53, point 3) The floor of the
controlled airspace over Firebaugh Airport (F34) is
A. 700 feet AGL.
B. 1,200 feet AGL.
C. 1,600 feet AGL.
241. When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport
on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the
boundary of
A. Special VFR airspace.
B. Class B airspace.
C. Class D airspace.
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243. (Refer to Figure 54 point 1) You are departing
Livermore airport (LVK) VFR enroute to San
Francisco (SFO). You must have
A. an endorsement in your logbook for SFO.
B. an ATC clearance.
C. an instrument rating.
245. (Refer to Figure 52, point 8) The traffic pattern
altitude at the Auburn (AUN) airport is 1,000 feet
AGL. May you practice landings under VFR when
the AWOS is reporting a ground visibility of 2 miles?
A. Yes, you will be operating in a combination of
Class E and G airspace.
B. No, the Class E airspace extends to the airport
surface.
C. No, the reported ground visibility must be at least
3 miles.
244. (Refer to Figure 54, Area 4.) You have received
a VFR clearance to enter the San Francisco Class B
airspace at 8,500 feet by Area 4 on the Sectional
Chart. What are the VFR cloud clearance and
visibility requirements in the Class B airspace?
A. 3 SM visibility and clear of clouds.
B. 3 SM visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above,
and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
C. 5 SM visibility; 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet
above, and 1,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
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246. (Figure 52, Area 6.) What is the purpose of the
star that follows the CT-120.65 in the information
box for the Sacramento Mather (MHR) Airport?
A. The airport has maintenance facilities.
B. That the control tower has limited hours of
operation.
C. There is a rotating beacon on the field.
247. The segmented circle indicates that the airport
traffic is
A. left-hand for Runway 36 and right- hand for
Runway 18.
B. left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for
Runway 36.
C. right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for
Runway 27.
248. True course measurements on a Sectional
Aeronautical Chart should be made at a meridian
near the midpoint of the course because the
A. values of isogonic lines change from point to
point.
B. angles formed by isogonic lines and lines of
latitude vary from point to point.
C. angles formed by lines of longitude and the
course line vary from point to point.
251. Figure 52. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 1.) The floor of the Class E airspace above
Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at
A. 3,823 feet MSL.
B. the surface.
C. 700 feet AGL.
252. Figure 52. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 2.) The highest obstruction with high intensity
lighting within 10 NM of Sacramento International
Airport (SMF) is how high above ground?
A. 559 feet.
B. 512 feet.
C. 533 feet.
249. What must a pilot do or be aware of when
transitioning an Alert Area?
A. All pilots must contact the controlling agency to
ensure aircraft separation.
B. Be aware that the area may contain unusual
aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training.
C. Non-participating aircraft may transit the area as
long as they operate in accordance with their waiver.
250. Which statement is true about isogonic lines?
A. Isogonic lines do not vary for different headings
of the same aircraft.
B. Varies over time as the Agonic line shifts.
C. Isogonic lines are lines of equal variation.
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253. Figure 52. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
area 2.) When departing the RIO LINDA (L36)
Airport to the northwest at an altitude of 1,000 feet
AGL, you
A. are not required to contact any ATC facilities if
you do not enter the Class C Airspace.
B. must make contact with MC CLELLAN (MCC)
control tower as soon as practical after takeoff.
C. must make contact with the SACRAMENTO
INTL (SMF) control tower immediately after takeoff.
254. Figure 52. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 4.) The terrain at the obstruction approximately
8 NM east southeast of the Lincoln Airport is
approximately how much higher than the airport
elevation?
A. 418 feet.
B. 1,245 feet.
C. 827 feet.
255. Figure 52. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 5.) The floor of the Class E airspace over
University Airport (area 5) is
A. 700 feet AGL.
B. the surface.
C. 1,200 feet AGL.
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256. Figure 52. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 6.) Borges-Clarksburg Airport is
A. a nonpublic use airport.
B. an airport restricted to use by private and
recreational pilots.
C. a restricted military stage field within restricted
airspace.
257. Figure 53. Sectional Chart Excerpt. You are
planning a VFR west bound flight departing the
FRESNO CHANDLER EXECUTIVE (FCH) airport
and you will be passing through the active Lemoore
C and A MOAs. What action should you take?
A. Avoid the MOA, VFR, and IFR flights are
prohibited during day light hours.
B. Exercise extreme caution while in the boundaries
of the MOA.
C. Contact the aircraft operating in the MOA on the
Guard frequency of 121.5.
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258. Figure 53. Sectional Chart Excerpt. GIVEN:
Location Madera Airport (MAE)
Altitude 1,000 ft. AGL
Position 7 NM north of Madera (MAE)
Time 3 p.m. local
Flight visibility 1 SM
You are VFR approaching Madera Airport for a
landing from the north. You
A. are required to descend to below 700 feet AGL to
remain clear of Class E airspace and may continue
for landing.
B. are in violation of the Federal Aviation
Regulations; you need 3 miles of visibility under
VFR.
C. may descend to 800 feet AGL (Pattern Altitude)
after entering Class E airspace and continue to the
airport.
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259. Figure 53. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
area 4.) You plan to depart on a day VFR flight from
the Firebaugh (F34) airport. The floor of the
controlled airspace over Firebaugh Airport (F34) is
A. 1,200 feet AGL.
B. 1,500 feet AGL.
C. 700 feet AGL.
261. Figure 53. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 1.) This thin black shaded line is most likely
A. a military training route.
B. an arrival route.
C. a state boundary line.
260. Figure 53. Sectional Chart Excerpt. What is
indicated by the star next to the “L” in the airport
information box for the MADERA (MAE) airport
north of area 2?
A. Special VFR is prohibited.
B. There is a rotating beacon at the field.
C. Lighting limitations exist.
262. Figure 53. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 2.) The 16 indicates
A. an antenna top at 1,600 feet AGL.
B. the maximum elevation figure for that quadrangle.
C. the minimum safe sector altitude for that
quadrangle.
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263. Figure 54. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 6.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan
Oakland International (OAK) which extends from
the surface upward has a ceiling of
A. both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.
B. 10,000 feet MSL.
C. 2,100 feet AGL.
264. Figure 54. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 1.) What minimum altitude is required to avoid
the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?
A. 2,503 feet MSL.
B. 2,901 feet MSL.
C. 3,297 feet MSL.
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265. Figure 54. Sectional Chart Excerpt. What is the
ceiling of the Class D Airspace of the Byron (C83)
airport (Area 2)?
A. Class D Airspace does not exist at Byron (C83).
B. 2,900 feet.
C. 7,600 feet.
266. Figure 54. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
area 3.) What is the significance of R-2531? This is
a restricted area
A. where often invisible hazards exist.
B. for IFR aircraft.
C. where aircraft may never operate.
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267. Figure 54. Sectional Chart Excerpt. (Refer to
point 4.) The thin magenta line represents
A. the San Francisco Mode C veil, which requires
the use of an appropriate transponder.
B. the outer limits of the San Jose (SJC) Class C
airspace.
C. the San Francisco (SFO) Mode C veil, which
requires a mode C transponder from 1,200 feet AGL
up to 10,000 feet MSL.
268. Alert Areas are special use airspace depicted
within magenta lines on sectional charts in which
A. the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
B. there is a high volume of pilot training activities
or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which
is hazardous to aircraft.
C. the flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is
subject to restriction.
271. With respect to the certification of aircraft,
which is a class of aircraft?
A. Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.
B. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
C. Transport, restricted, provisional.
272. An instrument rated pilot is planning a flight
under IFR on July 1, this year. Before conducting
the flight, the pilot must have
A. performed and logged the prescribed tasks and
repetitions required for instrument currency no
earlier than February 1, this year.
B. performed and logged the prescribed tasks and
repetitions required for instrument currency no
earlier than January 1, this year.
C. passed an instrument proficiency check between
August 1 last year and July 1 this year.
273. A person may act as pilot in command of both
type A and type B aircraft under IFR, if an
instrument proficiency check has been passed in
A. type A since the beginning of the 12th month,
and in type B since the beginning of the 6th month
before time to serve.
B. either type A or B since the beginning of the 12th
month before time to serve.
C. type A since the beginning of the 12th month, and
in type B since the beginning of the 24th month
before time to serve.
269. After a post-flight inspection, you notice a
discrepancy. Who is responsible to correct the
discrepancy prior to the next flight?
A. A certificated aircraft mechanic.
B. The pilot-in-command.
C. The owner or designated operator.
274. What are the minimum certificate and rating
requirements for the pilot in command of a turbojet
airplane with two engines being operated by a
Commuter Air Carrier (as defined in part 298) under
IFR?
A. Airline transport pilot; airplane category;
multiengine class rating; airplane type rating, if
required.
B. Airline transport pilot of any category;
multiengine class rating; airplane type rating.
C. Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine
class rating; instrument rating; airplane type rating.
270. With respect to the certification of aircraft,
which is a category of aircraft?
A. Landplane, seaplane.
B. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
C. Normal, utility, acrobatic.
275. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727
and B-737. A flight test is completed in
A. ATP: B-747, B-727, and B-737.
B. ATP: B-747; Commercial: B-727 and B-737.
C. Commercial: B-737, B-727, and B-747.
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276. A commercial pilot has DHC Dash-8 400 and
CRJ type ratings. A flight test is completed for an
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B737. What
pilot privileges may be exercised?
A. ATP - B737; Commercial - Dash-8 400 and CRJ.
B. ATP - B737, CRJ, and Dash-8 400.
C. ATP - B737 and Dash-8 400. Commercial - CRJ.
277. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a
type rating to be added to a commercial pilot
certificate, in an approved simulator, is
A. required to have a first-class medical certificate.
B. required to have a second-class medical
certificate.
C. not required to have a medical certificate.
278. When a type rating is to be added to an airline
transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is
scheduled in an approved flight training device
and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is
A. required to have a first-class medical certificate.
B. required to have at least a third-class medical
certificate.
C. not required to have a medical certificate.
279. When a type rating is to be added to an airline
transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is
scheduled in an approved flight simulator and an
aircraft, the applicant is
A. required to have a current first-class medical
certificate.
B. required to have a least a current third-class
medical certificate.
C. not required to hold a medical certificate.
280. What should you consider when planning to
land at another airport?
A. Land and hold short procedures.
B. Check for airport and touchdown markings.
C. Airport lighting using continuous wiring.
281. As part of their preflight planning process,
pilots should check if their destination airport has:
A. Runway Aiming Point Markings.
B. Lighted Markers on catenary wiring.
C. LAHSO.
282. When conducting Land and Hold Short
Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily
available:
A. the published Available Landing Distance (ALD),
landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all
LAHSO combinations at the destination airport.
B. the landing performance of the aircraft, published
Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO
combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus
the forecast winds.
C. the published runway length and slope for all
LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended
landing.
283. The most effective technique to use for
detecting other aircraft at night is to
A. turn the head and sweep the eyes rapidly over the
entire visible region.
B. avoid scanning the region below the horizon so as
to avoid the effect of ground lights on the eyes.
C. avoid staring directly at the point where another
aircraft is suspected to be flying.
284. How can an instrument pilot best overcome
spatial disorientation?
A. Rely on kinesthetic sense.
B. Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act
accordingly.
C. Use a very rapid cross check.
285. In what type of operation, not regulated by 14
CFR Part 119, may a commercial pilot act as pilot in
command and receive compensation for services?
A. Part-time contract pilot.
B. Nonstop flights within a 25 SM radius of an
airport to carry persons for intentional parachute
jumps.
C. Nonstop flights within a 25 SM radius of an
airport to carry cargo only.
286. You are acting as a commercial pilot, but are
not operating under the regulations of 14 CFR Part
119. Which of these operations are you authorized to
conduct?
A. On-demand, passenger-carrying flights of nine
persons or less.
B. On-demand cargo flights.
C. Aerial application and aerial photography.
287. Who is responsible for filing a Near Midair
Collision (NMAC) Report?
A. Pilot and/or flight crew of aircraft involved in the
incident.
B. A passenger on board the involved aircraft.
C. Local law enforcement.
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288. Pilots and/or Flight Crew members involved in
NMAC occurrences are urged to report each incident
immediately:
A. By radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC
Facility or FSS.
B. To local law enforcement.
C. By cell phone to the responsible Flight Standards
office as this is an emergency.
289. After a post-flight inspection, you notice a
discrepancy. Who is responsible to correct the
discrepancy prior to the next flight?
A. A certificated aircraft mechanic.
B. The pilot-in-command.
C. The owner or designated operator.
290. With respect to the certification of aircraft,
which is a category of aircraft?
A. Landplane, seaplane.
B. Normal, utility, acrobatic.
C. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
291. With respect to the certification of aircraft,
which is a class of aircraft?
A. Transport, restricted, provisional.
B. Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.
C. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
292. An instrument rated pilot is planning a flight
under IFR on July 1, this year. Before conducting
the flight, the pilot must have
A. performed and logged the prescribed tasks and
repetitions required for instrument currency no
earlier than January 1, this year.
B. performed and logged the prescribed tasks and
repetitions required for instrument currency no
earlier than February 1, this year.
C. passed an instrument proficiency check between
August 1 last year and July 1 this year.
293. A person may act as pilot in command of both
type A and type B aircraft under IFR, if an
instrument proficiency check has been passed in
A. either type A or B since the beginning of the 12th
month before time to serve.
B. type A since the beginning of the 12th month, and
in type B since the beginning of the 6th month
before time to serve.
C. type A since the beginning of the 12th month, and
in type B since the beginning of the 24th month
before time to serve.
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294. What are the minimum certificate and rating
requirements for the pilot in command of a turbojet
airplane with two engines being operated by a
Commuter Air Carrier (as defined in part 298) under
IFR?
A. Airline transport pilot; airplane category;
multiengine class rating; airplane type rating, if
required.
B. Airline transport pilot of any category;
multiengine class rating; airplane type rating.
C. Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine
class rating; instrument rating; airplane type rating.
295. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727
and B-737. A flight test is completed in
A. ATP: B-747; Commercial: B-727 and B-737.
B. ATP: B-747, B-727, and B-737.
C. Commercial: B-737, B-727, and
B-747.
296. A commercial pilot has DHC Dash-8 400 and
CRJ type ratings. A flight test is completed for an
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B737. What
pilot privileges may be exercised?
A. ATP - B737, CRJ, and Dash-8 400.
B. ATP - B737;
Commercial - Dash-8 400 and CRJ.
C. ATP - B737 and Dash-8 400. Commercial - CRJ.
297. When a type rating is to be added to an airline
transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is
scheduled in an approved flight training device
and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is
A. required to have a first-class medical certificate.
B. is not required to have a medical certificate.
C. required to have at least a third-class medical
certificate.
298. When a type rating is to be added to an airline
transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is
scheduled in an approved flight simulator and an
aircraft, the applicant is?
A. required to have a current first-class medical
certificate.
B. required to have a least a current third- class
medical certificate.
C. not required to hold a medical certificate.
299. What should you consider when planning to
land at another airport?
A. Check for airport and touchdown markings.
B. Land and hold short procedures.
C. Airport lighting using continuous wiring.
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300. As part of their preflight planning process,
pilots should check if their destination airport has:
A. Runway Aiming Point Markings.
B. Lighted Markers on catenary wiring.
C. LAHSO.
306. What regulations are in the terms and
conditions of a Standard Airworthiness Certificate?
A. Parts 21, 31, 43, and 91.
B. Parts 21, 43, and 91.
C. Parts 21, 61, and 91.
301. When conducting Land and Hold Short
Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily
available:
A. the landing performance of the aircraft, published
Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO
combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus
the forecast winds.
B. the published Available Landing Distance (ALD),
landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all
LAHSO combinations at the destination airport.
C. the published runway length and slope for all
LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended
landing.
307. Minimum safe altitude rules authorize
helicopter pilots to
A. fly at less than 500 feet.
B. fly at less than 500 feet it they do not create a
hazard to persons and property on the surface.
C. fly closer than 500 feet to any person, vehicle,
vessel, or structure on the surface.
302. The most effective technique to use for
detecting other aircraft at night is to
A. turn the head and sweep the eyes rapidly over the
entire visible region.
B avoid scanning the region below the horizon so as
to avoid the effect of ground lights on the eyes.
C. avoid staring directly at the point where another
aircraft is suspected to be flying.
303. How can an instrument pilot best overcome
spatial disorientation?
A. Rely on kinesthetic sense.
B. Use a very rapid cross check.
C. Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act
accordingly.
304. You have accomplished 25 takeoffs and
landings in multi-engine land airplanes in the
previous 45 days. For a flight you plan to conduct
today, this meets the PIC recency of experience
requirements to carry passengers in which airplanes?
A. Multi- or single-engine land.
B. Multi-engine land airplane.
C. Single-engine land airplane.
305. A transponder will become unserviceable when
it is off by more than
A. 125 feet.
B. 50 feet.
C. 25 feet.
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308. Minimum safe altitude rules require that
helicopter pilots
A. Not fly lower than 500 feet, except when
necessary for takeoff or landing.
B. not fly closer than 500 feet to any person, vehicle,
vessel, or structure.
C. comply with routes and altitudes prescribed by
the FAA.
309. For the purpose of airworthiness, a dealer
registration certificate is the same as the owner's
certificate when
A. required for flight testing.
B. the aircraft is old and moved.
C. traveling more than a 150 NM.
310. Which list accurately reflects some of the
documents required to be current and carried in a
U.S. registered civil airplane flying in the United
States under day Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
A. Airworthiness certificate, approved airplane flight
manual, and aircraft registration certificate.
B. Proof of insurance certificate, VFR flight plan or
flight itinerary, and the aircraft logbook.
C. VFR sectional(s) chart(s) for the area in which the
flight occurs, aircraft logbook, and engine logbook.
311. The holder of a commercial pilot certificate
while exercising commercial pilot privileges is
restricted from operating under BasicMed
A. for flights over 18,000 FT MSL.
B. if carrying more than 5 passengers.
C. at anytime.
312. If a military training route has flights operating
at or below 1,500 feet AGL, it will be designated by
A. VR and a three digit number only.
B. IR or VR and a three digit number.
C. IR or VR and a four digit number.
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313. When approaching to land at an airport, without
an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, a
helicopter pilot should
A. avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft.
B. make all turns to the left, unless otherwise
indicated.
C. enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.
314. (Refer to Figure 50.) The segmented circle
indicates that the airport traffic is
A. left-hand for runway 36 and right-hand for
runway 18.
B. left-hand for runway 36 and right-hand for
runway 18.
C. right-hand for runway 9 and left-hand for
runway 27.
315. (Refer to Figure 54, point 2.) After departing
from Byron Airport (C83) with a northeast wind,
you discover you are approaching Livermore Class
D airspace and flight visibility is approximately 21/2 miles. You must
A. stay below 1200 feet to remain in Class G.
B. stay below 700 feet to remain in Class G and land.
C. contact Livermore ATCT on 119.65 and advise of
your intentions.
316. (Refer to Figure 52, point 6.) Van Vleck airport
is
A. an airport restricted to use by private and
recreational pilots.
B. a nonpublic use airport.
C. a restricted military stage field within restricted
airspace.
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317. (Refer to Figure 52, point 8.) The floor of the
Class E airspace over the town of Auburn is
A. 1,200 feet MSL.
B. 1,200 feet AGL.
C. 700 feet AGL.
319. The thinner outer magenta circle depicted
around Class B Airspace is
A. the outer segment of Class B Airspace.
B. an area within which an appropriate transponder
must be used from outside the of the Class B
Airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL.
C. a Mode C “veil” boundary where a balloon may
penetrate without a transponder, provided it remains
below 10,000 feet MSL.
320. (Refer to Figure 54, point 1.) A helicopter flight
over Livermore Airport (LVK) at 3,000 feet MSL
A. does not require a transponder or ATC
communication.
B. requires a transponder, but ATC communication
is not necessary.
C. cannot be completed without meeting all Class B
airspace requirements.
318. (Refer to Figure 52, point 4.) The obstruction
within 10 NM closest to Lincoln Regional Airport
(LHM) is how high above the ground?
A. 1,245 feet.
B. 296 feet.
C. 662 feet.
321. Which of these circumstances requires
immediate notification of the NTSB office?
A. An overdue aircraft that was potentially involved
in an accident.
B. In flight radio/communication failure.
C. In flight generator failure.
322. Where can you find more information about
parachute operations?
A. NOTAMs.
B. Chart Supplement.
C. Graphic charts or Sectional Charts.
323. Which of the following best describes a
destination sign?
A. Indicates a runway on which the aircraft is
presently located.
B. Indicates the direction to the takeoff runway.
C. Indicates the entrance to a taxiway from a runway.
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324. The ‘yellow demarcation bar’ marking
indicates
A. a hold line from a taxiway to a runway.
B. the beginning of available runway for landing on
the approach side.
C. runway with a displaced threshold that precedes
the runway.
325. When turning onto a taxiway from another
taxiway, the "taxiway directional sign" indicates the
A. designation and direction of the taxiway(s)
leading out of an intersection.
B. direction to the take-off runway.
C. designation and direction of the exit taxiway from
the runway.
330. (Refer to figure 60) You are taxiing and see
sign 2 on the left side of the intersection you are
approaching. You see sign 1 in front of you across
the intersection. Does taxiway A continue through
the intersection?
A. Yes, taxiway A is on the opposite side of the
intersection.
B. Yes, taxiway T is on the opposite side of the
intersection.
C. No, the taxiway does not continue.
326. The “taxiway location” sign serves to
A. provide general taxiing direction to named
runway.
B. denote entrance to runway from a taxiway.
C. identify taxiway on which an aircraft is located.
327. What is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
A. Defines direction and designation of exit taxiway
from runway.
B. Defines direction and designation of runway
when exiting a taxiway.
C. Defines a mandatory exit point from the runway
during Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO).
331. The runway holding position sign is located on
A. runways that intersect other runways.
B. taxiways protected from an aircraft approaching a
runway.
C. runways that intersect other taxiways.
328. The “taxiway ending” marker
A. Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
B. Indicates taxiway does not continue.
C. Provides general taxiing direction to taxiway.
329. (Figure 60.) Sign 1 is an indication
A. of an area where aircraft are prohibited.
B. That the taxiway does not continue.
C. of the general taxiing direction to a taxiway.
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332. Figure 51. When taxiing up to an active runway,
you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area
when short of which symbol?
A. H.
B. D.
C. G.
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333. Figure 51. While clearing an active runway you
are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when
you pass which symbol
A. H.
B. D.
C. G.
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334. Figure 51. The pilot generally calls ground
control after landing when the aircraft is completely
clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft
A. is past the solid-line side of symbol G.
B. passes symbol D.
C. is on the dashed-line side of symbol G.
335. Figure 51. Airport Signs. (Refer to F.) This sign
confirms your position on
A. routing to runway 22.
B. runway 22.
C. taxiway 22.
336. Figure 56. Two Signs. Sign 1 confirms your
position on
A. runway 22.
B. taxiway 22.
C. routing to runway 22.
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337. Figure 64. Sign. If cleared for an intersection
takeoff on runway 8, you see this sign at the
intersection hold short position. Which way should
you turn when taxiing onto the runway?
A. Left.
B. Right.
C. Need more information.
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Answer Key:
1.
2.
3.
4.
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21.
22.
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24.
25.
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28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
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45.
C
A
B
A
C
B
A
C
A
B
A
C
B
C
A
B
C
A
A
C
B
A
C
B
C
C
B
A
B
C
A
C
C
A
B
A
C
C
B
A
B
B
C
A
C
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
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70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
C
C
A
B
C
C
C
A
B
C
A
B
C
B
A
A
C
B
A
C
A
C
B
C
A
A
B
A
B
B
A
B
C
C
A
C
B
A
B
C
A
B
C
B
C
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
C
B
A
C
A
C
A
A
C
B
A
B
C
B
A
B
C
A
B
A
C
B
C
B
C
A
A
C
B
A
C
C
B
A
A
B
C
A
C
B
C
A
B
C
C
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
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147.
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149.
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159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
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165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
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B
A
B
A
A
B
A
C
B
C
B
A
C
B
A
C
A
C
A
C
B
A
C
C
A
B
A
B
A
C
B
B
A
B
C
A
A
B
C
A
C
B
B
C
A
181.
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
190.
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
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202.
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207.
208.
209.
210.
211.
212.
213.
214.
215.
216.
217.
218.
219.
220.
221.
222.
223.
224.
225.
B
C
A
B
A
C
A
C
B
C
B
A
C
A
C
B
A
C
B
C
B
A
A
B
C
B
A
B
C
B
C
C
B
B
A
B
A
C
B
A
B
C
B
C
A
226.
227.
228.
229.
230.
231.
232.
233.
234.
235.
236.
237.
238.
239.
240.
241.
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243.
244.
245.
246.
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248.
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250.
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252.
253.
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255.
256.
257.
258.
259.
260.
261.
262.
263.
264.
265.
266.
267.
268.
269.
270.
A
C
C
B
B
A
C
C
B
A
B
C
B
C
A
C
A
B
A
C
B
A
C
B
C
A
B
A
C
A
A
B
A
C
C
A
B
A
B
A
A
A
B
C
C
271.
272.
273.
274.
275.
276.
277.
278.
279.
280.
281.
282.
283.
284.
285.
286.
287.
288.
289.
290.
291.
292.
293.
294.
295.
296.
297.
298.
299.
300.
301.
302.
303.
304.
305.
306.
307.
308.
309.
310.
311.
312.
313.
314.
315.
B
B
A
A
A
B
C
C
B
A
C
A
C
B
B
C
A
A
C
B
C
A
B
A
B
A
B
B
B
C
B
C
C
B
A
B
B
C
A
A
C
C
A
B
B
316.
317.
318.
319.
320.
321.
322.
323.
324.
325.
326.
327.
328.
329.
330.
331.
332.
333.
334.
335.
336.
337.
B
C
B
C
B
A
B
B
C
A
C
A
B
B
C
A
A
A
A
B
C
A
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