Engineering Chemistry
UNIT IA
Que. Suspended impurities can be
separated by__________.
A. Zeolite process
B. Ion Exchange process
C. Filtration
D. Osmosis
Ans. C
Que. The impurities in water having
particle size greater than _________ are
suspended particles.
A. 1000 A°
B. 10 A°
C. 0. 1 A°
D. 1 A°
Ans. A
Que. The impurities like bacteria, fungi
etc. and other small size aquatic animals
are coming in the category of _________
impurities.
A. Suspended
B. Biological
C. Colloidal
D. Dissolved
Ans. B
Que. Water which does not form lather
readily with soap is called as _________.
A. Soft water
B. Pure water
C. Impure water
D. Hard water
Ans. D
Que. The water which contains impurities
like Ca(HCO3)2 , Mg(HCO3)2, MgCO3 is
the type of _________ hardness.
A. Carbonate
B. Non-carbonate
C. Permanent
D. Mild
Ans. A
Que. When water is becoming hard due to
the salts other than carbonates then the
type of hardness is ________.
A. Carbonate
B. Non-carbonate
C. Sulphate
D. Nitrate
Ans. B
Boiled
Que. MgCO3 + H2O
Mg(OH)2
+ CO2 The hardness removed by above
method is ________ hardness.
A. Mild
B. Temporary
C. Non-carbonate
D. Permanent
Ans. B
Que. Rain water is ________ water.
A. Hard
B. Soft
C. Impure
D. Double distilled
Ans. B
Que. Commonly used unit of hardness is
________.
A. ml
B. Kg
C. ppm of CaCO3
D. cm
Ans. C
Que. In EDTA vs hard water titration, the
indicator used is _______.
A. Phenolpthalein
B. EBT
C. Methyl orange
D. Fluoroscien
Ans. B
Que. The colour of the metal-EDTA
complex is ________.
A. Colourless
B. Wine red
C. Blue
D. Yellow
Ans. A
Que. The colour of metal-EBT complex is
________.
A. Colourless
B. Wine red
C. Blue
D. Yellow
Ans. B
Que. In alkalinity titration, second end
point is called as ________ end point.
A. Phenolpthalein
B. EBT
C. Methyl orange
D. Fluoroscien
Ans. C
Que. Na2EDTA is ________dentate
ligand.
A. Bi
B. Tri
C. Tetra
D. Hexa
Ans. D
Que. In alkalinity experiment, methyl
orange end point is _________.
A. Colourless to pink
B. Pink to colourless
C. Yellow to red
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. In EDTA-hard water titration along
with indicator ________ is added.
A. HCl
B. Buffer
C. NaOH
D. HNO3
Ans. B
Que. If P = 0, then _________ alkalinities
are present.
A. OH¯
B. HCO3¯
C. CO3¯ ¯
D. OH¯ and CO3¯ ¯
Ans. B
Que. In EDTA titration by adding buffer
solution _______ maintained.
A. Alkalinity
B. Acidity
C. pH
D. Neutrality
Ans. C
Que.
If P = ½ M, then
________alkalinities are present.
A. OH¯
B. HCO3¯
C. CO3¯ ¯
D. OH¯ and CO3¯ ¯
Ans. C
Que. In alkalinity titration, first end point
is called as _________ end point.
A. Phenolpthalein
B. EBT
C. Methyl orange
D. Fluorosciene
Ans. A
Que.
If P = M, then
_________alkalinities are present.
A. OH¯
B. HCO3¯
C. CO3¯ ¯
D. OH¯ and CO3¯ ¯
Ans. A
Que. In alkalinity experiment,
phenolphthalein end point is _________.
A. Colourless to pink
B. Pink to colourless
C. Yellow to red
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que.
If P < ½ M, then
________alkalinities are present.
A. OH¯
B. HCO3¯
C. CO3¯ ¯
D. HCO3¯ and CO3¯ ¯
Ans. D
Que.
If P > ½ M, then
_________alkalinities are present.
A. OH¯
B. HCO3¯
C. CO3¯ ¯
D. OH¯ and CO3¯ ¯
Ans. D
Que. Determination of Alkalinity is
________type of titration.
A. Precipitation
B. Redox
C. Complexometric
D. Acid-base
Ans. D
Que. Hardness determination is
_______type of titration.
A. Precipitation
B. Redox
C. Complexometric
D. Acid-base
Ans. C
Que. Alkalinity of water is due to
_______.
A. OH¯
B. CO3¯ ¯
C. HCO3¯
D. All of these
Ans. D
Que. Salts responsible for hardness are in
______ form.
A. Insoluble
B. Soluble
C. Partly soluble
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. Carbonate hardness =__________
hardness.
A. Permanent
B. Mild
C. Temporary
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. Unit for hardness is _______ ppm.
A. gm / lit
B. lit/gm
C. mg/lit
D. mg/ml
Ans. C
Que. In EDTA method, buffer solution
used to make water alkaline is a mixture of
_____ + _____.
A. NH4Cl + NH4OH
B. NH4Cl + H2O
C. NH4OH + KCl
D. All of these
Ans. A
Que. In EDTA method, pH of the buffer
solution is ______.
A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 7
Ans. C
Que.
1 M Na2EDTA =
_______CaCO3.
A. 10 g
B. 100 g
C. 1000 g
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. Salts responsible for permanent
hardness are ___________.
A. Calcium sulphate and calcium
bicarbonate
B. Sodium sulphate and calcium
bicarbonate
((C )) Sodium sulphate and Magnesium
chloride
D. Calcium sulphate and Magnesium
chloride
Ans. D
Que. Salts responsible for temporary
hardness are ___________.
A. Calcium carbonate and magnesium
bicarbonate
B. Sodium sulphate and calcium
bicarbonate
((C )) Sodium sulphate and Magnesium
chloride
D. Calcium sulphate and Magnesium
chloride
Ans. A
Que. Temporary hardness of water is
removed by _________.
A. Filtration of water
B. Sedimentation of water
((C ))Boiling of water
D. All of these
Ans. C
Que. Permanent hardness of water is
removed by _________.
A. Filtration of water
B. Sedimentation of water
((C ))Boiling of water
D. Chemical treatment
Ans. D
Que. On boiling hard water temporary
hardness is removed by forming
precipitates of _________.
A. Calcium and magnesium chloride
B. calcium and magnesium carbonate
((C ))Calcium carbonate and magnesium
hydroxide
D. Calcium hydroxide and magnesium
carbonate
Ans. C
Que. Molecular weight of calcium
carbonate is _________.
A. 100
B. 50
((C ))25
D. 200
Ans. A
Que. Degree of hardness is _________.
A. Amount of hardness present in the
sample water
B. Amount of hardness
((C ))Amount of hardness imparting
impurities in sample water
D. Amount of sample water
Ans. C
Que. Hardness of water is its _________.
A. Soap releasing capacity
B. Soap consuming capacity
((C ))Soap forming capacity
D. Soap dissolving capacity
Ans. B
Que. Magnesium bicarbonate on boiling
forms _________.
A. MgCO3+CO2+H2O
B. MgCO3+CO2
((C )) Mg(OH)2+CO2
D. MgCO3+Mg(OH)2
Ans. C
Que. Hardness of water is determined by
_________.
A. EDTA Method
B. Volhard’s Method
((C ))Mohr’s Method
D. Iodometric titration Method
Ans. A
Que. In the determination of hardness of
water Na2EDTA is used instead of EDTA
because _________.
((A) Na2EDTA)is tetradentate and EDTA
is bidentate
B. Na2EDTA is cheap than EDTA
((C )) Na2EDTA is colourless and EDTA
is coloured
D. Na2EDTA is easily soluble in water
than EDTA
Ans. D
Que. M-EDTA complex is _________.
A. Neutral
B. Negatively charged
((C ))Positively charged
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. Hard water--------A. Forms lather readily
B. Does not form lather easily
C. Precipitates out on to soap
D. Dissolves the soap completely
Ans. B
Que. Temporary hardness of water is due
to-----A. Chlorides
B. Bicarbonates and some soluble
carbonates
C. Nitrates and some soluble gases
D. Heavy metal salts
Ans. B
Que. The hardness causing salts are
expressed in terms of---------A. MgCO3
B. CaCl2
C. CaCO3
D. Ca(HCO3)2
Ans. C
Que. EDTA means--------A. Eriochrome diethylene tetraacetic acid
B. Ethyl diacetate acetic acid
C. Eriochrome diamine tetraethyl acetic
acid
D. Ethylene diammine tetra acetic acid
Ans. D
Que. Complex formation in EDTA method
involves----A. Formation of ionic bonds with cations
and ligands
B. Formation of a ring like compound
with ligands
C. Formation of a ring like structure with
cations and donating species
D. Formation of a structure with metal in
the centre and ligands
Ans. D
Que. Temporary hardness in water can be
removed due to boiling because
A. The hardness causing salts get
decomposed
B. They can become non-hardness
causing
C. The salts can evaporate along with
water
D. The salts get converted to permanent
hardness causing salts
Ans. A
Que. Standard hard water means water
containing
A. 1 mg of hardness causing salts per ml
B. 1 mg of hardness causing salts per litre
C. 1 ppm of hardness causing salts per
litre
D. 100 mg CaCO3 per 1000ml
Ans. D
Que. The alkalinity in water cannot be due
to
A. OH- ions
B. CO32C. CO32- and HCO3- both
D. OH- and HCO3
Ans. D
Que. When Phenolphthalein alkalinity = 0
A. Phenolphthalein should be used
B. Phenolphthalein and methyl orange
both should be used
C. Methyl orange only
D. No indicator is required
Ans. C
Que. 1M Na2EDTA =------------------CaCO3
A. 10 g
B. 100g
C. 1000g
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. A method of water softening that
removes hardness ions and replaces them
with sodium ions that does not affect soap
is
A. Washing soda addition
B. Calgon conditioning
C. Zeolite method
D. All of the above
Ans. D
Que. 1 ppm CaCO3 equivalent hardness is
meant by
A. 10 mg/lit CaCO3 eq.
B. 100 mg/lit CaCO3 eq.
C. 1 mg/lit CaCO3 eq.
D. 103 mg/lit CaCO3 eq.
Ans. C
Que. Hardness of water for high pressure
boilers in term of ppm CaCO3 eq. should
be
A. 0-10
B. 10-25
C. 25-50
D. above 50
Ans. A
Que. Total hardness is sum of
A. Concentrations of all the salts present
B. Concentrations of calcium and Mg salts
present
(( C))Temporary hardness and permanent
hardness
D. Concentrations of impurities present in
the water
Ans. C
Que. In EDTA titration addition of buffer
solution maintains
A. Alkalinity
B. Acidity
C. pH
D. Neutrality
Ans. C
Que. The combinations of alkaline salts
present in water can not be
A. OH- and CO3-2
B. OH- and H CO3C. H CO3- and CO3-2
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. OH- ions imparts _____________ to
water.
A. Permanent Hardness
B. Temporary hardness
C. Alkalinity
D. Colour
Ans. C
Que.
In determination of alkalinity
using dual indicator method, if P=M, OHalkalinity is equal to___________.
A. 2P
B. M
C. M-2P
D. 2P-M
Ans. B
Que.
In determination of alkalinity
using dual indicator method, if P=0,
HCO3- alkalinity is equal to___________.
A. 2P
B. M
C. M-2P
D. 2P-M
Ans. B
Que.
In determination of alkalinity
using dual indicator method, if P=1/2M,
CO3-- alkalinity is equal to___________.
A. 2P
B. M
C. M-2P
D. 2P-M
Ans. A
Que.
In determination of alkalinity
using dual indicator method, if P < 1/2M,
CO3-- alkalinity is equal to___________.
A. 2P
B. M
C. M-2P
D. 0
Ans. A
Que.
In determination of alkalinity
using dual indicator method, if P > 1/2M,
CO3-- alkalinity is equal to___________.
A. 2P
B. 2 (M-P)
C. M-2P
D. 0
Ans. B
Que.
In determination of alkalinity
using dual indicator method, if P > 1/2M,
HCO3- alkalinity is equal to___________.
A. 2P
B. 2 (M-P)
C. M-2P
D. 2P-M
Ans. D
Que.
In determination of alkalinity
using dual indicator method, if P < 1/2M,
OH- alkalinity is equal to___________.
A. 2P
B. 2 (M-P)
C. M-2P
D. 2P-M
Ans. C
Que.
100 ml of water sample requires
15 ml of 0.05N HCl for the end point
using phenolphthalein and methyl orange
indicator. Find the total alkalinity of water.
A. 250ppm
B. 275ppm
C. 300ppm
D. 375ppm
Ans. D
Que.
1 ppm hardness is one part of
CaCO3 equivalent hardness present
in___________.
A. 10-6 parts of water
B. 106 parts of water
C. 103 parts of water
D. 10-3 parts of water
Ans. B
Que.
If the total hardness of water is
380ppm and non-carbonate hardness of
water is 300ppm then permanent hardness
of water is ___________.
A. 80ppm
B. 300ppm
C. 680ppm
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que.
Match the following.
1. Foamig
P. Boilers
2. EDTA
Q. Sticky
3. Scales
R. EBT
4. Priming
S. Castor
oil
A. 1-S ,2-R , 3-Q , 4-P
B. 1-R ,2-S , 3-P , 4-Q
C. 1-S ,2-R , 3-P , 4-Q
D. 1-S ,2-P , 3-Q , 4-R
Ans.
Que.
50 ml of water sample requires
10 ml of 0.01N HCl for the end point
using phenolphthalein and another 5ml for
methyl orange indicator. Find the total
alkalinity of water.
A. 150 ppm
B. 200 ppm
C. 250 ppm
D. 300 ppm
Ans. A
Que.
Upon boiling hard water
bicarbonatese
decomposed
to
yield___________.
A. insoluble chlorides
B. soluble chlorides
C. insoluble carbonates or hydroxides
D. soluble carbonates or hydroxides
Ans. B
Que.
50 ml of water sample requires 6
ml of 0.01N HCl for the end point using
phenolphthalein and another 4 ml for
methyl orange indicator. Find the total
alkalinity of water.
A. 100 ppm
B. 200 ppm
C. 300 ppm
D. 400 ppm
Ans. A
Que.
____________.
A. 0.1ppm
B. 1ppm
C. 10ppm
D. 100ppm
Ans. C
Que. Which indicator is used in the
determination of alkalinity of water
A. phenolphthalein and methyl orange
B. starch
C. EBT
D. all of these
Ans. A
10mg/lit is equal to
Que. Unit of hardness of water is ____
A. ppm
B. ppb
C. mg/litre
D. all of them
Ans.
Que. Permanent hardness is due to
dissolved calcium and magnesium salts of
_____
A. chlorides
B. nitrates
C. sulphates
D. all of them
Ans. D
Que. Permanent hardness is not imparted
to water due to _____
A. chlorides
B. sulphates
C. bicarbonates
D. nitrates
Ans. C
Que. Soap consuming capacity of water is
called as ---A. corrosion
B. Softness of water
C. Hardness of water
D. alkalinity
Ans. C
Que. Alkaline hardness is also called as---A. non-carbonate hardness
B. carbonate hardness
C. permanent hardness
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que. Alkalinity is measured volumetrically
by titration of sample water against a
standard solution of ----A. Sulphuric acid
B. silver nitrate
C. sodium thiosulphate
D. ferrous ammoniu sulphate
Ans. A
Que. Hardness of water is expressed in
terms of equivalent of ---A. calcium chloride
B. magnesium chloride
C. calcium carbonate
D. magnesium carbonate
Ans. C
UNIT IB
Que. To avoid corrosion due to dissolved
oxygen, water is treated with ______.
A. CaCO3
B. CuSO4
C. Na2SO3
D. KMnO4
Ans. C
Que. Dissolved CO2 from water is
removed by adding suitable amount of
_______.
A. NH3
B. CO2
C. H2S
D. H2O
Ans. A
Que. To prevent corrosion due to acid
formation the pH of the boiler feed water
is maintained in between _______.
A. 2 to 4
B. 8. 5 to 9
C. 3. 5 to 7
D. 11. 5 to 14
Ans. B
Que. Galvanic corrosion can be avoided
by suspending _________ plates.
A. Steel
B. Chromium
C. Silver
D. Zinc
Ans. D
Que. When boiler produces steam rapidly,
some water droplets are carried along with
steam. This process of wet steam
formation is called as ________.
A. Carry over
B. Foaming
C. Priming
D. Sludge formation
Ans. C
Que. Foaming is formation of continuous
________ on the surface of water.
A. Steam
B. Sludge
C. Droplets
D. Foam
Ans. D
Que. Priming and foaming reduces
________.
A. Efficiency of machines.
B. Hardness of water.
C. Alkalinity of water.
D. Chloride content in water.
Ans. A
Que. The slimy and loose deposits of
precipitated salts in a boiler tube is known
as _______.
A. Scale
B. Sludge
C. Priming
D. Carry over
Ans. B
Que. Carry over is the alternative name
for _________.
A. Sludge formation
B. Corrosion
C. Scale formation
D. Priming and foaming
Ans. D
Que. The hard and strong coating formed
inside the boiler tube by chemical reaction
is called as _______.
A. Sludge
B. Scale
C. Carry over
D. Hard water
Ans. B
Que. Normally sludge formation is
towards the ________ parts of the boiler
tube.
A. Hotter
B. Bottom
C. Cooler
D. Middle
Ans. C
Que. The fast corrosion of boiler caused
by highly alkaline condition of water is
called as ________.
A. Osmosis
B. Evaporation
C. Precipitation
D. Caustic embitterment
Ans. D
Que. Caustic embrittelment can be
avoided by treating boiler feed water with
_______.
A. Sodium carbonate
B. Sodium phosphate
C. Sodium chloride
D. Sodium sulphate
Ans. B
Que. Scales are generally formed at
________ parts of the boiler tube.
A. Upper
B. Side
C. Hotter
D. Middle
Ans. C
Que. Scale forming salts like CaSO4,
Mg(HCO3)2 in the boiler water can be
converted into highly soluble complexes
by adding __________.
A. Calgon
B. MgSO4
C. Na2CO3
D. CuSO4
Ans. A
Que. By adding _______ at a boiler
temperature, it is possible to form
gelatinous precipitate of scale and sludge
forming salts.
A. Sodium carbonate
B. Sodium sulphate
C. Sodium aluminate
D. Sodium hydroxide
Ans. C
Que. By using _______ chelating
compound scales and sludges can be
converted into soluble complexes.
A. Na2CO3
B. EDTA
C. Na2PO4
D. CaCO3
Ans. B
Que. Due to scale and sludge deposition
in boiler efficiency of boiler ______.
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains same
D. All of these
Ans. B
Que. Sludge’s are formed by substances
which have
A. More solubility in cold water
B. More solubility in acidic water
C. More solubility in hot water
D. More solubility in alkaline water
Ans. A
Que. The permitted hardness for water
used in high pressure boilers is
A. 10-20 ppm
B. 2-3 ppm
C. 0-10 ppm
D. 15-50 ppm
Ans. B
Que. Blow-down operation means
A. Replacing salt water with fresh air
B. Replacing salt water with fresh water
C. Blowing air strongly through boiler
D. Blowing down hot and hard water
Ans. B
Que. Organic substances like tannin are
added to
A. Minimize scale formation
B. Maximize sludge formation
C. Form a coating on scales
D. Prevent scales and sludges
Ans. C
Que. Caustic embrittlement is the boiler
phenomenon in which
A. Corrosion of boiler due to sodium
phosphate occurs
B. Corrosion of boiler due to calgon
occurs
C. Corrosion of boiler due to sodium
aluminate occurs
D. Corrosion of boiler due to sodium
hydroxide and soda lime occurs
Ans. D
Que. The type of phosphates used for
acidic water is:
A. NaH2PO4
B. Na2PO4
C. Na3PO4
D. NaHPO4
Ans. C
Que. Presence of silica in boiler water
causes
A. Sludge formation
B. priming
C. foaming
D. scale formation
Ans. D
Que. Buffer solution is added during
complexometric titration to maintain
pH=10
A. Since EBT shows a blue colour at such
pH
B. The metal EDTA complex is stable
C. The H+ ions released during complex
formation are balanced by the buffer
solution
D. All the above reasons
Ans. D
Que. Dissolved oxygen in water
A. Promotes corrosion
B. Increases boiler life
C. Reacts with salts in water
D. Reduces the hardness of water
Ans. A
Que. Hydrazine reacts with dissolved
oxygen to form
A. Ammonia
B. Nitrogen gas and water
C. Sodium sulphite
D. Ammonium hydroxide
Ans. B
Que. To remove CO2 from boiler feed
water
A. Ammonia is used
B. Sodium sulphide is used
C. N2H4 is used
D. Sodium carbonate is used
Ans. A
Que. Wet steam means
A. Priming
B. Foaming
C. Steaming
D. Deaerating
Ans. A
Que. At high temperatures of water
A. CaSO4 dissolves sufficiently
B. CaSO4 precipitates out as a scale
C. CaSO4 delocalizes as sludge
D. MgCl2 does not hydrolyze
Ans. B
Que. Water Analysis is an important topic
of study since
A. Water is available everywhere
B. Water has numerous industrial
applications
C. The nature of water affects all living
beings
D. All of the above
Ans. D
Que. At the cooler portions of the
boiler__________ are formed/occurred.
A. Scales
B. Sludges
C. Corrosion
D. Caustic embrittlement
Ans. B
Que. The use of Na2CO3 in boilers leads
to
A. Formation of NaHCO3
B. Formation of NaOH
C. Formation of Na3PO4
D. All the above
Ans. B
Que. Corrosion of boiler is caused by feed
water containing
A. O2
B. CO2
C. salts of weak base-strong acid
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que. The preferred chemical for removing
O2 gas dissolved in boiler feed water is
A. Na2SO4
B. N2H4
C. Na2S
D. NH3
Ans. B
Que. The chemical used for removing
dissolved O2 in boiler feed water is
A. Hydrazine
B. Sodium alluminate
C. alum
D. sodium phosphate
Ans. A
Que. Removal of dissolved CO2 from the
boiler feed water is done by adding
A. soda
B. ammonia
C. oxygen
D. NaAlO2
Ans. B
Que. Presence of salt of weak base-strong
acid in the boiler feed water causes the
main problem
A. caustic embrittlement
B. priming
C. sludges formation
D. scale formation
Ans. A
Que. Priming in boilers can be prevented
by
A. adding anti foaming agent in boiler
feed water
B. maintaining low level of water in boiler
C. avoiding changes in steam generation
rate & pressure
D. all of the above
Ans. A
Que. Blow down operation is used to
minimize
A. scale formation in boiler
B. sludge’s deposition in boiler
C. avoiding fast corrosion of boiler
D. avoiding wet steam formation
Ans. A
Que. Caustic embrittlement in high
pressure boiler is caused by
A. use of higher hardness in water
B. presence of soda in feed water
C. presence of weak base – strong acid
salts in feed water
D. all of the above
Ans. B
Que.
Scales
are
by______________.
A. Wire brushes
B. Hammer and chisel
C. Shock treatment
D. All of these
Ans. D
removed
Que. Priming occurs due to ____
A. high steam velocity
B. improper boiler design
C. sudden increase in steam rate
D. all of them
Ans. D
Que. Scales are formed due to ____
A. presence of silica
B. presence of nitrogen
C. presence of oxygen
D. presence of carbon
Ans. A
Que. Decomposition of bicarbonates is
responsible for _____
A. sludge formation
B. boiler corrosion
C. priming foaming
D. scale formation
Ans. D
Que. Efficiency of boiler decrease due to
____
A. scale formation
B. use of soft water
C. antifoaming agents
D. sodalime treatment
Ans. A
Que. Formation of NaOH in boiler water
results into _____
A. priming
B. phosphate conditioning
C. boiler corrosion
D. caustic embrittlement
Ans. D
Que. Caustic embrittlement can be avoided
by using _____
A. sodium phosphate
B. sodium bicarbonate
C. sodium sulphate
D. sodium chloride
Ans. A
Que. Boiler troubles are--A. Priming and Foaming
B. scale and sludge formation
C. Boiler corrosion
D. all of them
Ans. B
Que. Blow down operation is carried out
to remove---A. accumulated sludge
B. accumulated acid
C. distilled water
D. exhausted zeolite
Ans. A
UNIT IC
Que. The following treatment of water is
internal treatment.
A. Zeolite
B. Ion Exchange process
C. Calgon conditioning
D. Osmosis
Ans. C
Que. The other name of zeolite process is
________ process.
A. Ion exchange
B. Permutit
C. Demineralization
D. Coagulation
Ans. B
Que. Sodium zeolite is actually _______.
A. Sodium Silicate
B. Aluminium Silicate
C. Calcium Silicate
D. Hydrated Sodium Alumino Silicate
Ans. D
Que. Exhausted zeolite bed can be
regenerated by _______.
A. 5% NaCl
B. 10 % NaCl
C. 100 % NaCl
D. 20 % NaCl
Ans. B
Que. Brine is nothing but ________.
A. 5% NaCl
B. 10 % NaCl
C. 100 % NaCl
D. 20 % NaCl
Ans. B
Que. Zeolites are ________ like
structures.
A. Square
B. Triangular
C. Honey Comb
D. Pyramid
Ans. C
Que. Zeolite is basically _______ process.
A. Cation Exchange
B. Anion Exchange
C. Water Exchange
D. Ion Exchange
Ans. A
Que. Zeolite process can not be used for
water containing _______ impurities.
A. Dissolved
B. Biological
C. Suspended
D. Colloidal
Ans. D
Que.
8 % NaCl solution means
_______.
A. 8 g/lit
B. 80 g/lit
C. 0. 8 g/lit
D. 0. 08 g/lit
Ans. B
Que. Other name of Ion Exchange process
is _________.
A. Permutite
B. Zeolite
C. Deionization
D. Osmosis
Ans. C
Que. By using Ion Exchange process
________ can be exchangeD.
A. Cations
B. Anions
C. Cations and anions both
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. The exhausted cation exchanger can
be regenerated by _______.
A. NaCl
B. Dil. HCl
C. KCl
D. CaCl2
Ans. B
Que. The exhausted anion exchange resins
can be regenerated by _______.
A. Dil. NaOH
B. Ca(OH)2
C. Conc. KOH
D. CaSO4
Ans. A
Que. The process of removing
_______from water is called Desalination.
A. KCl
B. NaCl
C. CaCl2
D. BaCl2
Ans. B
Que. In _______method concentration of
brine decreases by applying direct electric
current.
A. Ion exchange
B. Zeolite
C. Electrodialysis
D. Osmosis
Ans. C
Que. Desalinated brine is removed from
_______compartment.
A. Central
B. First
C. Last
D. None of these
Ans. A
B. Very low
C. Greater
D. None of these.
Ans. C
Que. In osmosis process, after completion,
in the tank _______ is present.
A. Pure water
B. Mixture
C. Contaminated water
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. In reverse osmosis, _______.
A. Sewage water is purified
B. Industrial waste water is purified
C. Sea water is purified
D. River water is purified
Ans. C
Que. Reverse osmosis is also known as
______.
A. Super filtration
B. Hyper filtration
C. Pressure filtration
D. Molecular sieve filtration
Ans. B
Que. In osmosis flow of liquid is from
_______ solution.
A. Dilute to concentrated
B. Concentrated to dilute
C. Top to bottom
D. None of these
Ans. A
Que. Electrodialysis is a method adopted
to _______.
A. Remove high concentration of ions in
saline water
B. Remove pathogenic bacteria
C. Remove salts
D. Purify water
Ans. A
Que. In reverse osmosis flow of liquid is
from ______ solution.
A. Dilute to concentrated
B. Concentrated to dilute
C. Top to bottom
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. To remove ______ impurities from
water internal/external treatments are to be
given.
A. Colloidal
B. Suspended
C. Biological
D. Dissolved
Ans. D
Que. In reverse osmosis the direction of
the flow is getting reversed as hydrostatic
pressure is _______than osmotic pressure.
A. Low
Que. Zeolite process cannot be used for
_____salts.
A. Ca
B. Mg
C. Ca/Mg
D. Mn/Fe
Ans. D
Que. Zeolite process can only be used for
_____.
A. Colourless water
B. Yellow coloured water
C. Blue coloured water
D. All of these
Ans. A
Que. Calgon conditioning means to add
A. Scale forming salts in water
B. (NaPO3)6
C. NaHPO4
D. Na2HPO4
Ans. B
Que. Zeolites work on the principle of
A. Cation exchange
B. Anion exchange
C. Silicate exchange
D. Iron exchange
Ans. A
Que. Zeolites are
A. Hydrated iron silicates
B. Hydrated sodium alumino silicates
C. Hydrated magnesium oxides
D. Hydrated alumino hydroxides
Ans. B
Que. To regenerate a cation exchange resin
A. Dil HCl is added
B. Dil NaOH is added
C. Fresh 10% brine is added
D. Soft water is blown down
Ans. A
Que. Regeneration of cation exchanger
resin reaction is
A. H2R + 2Na+
Na2R + 2H+
B. RCl2 + 2 NaOH
R (OH)2 + 2
NaCl
C. Na2R + 2 HCl
H2R + 2NaCl
D. H2R + 2Ca
CaR + 2H+
Ans. C
Que. Water is passed through a cation
exchange resin first because
A. It is easier to use
B. It is cost effective
C. It produces acidic water
D. Water from here does not spoil anion
exchange beads
Ans. D
Que. In the fig. given below, identify what
could be present at locations 1 and 2 in the
zeolite process
1
Que. Regeneration of zeolite bed can be
done by
A. Running CaCl2 solution through it
B. Running 10% CaCl2 solution through
it
C. Running NaCl solution through it
D. Running CaCl2 solution through it
then pure water
Ans. C
Que. The cation exchanger resins are
sulphonated or carboxylated so as to
A. Get them in a bead like form
B. Have loosely held H+ ions on to them
C. Have exchange cations on them
D. Make long chain polymers of them
Ans. C
2
A. 1-NaHPO4 ,2- NaCl
B. 1-Na3PO4 , 2-NaCl
C. 1-Sodium aluminosilicate, 2- NaCl
D. 1-NaCl,2- Sodium aluminosilicate
Ans. D
Que. Reverse Osmosis works in the
A. Molecular range
B. Ionic range
C. Particle range
D. Macromolecular range
Ans. D
Que. Osmosis describes the
A. Movement of solutions having
different concentration
B. Movement of solution from high to low
concentration
C. Movement of solvent between two
solutions having different concentrations
D. Movement of solvent between two
solutions having similar concentrations
Ans. C
Que. Electrodialysis process requires
A. Number of cell pairs with electrodes
and semipermeable membrane
B. Only a semipermeable membrane
C. Pressure and electric field
D. Electrodes only
Ans. A
Que. Brackish water means
A. Salty water
B. Pure water
C. Distilled water
D. Ion-free water
Ans. A
Que. Reverse Osmosis removes
A. Ionic matter
B. Non-ionic matter
C. High molecular wt. organic matter
D. All of the above
Ans. D
Que. In phosphate conditioning scales are
converted into
A. loose ppt
B. soluble complex
C. gases
D. silicates
Ans. A
Que. RO process involves
A. solvent moves from solution of higher
conc. to lower conc. through
semipermeable membrane
B. solute molecules move from solution
of higher conc. to lower conc. through
semipermeable membrane
C. solvent moves from lower conc. to
higher conc.
D. solute molecules move from solution
of lower conc. to solution of higher conc.
through semipermeable membrane
Ans. C
Que. Internal treatment method involves
A. Zeolite treatment
B. Phosphate conditioning
((C ))Ion exchange method
D. None of the above
Ans. D
Que. The demineralization process
involves treatment of water with
A. Cation exchanger
B. Anion exchanger
(( C ))Both cation and anion exchanger
D. Adsorbents
Ans. C
Que.
How many litres of NaCl will be
required to regenerate a zeolite bed which
has capacity of softening 2500 L of water
of 400 mg CaCO3 equivqlent hardness per
litre. Concentration of NaCl = 50,000 ppm
of CaCO3 equivqlent.
A. 2 L
B. 200 L
C. 20 L
D. 0.2 L
Ans. C
Que.
How many litres of NaCl will be
required to regenerate a zeolite bed which
has capacity of softening 1000 L of water
of 250 mg CaCO3 equivqlent hardness per
litre. Concentration of NaCl = 25,000 ppm
of CaCO3 equivqlent.
A. 0.1 L
B. 1 L
C. 10 L
D. 100 L
Ans. C
Que.
Zeolite softener was completely
exhausted and was regenerated by passing
90 L of NaCl solution containing 585
mg/L NaCl. How many litres of sample
water of hardness 100 ppm can be soften
by this softener ?
A. 400 L
B. 450 L
C. 475 L
D. 540 L
Ans. B
Que.
Zeolite softener was completely
exhausted and was regenerated by passing
60 L of NaCl solution containing 1170
mg/L NaCl. How many litres of sample
water of hardness 200 ppm can be soften
by this softener ?
A. 60 L
B. 66 L
C. 600 L
D. 660 L
Ans. C
Que.
A zeolite bed gets exhausted by
softening 2500 L of water sample and
requires 10 L of 5 % NaCl for
regeneration. Find the hardness of water
sample.
A. 177 ppm
B. 711 ppm
C. 117 ppm
D. 171 ppm
Ans. D
Que.
Which of the following
statement is true for the electrodialysis
process
1) electrodialysis uses semipermeable
membrane to remove contaminants
2) electrodialysis uses an electric current to
remove contaminants
3) in the process cell pair consists of
membranes that will either allow cations or
anions to passs through
4) electrodialysis is bases on reverse
osmosis phenomenon
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1 and4
D. 2 and 3
Ans. D
Que.
If 5 % NaCl solution is used for
regeneration of zeolite.Calculate the
amount of CaCO3 equivalent hardness
which can be removed by 1 litre of NaCl
solution
A. 42.735 mg
B. 42735 mg
C. 4.2735 gm
D. 42735 gm
Ans. B
Que. Electrodialysis is usually applied for
____
A. sea water desalination
B. drinking water production C.
recycling of industrial waste
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que. Reverse osmosis is a process in
which ___
A. contaminants are removed from water
B. water is separated from its
contaminants
C. hardness of water is removed
D. dissolved gases from water is removed
Ans. B
Que. The process used to decrease
concentration of salts in water by applying
direct electric current is ____
A. Ion exchange
B. Reverse osmosis
C. Electrodialysis
D. osmosis
Ans. C
Que. The process of removing salts from
brackish water is ____
A. desalination
B. demineralisaion
C. distillation
D. de-ionisation
Ans. A
Que. Cation exchange resin is denoted as
____
A. R(OH)2
B. RH2
C. ROOH
D. RCOH
Ans. B
Que. Anion exchange resin is denoted as
____
A. R(OH)2
B. RH2
C. ROOH
D. RCOH
Ans. A
Que. External water treatments include
____
A. lime-soda process
B. zeolite process
C. ion exchange process
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que. Preferred pH range for zeolite
treatment is _____
A. 1
B. 4
C. 7
D. 10
Ans. D
Que. Colloidal conditioning can be done
by using _____
A. agar agar
B. tannin
C. lignin
D. all of them
Ans. D
Que. Internal treatment does not include
______
A. phosphate conditioning
B. zeolite conditioning
C. colloidal conditioning
D. carbonate conditioning
Ans. B
Que. Reverse osmosis is used to separate
____
A. Pure water from less pure solution
B. impure water from river water
C. impure water mixed in pure water none
of these
D. A
Ans.
Que. In reverse osmosis, two solutions are
separated by ____
A. sand filter
B. salt bridge
C. semi permeable membrane
D. permeable membrane
Ans. C
Que. Reverse osmosis membranes are
prepared from ____
A. cellulose acetate
B. polyamide
C. polysulphonate
D. all of them
Ans. D
Que. The meaning of Zeolite is--A. Freezing stone
B. Boiling stone
C. Sand stone
D. melting stone
Ans. B
Que. When zeolite is completely converted
into calcium and magnesium zeolite it is--A. exhausted
B. tired
C. expired
D. drained
Ans. A
Que. Brackish water mostly contains
dissolved--A. Ca salts
B. Mg salts
C. NaCl salts
D. Suspended impurities
Ans. C
Que. The process of removing common
salt from water is called---A. desalination
B. demineralization
C. deactivation
D. de-aeration
Ans. A
Que. In electrodialysis concentration of
brine in the central compartment---A. remains constant
B. decreases
C. increases
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que. In electrodialysis concentration of
brine in the two side compartments---A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. none of these
Ans. A
UNIT ID
Que. In the preparation of adipic acid
traditionally _______is useD.
A. Benzene
B. Chlorobenzene
C. Glucose
D. None of these
Ans. A
Que. In the preparation of adipic acid by
using green and clean technology
_______useD.
A. Benzene
B. Chlorobenzene
C. Glucose
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. In urathanes, isocynates and
polycarbonate synthesis traditionally
_______is used
A. Chloride
B. Phosgene
C. H2S
D. CO2
Ans. B
Que. By green chemistry route,
polycarbonates are prepared by using
______.
A. Chloride
B. Phosgene
C. H2S
((D)DPC
Ans. D
Que. Traditional way of synthesizing
indigo dye is with _______as starting
material.
A. Benzene
B. Aniline
C. Chlorobenzene
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. In green chemistry approach, aniline
is replaced by _______in the preparation
of indigo.
A. Chlorobenzene
B. Benzene
C. L-tryptophan
D. Aniline.
Ans. C
Que. The concept of Green Chemistry was
developed by _______.
A. Bragg
B. Paul Anestas
C. Mendeleef
D. Dalton
Ans. B
Que.
Match the following.
1. Green chemistry
P.
Frost
Que. Which of the following is not one of
the principles of green chemistry
A. Prevent waste
B. Use renewable feedstocks
C. Use protecting groups
D. Design reactants and products to resist
degradation
Ans. D
Que. Which of the following is not a goal
of Green Chemistry
A. To achieve better atom economy
B. To develop products which are less
toxic
C. To study mechanism of reactions
D. to improve energy efficiency of
reactions
Ans. C
Que. Green chemistry research is for
A. alternative renewable feed stock
B. alternative conditions of reaction
C. alternative reagents & transformations
D. all of these
Ans. D
2. Atom economy
Komiya Et al.
3. Adipic acid
Paul Anastas
4. Polycarbonate
Trost
A. 1-R ,2-Q , 3-P , 4-S
B. 1-R ,2-S , 3-P , 4-Q
C. 1-P ,2-Q , 3-R , 4-S
D. 1-S ,2-P , 3-R , 4-Q
Ans. B
Q.
R.
S.
Que.
Match the following.
1
Adipic
acid
U. Calcium carbonate
2.
Polycarbonate
V. Cyclohexanol
3.
Indigo
dye
W. Phosgene
4. Standard hard water
X. Chloroacetic acid
A. 1-W ,2-U , 3-V , 4-X
B. 1-V ,2X- , 3W- , 4-U
C. 1-V ,2-W , 3-X , 4-U
D. 1-V ,2-U , 3-W , 4-X
Ans. C
Que.
Que. Benzene as starting material is nor
preferred for production of adipic acid
because it is
A. non renewable
B. Carcinogenic
C. costly
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que. Number of principles proposed by
Paul Anastis in green chemistry concept
are
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
Ans. C
Match the following.
1
D-Glucose
M. Aniline
2.
Tryptophan
N. Phosgene
3.
Diphenyl
Carbonate
O. E-coli
4. Metal Catalyst, high
pressure
P. Benzene
A. 1-N ,2-M , 3-P , 4-O
B. 1-O ,2-M , 3-N , 4-P
C. 1-N ,2-O , 3-M , 4-P
D. 1-P ,2-M , 3-N , 4-O
Ans. D
Que.
Match the following.
1
D-Glucose
M. Aniline
2.
Tryptophan
N. Phosgene
3.
Diphenyl
Carbonate
O. E-coli
4.
Metal Catalyst,
pressure
P. Benzene
A. 1-N ,2-M , 3-P , 4-O
B. 1-O ,2-M , 3-N , 4-P
C. 1-N ,2-O , 3-M , 4-P
D. 1-P ,2-M , 3-N , 4-O
Ans. D
high
Que.
The formula of phosgene is
________.
A. CaCl2
B. COBr2
C. CONH2
D. COCl2
Ans. D
Que.
Which of the following
statement is true for the synthesis of
polycarbonate
1) monomer phosgene is used for synthesis
2) phosgene is not toxic
3) process is relatively less energy
intensive
4) methylene chloride is used as a solvent
A. 1 and 4
B. 3 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3
Ans. A
Que.
Which of the following
statement is true for the synthesis of indigo
dye
1) use of non toxic aniline
2) use of chlorinated hydrocarbons
3) production of very less amount of waste
salts
4) use of toxic aniline
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 2
Ans. C
Que.
Choose the correct statement of
zeolite process
1.equipment used is compact
2. process can be used for highly acidic
and alkaline water sample
3. no impurities are precipitated, so no
sludge formation
4. process can be used for water containing
iron and manganese salts
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Ans. C
Que. The reaction efficiency parameter
which considers the waste produced is ___
A. % conversion
B. environmental load factor
C. % yield
D. all of these
Ans. B
Que. Good atom economy means______
A. lesser problems of waste treatment
B. better quality of product
C. less quantity of reactants
D. process bassed on nonrenewable
resources
Ans. A
Que. The catalyst used to synthesise
adipic acid in green pathway is ____
A. Bacteria
B. E-coli
C. tenericutes
D. actiono bacteria
Ans. B
Que. Safer solvents for green chemistry
are ___A. Regenerative
B. non inflammable
C. non carcinogenic
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que. Green chemistry eliminates waste
____
A. at the end of the process
B. at source
C. somewhere in the middle of the process
D. nothing to do the waster remediation
Ans. B
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que. Ideal synthesis should be ____
A. atom efficient
B. safe one step
C. involving no wasted reagents
D. all the above are correct
Ans. D
Que.
The E-factor in a reaction should
be ____
A. maximum
B. minimum
C. average
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que. Green chemistry is _____
A. Chemistry of green matter in nature
B. details of chemical reaction
C. chemistry for safety and wellbeing of
man kind
D. mechanism and kinetic study of
reaction
Ans. C
Que. Green chemistry provides best
opportunity to carry out work in _____
A. quantitative and qualitative analysis
B. economical and environmentally
beneficial way
C. both a and b
D. none of these
Ans. C
Que. The synthesis of indigo by green
pathway involves ___
A. Enzymatic transformation
B. catalytic transformation
C. cyclic transformation
D. synthetic transformaiton
Ans. A
Que. Which of the following is a green
fuel?
A. Petrol
B. Power alocohol
C. Diesel
D. Biodiesel
Ans. D
Que. The Principle of green chemistry is
______
A. design for energy efficiency
B. new analytical method
C. reducing toxicity of products
Que. Greener pathways _____
A. utilizes non renewable inputs
B. eliminates hazardous by-products
C. utilize more disposal cost
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que. E-factor ignores _____
A. recycle solvents
B. reused catalysts
C. both a and b
D. none of these
Ans. C
Que. Green chemistry is also known as
____
A. Environmental science
B. Ecology science
C. Environmental chemistry
D. none of these
Ans. D
UNIT IIA
Que. Electrolytic cell is capable of
converting ---------------A. Electrical energy into chemical energy
B. Thermal energy into chemical energy
C. Electrical energy into thermal energy
D. Chemical energy into Electrical energy
Ans. A
Que. Galvanic cell is capable of converting
---------------A. Electrical energy into chemical energy
B. Thermal energy into chemical energy
C. Electrical energy into thermal energy
D. Chemical energy into Electrical energy
Ans. D
Que. For spontaneous cell reaction
ΔG0= -nFE0where Δ G0 must be
A. Zero
B. Negative
C. Positive
D. Half
Ans. B
Que. ----------------- is a primary reference
electrode.
A. Calomel electrode
B. Standard Hydrogen electrode
C. Ag-AgCl electrode
D. Glass electrode
Ans. B
A. Anion
B. Cation
C. Electron
D. Nucleus
Ans. B
Que. In glass electrode response is
relatively indifferent to---------------A. Cation
B. Anion
C. H+ ion
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. In glass electrode response is not
dependent upon concentration of -----------A. Cation
B. Anion
C. H+ ion
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. Reference electrode is the electrode
with --------------A. Potential
B. Known and constant EMF
C. Zero current
D. Equal resistance
Ans. B
Que. HgHgCl2 , KCl (saturated)
representation of
A. Calomel electrode
B. Standard Hydrogen electrode
C. Ag-AgCl electrode
D. Glass electrode
Ans. A
Que. Calomel electrode is ---------------A. Primary reference electrode
B. Secondary reference electrode
C. Indicator electrode
D. Standard electrode
Ans. B
Que.
Degree of selectivity and order
of selectivity of ions in ion selective
electrode can be changed with an
appropriate adjustment in ----------------.
A. Internal solution
B. Composition of membrane
C. External solution
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. Glass electrode is ---------------A. Primary reference electrode
B. Secondary reference electrode
C. Indicator electrode
D. Standard electrode
Ans. C
Que. The Glass electrode comprise of the
thin walled bulb of ---------------responsive glass at the bottom.
is
Que. The glass electrode comprise of thin
bulb of ------------------------ glass.
A. Anion responsive
B. High resistivity
C. Cationresponsive
D. High conductivity
Ans. C
Que. The part of glass electrode that
directly participate in the equilibrium is
……………
A. Internal reference electrode
B. The gel layer of the glass
C. External reference electrode
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que.
The potential developed across
the ion selective membrane is related to-------------A. H+ ion concentration of solution only
B. Activities of ion of interest in the
internal gel and sample solution
C. Concentration of ion of interest in
sample solution only
D. H+ ion and ion of interest in sample
solution of only
Ans. B
Que. Ion selective electrode measured ------------A. Activity rather than potential
B. Concentration rather than Activity
C. Potential rather than activity
D. Activity rather than concentration
Ans. D
Que. Cells which produce electricity are
called
A. Galvanic cells
B. Electrochemical cells
C. Electrolytic cells
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Que. Cells which use electric energy are
called
A. Galvanic cells
B. Electrochemical cells
C. Electrolytic cells
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Que. The emf of primary reference
electrode is arbitrarily fixed at
A. One
B. Ten
C. Zero
D. Hundred
Ans. C
Que. In glass electrode, glass membrane
acts as a
A. Membrane filter
B. Adsorbing membrane
C. Ion exchange resin
D. Separating membrane
Ans. C
Que. Potential of ion selective electrode
depends upon -----A. Concentrations of selected ions
B. Type of ions
C. H+ ion concentration
D. Proportion of ionised and non- ionised
species
Ans. A
Que. The measure of tendency of metallic
electrode to lose or gain electrons when it
is in contact with solution of its own salt is
called
A. Electromotive force
B. Electrical conductance
C. Electrode potential
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Que.
In case of calomel electrode,
potential decreases with
A. Increase in concentration of KCl
B. Decrease in concentration of KCl
C. Increase in concentration of Hg Cl2
D. Decrease in concentration of Hg Cl2
Ans. B
Que. Choose the correct option with
respect to reference electrode
A. It has a stable and reproducible
electrode potential
B. Obeys Nernst’s equation
C. It has high electrode potential stability
via a redox system or oxidation-reduction
reactions
D. All of these
Ans. D
Que. Calomel is made by using
A. Hg with mercurous chloride
B. Hg with mercuric chloride
C. Zn with mercurous chloride
D. Ca with mercurous chloride
Ans. A
Que.
Electrolysis involves -------- at
anode and ------------ at cathode
A. Deposition, dissolution
B. Dissolution, oxidation
C. Reduction, oxidation
D. Oxidation, reduction
Ans. D
Que.
Que. Secondary reference electrode is
A. Hydrogen electrode
B. Hydrogen chloride electrode
C. Glass electrode
D. Silver electrode
Ans. C
Que. In glass electrode, the potential
produced across the membrane is used to
measure
A. pH of the solution
B. Pressure of the solution
C. Concentration of the solution
D. Temperature of the solution
Ans. A
Que. Calomel is an example of
A. Primary reference electrode
B. Secondary reference electrode
C. Galvanic electrode
D. None of these
Ans. B
Inert platinum electrode is used
as -------- electrode in the
potentiometric titrations
A. Redox, acid-base
B. Indicator, redox
C. Reference, precipitation
D. Primary, complexometric
Ans. B
Que.
Glass electrode is represented as-------. The main advantage of
glass electrode is--A. Ag, AgCl 1M HCl, portable and
compact
B. Ag, AgCl 0.01M HCl, cheaper than
calomel
C. Ag, AgCl 0.1M HCl, can be used in
presence of oxidizing and
reducing agents
D. Ag, AgCl 0.001M HCl, easily
available
Ans. A
Que.
Que.
Potential of calomel electrode for
1 N KCl at 250C is
A. 0.280 V
B. 0.380 V
C. 0.480 V
D. 0.580 V
Ans. A
Que.
Potential of calomel electrode
for 0.1 N KCl at 250C is
A. 0.3080 V
B. 0.3338 V
C. 0.3480 V
D. 0.3580 V
Ans. B
Which is the characteristics of
cell EMF from the following
properties:
1. It is the maximum voltage the
cell can deliver
2. It is not responsible for the
steady flow of current in the cell
3. It is always less than the
maximum value of voltage
4. It is the potential difference
between the two electrodes when
no current is flowing in the circuit
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 1 and 3
Ans. C
Que.
Match the following terms with
their units
1 Specific
L Mho.cm2.gm
resistance
ol-1
2 Cell
M Mho.cm-1
constant
3 Molar
N Ohm.cm
conductan
ce
4 Specific
O cm-1
conductan
ce
A. 1-N, 2-O, 3-L, 4-M
B. 1-M, 2-O, 3-N, 4-L
C. 1-L, 2-N, 3-M, 4-O
D. 1-O, 2-L, 3-M, 4-N
Ans. A
Que. The equivalent conductance of an
electrolyte solution is equal to the sum of
the conductivities of constituent cation Λ+
and an anion Λ-.This is the statement of --------------A. Lambert’s law
B. Beer’s law
C. Kohlrausch law
D. Beer’s –Lambert’s law
Ans. C
Que. The ratio of specific conductance of
the solution and its measured conductance
is known as -------A. Specific resistance
B. Cell constant
C. Conductance
D. Equivalent conductance
Ans. B
Que. In electrolytic cell electrode at which
oxidation takes place is known as -------------A. Anode
B. Cathode
C. Oxielectrode
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Que. In electrolytic cell electrode at which
reduction takes place is known as -------------A. Anode
B. Cathode
C. Oxielectrode
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. Oxidation is ----------------A. Loss of electron
B. Gain of electron
C. Transfer of electron
D. Excitation of electron
Ans. A
Que. Reduction is ----------------A. Loss of electron
B. Gain of electron
C. Transfer of electron
D. Excitation of electron
Ans. B
Que. The metal with half -cell reactions
which gives negatives E0 value with
respect SHE is ------A. Powerful reducing agent than H2
B. Powerful Oxidising agent than H2
C. Mild reducing agent than H2
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Que. E0 value of Cu which is placed below
H2 in ECS is observed to be-------------A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. Any one of the above
Ans. A
Que. The analytical technique in which
two identical inert electrodes are used
along with electrolyte is -----------.
A. Potentiometry
B. Conductometry
C. pHmetry
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. The traditional instrument used for
measuring electrolytic conductance is -------------A. Potentiometer
B. Conductometer
C. pH meter
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. In voltaic cell the salt bridge-------------A. Is not essential
B. Allows mechanical mixing
C. Allows charge balance
D. Is plugged firmly to avoid mixing of
ion
Ans. C
((Q))_2//Which of the following statement
hold true for an operating galvanic cell-------------A. Δ G> 0 and Ecell< 0
B. Δ G= 0 and Ecell< 0
C. Δ G= 0 and Ecell = 0
D. Δ G< 0 and Ecell> 0
Ans. D
((Q))_2//Which of the following statement
hold true for operating electrolytic cell------------A. Δ G> 0 and Ecell< 0
B. Δ G= 0 and Ecell< 0
C. Δ G= 0 and Ecell = 0
D. Δ G< 0 and Ecell> 0
Ans. B
Que. Cell constant × Observed
conductance =----------------------A. Specific conductance
B. Molar conductance
C. Equivalent conductance
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Que. Unit of Specific conductance is -------------.
A. mhos cm-1
B. S cm-1
C. mhos
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Que. Unit of Molar conductance is -------------.
A. mhos cm-1
B. S cm-1
C. mhos
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Que. Unit of Cell constant is --------------.
A. mhos cm-1
B. S cm-1
C. mhos
D. None of the above
Ans. D
Que. Unit for specific conductance is
A. Ώ
B. mho
C. Ώ cm
D. Ώ-1cm-1
Ans. D
Que. unit for molar conductivity is
A. Ώcm2mol-1
B. Ώ-1cm2mol
C. Ώ-1cm2mol-1
D. Ώ-1cmmol-1
Ans. C
Que. Cell constant of a conductivity cell is
given as
A. Ratio of distance between the
electrodes and cross sectional area of the
electrodes
B. Ratio of specific conductance and
measured conductance
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. A conductivity cell consists of
A. Two parallel electrodes one made of Ag
and the other of Pd
B. Two parallel electrodes one made of Pt
and the other of Pd
C. Two perpendicular electrodes one made
of Pt
D. Two parallel electrodes made of Pt
Ans. D
Que. electrodes in a conductivity cell are
coated with layer of finely divided
platinum black
A. to reduce ionization
B. to reduce depolarization
C. to reduce chromatization
D. to reduce polarization
Ans. D
Que. Distance between electrodes in a
conductivity cell
A. Can be altered according to the reaction
B. Is kept fixed
C. Can be altered as per the requirement
D. Alters as reaction proceeds
Ans. B
Que.
Molar conductance of a solution
is
A. Specific conductance x volume in cc
containing 1 gm mole of electrolyte
B. Specific conductance x volume in cc
containing 1 gm equivalent of electrolyte
C. Molar conductance x volume in cc
containing 1 gm equivalent of electrolyte
D. Equivalent conductance x volume in cc
containing 1 gm equivalent of electrolyte
Ans. A
Que. A pair of electrodes used for
measurement of conductometric titration
are made up of
A. Pt
B. Ag
C. Hg
D. Graphite
Ans. A
Que. The reciprocal of resistance is called---A. Conductance
B. Potential
C. Current
D. Cell constant
Ans. A
Que. The reciprocal of specific resistance
is called----A. Conductance
B. Specific Conductance
C. Molar Conductance
D. Equivalent Conductance
Ans. B
ᴧ
Que. For weak electrolyte gives the value
of---A. Dissociation constant
B. Degree of dissociation
C. Degree of hydrolysis
D. Dissociation of ions
Ans. B
ᴧ0
Que.
Equivalent conductance of a
solution is---A. Specific conductance x volume in cc
containing 1 g mole of electrolyte
B. Specific conductance x volume in cc
containing 1 g equivalent of electrolyte
C. Molar conductance x volume in cc
containing 1 g equivalent of electrolyte
D. Equivalent conductance x volume in cc
containing 1 g equivalent of electrolyte
Ans. B
Que. Conductance of strong acid- strong
base titration increases because of
conductivity ofA. Excess of OH – ions
B. Neutralized H+ions
C. Heavy alkali metal
D. Heavy halide ions
Ans. A
Que.
The conductance remains almost
constant till equivalence point in
conductometric precipitation titration of
AgNO3vsNaCl as ionic conductance of
A. Ionic conductance of Ag + has high
value
B. Ionic conductance of Na + has high
value
C. Ionic conductance of Ag + & Na + has
almost similar value
D. Ionic conductance of Ag +& Na + is
zero
Ans. C
Que. Unit of Equivalent conductance is -------------.
A. mhos cm-1
B. S cm-1
C. mhos
D. None of the above
Ans. D
Que. The conductance of volume of
solution containing one gram equivalent of
electrolyte when distance between two
parallel electrode is 1 cm is called as----------------.
A. Molar conductance
B. Equivalent conductance
C. Specific conductance
D. Molecular conductance
Ans. B
Que. The conductance of a conductor of
one meter in length with uniform cross
sectional area of 1m2 is called as ----------------.
A. Molar conductance
B. Equivalent conductance
C. Specific conductance
D. Molecular conductance
Ans. C
Que. Conductance of solution depends
upon -----------------------.
A. Concentration of solution.
B. Temperature.
C. Mobility of ions
D. All above
Ans. D
Que. Titration curve of conductometric
titration consist of two intersecting lines
the intersection point is known as----------------.
A. Conductivity point
B. End point
C. Break curve point
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. The measurement of conductance is
based on the principle --------------A. Closed end circuit
B. Wheatstone bridge circuit
C. Open end circuit
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. ᴧ0(AB)=ᴧ0(A+)+ᴧ0(B+)is the
mathematical statement for---A. Nernst law
B. Faraday law
C. Kohlrausch law
D. Helmholtz law
Ans. C
Que.
The specific conductance of a
solution falls on dilution because
A. Ions present per cm3 of the solution
become less
B. Electrons present per cm3 of the
solution become less
C. H+ ions present per cm3 of the solution
become less
D. OH- ions present per cm3 of the solution
become less
Ans. A
Que. According to Kolhrausch’s law, “the
equivalent conductance of an electrolyte at
inifinite dilution is equal to---A. Contribution of equivalent conductance
of cations - equivalent conductance of
anions
B. Contribution of equivalent conductance
of cations + equivalent conductance of
anions
C. Contribution of equivalent conductance
of cations x equivalent conductance of
anions
D. Contribution of equivalent conductance
of cations /equivalent conductance of
anions
Ans. B
Que. According to Kohlrausch’s law, ions
of an electrolyte move independently at---A. Any concentration
B. Infinite dilution
C. Infinite concentration
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. In case of weak electrolyte, on
dilution, there is increase in conductance
which is due to-A. Decreased dissociation
B. Moderate dissociation
C. Increased dissociation
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. The conductance of solution
increases with increase in temperature, due
to---A. Increase in the velocity of ions
B. Decrease in the viscosity of the medium
C. Decrease in the interaction between the
ions
D. All of these
Ans. D
Que. In case of strong electrolyte, on
dilution, increase in conductance is due to
A. Increase in the mobility of ions
B. Decrease in the mobility of ions
C. Increased dissociation
D. Decreased dissociation
Ans. A
Que. At infinite dilution ions move
independently in electrolyte according to--A. Ohm’s law
B. Faraday’s law
C. Kohlrausch’s law
D. Nernst law
Ans. C
Que. /Equivalent, molar and specific
conductance----A. Decrease with increase in temperature
B. Increase with increase in temperature
C. Increase with decrease in temperature
D. Remains constant with increase in
temperature
Ans. B
Que. The relationship between equivalent
conductance and specific conductance is
A. ᴧ = k.1000/C
B. k= ᴧ.100/C
C. ᴧ = k.C
D. k= ᴧ/C
Ans. A
Que. According to Kohlrausch’s law, the
equivalent conductance of an electrolyte at
infinite dilution is equal to
A. ᴧ0a. ᴧ0c
B. ᴧ0a+ ᴧ0c
C. ᴧ0c- ᴧ0a
D. ᴧ0a- ᴧ0c
Ans. B
Que. When concentrated solution of an
electrolyte is diluted
A. Its specific conductance increases
B. Its specific conductance decreases
C. Its specific conductance increases and
equivalent conductance decreases
D. Its specific conductance decreases and
equivalent conductance increases
Ans. D
Que.
In conductometric strong acidstrong base titration the conductance of the
solution
A. Decreases upto end point and then
increases
B. Increases upto end point and then
decreases
C. Increases upto end point and then
remains constant
D. Decreases upto end point and then
remains constant
Ans. A
Que. In conductometric strong base-weak
acid titration the conductance of the
solution
A. Decreases upto end point and then
increases
B. Increases very slowly upto end point
and then increases rapidly
C. Increases upto end point and then
decreases
D. remains constant upto end point and
then increases
Ans. B
Que.
In conductometric strong acidweak base titration the conductance of the
solution
A. Increases upto end point and then
decreases
B. Remains constant upto end point and
then decreases
C. Remains constant upto end point and
then increases
D. Decreases upto end point and then
remains constant
Ans. D
Que. Which of the following relation is
true for molar conductivity of a solution?
A. μ =K.1000/V
B. μ = K/V
C. μ =V.1000/K
D. μ =K.V
Ans. D
Que. Which of the following does not
conduct electricity?
A. KCl
B. NaOH
C. CH3COOH
D. Acetone
Ans. D
Que. When a strong acid is titrated against
a strong base, the end point of the titration
is the point of
A. Zero conductance
B. Minimum conductance
C. Maximum conductance
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. Advantage of conductometric
titration is----A. Can be used for colored solution
B. Can be used for weak acid-weak base
titration
C. Can be used for mixture of acids
D. All of these
Ans. D
Que. In conductivity cell a pair of platinum
electrodes are coated with
A. Platinum chloride
B. KCl
C. Silver chloride
D. Platinum black
Ans. D
Que.
Que. Which of the following solution has
highest equivalent conductance?
A. NaCl
B. LiCl
C. HCl
D. KCl
Ans. C
Que. Conductivity of a solution is directly
proportional to
A. Distance between the electrodes
B. Number of ions per cubic centimetre
C. Molecular weight of electrolyte
D. Volume of solution
Ans. B
Conductometric titrations of
mixture of acids versus strong
base is possible only if
A. Dissociation constants of the two acids
are the same
B. Dissociation constants of the two acids
differ by more than 104
C. Dissociation constants of one acid is
zero
D. Dissociation constants of both the acids
is zero
Ans. B
UNIT IIB
((Q))1_1//Buffer solution is one which
resist the change in --------------A. pH
B. volume
C. pressure
D. temperature
Ans. A
Que. Acidic buffer is a mixture of ------------------A. Strong acid and its salt with weak base.
B. Weak acid and its salt with strong base.
C. Strong base and its salt with weak acid.
D. Weak base and its salt with strong acid.
Ans. B
Que. Basic buffer is a mixture of ------------------A. Strong acid and its salt with weak base.
B. Weak acid and its salt with strong base.
C. Strong base and its salt with weak acid.
D. Weak base and its salt with strong acid.
Ans. D
Que. Which of the following mixture will
not form buffer solution.
A. HCl +NH4 OH
B. CH3COOH +CH3COONa
C. NH4 OH +NH4Cl
D. NH3 +NH4 OH
Ans. A
Que. An acidic buffer can be prepared by
mixing--------------A. ammonium acetate in acetic acid
B. ammonium chloride in ammonium
hydroxide
C. sodium acetate in acetic acid
D. sodium chloride in Hydrochloric acid
Ans. C
Que. pH of acidic buffer is related to pKa
as-----------------A. pH= pKa + log ([salt] / [acid])
B. pH= pKa + log ([acid] / [salt])
C. pH= ½ pKa - log ([acid] / [salt])
D. pH= log pKa + log ([acid] / [salt])
Ans. A
Que. pH of basic buffer is related to pKa
as-----------------A. pH= pKb + log ([salt] / [acid])
B. pH= 14-pKb - log ([salt] / [base])
C. pH= ½ pKb - log ([base] / [salt])
D. pH= log pKb + log ([base] / [salt])
Ans. B
Que. Addition of small amount of either
base or acid to a buffer solution causes
only small changes in pH because buffer
solution -----------------A. Doesn’t contain H3O+ or OHB. Contains large amount of both H3O+ or
OHC. Reacts with added acid or base
D. contains strong base and salt of strong
base
Ans. C
Que. In buffer solution prepared by mixing
sodium formate to formic acid pH of the
solution becomes equal to pKa value of
formic acid if-----------------A. [HCOOH< HCOO-]
B. [HCOOH= HCOO-]
C. [HCOOH> HCOO-]
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. Acidic buffer can be obtained by
mixing
A. Weak acid with salt of weak acid and
strong base
B. Strong acid with salt of weak acid and
strong base
C. weak acid with salt of weak acid and
weak base
D. weak base with salt of weak acid and
weak base
Ans. A
Que. Example of acidic buffer is
A. NH4OH + NH4Cl
B. HCl + NaCl
C. CH3COOH + CH3COONa
D. NH4Cl + CH3COOH
Ans. C
Que. Basic buffer can be prepared by
mixing
A. Weak acid with salt of weak acid and
strong base
B. Weak base with salt of weak base and
strong acid
C. Weak acid with salt of weak acid and
weak base
D. Weak base with salt of weak acid and
weak base
Ans. B
Que. Example of basic buffer is
A. NH4OH + NH4Cl
B. NH4OH + CH3COOH
C. CH3COOH + CH3COONa
D. NH4Cl + CH3COOH
Ans. A
Que. In acidic buffer, due to acetate ions
A. ionization of NaCl is inhibited
B. ionization of CH3COOH is suppressed
C. ionization of CH3COOH is accelerated
D. ionization of CH3COONa is accelerated
Ans. B
Que. On addition of small amount of acid
in the solution containing buffer, the pH of
the solution
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains unaltered
D. Attains pH 7
Ans. C
Que. Acid buffer consists of a solution of
A. Weak acid and its salt with strong base
B. Weak acid and its salt with weak base
C. Strong acid and its salt with weak base
D. Strong acid and its salt with strong acid
Ans. A
Que. The solution of pH 7 signifies
A. Pure solution
B. Neutral solution
C. Basic solution
D. Acidic solution
Ans. B
Que. An aqueous solution of pH=1 is
A. Neutral solution
B. Basic solution
C. Acidic solution
D. Amphoteric solution
Ans. C
Que. Which of the following is not a
buffer solution?
A. NH4OH + NH4Cl
B. CH3COO NH4+ H2O
C. CH3COOH + CH3COONa
D. Borax + Boric acid
Ans. B
Que. When a few drops of NaOH are
added to the basic buffer, the OH- ions
combine with
A. Excess NH4+ ions
B. Excess H+ ions
C. Excess K+ ions
D. Excess Na+ ions
Ans. A
Que. When a few drops of acid are added
to the basic buffer, the H+ ions combine
with
A. Cl- ions
B. OH- ions
C. Excess NH4OH
D. Excess CH3COOAns. B
Que. A few drops of HCl added to the
basic buffer leads to the formation of
A. Completely ionized water molecules
B. Nearly unionized NH4OH
C. Completely ionized NH4OH
D. Nearly unionized water molecules
Ans. D
Que. Acidic solution have-------pH
A. Less than 7
B. greater than 7
C. equal to 7
D. equal to 14
Ans. A
Que. Formation of buffer before end point
is observed in which of the following
titration
A. Redox titration
B. strong acid and strong base titration
C. weak acid and strong base titration
D. Precipitation titration
Ans. C
Que. Which of the following solution has
pH=11?
A. 1 x 10-11 M NaOH
B. 1 x 10-3 M HCl
C. 1 x 10-3 M NaOH
D. 1 x 103 M NaOH
Ans. C
Que.
which of the following solution
has the highest pH value?
A. 0.1 N HCl
B. 0.01 N HCl
C. 0.1 N NaOH
D. 0.01 N NaOH
Ans. C
Que. Which of the following solution has
the highest pH value?
A. 0.01 M KCl
B. 0.01 M HCl
C. 0.01 M KCl
D. 0.001 M KCl
Ans. C
Que.
To prepare a buffer solution with
a specific pH equation used is
A. 𝑝𝐻 = 𝑝𝐾𝑎 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔
B. 𝑝𝐻 = 𝑝𝐾𝑎 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔
C. 𝑝𝐻 = 𝑝𝐾𝑎 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔
D. 𝑝𝐻 = 𝑝𝐾𝑏 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔
Ans. C
(𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑗𝑢𝑔𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑)
(𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑)
(𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑗𝑢𝑔𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑏𝑎𝑠𝑒)
(𝑏𝑎𝑠𝑒)
(𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑗𝑢𝑔𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑏𝑎𝑠𝑒)
(𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑)
(𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑗𝑢𝑔𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑏𝑎𝑠𝑒)
(𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑)
Que. Potentiometry is used for
determination of end point in analytical
titration involves measurement of ______
A. current developed
B. EMF
C. Resistance
D. Potential energy of titrant
Ans. B
Que. A plot of measured Ecell as a function
of titrant in Potentiometric redox titration
of 1:1 mole ratio is --------A. S shaped
B. T shaped
C. V shaped
D. L shaped
Ans. A
Que. In differential plot of Potentiometric
titration, following variables are
considered
A. On X-axis Δ V &Y-axis Δ E
B. On X-axis Δ E/ Δ V &Y-axis Δ V
C. On X-axis V& Y-axis Δ E/ Δ V
D. On X-axis V& Y-axis E cell
Ans. C
Que. In mixture of strong acid (HCl) and
weak acid (H3PO4 ) Vs strong base
(NaOH) first neutralization point
corresponds to ------------.
A. Neutralisation of HCl and 1/3
neutralisation of (H3PO4 )
B. Partial neutralization of HCl and NaOH
C. Complete neutralization of HCl and
(H3PO4 )
D. Neutralization of (H3PO4 )
Ans. A
Que. Titration of mixture of acidsvs
strong base is possible only if------------A. Dissociation constants of two acids are
same
B. Dissociation constants of two acids
differ by more than 104
C. Dissociation constant of one acid is zero
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. In potentiometric titration,
concentration ratio changes rapidly
at……………
A. Intermediate state
B. At initial stage
C. At equivalence point
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Que. In potentiometry, calomel electrode
is used as
A. Indicator electrode
B. Primary electrode
C. Related electrode
D. Reference electrode
Ans. D
Que. Silver electrode is used in which type
of potentiometric titration?
A. Redox titration
B. Precipitation titration
C. Complexometric titration
D. Acid-Base titration
Ans. B
Que. In potentiometric titration, end point
from the graph of EMF of cell versus
volume of titrant is determined by
considering
A. The maxima
B. The minima
C. The point of inflection
D. The point of intersection with Y-axis
Ans. C
Que. As H+ ion concentration decreases,
EMF of the cell
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remains zero
D. Remains constant
Ans. B
((Q))_2//Reduction potential of a reducing
agent---- with rise of temperature and ---with increase in concentration of reducing
solution.
A. Increases, increases
B. Decreases, decreases
C. Increases, decreases
D. Decreases, increases
Ans. D
Que. An electrolyte
A. Forms complex ions in solution
B. Gives ions only when electricity is
passed
C. Possess ions even in solid state
D. Gives ions when dissolved in suitable
solvent
Ans. D
Que. An electrolyte is one
A. That conducts electric current
B. That is capable of ionization by passing
electric current
C. That dissociate into ions by dissolving
in a suitable solvent
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. Electrolyte when dissolved in water
dissociate into ions because
A. They are unstable
B. The water dissolves it
C. The force of repulsion increases
D. The force of electrostatic attraction is
broken by water
Ans. D
Que. In an electrochemical cell the flow of
electron is from
A. Cathode to anode in solution
B. Cathode to anode through internal
supply
C. Anode to cathode through external
supply
D. Anode to cathode through internal
supply
Ans. C
Que. In potentiometric redox titration
between Fe2+ and Ce4+, if the ratio
[𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
of
[𝐹𝑒 2+ ]
= 1, then the electrode potential
(Ecell) is equal to
A. E0Fe + 0.0591
B. 0.0591
C. E0Fe
D. E0Fe + E0Ce
Ans. C
Que. In potentiometric redox titration
between Fe2+ and Ce4+, the overall cell
reaction is
A. Fe2+ +Ce4+ Fe3+ +Ce3+
B. Fe3+ +Ce4+ Fe2+ +Ce3+
C. Fe2+ +Ce3+ Fe3+ +Ce4+
D. Fe3+ +Ce3+ Fe2+ +Ce4+
Ans. A
Que. The law of electrolysis was given by
A. Newton
B. Faraday
C. Arrhenius
D. Ostwald
Ans. B
Que. In galvanic cell
A. Electrical energy is converted to
chemical energy
B. Electrical energy is converted to heat
C. Chemical energy is converted to
electrical energy
D. Chemical energy is converted to heat
Ans. C
Que. The calomel electrode is made from
which of the following
A. ZnCl2
B. CuCl2
C. HgCl2
D. Hg2Cl2
Ans. D
Que. Stronger the oxidizing agent
A. Greater is the reduction potential
B. Greater is the oxidation potential
C. Smaller is the reduction potential
D. Smaller is the oxidation potential
Ans. A
Que.
In potentiometric titration, cell is
constructed, in which
A. Reference electrode is always calomel
and platinum is always indicator electrode
B. Reference electrode is always calomel
and glass electrode is always indicator
electrode
C. Reference electrode is always calomel
and indicator electrode is always reversible
with respect to one of the ions involved in
the titration
D. Reference electrode is always calomel
and silver electrode is always indicator
electrode
Ans. C
Que. The first differential derivative plot
of a potentiometric titration gives a sharp
end point from the graph as
A. Point of intersection on Y-axis
B. Minima of the curve
C. Point on inflection
D. Maxima of the curve
Ans. D
Que. which of the following is not a
characteristic of membrane used in ion
selective electrodes
A. it should not get affected by oxidizing
or reducing agents
B. it should not get attacked by organic
solvents
C. it should have high electric resistance
D. it should have sufficient mechanical
strength
Ans. C
Que. In potentiometric redox titration
between Fe2+ and Ce4+, at equivalence
point
A. [Fe3+] and [Fe2+] ions are present
B. [Ce3+] and [Fe3+] ions are present
C. [Ce3+] and [Ce4+] ions are present
D. [Fe3+] and [Ce4+] ions are present
Ans. C
Que.
When a salt bridge is removed
between the two half cells, then
A. voltage suddenly drops to zero due to
loss in connection
B. voltage is unaltered as the concentration
in each half cell is unaltered
C. voltage increases gradually due to rise
in temperature
D. voltage increases due to fall in
temperature
Ans. A
Que.
When mixture of (HCl + H3PO4)
is titrated against NaOH the second
equivalence point indicates neutralization
of
A. [𝐻3 𝑃𝑂4 ]
B. [𝐻𝐶𝑙 + 2/3𝐻3 𝑃𝑂4 ]
C. [𝐻𝐶𝑙 + 1/3 𝐻3 𝑃𝑂4 ]
D. [𝐻𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻3 𝑃𝑂4 ]
Ans. B
D. initially decreases slowly and at
equivalence point, increases sharply
Ans. B
Que.
Select the correct equation used
for calculating cell EMF after equivalence
point when Fe+2 ions are titrated with
standard solution of Ce+4 ions
potentiometrically
Que. In potentiometric titration, potential
of the oxidation-reduction electrode is
given by-A. Hittoff’s equation
B. Ohm’s equation
C. Nernst equation
D. Faraday’s equation
Ans. C
A. 𝐸 = 𝐸 0 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 +
B. 𝐸 = 𝐸 0 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 +
C. 𝐸 = 𝐸 0 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 +
D. 𝐸 = 𝐸 0 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 +
Ans. D
0.0591
𝑛
0.0591
𝑛
0.0591
𝑛
0.0591
𝑛
. log
. log
. log
[𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
[𝐹𝑒 2+ ]
[𝐹𝑒 2+ ]
[𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
[𝐶𝑒 3+ ]
[𝐶𝑒 4+ ]
[𝐶𝑒 4+ ]
. log [𝐶𝑒 3+]
Que.
In potentiometric redox titration
when 100 ml of 0.1 N Fe2+ ions is titrated
with 120 ml of 0.1 N Ce+4 ions, calculate
the cell EMF, if E0cell is 1.45 V
A. 1.1V
B. 1.4V
C. 1.31V
D. 1.43V
Ans. B
Que. In the plot of  E/ V vs V,
steeper portion of the curve joining the
maximum and minimum value of 2E/
V2 indicates-----------A. Incomplete titration
B. completion of the titration reaction
C. pH of titration mixture
D. Zero EMF value
Ans. B
2
2
Que.
In potentiometric acid-base
titrations, EMF of the cell---------A. initially decreases slowly and at
equivalence point, decreases sharply
B. initially increases slowly and at
equivalence point, increases
sharply
C. initially increases slowly and at
equivalence point, decreases
sharply
Que. For oxidation-reduction electrode,
potential is given by----A. 𝐸𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸 0 𝑒𝑙 +
B. 𝐸 0 𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸𝑒𝑙 +
C. 𝐸𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸 0 𝑒𝑙 −
𝑅𝑇
𝐹
𝑅𝑇
D. None of these
Ans. A
𝑙𝑛
𝐹
𝑅𝑇
𝐹
𝑙𝑛
[𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
[𝐹𝑒 2+]
[𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
[𝐹𝑒 2+]
[𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
𝑙𝑛
[𝐹𝑒 2+]
Que. At 25⁰C potential of oxidationreduction electrode is given by---A. 𝐸𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸 0 𝑒𝑙 − 0.0591𝑙𝑜𝑔
B. 𝐸 0 𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸𝑒𝑙 − 0.0591𝑙𝑜𝑔
C. 𝐸 0 𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸𝑒𝑙 + 0.0591𝑙𝑜𝑔
[𝐹𝑒 2+]
[𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
[𝐹𝑒 2+]
[𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
[𝐹𝑒 2+]
[𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
D. 𝐸𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸 0 𝑒𝑙 + 0.0591𝑙𝑜𝑔
Ans. D
[𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
[𝐹𝑒 2+]
Que. In redox titration, if ratio of
[Fe3+]/[Fe2+] is 0.01, the electrode
potential is----A. Eel = E0 -0.0591
B. Eel = E0 -0.1182
C. Eel = E0 -0.01
D. Eel = E0 -0.01182
Ans. B
Que. In redox titration, electrode potential
at equivalence point is given by-----A. 𝐸𝑒𝑞 = (𝐸 01 + 𝐸 0 2 )/2
B. 𝐸𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸 0 1 − 0.0591𝑙𝑜𝑔
C. 𝐸𝑒𝑞 = 2(𝐸 01 + 𝐸 0 2 )
[𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
[𝐹𝑒 2+]
[𝐹𝑒 3+ ]
D. 𝐸𝑒𝑙 = 𝐸 0 1 + 0.0591𝑙𝑜𝑔 [𝐹𝑒 2+]
Ans. A
Que. In potentiometric redox titration
between Fe2+ and Ce4+, at equivalence
point-----A. [Ce3+]=[Fe2+] and [Ce4+]=[Fe3+]
B. [Fe2+] = [Ce4+] and [Fe3+] = [Ce3+]
C. [Fe2+] = [Fe3+] and [Fe3+] = [Ce4+]
D. [Ce3+] = [Ce4+] and [Ce3+] = [Fe3+]
Ans. B
Que. At equivalence point in redox
titration between Fe+2 and Ce+4,----A. [Fe2+] = [Fe3+]
B. [Ce3+] = [Ce4+]
C. [Fe2+] = [Ce4+]
D. [Fe3+] = [Ce4+]
Ans. C
Que. For the reaction Fe3+ (aq) + e-Fe2+
(aq)
A. E0=0.47 V
B. E0=1.61V
C. E0=0.74V
D. E0=0.77V
Ans. D
Que. For the reaction Ce4+ (aq) + e- Ce3+
(aq)
A. E0=6.11 V
B. E0=1.61V
C. E0=0.161V
D. E0=0.77 V
Ans. B
Que. In the Fe/Ce redox titration, at
equivalence point EMF of the cell is
A. E=0.24 + 0.77 + 1.61/2
B. E=(1.61 +0.24)/2 + 0.77
C. E=(0.77 +0.24)/2 + 1.61
0.77+1.61
D. E=
− 0.24
2
Ans. D
Que. In Fe/Ce redox titration, before
equivalence point, one of the half- cell
reactions is
A. Fe3+ + e- Fe2+
B. Ce3+Ce4+ +eC. Fe2+  Fe3+ + eD. none of these
Ans. C
Que. one of the half -cell reactions in the
Fe/Ce titration, before equivalence point
is---A. Fe3+ + e- Fe2+
B. Ce4++e- Ce3+
C. Fe4++ e- Fe3+
D. Ce3+Ce4+ +eAns. B
Que. For the Fe/Ce redox titration, the
overall reaction is------A. Fe2+ +Ce4+ Fe3+ + Ce3+
B. Fe4+ +Ce2+ Fe3+ + Ce3+
C. Fe3+ +Ce3+ Fe2+ + Ce4+
D. all of these
Ans. A
Que. Potentiometric titrations are
preferred over volumetric titrations
because---A. Indicators are not required
B. They can be carried out above 200⁰C
C. They require calomel electrode
D. End point is always pink
Ans. A
Que. Advantages of potentiometric
titration is
A. There are no calculations as
N1V1>N2V2
B. Colored solutions can be titrated
C. Solid mixtures can be titrated
D. Only one indicator is required
Ans. B
Que. End-point of potentiometric titration
is indicated in the plot of E/V vs
volume of titrant-A. By the minima
B. By the point of inflection
C. By the point where color changes to
blue
D. By the maxima
Ans. D
Que.
The nature of graph shown for
the potentiometric titration curve is plot
between
A. EMF of cell and volume of titrant
B. E/V and volume of titrant
C. 2E/V2and volume of titrant
D. E/V2 and volume of titrant
Ans. B
Potentiometric titration curve of the above
type is obtained if graph is plotted
between---A. E/V and volume of titrant
B. 2E/V2 and volume of titrant
C. None of these
D. EMF of cell and volume of titrant
Ans. D
Que. the following curve is obtained in
potentiometric titration, if graph is plotted
between----
A. EMF of cell and volume of titrant
B. E/V and volume of titrant
C. 2E/V2 and volume of titrant
D. pH and conductance
Ans. C
Que. Potentiometric titration curve of the
type shown is obtained if graph is plotted
between
Que.
In potentiometric titration, if
graph is plotted between E/V and
volume of titrant, its nature is
A.
Que. In potentiometric titrations, as pH of
the solution increases , EMF of the cell----A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains zero
D. Remains constant
Ans. A
B.
C.
D.
Ans. A
Que. In potentiometric titrations, more
accurate equivalence point is obtained if
graph is of
A. EMF of cell and volume of titrant
B. E/V and volume of titrant
C. pH and volume of titrant
D. EMF of cell and pH of acid
Ans. B
Que. The advantage of potentiometric
titration is that it can be used for solutions
A. Where precipitation occurs during the
reaction
B. Where gases liberate during the reaction
C. Where heat is liberated during the
reaction
D. None of these
Ans. A
Que. The advantage of potentiometric
titration is that it can be used for
A. Titration of calcium salt solutions
B. Titration of charcoal solutions
C. Titration of colored solutions
D. Titration of calomel solutions
Ans. C
Que.
In potentiometric titration cell is
constructed in which
A. Reference electrode is always calomel
and platinum is always indicator electrode
B. Reference electrode is always calomel
and glass is always indicator
electrode
C. Reference electrode is always calomel
and indicator electrode is always reversible
with respect to one of the ions involved in
the titration
D. Reference electrode is always calomel
and silver is always indicator electrode
Ans. C
Que.
The first differential derivative
plot of a potentiometric titration gives a
sharp end point from the graph as
A. Point of intersection on Y-axis
B. Minima of the curve
C. Point of inflection
D. Maxima of the curve
Ans. D
UNIT IIC
Que. Lambert’s law states that the rate of
decrease in intensity of monochromatic
light passing through transparent medium
with thickness of medium is proportional
to --------------A. Wavelength of incident light.
B. Intensity of incident light.
C. Wavelength of transmitted light.
D. Intensity of visible light
Ans. B
Que. Beer’s law states that the intensity of
monochromatic light passing through
transparent medium decreases as --------------of the absorbing substance increases
arithmetically
A. Volume
B. Concentration
C. Cost
D. Standard oxidation potential
Ans. B
Que. Operating range of uvspectrophotometer is ----------------------.
A. 400nm-800nm
B. 200nm-400nm
C. 200nm-800nm
D. 500nm-1500nm
Ans. B
Que. Operating range of uv- visible
spectrophotometer is ---------------------.
A. 400nm-800nm
B. 200nm-400nm
C. 200nm-800nm
D. 500nm-1500nm
Ans. C
Que. The magnitude of molar absorption
coefficient is dependent on the wavelength
of incident beam of radiation and------------------A. Physical state of absorbing substance
B. Chemical nature of absorbing substance
C. Thermal energy of substance
D. Electrical conductivity of absorbing
substance
Ans. B
Que. If It is intensity of transmitted light I0
is intensity of incident light, K is the
constant for wavelength, l is thickness and
c is concentration It = I0 . e-kl is-------------A. Beer’s law
B. Lambert’s law
C. Kohlrausch’s law
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. Visible spectrophotometer has
operational range………….
A. 400nm-800nm
B. 200nm-400nm
C. 200nm-800nm
D. 500nm-1500nm
Ans. A
Que. The solution of substance that
appears coloured to human eyes absorbs in
the range…………
A. 400nm-800nm
B. 200nm-400nm
C. 200nm-800nm
D. 500nm-1500nm
Ans. A
Que. The solution of substance that
absorbs in UV region appears ………. to
human eyes
A. Coloured
B. Transparent
C. Turbid
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que.
In UV visible spectrophotometer
measurement of absorbs is preferred over
% transmittance because--------A. UV visible spectrophotometer is
equipped to measure absorbance
B. Absorbance is α C while %
transmittance is not
C. % transmittance can’t be measured with
100 % accuracy
D. % transmittance is dependent on the
power of incident radiations
Ans. B
Que. absorption of radiation by a molecule
depends upon
A. The structural features of molecule
B. The environmental features of molecule
C. the physical features of molecule
D. None of these
Ans. A
Que. According to Beer’s Lamberts law
A= εcl
Where ε is
A. Absorbance
B. Molar absorptivity
C. Path length
D. Transmittance
Ans. B
Que. The total energy possessed by the
molecule is
A. E=Eel x Evib x Erot
B. E=Eel / Evib / Erot
C. E=Eel + Evib + Erot
D. E=Eel - Evib - Erot
Ans. C
Que. Spectroscopy deals with the study of
A. interaction of electrical waves with
magnetic waves
((B)interaction of electrical waves with
matter
C. interaction of electromagnetic waves
with matter
D. interaction of magnetic waves with
waves
Ans. C
Que.
Choose the correct relation
between the energy possessed by the
molecule
A. Evibration>Erotational>Eelectronic
B. Erotational>Eelectronic>Evibration
C. Eelectronic>Evibration>Erotational
D. Eelectronic>Erotational>Evibration
Ans. C
Que. In electromagnetic wave, reciprocal
of wavelength is
A. Frequency
B. Velocity
C. Wave number
D. Amplitude
Ans. C
Que. When atoms or molecules are
exposed to radiations they absorb only
those wavelength of radiation that
A. have exactly the energy necessary for
the transition
B. cause temporary or permanent
excitations
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. Rotational energy level transitions
occur
A. In infrared region of electromagnetic
spectrum
B. In microwave region of electromagnetic
spectrum
C. In UV region of electromagnetic
spectrum
D. In visible region of electromagnetic
spectrum
Ans. B
Que. Vibrational energy level transitions
occur
A. In infrared region of electromagnetic
spectrum
B. In microwave region of electromagnetic
spectrum
C. In UV region of electromagnetic
spectrum
D. In visible region of electromagnetic
spectrum
Ans. A
Que. Electronic energy level transitions
occur
A. In infrared region of electromagnetic
spectrum
B. In microwave region of electromagnetic
spectrum
C. In UV-visible region of electromagnetic
spectrum
D. In gamma region of electromagnetic
spectrum
Ans. C
Que. Spectroscopy helps to
A. Determine molecular structure of a
compound
B. Quantitative determination of both
organic and inorganic compounds
C. Qualitative determination of both
organic and inorganic compounds
D. All of these
Ans. D
Que. The most common solvent fo UVvisible spectroscopy is
A. Ethyl alcohol
B. Hexane
C. Water
D. All of these
Ans. D
Que. Cuvette used for sample, in UV
spectroscopy
A. is transparent to UV light
B. do not absorb UV light
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. Cuvette used for sample, in UV
spectroscopy is made up of
A. Glass
B. Quartz
C. Ceramic
D. SS
Ans. B
Que. Absorbance is
A. A=ln(1/T)
B. A=log10(1/T)
C. A=log10(T)
D. A=loge(1/T)
Ans. B
Que. Laws that govern colorimetry are
A. Lambert’s law
B. Beer’s law
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. Any isolated covalently bonded
functional group that shows a
characteristic absorption in uv-visible
region is known as -------------A. Auxochrome
B. Chromophore
C. Phosphoresce
D. Chromatophore
Ans. B
Que. Any group which does not itself act
as a functional group but whose presence
brings about a shift in absorption band
towards longer wavelength is known as ------------------A. Auxochrome
B. Chromophore
C. Phosphoresce
D. Chromatophore
Ans. A
Que. The energy required for the transition
is highest in case of ----------------------transition.
A. π-σ*
B. σ-σ*
C. σ-n
D. n-σ
Ans. B
Que. Substitution of group if shifts
absorption to the longer wavelength the
shift is known as ---A. chromophoric shift
B. bathochromic shift
C. blue shift
D. yellow shift
Ans. B
Que. Absorption shifted to shorter
wavelength due to substitution of group is
known as ---------A. chromophoric shift
B. bathochromic shift
C. blue shift
D. red shift
Ans. C
Que. An effect accompanied by increase in
the intensity of absorption maxima is
known as -----A. Hypsochromic shift
B. Hypochromic shift
C. Hyperchromic shift
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Que. An effect accompanied by decrease
in the intensity of absorption maxima is
known as ----------A. Hypsochromic shift
B. Hypochromic shift
C. Hyperchromic shift
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. An effect due to which absorption
maxima is shifted towards shorter
wavelength known as
A. Hypsochromic shift
B. Hypochromic shift
C. Hyperchromic shift
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Que. Benzene absorbs at 255nm while
aniline absorbs at 280nm because ---------------A. Bezene is auxochrome
B. -NH2 is auxochrome
C. -NH2 is chromophpre
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. ----------------------- is known as
colour enhancing group.
A. Auxochrome
B. Chromophore
C. Chromatophor
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Que. Transition which requires highest
energy in uv-visible spectrophotometer is
---------------- transition.
A. π-σ*
B. σ-σ*
C. σ-n
D. n-σ
Ans. B
Que. Transition which requires lowest
energy in uv-visible spectrophotometer is
---------------- transition.
A. π-σ*
B. σ-σ*
C. σ-n
D. n- π *
Ans. D
Que. Transition which requires radiation
of shortest wavelength in uv-visible
spectrophotometer is ---------------transition.
A. π-σ*
B. σ-σ*
C. σ-n
D. n- π *
Ans. B
Que. Transition which requires radiation
of longest wavelength in uv-visible
spectrophotometer is ---------------transition.
A. π-σ*
B. σ-σ*
C. σ-n
D. n- π *
Ans. D
Que.
The relative energy changes
involved in the transition has order--------------A. n- π * < σ-σ* < π- π *
B. n- π * > σ-σ* > π- π *
C. n- π * < π- π * < σ-σ*
D. n- π * > π- π *> σ-σ*
Ans. C
Que. Transition which requires radiation
of longest wavelength in uv-visible
spectrophotometer is ---------------transition.
A. π-σ*
B. σ-σ*
C. σ-n
D. n- π *
Ans. D
Que. Electron transition is allowed
transition or forbidden depends upon ----------A. The geometry of the molecular orbital
in ground state
B. The geometry of the molecular orbital
in excited state
C. The orientation of the electric dipole of
the incident light responsible for including
the transition
D. On appropriate symmetry relationship
between the above three factors
Ans. D
Que.
Conjugated enone shows UV
visible absorption maxima for π- π * at
245nm if hexane is used as solvent. If
ethanol is used as solvent absorption
maxima of same enone will-------A. Shift to longer wavelength
B. Remain unaffected
C. Disappeared
D. Shift to shorter wavelength
Ans. A
Que. An isolated functional groups capable
of absorbing radiations above 200 nm are
called
A. Chromophore
B. Auxochrome
C. Hypochrome
D. Hypsochrome
Ans. A
Que. If absorption of molecule is shifted
towards longer wavelength due to solvent
effect then it is called -----A. Hypsochromic shift
B. Hypochromic shift
C. Bathochromic shift
D. Hyperchromic shift
Ans. C
Que. Maximum energy is required for
transition of
A. σ-σ*
B. π- π *
C. n- π *
D. n-σ*
Ans. A
Que. Minimum energy is required for
transition of
A. σ-σ*
B. π- π *
C. n- π *
D. n-σ*
Ans. C
Que. In electromagnetic spectrum, the
visible region is----A. 200-400 nm
B. 400-800 nm
C. 800-900 nm
D. 100-200 nm
Ans. B
Que. A group of atoms in a molecule
responsible for absorption of radiation is
called as
A. Chromophore
B. Auxochrome
C. Chromosome
D. Parent molecule
Ans. A
Que. π- π * transitions are associated with
compound containing----A. Alkenes
B. Aromatic compounds
C. Alkynes
D. All of these
Ans. D
D. Any of the above
Ans. D
Que. Which of the following is a
chromophore?
A. C-OH
B. C-Br
C. C=O
D. C-NH2
Ans. C
Que. The parts of spectrophotometer is
used to obtain a light rays with single
wavelength is known as -------------A. Monochromator
B. Source of light
C. Slit
D. Detector
Ans. A
Que. For the study of UV/visible
spectroscopy, spectrophotometers used are
namely---A. Double and triple beam
B. Single and double bond
C. Single and double beam
D. Double and triple bond
Ans. C
Que. Which of the following is not a
chromophore?
A. C=C
B. C=O
C. -N=ND. C-OH
Ans. D
Que. A module which provides a beam of
light of given single wavelength is known
as ---------A. window
B. monochromator
C. selector
D. spectrometer
Ans. B
Que. Detector used in uv- visible
spectrophotometer is ----------------------.
A. Photomultiplier tube
B. Electric buzzer
C. Null point detector
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Que. Source used in uv-visible
spectrophotometer is ---------------.
A. Incandescent lamp
B. Hydrogen lamp
C. Duterium lamp
Que. In Photomultiplier tube sensitivity of
photometric cell-------------A. Is considerably decreased
B. Is kept constant
C. Is considerably increased
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Que. The essential component of
monochromator are entrance exit slit and------------A. Dispersing element like prism
B. Photovoltaic cell
C. Galvanometer
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Que. Cuvettes used in uv-visible
spectrophotometer are made up of --------------.
A. Glass
B. Quartz
C. Metal
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. UV – Visible spectrophotometer has
application in -------------------A. Detection of function group
B. Determination of conjugation
C. Identification of unknown compound
D. All above
Ans. D
Que.
uv spectroscopy helps in the
study of
A. Kinetics of chemical reaction
B. Kinetics of physical reaction
C. Kinetics of stable reaction
D. Kinetics of colored reaction
Ans. A
Que.
wavelen
gth
Match the following
1 Uv
A Wheatston
spectroscopy
2 conductometr
e bridge
B No visual
y
3 pH metry
indicators
C Colored
solutions
4 potentionmetr D Electronic
y
C. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
D. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
Ans. A
Match the following:
1 Bathochromic E
. shift
.
3 Hypsochromi
. cshift
4 Hyperchromi
. c shift
1. Beer’s law
2. Lambert’s
law
3. BeerLambert’s
law
M. A=εl
N. A=εCl
O.
A=εC
A. 1-O, 2-M, 3-N
B. 1-M, 2-O, 3-N
C. 1-N, 2-M, 3-O
D. 1-O, 2-N, 3-M
Ans. A
B. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
2 Hyperchromi
. c shift
Que.
Match the following and choose
the correct option:
transitions
A. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
Que.
A. 1-E, 2-F, 3-H,4-G
B. 1-H,2-E, 3-G, 4-F
C. 1-F, 2-G, 3-H, 4-E
D. 1-G,2-E,3-H, 4-F
Ans. C
Absorpt
ion
intensit
y
decreas
es
F λmax
. shifts to
longer
wavelen
gth
G Absorpt
. ion
intensit
y
increase
s
H λmax
. shifts to
shorter
Que.
Which of the following
molecules has maximum absorption? What
is the reason?
Benzaldehyde, Benzene, Aniline
A. aniline, presence of auxochrome
B. Benzene, presence of auxochrome
C. Benzaldehyde, presence of
chromophore
D. Aniline, presence of chromophore
Ans. A
Que.
Identify the components ‘X’ and
‘Y’ in the following schematic diagram of
single beam spectrophotometer.
A. X: Source, Y:Detector
B. X: Sample cell, Y:amplifier
C. X: Lens, Y:Detector
D. X: Monochromator, Y:amplifier
Ans. A
Que.
Identify the components ‘X’ and
‘Y’ in the following schematic diagram of
double beam spectrophotometer
.
3
.
mic shift
Hypsochro
mic shift
4
.
Hyperchro
mic shift
solvent
G Presence
. of
auxochro
me
H Removal
. of
conjugati
on
A. 1-F, 2-H, 3-E,4-G
B. 1-F, 2-G 3-H,4-E
C. 1-H, 2-G, 3-F,4-E
D. 1-G, 2-E, 3-F,4-H
Ans. B
Que.
Select the correct option showing
relative energies for various electronic
excitations
A. nπ*> ππ*> σ π*> σσ*> nσ*
B. nσ*>nπ*> ππ*> σ π*> σσ*
C. σ π*> ππ*> σσ*> nπ*>nσ*
D. σσ*> σ π*>ππ*> nσ*> nπ*
Ans. B
A. X: Monochromator, Y:Detector
B. X: Sample, Y:Detector
C. X: Reference, Y:Detector
D. X: water, Y:Detector
Ans. C
Que.
Match the following absorption
and intensity shifts with their reason.
1 Bathochrom E Introducti
. ic shift
. on of
group that
distorts
the
geometry
2 Hyperchro
F. Change of
Que.
In case of naphthalene due to
introduction of methyl group---- shift
occurs which is ---shift.
A. Hyperchromic , absorption
B. Bathochromic, absorption
C. Hypsochromic, intensity
D. Hypochromic, intensity
Ans. D
Que.
Aniline in acidic medium shows-- due to----A. Blue shift, loss of conjugation
B. Red shift, loss of conjugation
C. Red shift, presence of conjugation
D. Hyperchromic shift, presence of
conjugation
Ans. A
Que.
Ans. C
Que. Following is the unique property of
polymeric materials.
A. Elasticity
B. Viscoelasticity
C. Plasticity
D. None
Ans. B
The graph which is more convenient to
interpret is ----A. graph (i)
B. graph (ii)
C. Both (i) and (ii)
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que.
Limitation of Beer-Lambert law
is---A. it governs absorption behaviour of
solutions at high temperature
B. it governs absorption behaviour of
solutions at low temperature
C. it governs absorption behaviour of
dilute solutions only
D. it governs absorption behaviour of
concentrated solutions only
Ans. C
UNIT IIIA
Que. The word ‘polymer’ meant for
material made from ……..
A. Single entity
B. Two entities
C. Multiple entities
D. Any entity
Ans. C
Que. Polymers are ……. in nature.
A. Organic
B. Inorganic
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None
Que. Which one of the following is
natural polymer?
A. Polyisoprene
B. Nylon - 6
C. Neoprene
D. SBR
Ans. A
Que. Which of the following is
homopolymer?
A. SBR
B. LDPE
C. Epoxy resin
D. Buna-S
Ans. B
Que. Which type of polymer is Nylon-6?
A. Polyester
B. Polyamide
C. Polyether
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que. Which of the following statements
are correct for Linear polymer?
A. Linear polymers may be condensation
as well as addition polymers
B. Structure is well packed in nature
C. Linear polymers have higher density,
higher m.p. and higher tensile strength.
D. All are correct
Ans. D
Que. Which of the following cannot be
monomer?
A. Propanol
B. Ethylene diamine
C. Adipic acid
D. Ethylene glycol
Ans. A
Que. Which is not true about polymer?
A. Polymers do not carry any charge
B. Polymers have high viscosity
C. Polymers scatter light
D. Polymers have low molecular weight
Ans. D
Que.
Polymer attains….state below
Tg and……state above Tg.
A. Viscoelastic; Glassy
B. Viscofluid; Glassy
C. Glassy; Viscoelastic
D. Semi liquid; Viscofluid
Ans. C
Que. Polymer exists in……..state between
Tg and Tf value.
A. Viscoelastic
B. Viscofluid
C. Glassy
D. Semi liquid
Ans. A
Que. Due to addition of plasticizers, Tg
value of polymer……….
A. increases
B. decreases
C. fluctuates
D. remain unaffected
Ans. B
Que. Polymer attains…….state above Tm
value.
A. Viscoelastic
B. Viscofluid
C. Glassy
D. Semi liquid
Ans. B
Que. Increasing cross linking of polymer
Tg value…...
A. increases
B. decreases
C. fluctuates
D. remain unaffected
Ans. A
Que. Glass transition temperature of
polymer …….with increase in molecular
weight.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. fluctuates
D. remain unaffected
Ans. A
Que. In order to form Polymer, monomers
must be at least……
A. monofunctional
B. bifunctional
C. trifunctional
D. polyfunctional
Ans. B
Que. Polymer crystallinity can be
measured by ……
A. potentiometer
B. CRO
C. X-ray diffraction
D. Electrodialysis
Ans. C
Que. The relation between Tg and Tm for
symmetrical polymers is……
A. Tg = 3/2 Tm
B. Tg = 2/3 Tm
C. Tg = 1/2 Tm
D. Tm= 1/2 Tg
Ans. B
Ans. B
Que. Knowledge of Tg value is important
because….
A. It gives idea about working
temperature range of particular polymer
B. It gives idea of choosing right
temperature for polymer
C. It is a measure of flexibility of polymer
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Que. Polystyrene has more Tg value than
Polyethylene due to
A. presence of double bond
B. absence of functional group
C. presence of bulky side group
D. absence of polarity
Ans. C
Que.
An example of trifunctional
monomer is
A. Styrene
B. Glycerol
C. Ethylene glycol
D. 1, 4-dimethyl Benzene
Ans. B
Que.
An example of tetra functional
monomer is
A. Ethyl benzene
B. Glycerol
C. Urea
D. 1, 4-dimethyl Benzene
Ans. C
Que.
……..is Vinylic monomer and
……..is functional group monomer.
A. Glycol and Ethylene diamine
B. Vinyl chloride and Styrene
C. Propylene and Adipic acid
D. Benzene and Terephthalic acid
Ans. C
Que. A high molecular weight material
that can be easily moulded into desired
shape is..
A. graphite
B. plastic
C. glass
D. metal
Ans. B
Que. Factors affecting crystallinity of a
polymer are……
A. intermolecular forces
B. Bulky side groups
C. Rate of cooling during crystallization
D. All of the above
Ans. D
Que. Degree of polymerization is,
A. Total number of monomer molecules
joined in polymer molecule
B. Minimum number of monomer
molecules joined in polymer molecule
C. Maximum number of monomer
molecules joined in polymer molecule
D. Average number of monomer
molecules joined in polymer molecule
Ans. D
Que. Highly crystalline polymers will have
A. Low density
B. High Tg value
C. Low softening temperature
D. All of the above
Que. As the polymer molecule in a
polymeric chain differs in its length and
sizes, the molecular weight of a polymer is
always…..
A. approximation
B. average
C. sharp value
D. all of these
Ans. B
Que.
…can be measured by
Colligative property and….is by light
scattering method.
̅̅̅̅ ; ̅̅̅̅
A. 𝑀𝑛
𝑀𝑣
̅̅̅̅̅ ; ̅̅̅̅
B. 𝑀𝑤
𝑀𝑛
̅̅̅̅
C. ̅̅̅̅̅
𝑀𝑤 ; 𝑀𝑣
D. ̅̅̅̅
𝑀𝑛 ; ̅̅̅̅̅
𝑀𝑤
Ans. D
Que. The weight average molecular weight
of a polymer is determined by……
A. light scattering
B. ultracentrifugation method
C. both A and B
D. none of these
Ans. C
Que. Identify the correct statement
A. Polymer above Tg is rigid and below
Tg is brittle
B. Polymer above Tg is flexible and
below Tg is brittle
C. Polymer above Tm is rigid and below
Tg is brittle
D. Polymer above Tg is rigid and above
Tm is viscous
Ans. B
Que. General relation of Tg and Tm for
Vinylic polymers is, approximately
A. Tg = 3⁄2 Tm
B. Tg = 2⁄3 Tm
C. Tg = 1⁄2 Tm
D. Tm = 1⁄2 Tg
Ans. B
Que. The denser packing of polymer
chains is observed when the polymer is….
A. Partially crystalline
B. Amorphous
C. Highly crystalline
D. Independent of its crystallinity
Ans. C
Que. The extent to which polymer
molecules are arranged in an ordered
fashion is called..
A. Functionality
B. Crystallinity
C. Polymerizability
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. Branched polymers are…..
A. amorphous in nature
B. having regular arrangement of polymer
molecules
C. crystalline in nature
D. mechanically strong
Ans. A
UNIT IIIB
Que. In propagation step the reaction
intermediate of radical polymerization is
A. Carbanion
B. Carbocation
C. Carbene
D. free radical
Ans. D
Que. Which monomer will undergo
radical polymerization most readily?
A. Ethylene
B. Styrene
C. Propene
D. 2-methyl 1-propene
Ans. B
Que. Which of the following monomers
can undergo radical, cationic as well as
anionic
polymerization with equal ease?
A. Acrylonitrile
B. iso-butylene
C. Styrene
D. Ethylne
Ans. C
Que. In which technique, monomer is
uniformly dispersed in aqueous phase but
not in the form of discrete droplets?
A. Solution
B. Emulsion
C. Suspension
D. Bulk
Ans. B
Que. Free radical polymerization can be
initiated by
A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Benzoyl peroxide
C. Azo bis-isobutyronitrile
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que.
Micelles of surfactants shows
….nature to inner side and ……..end
remain outward.
A. non polar - polar
B. polar - non polar
C. non polar - non polar
D. polar - polar
Ans. A
Que. Out of following polymers which
one is addition copolymer?
A. Neoprene
B. Buna-S
C. Nylon 6,6
D. PVC
Ans. B
Que. Micelles are related to which
technique of polymerizations?
A. Solution
B. Emulsion
C. Suspension
D. Bulk
Ans. B
Que. By which polymerization technique
almost 100% pure polymer is obtained?
A. Solution
B. Emulsion
C. Suspension
D. Bulk
Ans. D
Que. Styrene divinyl benzene copolymer
resin is prepared by ……..technique of
polymerization.
A. Solution
B. Emulsion
C. Suspension
D. Bulk
Ans. A
Que. Which polymerization technique is
used exclusively for preparation of block
copolymers?
A. Solution
B. Emulsion
C. Suspension
D. Bulk
Ans. A
Que. Which polymerization technique is
also known as bead or pearl
polymerization technique?
A. Solution
B. Emulsion
C. Suspension
D. Bulk
Ans. C
Que. Expandable polystyrene beads are
polymerized by which polymerization
technique?
A. Solution
B. Emulsion
C. Suspension
D. Bulk
Ans. C
Que. Bis-Phenol A and Epichlorohydrin
are the monomers of ……..
A. PF resin
B. Epoxy resin
C. Melamine formaldehyde resin
D. Buna -S
Ans. B
Que. Which of the following polymers are
condensation polymers?
A. Bakelite
B. Teflon
C. ABS
D. PS
Ans. A
Que.
Choose the reaction that occurs
as addition copolymerization.
A. n (Vinyl chloride) PVC
B. n (HMDA) + n (Adipic acid) Nylon
C. n (Butadiene) + n (Styrene)  SBR
D. n (3-hydroxy butyric acid) + n (3hydroxy valeric acid)  HBHV
Ans. C
Que.
Choose the reaction that occurs
as condensation polymerization.
A. n (Vinyl chloride) PVC
B. n (HMDA) + n (Adipic acid) Nylon
C. n (Butadiene) + n (Styrene)  SBR
D. n (Propylene)  Polypropylene
Ans. B
Que. Match the following:
1. Bulk polymerization
P. Tiny bulk reactor
2. Solution polymerization
Q. Surfactant
3. Emulsion polymerization
4. Suspension polymerization
S. Pure polymer
A. 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
B. 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P
C. 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
D. 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R
Ans. B
Que.
Match the following:
1. Functionality of monomer
P. Step growth polymerization
2. Condensation polymerization
Q. One saturated and other unsaturated
polymer
3. Coupling
R. Number of reactive sites in the
monomer
4. Disproportination
S. Two growing polymers form a
macromolecule
A. 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
B. 1-S, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-R
C. 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
D. 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
Ans. A
Que. Which of the following is not a freeradical catalyst?
A. Diazobenzene
B. H2O2
C. Benzene
D. Benzoyl peroxide
Ans. C
Que. The free radical initiator for a chain
reaction is formed by…..
A. Homolytic fission
B. Chain transfer
C. Disproportion
R. Ta
D. Termination
Ans. A
Que. ………is a catalyst for free radical
polymerization mechanism.
A. HCl
B. H2O2
C. BF3
D. Zeigler-Natta
Ans. B
Que. Addition reaction of polymerization
is…….
A. Exothermic
B. Slow
C. Endothermic
D. Noncatalytic
Ans. A
Que. Initiator used in addition
polymerization is…..
A. Benzoyl peroxide
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Acetyl peroxide
D. All of these
Ans. D
Que. Free radical addition polymerization
is terminated by
A. coupling
B. disproportionation
C. chain transfer
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que. Feature of addition polymerization is
A. monomer contains single bond
B. initiator is required to start
polymerization reaction
C. reactions is endothermic
D. by products are formed
Ans. B
Que. A polymer with “Live” ends on both
side is,
A. Polypropylene
B. Polystyrene
C. PVC
D. Polycarbonate
Ans. D
Que.
Which of the following is not
true for chain growth polymerization….
A. Molecular weight of polymer is
integral multiple of monomer
B. Polymer chains are not active after
termination
C. Average molecular weight increases
with reaction time
D. It is endothermic reaction
Ans. D
Que.
Order of ease of heat and mass
transfer for technique of polymerization
with the progress is,
A. Bulk > Suspension > Solution
B. Suspension > Bulk > Solution
C. Solution > Bulk > Suspension
D. Solution > Suspension > Bulk
Ans. D
Que. For suspension polymerization
initiator should be
A. Water soluble
B. Monomer soluble
C. Soluble in both water and monomer
D. Insoluble in water and monomer
Ans. B
Que. Initiator used in emulsion
polymerization should be….
A. Soluble in monomer
B. Soluble in water
C. Soluble in monomer-solvent mixture
D. None of these
Ans. A
Que. By solution polymerization
technique the polymer obtained is in the
form of..
A. Beads
B. Latex
C. Adhesive
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. The technique of polymerization that
uses surfactants to its critical concentration
is……
A. Bulk
B. Solution
C. Suspension
D. Emulsion
Ans. D
UNIT IIIC
Que. These polymers cannot be recycled
A. Thermoplasts
B. Thermosets
C. Elastomers
D. All polymers
Ans. B
Que. In general, strongest polymer group
is _______
A. Thermoplasts
B. Thermosets
C. Elastomers
D. All polymers
Ans. B
Que. Strong covalent bonds exists
between polymer chains in ______
A. Thermoplasts
B. Thermosets
C. Elastomers
D. All polymers
Ans. B
Que. Which type of polymer the
Melamine Formaldehyde is?
A. Thermoplastic
B. Thermosetting
C. both a and b
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que. Monomers of PF resin are
A. Phenol and methanol
B. Phenol and Methanal
C. Phenol and Ethylene glycol
D. Both b and c
Ans. B
Que. In which polymer strength of
intermolecular forces is highest?
A. Elastomer
B. Thermoplastic
C. Fibre
D. Cross-linked polymer
Ans. D
Que. Out of following polymers, which is
not Thermosoftening polymer?
A. PE
B. PVC
C. Nylon
D. Urea formaldehyde resin
Ans. D
Que. Out of following polymers, which is
thermosetting polymer?
A. PE
B. PVC
C. Nylon
D. PF resin
Ans. D
Que. Which polymer can be recycled?
A. Thermosetting
B. Thermo softening
C. Cross linked
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que.
Bakelite is a product of reaction
between…… and …….
A. Phenol; Formaldehyde
B. Formaldehyde; NaOH
C. Aniline; Formaldehyde
D. Urea ; Formaldehyde
Ans. A
Que. Which is an example of
thermosetting polymer?
A. Polyethylene
B. Neoprene
C. Bakelite
D. Isoprene
Ans. C
Que.
Which of the following are
characteristics of thermosetting polymers?
i. Heavily branched cross linked polymers
ii. Linear slightly branched long chain
molecules
iii. Become infusible on moulding so
cannot be reused iv. Soften on heating
and harden on cooling, can be reused.
A. i and iii
B. ii and iv
C. only i
D. i, ii and iii
Ans. A
Que.
Match the following:
1. Thermoplastic polymer
P. Barium Sulphate
2. Cross-linked polymers
Q. Polystyrene
3. Fillers
R. Urea formaldehyde
4. Thermosetting polymer
S. Increased Tg
A. 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
B. 1-S, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-R
C. 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
D. 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R
Ans. D
Que. Which of the following is linear
polymer?
A. LDPE
B. HDPE
C. PF resin
D. none
Ans. B
Que. Zeigler-Natta Catalyst is
A. triethyl aluminium
B. titanium tetrachloride
C. triethyl aluminium & titanium
tetrachloride
D. triethyl borane and titanium dichloride
Ans. C
Que. HDPE has which type of structure?
A. Linear
B. Highly Branch-chain
C. Cross-linked
D. Any one of these
Ans. A
Que. Which of the following is strong
adhesive?
A. Epoxy resin
B. Melamine formaldehyde resin
C. Bakelite
D. PVC
Ans. A
Que. Bis-Phenol A and Epichlorohydrin
are the monomers of ……..
A. PF resin
B. Epoxy resin
C. Melamine formaldehyde resin
D. Buna -S
Ans. B
Que. The structural formula of HDPE is
A. - (CH=CH)nB. - (CH2 =CH2)n
C. - (CH-CHCl)nD. - (CH2-CH2)nAns. D
C. nCH 2 = CH2 -- -----Zeigler -Natta / 4.5
X 103 Pa, 50-700C-------> -(CH2-CH2)nD. nCH 2 = CH2 -- -----Zeigler -Natta / 4.5
X 102 Pa, 50-4000C-------> -(CH2-CH2)nAns. B
Que. Zeigler-Natta catalyst required for
preparation of …….
A. LDPE
B. HDPE
C. PVC
D. Epoxy resin
Ans. B
Que.
The High density polyethylene
synthesis reaction can be given as:
A. nCH 2 = CH2 --------H2O2 / 4.5 X 105
Pa, 50-700C-------> -(CH2-CH2)nB. nCH 2 = CH2 -------H2O2 / 1.5 X 108
Pa, 180-2500C-----> -(CH2-CH2)nC. nCH 2 = CH2 -- -----Zeigler -Natta / 4.5
X 105 Pa, 50-700C-------> -(CH2-CH2)nD. nCH 2 = CH2 -- -----Zeigler -Natta /
180-2500C-------> -(CH2-CH2)nAns. C
Que. For paper coating……….is used.
A. LDPE
B. HDPE
C. SBR
D. All of these
Ans. A
Que. Araldite is composed of …polymer.
A. PS
B. PPF
C. Epoxy Resin
D. Buna –S
Ans. C
Que. Out of following, which one used as
curing agent for Epoxy resin?
A. Diols
B. Diacids
C. Diamines
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que.
The Low density polyethylene
synthesis reaction can be given as:
A. nCH 2 = CH2 --------H2O2 / 4.5 X 105
Pa, 50-700C-------> -(CH2-CH2)nB. nCH 2 = CH2 -------H2O2 / 1.5 X 108
Pa, 180-2500C-----> -(CH2-CH2)n-
Que. An epoxy resin is…...
A. Polyester
B. Polyamide
C. Polyether
D. Polycarbonate
Ans. C
Que. In the synthesis of epoxy resin, the
catalyst used is……..
A. AlCl3
B. NaOH
C. HCl
D. H2O2
Ans. B
Que. A thermoplastic is formed generally
by,
A. condensation polymerization
B. Nitration
C. Addition polymerization
D. Cross linking of chains of polymers
Ans. C
Que. A plastic which softens on heating
and hardens on cooling reversibly is
known as
A. Thermo elastic
B. Thermoplastic
C. Thermosetting
D. Thermo stable
Ans. B
Que. Ethylene polymerization using free
radical catalyst results in
A. LDPE
B. HDPE
C. Epoxy Resin
D. All of these
Ans. A
Que.
Crystallinity of LDPE and HDPE
are …..& …… respectively.
A. 40%; 50%
B. 40%: 90%
C. 90%; 40%
D. 50%; 40%
Ans. B
Que. Epoxy resin is an example of…
A. Thermosoftening resin
B. Thermosetting resin
C. Elastomer
D. Fibre
Ans. B
Que.
The density and crystallinity of
LDPE is…. gm/cm3 and……
%respectively
A. 0.94; 40
B. 0.91; 90
C. 0.95; 70
D. 0.91; 40
Ans. D
UNIT IIID
Que. Which one of the following is
natural polymer?
A. Polyisoprene
B. Nylon - 6
C. Neoprene
D. SBR
Ans. A
Que. Which type of polymer the
Vulcanized rubber is?
A. Linear
B. Cross-linked
C. Branch-chain
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que. Which one of the following
compound is monomer of Natural rubber?
A. 1, 3 - Butadiene
B. 2- methyl 1-Butene
C. 2-methyl 1,3-butadiene
D. 2-Chloro 1, 3-butadiene
Ans. C
Que. Which one of the following contains
Isoprene units?
A. Natural rubber
B. Nylon - 6,6
C. PE
D. Neoprene rubber
Ans. A
Que. Who has discovered Vulcanization
process of rubber?
A. Christopher Columbus
B. Du Pond
C. Pristley
D. Thomas Hancock and Charles
Goodyear
Ans. D
Que. Natural Rubber is ……..type of
polymer.
A. polyamide
B. polyester
C. polyether
D. polyene
Ans. D
B. isoprene and butadiene
C. vinyl chloride and sulphur
D. butadiene and ethylene
Ans. A
Que. Out of following which can be used
as vulcanizing agent?
A. Zeigler- Natta catalyst
B. Sulphuryl chloride
C. Sulphur
D. Both b and c
Ans. D
Que. GR-S is a common name of which
polymer?
A. Neoprene rubber
B. Silicone rubber
C. Natural rubber
D. SBR
Ans. D
Que. In vulcanization of rubber……
A. sulphur reacts to form new compound
B. sulphur crosslinks are introduced
C. sulphur forms very thin protective layer
on rubber
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. Natural rubber is a polymer of…..
A. Trans- isoprene
B. Cis- isoprene
C. Cis-trans isoprene
D. Cis-chloroprene
Ans. B
Que. Which one of the following
statements is not true?
A. Natural rubber has the Trans
configuration at every double bond
B. Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene
and styrene
C. Natural rubber is a 1, 4-polymer of
isoprene
D. In vulcanization, the sulphur crosslinks
makes rubber harder and stronger.
Ans. A
Que. The monomers of Buna-S rubber
are….
A. styrene and butadiene
Que. Which of the following are examples
of synthetic rubber?
A. Polychloroprene
B. Polyisoprene
C. SBR
D. both a and c
Ans. D
Que. Which of the following polymer is
not elastomer?
A. Buna-S
B. Neoprene
C. LDPE
D. Polyisoprene
Ans. C
Que. Vulcanization makes rubber ……..
A. more elastic
B. soluble in inorganic solvent
C. with more tackiness
D. more stiff and hard
Ans. D
Que.
Match the following:
1. Neoprene rubber
P. Swells in organic solvent
2. Raw rubber
Q. Buna -S
3. Synthetic rubber
R. Vulcanizing agent
4. Sulphuryl chloride
S. Oil action resistant rubber
A. 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
B. 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R
C. 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
D. 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R
Ans. B
Que.
Choose the correct option giving
the properties of SBR
1. Readily oxidized by oxygen in
atmosphere
2. High resilience, resistance to
heat
3. High abrasion resistance
4. Swells in water and polar
solvents
5. High load bearing capacity
6. Cannot be vulcanized
A. 1,2,4
B. 2,3,5
C. 3,4,6
D. 1,4,5
Ans. B
Que.
Choose the correct option giving
the applications of SBR
1. Manufacture of vehicle tyres
2. Used in making of floor tiles,
shoe soles, gaskets, tank linings
3. Impregnated on fabric for crease
resistant and shrinkage control
4. Used in making conveyor belts
5. Used to manufacture panels and
wings for fighter jets
6. Used as an adhesive
A. 1,2,4
B. 2,3,5
C. 3,4,6
D. 1,4,5
Ans. A
Que.
Choose the correct option giving
the drawbacks of raw rubber
1. Low plasticity
2. Tensile strength is only 20
2
Kg/cm
3. Large water absorption capacity
4. Soluble in non-polar solvents
like oils, benzene, CCl4
5. Attacked by reducing agents like
chromic acid, sodium hypochlorite
6. High tackiness
A. 2,3,4
B. 1,3,4
C. 3,5,6
D. 3,4,6
Ans. D
Que. Mastication of natural rubber
involves .
A. Cross linking of chains
B. Coiling of chains
C. Reducing the molecular weights of
chains
D. Raising of molecular weights of chains
Ans. C
Que. Natural rubber is obtained from the
tree named .
A. Hevea brazilensis
B. Mangifera Indica
C. Hevea crailensis
D. None of these
Ans. A
Que. During vulcanization of rubber the
cross links introduced are
A. –S-SB. –C-CC. –C-OD. -O-OAns. A
Que. The weight percentage of styrene in
SBR is .
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. None of these
Ans. A
Que. The weight percentage of Butadiene
in SBR is .
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. Tackiness of rubber is .
A. Its ability to absorb water
B. Its ability to stick together
C. Its ability to stretch
D. Its ability to undergo slippage
Ans. B
Que. Tensile strength of vulcanized rubber
is about
A. 2000 Kg/cm2
B. 200 Kg/cm2
C. 20 Kg/cm2
D. 2 Kg/cm2
Ans. A
Que.
The two C=C bond in cisisoprene at 1,2 and 3,4 positions undergo
change after polymerization into natural
rubber, can be expressed as
A. both double bonds used for
polymerization
B. Double bond at 1,2 position used and
other double bond remains unchanged
C. Double bond at 3,4 position used and
other double bond remains unchanged
D. Due to delocalization of π electrons
new double bond created at 2,3 position.
Ans. D
Que.
Rubber is kept in smokehouse
for 3 days at 500C to….
A. increase tensile strength
B. increase impact resistance
C. increase resilience
D. increase resistance to attack by
microorganisms.
Ans. D
Que.
Select the property of natural
rubber from the following :
A. Working temperature range is 10-600C
B. High water absorption capacity
C. Low chemical resistance
D. All of these
Ans. D
Que.
Select the property of vulcanized
rubber from the following:
A. Working temperature range is -40 to
1000C
B. Low water absorption capacity
C. High chemical resistance
D. All of these
Ans. D
Que. Vulcanization of natural rubber is
carried out with Sulphur at temperature
range of
A. 50 to 700C
B. 70 to 1000C
C. 110 to 1300C
D. 150 to 1700C
Ans. C
Que. Process of vulcanization of natural
rubber makes it,
A. more tacky
B. softer
C. stronger
D. more elastic
Ans. C
C.
Que. The fact that vulcanized natural
rubber has better ageing resistance; is due
to,
A. Number of C=C increases on
vulcanization
B. Presence of S atoms in vulcanized
rubber
C. Number of C=C decreases on
vulcanization
D. Vulcanization is a physical process
Ans. C
Que. Styrene is copolymerized with
butadiene to form
A. SBR
B. Butyl rubber
C. Neoprene rubber
D. Vulcanized rubber
Ans. A
Que. SBR used for…
A. making of crates, tubes, troughs, water
tanks, pipes, drums, etc
B. packaging, laminations, flexible pipes,
insulation of wires
C. making adhesive like araldite
D. making of vehicle tyres, floor tiles,
shoe soles
Ans. D
Que.
Choose the correct reaction
showing polymerization of isoprene:
A.
B.
D.
Ans. D
Que.
Structure of Polyisoprene
polymer can be written as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans. D
UNIT IIIE
Que. Kevlar is commercial name for
_______.
A. Glass fibers
B. Carbon fibers
C. Aramid fibers
D. Cermets
Ans. C
Que. Which of the following is not
biodegradable?
A. Protein
B. Nucleic acid
C. PVC
D. Cellulose
Ans. C
Que. Which polymer is also known as
'Synthetic Metals'.
A. Kevlar
B. PE
C. Polycarbonate
D. Polyacetylene
Ans. D
Que. Polyacetylene is used in …..
A. insulating material
B. biodegradable articles
C. printed circuit boards
D. all of these
Ans. C
Que. Out of following polymers which
one is used as electroluminescent
polymer?
A. Polystyrene
B. Polyacetylene
C. SBR
D. Polyphenylene vinylene
Ans. D
Que. Out of following which one acts as
LCP?
A. Polyacetylene
B. Polyphenylene vinylene
C. Kevlar
D. Polycarbonate
Ans. C
Que.
Monomers……..and…….. form
biodegradable polymer-HBHV.
A. 3-hydroxybutanoic acid ; 3hydroxypentanoic acid
B. Ethylene glycol ; HMDA
C. Ethylene glycol ; Phthaleic acid
D. Caprolactum; Ethylene glycol
Ans. A
Que. Polycarbonates are……
A. Polyamides
B. Polyethers
C. Polyenes
D. Polyesters
Ans. D
Que. BIOPOL is common name of
………polymer.
A. PPF
B. PHBV
C. PPV
D. Both of A & B
Ans. B
Que.
n- doping and p-doping of
conducting polymer is done by……
&……respectively.
A. I2 & FeCl3
B. I2 & Li
C. FeCl3 & I2
D. Na & I2
Ans. D
Que. Polyacetylene in undoped state acts
as…….
A. good conducting polymer
B. insulator
C. semiconductor
D. none of these
Ans. C
Que. Out of following which one acts as
plasticizer?
A. Phenol
B. Tricresyl phosphate
C. Phthalate esters
D. Both b and c
Ans. C
Que.
In OLED of polyphenylene
vinylene ……acts as anode and ……acts
as cathode.
A. Calcium; Indium tin oxide
B. Magnesium; Indium tin oxide
C. Aluminium; Calcium
D. Indium tin oxide; Calcium
Ans. D
Que. Trans-polyacetylene has
……conductivity than its cis isomer.
A. higher
B. less
C. equal
D. very less
Ans. A
Que. Lexan is nothing but…….
A. PPV
B. Polyisoprene
C. Kevlar
D. Polycarbonate
Ans. D
Que. CDs and DVDs can be made by
using……
A. Polycarbonate
B. PPV
C. PHBV
D. Kevlar
Ans. A
Que. Kevlar is……type of liquid crystal.
A. Smectic
B. Cholesteric
C. Thermotropic
D. Lyotropic
Ans. D
Que. Which of the following is not true
for PPV?
A. It is diamagnetic material
B. It shows yellow-green fluorescence
C. Its conductivity increases on doping
D. It is water soluble
Ans. D
Que. Electroluminescence of PPV is due
to……..
A. Conjugated pi bond system
B. Doping
C. Combination of holes and electrons
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. Which of the following application
does not belong to PHBV (HB-HVCopolymer)?
A. Structural material
B. Drug delivery
C. Internal suture
D. Packing
Ans. A
Que.
Match the following:
1. Functionality of monomer
P. Ordinary arithmetic mean
2. Number average MW
Q. Kevlar
3. Conducting polymer
4. Lyotropic LCP
S. Polyacetylene
A. 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
B. 1-S, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-R
C. 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
D. 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
Ans. A
Que.
Match the following:
R. Number o
1. Carborandum
P. Heat stabilizer
2. Sodium stearate
Q. Soaps
3. Camphor
R. Plasticizer
4. Vinylidene chloride
S. Extra hardness
A. 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
B. 1-S, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-P
C. 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
D. 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R
Ans. B
A. Vegetable oils
B. Saw dust
C. Zinc oxide
D. All of these
Ans. B
Que.
Structure of PHBV is:
A. –[O-CH(CH3)-CH2-CO]x-[OCH(C2H5)-CH2-COO]yB. –[O-CH(C2H5)-CH2-CO]x-[OCH(C2H5)-CH2-COO]yC. –[O-CH(CH3)-CH2-COO]x-[OCH(C2H5)-CH2-COO]yD. –[O-CH(CH3)-CH2-CO]x-[OCH(C2H5)-CH2-CO]yAns. D
Que. The lubricant added during
compounding of plastics can be.
A. Vegetable oils
B. Saw dust
C. Zinc oxide
D. All of these
Ans. A
Que. The plasticizers added during
compounding of plastics can be
A. Vegetable oils
B. Phthalate form of esters
C. Tricresyl phosphate
D. All of these
Ans. D
Que. The plasticizers added during
compounding of plastics can be .
A. Vegetable oils
B. Saw dust
C. Zinc oxide
D. All of these
Ans. A
Que. The Fillers added during
compounding of plastics can be .
Que. The accelerator added during
compounding of plastics can be.
A. Vegetable oils
B. Saw dust
C. Zinc oxide
D. All of these
Ans. C
Que. The mica added as a filler during
compounding of plastics also imparts .
A. Extra hardness to the plastic
B. Heat, flame resistance to the plastic
C. Heat, flame and corrosion resistance to
the plastic
D. All of these
Ans. A
Que. Synthetic polymer can be
biodegraded by blending with polymer like
.
A. Starch
B. Polycarbonate
C. Polyethylene
D. Adipic acid
Ans. A
Que. Biopol is the commercial name of .
A. Polyhydroxybutyrate
B. Polyhydroxyvalarate
C. Polyhydroxybutyrate-hydroxyvalarate
D. Hydroxybutyrate-hydroxyvalarate
Ans. C
Que. Electroluminescent polymers .
A. Emit light in response to the passage of
an electric current
B. Emit light in response to the passage of
an magnetic field
C. Absorb light in response to the passage
of an electric current
D. Emit light in response to the passage of
an heat
Ans. A
Que. First reported electroluminescent
polymer is
A. Polyamide
B. Poly-phenylene-vinylene polymer
C. Polyacetylene
D. Poly vinyl chloride
Ans. B
Que. In a polymer light emitting diode, for
generation of light .
A. Thin HBHV film is sandwiched
between two electrodes
B. Thin PPV film is placed in liquid
C. Thin PPV film is sandwiched between
two electrodes
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. Composite materials are made up of
two phases namely .
A. Matrix and suspended phase
B. Matrix and dispersed phase
C. Matter and dispersed phase
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. Materials that are used for
reinforcement can be in the form of
A. Fibres
B. Powders
C. Sheets
D. All of these
Ans. D
Que. In a polymer composite the resin and
the reinforcing material are held together
by
A. Strong bonding at the interface
B. Strong bonding at the surface
C. strong bonding at the interior of a face
D. None of these
Ans. A
Que. It is desirable that biodegradable
polymer should be………
A. Conducting
B. Hydrophilic
C. Epoxy resin
D. Heterotrophic
Ans. B
Que. Clay and BaSO4 can be used in
compounding of plastic as……
A. accelerators
B. stabilizers
C. lubricants
D. fillers
Ans. D
Que. CDs, and DVDs can be made
from…..
A. Polycarbonates
B. Polypropylene
C. PHBV
D. Kevlar
Ans. A
Que. Polycarbonate is not used for….
A. Ultra light sunglasses
B. Substitute for window glasses
C. Camera/ binocular bodies
D. Surgical implants and sutures
Ans. D
Que.
Which of the following are
correct applications for PHBV
1. High strength fibres 2. Antistatic
coating 3. Drug delivery 4. Electrode
material
5. Internal sutures 6. LED
A. 1 & 5
B. 3 & 5
C. 4 & 6
D. 2 & 5
Ans. B
Que. Which of the following polymer is
easily biodegradable?
A. Vinylic polymer
B. Highly crystalline polymer
C. Hydrophilic polymer
D. Hydrophobic polymer
Ans. C
Que. The Biodegradable polymer is
A. HBHV
B. Cellulose
C. PVC
D. Both A and B
Ans. D
Que.
Choose the correct option giving
the applications of Biopol.
1. Useful for electric and electronic
appliances 2. Useful for components of
camera, projector housing 3. Useful for
surgical sutures 4. Useful for packaging,
lamination 5. Useful for making
disposable bottles 6. Used for photodiodes
A. 1,2,5
B. 2,4,6
C. 3,4,5
D. 1,5,6
Ans. C
Que.
Match the following:
1. Trans-Polyacetylene L. Synthetic
rubber
2. PPV
M.
Semiconductor
3. SBR
N.
Electroluminescent
A. 1-L, 2-N, 3-M
B. 1-M, 2-N, 3-L
C. 1-N, 2-M, 3-L
D. 1-N, 2-L, 3-M
Ans. B
Que. The polymer backbone that shows
conductivity is
A. -(CH2-CH2)nB. –(CH2-COO)nC. –(CH2-CH2-O)nD. –(C6H4)nAns. D
Que.
The correct order for
conductivity of polyacetylene is
A. doped trans- PA > trans-PA = cis-PA
B. doped trans- PA > trans-PA > cis-PA
C. trans-PA > cis-PA > doped trans- PA
D. doped trans- PA = trans- PA > cis- PA
Ans. B
Que. Polyacetylene is doped with ….to
increase conductivity
A. Germanium
B. Silicon
C. Iodine
D. Benzene
Ans. C
Que. On polymer backbone, P-doping
creates
A. Positive charge
B. Negative charge
C. Neutral state
D. None of these
Ans. A
Que. An intrinsically conducting polymer
has
A. delocalized n electrons in the polymer
backbone
B. delocalized sigma electrons in the
polymer backbone
C. localized pi electrons in the polymer
backbone
D. delocalized pi electrons in the polymer
backbone
Ans. D
Que. N-doping of Polyacetylene is a
reaction of the type
A. oxidation
B. reduction
C. hydrolyis
D. degradation
Ans. B
Que. An example of n-dopant is
A. Bromine
B. FeCl3
C. Iodine
D. Sodium metal
Ans. D
Que. Conductive polymers are used for
A. Photodiodes
B. Photovoltaic cell
C. Electromagnetic screening materials
D. All of these
Ans. D
Que. Trans- Polyacetylene has
conductivity…..
A. 400S/cm
B. 1.7S/cm
C. 4.0 X 105 S/cm
D. 1.4 X 10-9 S/cm
Ans. A
Que. Cis- Polyacetylene has
conductivity…..
A. 400S/cm
B. 1.7S/cm
C. 4.0 X 105 S/cm
D. 1.4 X 10-9 S/cm
Ans. D
Que. The polymer, trans –Polyacetylene
in its original form is….
A. Highly conducting
B. Semiconductor
C. Insulator
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. Trans –PA is an example of
A. Biodegradable polymer
B. Semiconducting polymer
C. Electroluminescent polymer
D. LCP
Ans. B
Que. Which is not doping agent for
making PA conducting?
A. Iodine
B. Sodium Metal
C. HClO4
D. Fe
Ans. D
Que. Polyaniline is easily doped with…
A. Reducing agent
B. Acid
C. Oxidizing agent
D. Alkali
Ans. B
Que. p-doping of conducting polymer is
done by…
A. Iodine
B. Sodium metal
C. Lithium metal
D. SnCl4
Ans. A
Que. Matrix phase of polymer composite
is formed by
A. Fibres
B. Particulars
C. Polymer
D. Flakes
Ans. C
Que. Match the polymer and applications
1. Kevlar
P. Film based uses
2. SBR
Q. Ropes, landline
communication
3. LDPE
R. Tyres of vehicles
A. 1-Q, 2-P, 3-R
B. 1-R, 2-Q, 3-P
C. 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q
D. 1-Q, 2-R, 3-P
Ans. D
C. concentration of the fibres in the matrix
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que. Polymer composites exhibit the
properties
A. of the matrix phase
B. of dispersed phase
C. other than the matrix and dispersed
phases
D. of both matrix and dispersed phases
Ans. D
Que. The shredded cloth added as a filler
during compounding of plastics also
impart
A. extra hardness to the plastic
B. heat, flame, resistance to the plastic
C. corrosion resistance to the plastic
D. mechanical strength
Ans. D
Que. Which is not function of matrix
phase of a FRP
A. Binds dispersed phase
B. Causes increase in strength of FRP
C. Holds fibres with orientation
D. Prevents propagation of cracks
Ans. B
Que. In a polymer composite the resin and
the reinforcing material are held together
by
A. strong bonding at the interface
B. strong bonding at the surface
C. strong bonding at the interior of a face
D. None of these
Ans. A
Que. Properties of fibre reinforced
composite depend on….
A. Nature of fibres
B. Orientation of fibres
C. Distribution of fibres
D. All of these
Ans. D
Que. The properties of fibre reinforced
plastics are influenced by
A. length of the fibres
B. orientation of the fibres relative to one
another
Que. The polymer which can exhibit
liquid crystal property is…
A. Epoxy resin
B. Kevlar
C. PVC
D. PE
Ans. B
Que. The polymers which have tendency
to align their chain over large distance
during crystallization from melt is
called….
A. Thermotropic liquid crystal polymers
B. Lyotropic liquid crystal polymers
C. Either of these
D. None of these
Ans. A
Que. Kevlar has very high strength due
to…
A. intramolecular hydrogen bond between
>CO group and >NH group
B. intermolecular hydrogen bond between
>CO group and >NH group
C. intramolecular hydrogen bond between
aromatic ring and >NH group
D. intramolecular hydrogen bond between
CO and aromatic ring
Ans. B
Que.
……is aromatic polymer and
….is aliphatic polymer.
A. HDPE; Epoxy resin
B. Kevlar; Natural rubber
C. Kevlar; Epoxy resin
D. LDPE; Kevlar
Ans. B
Que. Kevlar is a …
A. smectic Lyotropic LCP
B. nematic Lyotropic LCP
C. smectic thermotropic LCP
D. nematic thermotropic LCP
Ans. B
Que.
The examples of LCP are
A. Nomex and PE
B. Kevlar and PS
C. Nomex and PS
D. Kevlar and Nomex
Ans. D
Que. In the structure of Kevlar, all the
amide groups are separated by
A. para-phenylene
B. meta-phenylene
C. ortho-phenylene
D. none of these
Ans. A
Que. The thermal stability of Kevlar is
due to…
A. amide group
B. aramid ring structure
C. long chain
D. all of these
Ans. B
Que. The chemical composition of Kevlar
is
A. para poly phenylene terephthalene
B. poly phenyl para terephthalamide
C. poly para phenylene terephthalamide
D. poly terephthalene para phenylene
Ans. C
Que. The backbone chain of Kevlar
polymer contains regular repetition of …..
A. ester linkages
B. ether linkages
C. amide linkages
D. anhydride linkages
Ans. C
Que. The fibre of highest tensile strength
is
A. Kevlar
B. Polyester
C. Nylon
D. Acrylic fibre
Ans. A
Que. Polypara phenylenevinylene is
……polymer
A. Biodegradable
B. Conducting
C. Electroluminescent
D. Liquid crystal
Ans. C
Que. Electroluminescent polymers….
A. emit light in response to the passage of
an electric current
B. emit light in response to the passage of
a magnetic field
C. absorb light in response to the passage
of an electric current
D. emit light in response to the passage of
heat
Ans. A
Que. In an electroluminescent polymer
colour and wavelength of emitted light
depend on
A. energy gap between forbidden band
and conduction band
B. energy level between valence band and
conduction band
C. energy gap between valence band and
conduction band
D. energy gap above valence band and
conduction band
Ans. C
Que. In a polymer light emitting diode
for generation of light
A. Thin HBPV film is sandwiched
between two electrodes
B. Thin PPV film is placed in a liquid
C. Thin PPV film is sandwiched between
two electrodes
D. None of these
Ans. C
Que. Polypara-phenylenevinylene
shows…..fluorescence
A. Red
B. Yellow-green
C. Blue
D. Orange
Ans. B
Que. Electroluminescence is observed
because of ….
A. Conjugated π bonds in structure
B. Doping of the polymer
C. Recombination of holes and electrons
D. all of these
Ans. C
Que.
In which of the following
polymers is bisphenol-A is present as a
monomer unit:
1. Polycarbonate 2. Polypara
phenylenevinylene 3. Epoxy resin 4.
Kevlar
A. Only 1
B. Both 1 and 2
C. Both 1 and 3
D. Both 1 and 4
Ans. C
Que. Compounding of plastic is the
process of …
A. Formation of complex with polymer
B. Mixing various ingredients into
polymer matrix to develop required
properties
C. Moulding or remolding of plastic
D. Fabrication of plastic
Ans. B
Que. Stabilizers are added to plastics to
A. reduce thermal stability
B. improve strength
C. reduce weight
D. improve thermal stability
Ans. D
Que. Accelerators added during
compounding of plastics can be
A. Vegetable oils
B. Saw dust
C. Zinc oxide
D. All of these
Ans. C
Que. Crushed asbestos added as a filler
during compounding of plastics also
impart….
A. extra flexibility to the plastic
B. heat, flame resistance to the plastic
C. heat, flame resistance and tensile
strength to the plastic
D. all of these
Ans. C
Que. Polyglycolic acid is an example of
……polymer
A. Conducting
B. Biodegradable
C. LCP
D. Electroluminescent
Ans. B
Que. Controlled release of fertilizers and
pesticides is a use of ….polymer
A. Conducting
B. Biodegradable
C. LCP
D. Electroluminescent
Ans. B
Que. Polyaniline and Polypyrrole are the
examples of……polymer
A. Conducting
B. Biodegradable
C. LCP
D. Electroluminescent
Ans. A
Que. Ethylene diamine is ……monomer.
A. Monofunctional
B. Bifunctional
C. Trifunctional
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. Adipic acid is a type of monomer
which can form…..type of polymer
A. Chain
B. Step
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. Melamine Formaldehyde is …..type
of polymer
A. Thermoplastic
B. Thermosetting
C. Either of these
D. None of these
Ans. B
Que. A plastic is compounded with…..to
make it impervious to X-rays.
A. Sodium salt
B. Potassium salt
C. Barium salt
D. Organic compounds
Ans. C
Que. Which of the following chemical,
stabilizes the plastic at the moulding
temperature?
A. Glass fibre
B. Lubricant
C. Barium salt
D. Benzoyl peroxide
Ans. C
Que. The chain structure of the polymer
having low strength, flexibility and
amorphous nature is….
A. Linear
B. Branched
C. Cross linked
D. Vulcanized
Ans. B
Que.
Match the following:
1. Synthetic rubber
cis-1,4-polyisoprene
2. Natural rubber
trans-1,4-polyisoprene
3. Gutta percha
Sulphur cross linked rubber
4. Vulcanized rubber
SBR
A. 1-Q, 2-P, 3-R, 4-S
B. 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R
C. 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-S
D. 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R
Ans. B
Que. Which one of the following is
Elastomer?
A. PVC
B. Epoxy resin
C. Nylon
D. Poly-cis-isoprene
Ans. D
Que. Which of the following is
trifunctional monomer?
A. Glycerol
B. Butadiene
C. Propylene
D. Ethylene
Ans. A
Que. Which of the following is not a
monomer?
A. 1,3-Butadiene
B. Adipic acid
P.
Q.
R.
S.
C. Propanol
D. Propylene
Ans. C
Que. Out of following which one is not
rubber?
A. GRS
B. Neoprene
C. PE
D. All of these
Ans. C
Que. The mixture of Triethyl aluminium
and Titanium tetrachloride is called as…
A. Polymer composite
B. GRP
C. Zeigler –Natta catalyst
D. Haber’s Catalyst
Ans. C
Que.
Match the following:
1. GRS
Step polymerization
2. Condensation polymerization
Synthetic rubber
3. HDPE
Hydrogen peroxide
4. LDPE
Zeigler-Natta catalyst
A. 1-Q, 2-P, 3-S, 4-R
B. 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R
C. 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-S
D. 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R
Ans. A
P.
Q.
R.
S.
Que.
Match the following:
1. Bulk
P.
Pearl or Bead like appearance of polymer
2. Solution
Q.
Micelle formation
3. Suspension
R.
Block copolymer
4. Emulsion
S.
Purity of Polymer
A. 1-Q, 2-P, 3-S, 4-R
B. 1-S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q
C. 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-S
D. 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R
Ans. B
Que. A transparent plastic used for
making camera projector lenses, a bullet
proof
Vests, etc is…
A. PPV
B. PHBV
C. Polycarbonate
D. PA
Ans. C
UNIT IVA
Que. A good fuel is _________.
A. Moderate ignition temperature
B. Cheap and readily available
C. High calorific value
D. All of the above
Ans. D
Que. Unit of Calorific value of a solid fuel
in MKS system is _________.
A. Cal/g
B. Kcal/Kg
C. J/Kg
D. Cal/lit
Ans. B
Que. Calorific value of a good fuel is
_________.
A. High
B. low
C. Mild
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Que. Full form of GCV is _________.
A. Ground calorific value
B. Grace calorific value
C. Gross Calorific value
D. Gram calorific Value
Ans. C
Que. Relation between GCV & NCV is
________
A. GCV + NCV = 0.09H× (Latent heat of
water vapour)
B. GCV= NCV +0.09H × (Latent heat of
water vapour)
C. 0.09H (Latent heat of water vapour)=
NCV − GCV
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. Biogas is produced by anaerobic
fermentation of biological materials. The
main constituent of biogas is _______.
A. Propane
B. Ethane
C. Butane
D. Methane
Ans. D
Que. Which of the following is a non
renewable energy resource?
A. Solar energy
B. Wind energy
C. Hydroelectric
D. Coal
Ans. D
Que. Bomb calorimeter is used for finding
calorific value of ________ Fuels.
A. Nonvolatile liquid fuel
B. Gaseous fuel
C. solid fuel
D. Both a and c above
Ans. D
Que. Boy’s calorimeter gives the calorific
value of ________.
A. Volatile liquid Fuel
B. Gaseous fuel
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Que. The texture of anthracite coal is
_________.
A. Brown fibrous
B. Lustrous black
C. Lustrous green
D. Dull grey
Ans. B
Que. Which type of coal contains C = 9295 % ?
A. Peat
B. Lignite
C. Anthracite
D. Bituminous
Ans. C
Que. Which of the following constituent
of a fuel does not contribute to its calorific
value on combustion?
A. Hydrogen
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon
D. Sulphur
Ans. B
Que. Principle of Bomb calorimeter is
_________.
A. Total heat liberated by complete
combustion of known amount of fuel is
absorbed by known mass of water and
copper calorimeter vessel
B. Total heat liberated by complete
combustion of known amount of fuel is
eliminated by known mass of water in
calorimeter
C. Total heat liberated by complete
combustion of known amount of fuel is
absorbed by known mass of kerosene in
calorimeter
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Que. In Boy’s gas calorimeter, burner is
surrounded by chimney called as _______
A. Combustion chamber
B. Upper chamber
C. Burning chamber
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Que. Which of the following gas has
highest calorific value?
A. Sulphur
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
Ans. D
Que. Value of (L) latent heat of
condensation of water vapour in cal/gm is
_____
A. 758
B. 875
C. 587
D. 857
Ans. C
Que. Gross and Net calorific value of a
fuel will be the same _________.
A. If its ash content is zero.
B. If its carbon content is very low
C. If its hydrogen/hydrogen compound
content is zero.
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Que.
Main constituent of natural gas is
_____.
A. CH4 (up to 90%)
B. C2H6
C. C3H8
D. H2
Ans. A
Que.
Which of the following has
lowest calorific value ?
A. Solid Fuel
B. Liquid fuel
C. Gaseous fuel
D. All of the above
Ans. A
Que.
1 Calorie = ________ Joules
A. 4.887
B. 4.187
C. 4.817
D. 4.008
Ans. B
Que.
Beckmann’s thermometer is
capable of reading temperature up to
________°C.
A. 1/100
B. 1/10
C. 1/1000
D. none of the above
Ans. A
Que.
In Boy’s gas Calorimeter, spiral
tube enclosed in a fully insulated jacket is
made up of ________
A. Brass
B. Zn
C. Cu
D. Alloy
Ans. C
Que. A coal contains 4% hydrogen and
shows GCV = 7800 cal/gm then its NCV
is ___
A. 8875 cal/gm
B. 7588 cal/gm
C. 5788 cal/gm
D. 3005.8 cal/gm
Ans. B
Que.
A coal has NCV = 7000 cal/gm
and 5 % hydrogen, its gross calorific value
is ____
A. 7400 cal/gm
B. 6736 cal/gm
C. 7936 cal/gm
D. 7264 cal/gm
Ans. D
Que.
If 0.5 gm of solid fuel on
combustion in bomb calorimeter raises the
temperature by 1.5 °C. If total water
equivalence of calorimeter set including
water is 2400 gm, the gross calorific value
will be ______
A. 3600 cal/gm
B. 7200 cal/gm
C. 4800 cal/gm
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que. A good fuel should have
_________moisture content.
A. very high
B. high
C. moderate
D. low
Ans. D
Que. A good fuel should have
_________ash content.
A. very high
B. high
C. moderate
D. low
Ans. D
Que. A good fuel should have
_________volatile matter content.
A. very high
B. high
C. moderate
D. low
Ans. D
Que. Calorific value of a fuel is the total
quantity of _____ liberated by complete
combustion of unit mass/volume of the
fuel
A. heat
B. colour
C. light
D. combustion gases
Ans. A
Que. Gross calorific value is the total
amount of heat liberated, when unit
mass/volume of the fuel is burnt
completely and __________
A. products of combustion are allowed to
escape
B. products of combustion are allowed to
cool to room temperature
((C) products of combustion are filtered
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que. Net calorific value is the total amount
of heat liberated, when unit mass/volume
of the fuel is burnt completely and
__________
A. products of combustion are allowed to
cool to room temperature
B. products of combustion are allowed to
escape
C. products of combustion are filtered
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que.
A coal contains 5 % hydrogen,
its net calorific value is 5320 cal/gm then
the gross calorific value will be _____
A. 4561 cal/gm
. 5108 cal/gm
C. 5584 cal/gm
D. 4967 cal/gm
Ans. C
Que.
A coal gas GCV = 7800 cal / gm
and 4 % hydrogen, its net calorific value
______
A. 8857 cal / gm
B. 7588 cal / gm
C. 5788 cal / gm
D. 3005 cal / gm
Ans. B
Que.
A liquid fuel 10 % H and latent
heat of water is 2450 KJ/Kg.The
difference between higher and lower
calorific values of the fuel is _____
A. 2205 KJ/Kg
B. 220 KJ/Kg
C. 22 KJ/Kg
D. 245 KJ/Kg
Ans. A
Que.
GCV of a gaseous fuel was
found to be 15000 kcal/m3.If the mass of
condensed steam is 0.02 Kg and the
volume of gas used is 0.1 m3 at STP then
NCV will be _____
A. 14882 kcal/m3
B. 13046 kcal/m3
C. 12053 kcal/m3
D. 11185 kcal/m3
Ans. A
Que.
If 0.5 gm of solid fuel on
combustion in bomb calorimeter raises the
temperature by 1.5 °C If total water
equivalence of calorimeter set including
water is 2400 gm, the gross calorific value
will be ______
A. 3600 cal/gm
B. 7200 cal/gm
C. 4800 cal/gm
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que.
Choose the correct options that is
true for a good fuel
A. It should have low moisture content
B. It should have low volatile matter
content
C. It should have low ash content
D. All of these
Ans. D
Que.
A coal contains 60 % carbon,7 %
hydrogen,5 % sulphur,1 % nitrogen and
remaining ash. If
its NCV is 3230
cal/gm, then GCV is ____
A. 3556.98 cal/gm
B. 3599.8 cal/ gm
C. 3292.83 cal/gm
D. 3262.72 cal/gm
Ans. B
Que.
A fuel containing 8 % hydrogen
has GCV 5937 cal/gm, hence the net
calorific value of the fuel will be ____
A. 230.8 KJ/gm
B. 23.08 KJ/gm
C. 26.09 KJ/gm
D. 25.1 KJ/gm
Ans. B
Que.
To get more accurate results the
corrections considered while calculating
the calorific value of a fuel by bomb
calorimeter are ____
A. cooling correction
B. fuse wire corretion
C. acid correction
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que.
The thermometer used to record
temperature in a bomb calorimeter is ____
A. Beckmann’s thermometer
B. Berkmand’s thermometer
C. Bercker’s thermometer
D. all of these
Ans. A
Que.
While calculating GCV by a
bomb calorimeter, fuse wire correction
should be ___
A. multiplied
B. neglected
C. substracted
D. added
Ans. C
Que.
While calculating GCV by a
bomb calorimeter, cooling correction
should be ___
A. multiplied
B. neglected
C. substracted
D. added
Ans. D
Que.
The calorific value is measured
by ______
A. colorimeter
B. galvanometer
C. calorimeter
D. thermometer
Ans. C
Que.
The relation used to find gross
calorific value by Bomb calorimeter is
A.
(𝑊−𝑤)(𝑡2−𝑡1)
B.
(𝑊+𝑤)(𝑡2+𝑡1)
C.
(𝑊−𝑤)(𝑡2+𝑡1)
D.
(𝑊+𝑤)(𝑡2−𝑡1)
𝑋
𝑋
𝑋
𝑋
Ans. D
complete combustion of unit mass of the
fuel
A. heat
B. products
C. only oxygen
D. combustion gases
Ans. A
𝑐𝑎𝑙/𝑔𝑚
𝑐𝑎𝑙/𝑔𝑚
𝑐𝑎𝑙/𝑔𝑚
𝑐𝑎𝑙/𝑔𝑚
Que.
The corrected formula of gross
calorific value by bomb calorimeter is
A. 𝐺𝐶𝑉 =
𝑔𝑚
B. 𝐺𝐶𝑉 =
𝑔𝑚
C. 𝐺𝐶𝑉 =
𝑔𝑚
D. 𝐺𝐶𝑉 =
𝑔𝑚
(𝑊+𝑤)(𝑡2−𝑡1−𝑡𝑐)−(𝑡𝑎+𝑡𝑓)
𝑋
(𝑊+𝑤)(𝑡2−𝑡1+𝑡𝑐)+(𝑡𝑎+𝑡𝑓)
𝑋
(𝑊+𝑤)(𝑡2−𝑡1−𝑡𝑐)+(𝑡𝑎+𝑡𝑓)
𝑋
(𝑊+𝑤)(𝑡2−𝑡1+𝑡𝑐)−(𝑡𝑎+𝑡𝑓)
𝑋
𝑐𝑎𝑙/
𝑐𝑎𝑙/
𝑐𝑎𝑙/
𝑐𝑎𝑙/
Ans. D
Que.
In the calculation of GCV of a
fuel by bomb calorimeter, cooling
correction is ___
A. added in the actual rise in temperature
B. substracted from the actual rise in
temperature.
C. multiplied from the actual rise in
temperature.
D. divided from the actual rise in
temperature.
Ans. A
Que.
Calorific value of a fuel is the
total quantity of _____ liberated by
Que.
Types of calorific values are
______
A. GCV and HCV
B. GCV and NCV
C. NCV and LCV
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que. Ignition temperature of a fuel
should be _____
A. very low
B. very high
C. moderate
D. none of these
Ans. C
Que. A good quality of fuel should have
low moisture content because it ______
A. increases the weight of fuel
B. decreases calorific value
C. becomes tedious for storage and
transportation
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que. Example of secondary fuel is
______
A. coke
B. Diesel
C. kerosene
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que. A good fuel should have _____
A. moderate calorific value
B. high calorific value
C. low calorific value
D. no calorific value
Ans. B
Que. A good quality of fuel should have
low moisture content because it ______
A. increases the weight of fuel
B. decreases calorific value
C. becomes tedious for storage and
transportation
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que. Which of the following is not
expected from a good quality fuel?
A. high ash content
B. easy storage and transportation
C. very high velocity of combustion
D. moderate ignition temperature
Ans. C
Que. Gaseous fuels are better than solid
fuels because ____
A. they have very high ignition
temperature
B. air requirement is very high
C. they produce ash
D. they do not produce smoke
Ans. D
Que. Oxygen pressure in bomb pot is
about _______
A. 2.5 atm
B. 0.25 atm
C. 252 atm
D. 25 atm
Ans. D
Que. Copper calorimeter is surrounded by
air and water jackets to avoid _______
A. heat losses due to radiation
B. water losses
C. fuel looses
D. heat looses due to evaporation
Ans. A
Que. Acid corrections in bomb calorimeter
occurs due to ____
A. CH3COOH and HCOOH
B. H2SO4 and HNO3
C. NaOH and H2SO4
D. HCl and KCl
Ans. B
Que. Which is not the requirement to
determine GCV using Boy’s calorimeter?
A. quantity of water (W)
B. initial temperature (t 1)
C. water equivalent of calorimeter (w)
D. final temperature (t 2)
Ans. C
UNIT IVB
Que.
Bituminous coal burns with
………..
A. Long smoky flame
B. Smoky yellow flame
C. Short non- smoky blue
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que.
Anthracite has _________of %
Carbon.
A. 55-65%
B. 60-75%
C. 78-90 %
D. 92-96%
Ans. D
Que. Proximate analysis involves
_________.
A. % Ash + %VM+% moisture
B. % C + % H + % O of coal
C. only % H of coal
D. only % C
Ans. A
((Q))_1// Moisture, ash content, volatile
matter and fixed carbon are measured for
quality of coal is/are part of ___.
A. Proximate analysis
B. Proximate analysis & Ultimate Analysis
C. Ultimate Analysis
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Que. The texture of anthracite coal is
_________.
A. Brown fibrous
B. dark and lustrous black
C. Lustrous green
D. Dull grey
Ans. B
Que.
For determination of % Volatile
Matter , coal sample is kept in muffle
furnace for ________.
A. 500° C, 5 min
B. 725 °C, 5 min
C. 100 °C, 8 min
D. 925° C, 7 min
Ans. D
Que.
For determination of % moisture
, coal sample is kept in an oven for
________.
A. 500° C, 1 hour
B. 725 °C, 1/2 hour
C. 110 °C, 1 hour
D. 925° C, 1/2 hour
Ans. C
Que.
For determination of % ash, coal
sample is kept in muffle furnace for
________.
A. 500° C, 30 min
B. 750 °C, 30 min
C. 100 °C, 30 min
D. 925° C, 30 min
Ans. B
Que.
For determination of % Volatile
Matter , coal sample is kept in muffle
furnace for ________.
A. 200° C, 7 min
B. 300 °C, 7 min
C. 100 °C, 7 min
D. 900° C, 7 min
Ans. D
Que.
For determination of % moisture
, coal sample is kept in an oven for
________.
A. 500° C, 1 hour
B. 725 °C, 1 hour
C. 110 °C, 1 hour
D. 925° C, 1 hour
Ans. C
Que.
For determination of % ash, coal
sample is kept in muffle furnace for
________.
A. 500° C, 20 min
B. 750 °C, 30 min
C. 100 °C, 20 min
D. 925° C, 30 min
Ans. B
((Q)) 2_ //1.4 gm of coal sample in
Kjeldahl’s experiment liberate ammonia
absorbed in 50 ml 0.1N H2SO4. The
resultant solution required 14 ml of 0.1 N
NaOH for complete neutralization If blank
titration reading is 25ml,find %N in
coal_______.
A. 0.11
B. 0.011
C. 1.1
D. 1.01
Ans. C
Que.
% S estimation in a mass of coal
is given by ________.
A. %𝑆 =
B. %𝑆 =
C. %𝑆 =
16×𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4 ×100
233×𝑊
12×𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4 ×100
233×𝑊
32×𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4 ×100
233×𝑊
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Que.
In Ultimate Analysis, % of
Oxygen is given by ________
A. % O = 100 − (% C +% H+% S+%
N+% Ash)
B. % O = 100− (% C +% H)
C. % O = 100− (% C +% S+% N)
D. % O = 100− (%H)
Ans. A
Que.
In ultimate analysis, method
used for determination of % S is known as
A. Kjeldahls Method
B. Eschka Method
C. Dumas Method
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que.
If 2.02 g of coal is combusted in
combustion tube. After passing the CO2,
increase in weight of KOH tube is 5.88
gm. Hence % C present in coal is ____
A. 71.39
B. 74.39
C. 79.39
(D))77.39
Ans. D
Que.
A coal sample weighing 1 gm,
looses 0.09 gm weight on heating at 110 °
C for 1 hour. The moisture in the coal will
be _______
A. 0·9
B. 9
C. 9·1
D. 91
Ans. B
Que.
1.0 gm of coal is heated to
remove all moisture. Then the residual
coal looses 0.21 gm weight when heated in
muffle furnace at 950° C. The % of
volatile matter in the coal is _____
A. 41.6
B. 21
C. 55
D. 56
Ans. B
Que.
1 gm of coal containing 10 %
moisture and if it looses 0.3 gm weight on
heating at 950 °C. The % of volatile matter
in the coal will be ____
A. 30
B. 20
C. 50
D. 40
Ans. B
Que.
Analysis of coal is necessary for
_____
A. commercial classification
B. price fixation
C. industrial utilisation
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que.
In ultimate analysis of coal,
sulphur is determined by converting it to
___
A. CaSO4
B. ZnSO4
C. MgSO4
D. BaSO4
Ans. D
Que.
A coal that burns with blue and
intense flame is _____
A. Peat
B. Lignite
C. bituminous
D. anthracite
Ans. D
Que. Amongst the various ranks of coal,
carbon content is lowest in ______
A. Peat
B. semi-bituminous coal
C. bituminous coal
D. anthracite
Ans. A
Que.
In ultimate analysis, in case of
% of Hydrogen,the gaseous products
coming out of combustion tube are
allowed to pass through ______
A. preweighed U-tube containing
anhydrous CaCl2
B. preweighed U-tube containing
magnesium perchlorate
C. both a and b
D. none of these
Ans. C
Que. The following rank of coal has
highest moisture content
A. lignite
B. petrol
C. peat
D. ethanol
Ans. C
Que.
In ultimate analysis, in case of
% of carbon, the gaseous products coming
out of combustion tube are allowed to pass
through ______
A. preweighed U-tube containing sodium
hydroxide
B. preweighed U-tube containing
potassium hydroxide
C. both a and b
D. none of these
Ans. C
Que. The highest rank of coal is _____
A. anthracite
B. lignite
C. peat
D. all of these
Ans. A
Que. Properties of anthracite are _____
A. it is hard, dense and lustrous in nature
B. it has very high calorific value
C. it burns without smoke
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que. Increase in the weight of anhydrous
CaCl2 U-tube indicates the weight of
______
A. HCl formed
B. H2O formed
C. CO2 formed
D. H2SO4 formed
Ans. B
Que. Increase in the weight of KOH Utube indicates the weight of ______
A. CO formed
B. H2O formed
C. H2O2 formed
D. CO2 formed
Ans. D
Que. The U-tube that absorbs CO2
contains solution of ______
A. NaCl
B. KOH
C. KCl
D. H2SO4
Ans. B
Que. The U-tube which absorbs H2O
formed during combustion, contains ____
A. KOH
B. anhydrous CaCl2
C. Magnesium perchlorate
D. both b and c
Ans. D
Que. For ultimate analysis of nitrogen in a
coal sample, the method used is _____
A. combustion method
B. kjeldahl’s method
C. Eschka method
D. Nernst’s method
Ans. B
Que. Estimation of nitrogen by kjeldahl’s
method involves absorption of (NH4)2SO4
into ________
A. carbon
B. alkali
C. acid
D. water
Ans. B
Que. In nitrogen estimation by kjeldahl’s
method, the unused acid is determined
using NaOH by _______
A. blank titration
B. black titration
C. big titration
D. back titraton
Ans. D
Que. Which precipitate is obtained in
Eschka method?
A. BaCl2
B. CaCl2
C. CaSO4
D. BaSO4
Ans. D
Que. When coal sample is kept in open lid
crucible in muffle furnace at about 750° C
temperature for half an hour, the
component determined will be _____
A. % moisture
B. % volatile matter
C. % ash
D. % fixed carbon
Ans. C
Que.
Match the following
1. Bomb calorimeter
cetane number
a.
2.boy’s calorimeter
solid and liquids
3.gasoline
volatile liquids
4. diesel
octane number
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
B. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
C. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
D. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
Ans. B
b.
c.
d.
Que.
A sample of coal showed
analysis results as follows - % M = 20, %
VM = 8, % A = 22, % FC = 50,which type
of analysis is this?
A. Ultimate anlysis
B. physical analysis
C. proximate analysis
D. none of these
Ans. C
Que.
A coal sample was analysed by
Kjeldahl’s method and Eschka method for
determination of certain elements. Which
type of analysis is this?
A. Perfect analysis
B. Absolute analysis
C. Proximate analysis
D. ultimate analysis
Ans. D
Que.
Analysis of a fuel sample
showed the following results -% N = 5,%
S = 8, % C = 65 ,% O = 1, % H = 19, %
ash = 2.This type of analysis is ______
A. absolute analysis
B. Ultimate analysis
C. perfect analysis
D. proximate analysis
Ans. B
Que. Peat is an uneconomical because
_____
A. high moisture content (90 %)
B. high carbon content (57 %)
C. very high calorific value
D. all of these
Ans. A
Que. C = 57 %, H = 6 %, O = 35 %, ash
= 3.6 % is composition of ____
A. lignite
B. bituminous
C. peat
D. anthracite
Ans. C
Que. Very low percentage of volatile
matter is observed in _____
A. semi-bituminous
B. bituminous
C. lignite
D. anthracite
Ans. D
Que. Use of anthracite is ___
A. metallurgical fuel
B. making electrodes
C. high temperature heating
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que. Types of coal analysis are ____
A. primary and secondary
B. nature and derived
C. proximate and ultimate
D. addition and condensation
Ans. C
Que. Which of the following is not a part
of proximate analysis?
A. % moisture
B. % N
C. % ash
D. % V.M.
Ans. B
Que. Which of the following comes
under proximate analysis?
A. % hydrogen
B. % nitrogen
C. % fixed carbon
D. % Sulphur
Ans. C
Que. To determine % moisture of a coal
sample , the sample is heated in ____
A. burner
B. an oven
C. furnace
D. all of these
Ans. B
Que. Quality of coal is better if its
moisture content is
A. lower
B. higher
C. as high as % C
D. as low as % C
Ans. A
Que. The content of which of the
following is not determined in ultimate
analysis of coal?
A. carbon
B. nitrogen
C. sulphur
D. volatile matter
Ans. D
Que. For ash content determination of a
coal sample, it is kept in _____
A. muffle furnace
B. an oven
C. bomb calorimeter
D. boy’s calorimeter
Ans. A
Que. If a coal sample is kept in a muffle
furnace at 750° C, for half an hour, we
can determine its ____
A. % FC
B. % N
C. % S
D. % ash
Ans. D
Que. In a good quality of coal, % ash
should be minimum because of _____
A. It increases Calorific value of fuel
B. Its disposal is a problem
C. It reduces % M of fuel
D. It produces smoke
Ans. B
Que. For ultimate analysis of nitrogen in a
coal sample, the method used is ______
A. combustion method
B. kjeldahl’s method
C. Eschka method
D. Nernst’s method
Ans. B
Que. For determination of sulphur, the
coal is burnt
A. in bomb calorimeter
B. by Eschka method
C. in Boy’s calorimeter
D. by kjeldahl’s method
Ans. A
Que. Which precipitate is obtained in
Eschka method?
A. BaCl2
B. CaCl2
C. CaSO4
D. BaSO4
Ans. D
Que. % ash of a coal sample is ____ when
2 gm of coal sample in muffle furnace at
750°C leaves 0.25 gm ash
A. 1.2 %
B. 1.25 %
C. 12.5 %
D. 125%
Ans. C
Que. If a coal sample contains 15 %
moisture, 9 % volatile matter and 17 %
ash, its FC is _____
A. 41.5 %
B. 59 %
C. 4.1 %
D. 5.9 %
Ans. B
Que. Calorific value of a sample of coal is
high if _____
A. fixed carbon is high
B. moisture content is high
C. ash content is high
D. volatile matter is high
Ans. A
Que. When coal sample is kept in open lid
crucible in muffle furnace at about 750°C
,for half an hour, the component
determined will be _____
A. % moisture
B. % volatile matter
C. % ash
D. % fixed carbon
Ans. C
Que.
In Kjeldahl’s method, 1.4 gm of
coal sample gave (V2-V1) = 10 ml for 0.1
N NaOH.% N of this coal sample is ____
A. 1 %
B. 1.4%
C. 2.8 %
D. 14 %
Ans. A
Que.
Calculate % S in coal sample
when 3.2 g of coal sample is combusted in
bomb calorimeter, solution from bomb pot
on treatment with BaCl2 forms 2.33 gm of
BaSO4
A. 0.1 %
B. 1 %
C. 10 %
D. 100 %
Ans. C
Que.
If a coal sample contains C = 85
%, H = 5 %, N = 1.5 %, S = 2.3%, its O is
____
A. 2.6
B. 6.2
C. 26
D. 62
Ans. B
Que. The first stage of coalification gives
brown, fibrous jelly like mass called _____
A. lignite
B. sub-bituminous
C. peat
D. semi-bituminous
Ans. C
D. Isopropyl alcohol
Ans. C
Que.
Proximate analysis of a better
quality coal shows ______
A. lower % M, higher % V.M.
B. lower % V.M, higher % M
C. lower % A, higher % V.M.
D. lower % V.M., higher % FC
Ans. D
UNIT IVC
Que.
Octane no. of petrol is
percentage of ________.
A. Pentane and isopentane
B. Butane and isobutane
C. n heptane and iso-octane
D. none of the above
Ans. C
Que.
CNG is _________.
A. Compressed natural gas about 1000
atm.
B. Substitute of gasoline
C. 88% CH4 + 10-11 % C2-C4 + 0.5-1%
CO
D. All of the above
Ans. D
Que.
Biodiesel is produced via
________.
A. Neutralisation process
B. Transesterification process.
C. Etherification Process.
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que.
In petrol engine, knocking is
due to ________.
A. Slow combustion
B. Moderate combustion
C. Spontaneous combustion
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Que.
Composition of LPG is
_______.
A. 40% butane+60% Propane+ traces of
propene and butene.
B. Only methane
C. Only butane
D. All of the above
Ans. A
Que.
α methyl naphthalene has
Cetane no. _______ .
A. 0
B. 100
C. 90
D. 28
Ans. A
Que.
The Chemical name of cetane
is________
A. n heptane
B. n hexadecane
C. Octane
D. Decane
Ans. B
Que. _______when mixed with petrol in
proper proportion is called as power
alcohol.
A. Propanol
B. Butanol
C. Ethanol
Que.
Addition of Ethyl Alcohol to
petrol ___
A. Increases the octane no.
B. Decreases the octane no.
C. Makes the combustion fast
D. Knocks badly
Ans. A
Que.
Which of the following has the
highest octane no.?
A. Iso-octane
B. Cyclohexane
C. Toluene
D. n- Heptane
Ans. A
Que.
Which of the fuels has highest
heat of combustion?
A. Petrol
B. Diesel
C. Kerosene
D. Hydrogen
Ans. D
Que.
The quality of diesel is
expressed in terms of _______
A. Octane-number
B. Cetane number
C. Index number
D. Viscosity
Ans. B
Que.
Which of the following
petroleum fractions has lowest boiling
point?
A. Diesel
B. Kerosene
C. Petroleum ether
D. Petrol
Ans. C
Que.
The addition of TEL to gasoline
_______
A. Decreases the octane no.
((B) Increases the octane no.
C. Makes the combustion fast
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que.
Dry alcohol is ________
A. absolute alcohol
B. 100% alcohol
C. 50% water + 50% alcohol
D. Both a and b above
Ans. D
Que.
Adding ________ to gasoline
leads to Lead Pollution.
A. CFC
B. TEL
C. CCl4
D. Tetrahydrofuran
Ans. B
Que.
The refining of crude oil is done
by passing hot vapours of oil in a
fractionating tower at the temperature of
______
A. 400° C
B. 600° C
C. 800° C
D. 1000° C
Ans. A
Que.
Knocking in diesel engine is
because of ____
A. ignition delay
B. ignition
C. preignition
D. none of these
Ans. A
Que.
In an internal combustion engine,
knocking depends on _____
A. the air-fuel ratio
((B) design of the engine
C. chemical nature of fuel
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que.
Power alcohol is
disadvantageous because _____
A. It’ s highly volatile
B. it gives starting trouble
C. it causes corrosion of engine parts
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que.
Biodiesel is ___
A. non renewable
B. renewable fuel / biofuel
C. a toxic fuel
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que.
Biodiesel is obtained by
transesterification of ____
A. Soyabean oil
B. rapeseed oil/ canola seed oil
C. sunflower oil
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que.
The byproduct obtained in the
preparation of biodiesel is ____
A. ethanol
B. glycerol
C. methanol
D. glycol
Ans. B
Que.
Molar ratio of alcohol to
triglyceride required to complete
transesterification reaction is _____
A. 1: 3
B. 3 : 1
C. 1 : 1
D. 1 : 5
Ans. B
Que. Fractional distillation of petroleum is
called _______
A. refining
B. reformation
C. destructive distillation
D. demineralisation
Ans. A
Que. The first step in refining of
petroleum is _____
A. removal of sulphur
B. fractional distillation
C. removal of water
D. removal of NaCl
Ans. C
Que. To remove harmful sulphur
compounds from petroleum, it is treated
with _____
A. sodium oxide
B. copper oxide
C. Concentrated H2SO4
D. dilute NaOH
Ans. B
Que. Which is not obtained as a fraction
in fractional distillation of petroleum?
A. kerosene
B. naphtha
C. lignite
D. wax
Ans. C
Que. The chemical process of breaking
down higher hydrocarbon molecules to
smaller molecules is called ____
A. breaking
B. cracking
C. destruction
D. fracture
Ans. B
Que. Using the process of catalytic
cracking, heavy oils can be converted into
______
A. petrol and diesel
B. methanol and ethanol
C. biodiesel and power alcohol
D. acid and ester
Ans. A
B. BTX
C. MTBE
D. all of them
Ans. D
Que. The sharp metallic rattling noise in
the IC engine is ______
A. antiknocking
B. knocking
C. sound pollution
D. cetane number
Ans. B
Que. which of the following is not an
additive for improving octane number?
A. TEL
B. BTX
C. ETBE
D. acetone peroxide
Ans. D
Que. If a petrol sample shows as much
knocking as the mixture of 70 % of isooctane and 30 % of n-heptane, its octane
number is ______
A. 30
B. 40
C. 65
D. 70
Ans. D
Que. n-hexadecane is ______
A. Iso-octane
B. cetane
C. BTX
D. benzoyl peroxide
Ans. B
Que. As compared to straight chain
alkane, octane number of cylcoalkane is
_______
A. lower
B. higher
C. same
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que. 2,2 4 trimethyl pentane is ____
A. n-heptane
B. cetane
C. Iso-octane
D. BTX
Ans. C
Que. Octane number of petrol cane be
increased by addition of ____
A. tetraethyl lead
Que. Cetane number of n-hexadecane is
_____
A. 10
B. 35
C. 65
D. 100
Ans. D
Que. Delayed combustion of diesel in
diesel engine causes ______
A. knocking
B. antiknocking
C. cracking
D. reformation
Ans. A
Que. Ethyl alcohol is manufactured by
fermentation of _______
A. proteins
B. molasses
C. vitamins
D. wood
Ans. B
Ans. C
Que. What is the advantages of using
power alcohol?
A. reduces emission of harmful gases
B. removes traces of moisture in the petrol
C. reduces dependency on foreign
countries for petrol
D. all of the above
Ans. D
Que. Biodiesel can be blended with ____
A. petrol
B. power alcohol
C. diesel
D. none of the above
Ans. C
Que. At 30°C,sucrose is converted into
glucose and fructose due to enzyme
______
A. maltase
B. invertase
C. zymase
D. none of these
Ans. B
Que. Which enzyme converts glucose and
fructose into ethyl alcohol and CO2 by
fermentation?
A. Invertase
B. lignin
C. Zymase
((D) all of these
Ans. C
Que. Chemically, biodiesel is a mixture of
methyl esters of ______
A. very short chain carboxylic acid
B. long chain of carboxylic acid
C. long chain of carbohydrates
D. long chain of aromatic compounds
Ans. B
Que. Vegetable or animal oils are mainly
____
((A) alcohols
((B ethers
C. triglycerides
D. fatty acids
Que. Biodiesel cannot be used as such in
conventional diesel engine because it has
_____
A. high viscosity
B. high flash point
C. low calorific value
D. all of the above
Ans. D
Que. What is the advantage of using
biodiesel?
A. reduces dependency on foreign
countries
((B) it is non toxic and free from sulphur
C. it has higher cetane number
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que.
Match the following
1. Eschka method
petrol
2.Fractional distillation
PEMFC
3.Transesterification
of sulphur
4. hydrocarbon
biodiesel
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
B. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
D. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b
Ans. C
Que.
Match the following
a.
b.
c. %
d.
1. Combustion
presence of oxygen
2. proximate analysis
N and % S
3. lignite
primary fuel
4. ultimate analysis
% M,% V.M.
A. 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b
B. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
C. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D. 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
Ans. A
a.
b.%
c.
d.
Que.
Match the following
1. Petrol
a. Primary fuel
2.Diesel
b. derived fuel
3.Peat
c. Spark
ignition
4. LPG
d. Delayed
ignition
A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
B. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
C. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
Ans. C
Que.
Match the following
1. Bomb calorimeter
fractional distillation
2.petrol
gaseous fuel
3.boy’s calorimeter
c.cooling correction
4. crude oil
TEL
A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
B. 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
C. 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
D. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
Ans. B
a.
b.
d.
Que. Which of the following is not a
product of fractional distillation of crude
oil
A. petrol
B. coke
C. diesel
D. kerosene
Ans. B
Que. The process of obtaining biodiesel is
______
A. transesterification
B. transetherification
C. transacification
D. transalcoholification
Ans. A
UNIT IVD
Que. What is the percentage of oxygen by
volume in the atmosphere?
A. 14
B. 23
C. 21
D. 79
Ans. C
Que. Theoretical oxygen required for a
solid fuel has composition C-86%, H11.75%, O-2.25 % is 2.995 kg. Calculate
theoretical air supplied per kg of fuel.
A. 130.02
B. 13.02
C. 1.302
D. 0.01302
Ans. B
Que.
Calculate % O if % C = 79%,%
H = 7%,% S =3.5%,% N= 2.1% and %
Ash = 4.4.
A. 2%
B. 3%
C. 4%
D. 1%
Ans. C
Que.
Air contains 21% of _______
by volume
A. nitrogen
B. sulphur dioxide
C. hydrogen
D. oxygen
Ans. D
Que.
Combustion of methane is given
by the following reaction
A. CH4(s) + 2O2(g)
2H20(g) +∆H
CO2(g) +
B. CH4 (g) + 2O2(g)
2H20(g) +∆H
CO2(g) +
C. CH4 (g) + 2O2(g)
2H2 (l) +∆H
CO2(g) +
D. CH4 (g)
2H20(g) +∆H
CO2(g) +
Ans. B
Que. During combustion of gaseous fuels,
deficiency of air _______.
A. lengthens the flame
B. Tends to shorten the flame.
C. slight changes in flame length
D. does not affect the flame length
Ans. A
Que.
The electrode used in hydrogen
oxygen fuel cell is ______
A. Platinum
B. Palladium
C. Zirconium
D. Zinc
Ans. A
Que.
Phosphoric acid fuel cell
operates at ______
A. 200 °C
B. 100°C
C. 350°C
D. 425°C
Ans. A
Que.
The ________ of oxygen is the
rate determining factor for the
performance of the fuel cell.
A. Reduction
B. Oxidation
C. both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Que.
The fuel used in Phosphoric acid
fuel cell (PAFC) is ________
A. Methanol
B. Butanol
C. Propanol
D. Hexanol
Ans. A
Que.
The fuel cell was first used in
________.
A. Submarine
B. Commercial Aircraft
C. Apollo project
D. Ship
Ans. B
Que.
Theoretically 25 kg of oxygen is
required for complete combustion of 1 kg
of a fuel. If the fuel contains 4 % oxygen,
then the quantity of air required for
complete combustion of fuel will be
_______
A. 91.3 kg
B. 108.7 kg
C. 104.6 kg
D. 100 kg
Ans. B
Que.
Theoretically 15 kg of oxygen is
required for complete combustion of 1 kg
of a fuel. If the fuel contains 2 % oxygen,
then the quantity of air required for
complete combustion of fuel will be
_______
A. 65.21 kg
B. 65.13 kg
C. 55.26 kg
D. 13.00 kg
Ans. B
Que.
Theoretically 15 m3 of oxygen is
required for complete combustion of 1 m3
of a fuel. Calculate the volume of air
required for complete combustion of fuel
A. 71.42 m3
B. 51.42 m3
C. 61.42 m3
D. 81.42 m3
Ans. A
Que.
The quantity of oxygen required
for combustion of 1 kg coal containing 95
% carbon and remaining sulphur will be
_____
A. 2.58 kg
B. 2.00 kg
C. 3.52 kg
D. 4.1 kg
Ans. A
Que.
Theoretical amount of Oxygen
and air required for complete combustion
of 1 kg of fuel containing 70 % carbon
and remaining nitrogen is _____
A. 2.4 kg,10.43 kg
B. 2.4 kg,11.43 kg
C. 1.87 kg, 8.13 kg
D. 1.83 kg, 10.43 kg
Ans. C
((Q))2_ // 0.25 gm of coal on burning in
combustion chamber in a current of pure
oxygen was found to increase in CaCl2 Utube by 0.08 gm. Hence % H present in the
coal is _______
A. 3.55
B. 3.1
C. 3.7
D. 3.98
Ans. A
Que.
The theoretical amount of
oxygen required for complete combustion
of 5 kg of carbon is ________
A. 10.10 kg
B. 12.67 kg
C. 13.35 kg
D. 14.41 kg
Ans. C
Que.
If a fuel contains CH4 = 60 %
and other gases = 40 %, then calculate
volume of oxygen required for complete
combustion of CH4 gas.
A. 1·67 m3
B. 1·20 m3
C. 1·81 m3
D. 1·97 m3
Ans. B
Que.
Calculate the weight of air
actually supplied if 20 % excess air is
supplied for combustion of 1 kg of carbon
((A)11 kg
B. 13.93 kg
C. 10.3 kg
D. 14.1 kg
Ans. B
Que.
If a fuel sample has 10 % CO2
and other remaining gases, then volume of
air required for the combustion of 1 m3 of
the fuel is ______
A. 0 m3
B. 1 m3
C. 2 m3
D. 3 m3
Ans. A
Que.
If a fuel sample has 10 %
Nitrogen and other gases, then volume of
air required for the combustion of 1 m3 of
the fuel is ______
A. 0 m3
B. 1 m3
C. 2 m3
D. 3 m3
Ans. A
Que.
If a fuel sample contains C2H6
= 60 % and other gases, then the volume
of air required for complete combustion of
C2H6 is ____
A. 11 m3
B. 10 m3
C. 12 m3
D. 13 m3
Ans. B
Que.
The volume of air required for
complete combustion of 1 m3 of gaseous
fuel containing CH4 = 90 % and N2 = 10 %
is ____
A. 5.53 m3
B. 6.18 m3
C. 7.45 m3
D. 8.57 m3
Ans. D
Que.
Theoretical volume of oxygen
required for complete combustion of 1 m3
of gaseous fuel containing C2H6 is ____
A. 4 m3
B. 3.5 m3
C. 1 m3
D. 2.5 m3
Ans. B
Que.
The oxygen required for
complete combustion of 1 m3 hydrogen
gas is ____
A. 0.5 m3
B. 1 m3
C. 1.5 m3
D. 2 m3
Ans. A
Que.
The oxygen required for
complete combustion of 1mole of sulphur
in fuel is ____
A. 0.5 mole
B. 1 mole
C. 1.5 mole
D. 2 mole
Ans. B
Que.
If a fuel contains CH4 = 44 %,
O2 = 4 % and remaining other gases, then
the volume of oxygen required to be
supplied for complete combustion of 1 m3
of gaseous fuel = ______
A. 0.80 m3
B. 0.84 m3
C. 0.86 m3
D. 0.88 m3
Ans. B
Que. During the calculation of ‘ oxygen
required for complete combustion of a fuel
’ the amount of oxygen present in the fuel
is _____
A. multipled with the total amount of
oxygen required for complete combustion
B. added to the total amount of oxygen
required for complete combustion
C. substracted from the total amount of
oxygen required for complete combustion
D. neglected during the calculations
Ans. C
Que.
Calculate the weight of air
required for complete combustion of 1
mole of carbon
A. 100 gm
B. 258.55 gm
C. 139.3 gm
D. 150 gm
Ans. C
Que.
Calculate the weight of air
required for complete combustion of 10
moles of carbon
A. 1 kg
B. 1.39 kg
C. 1.5 kg
D. 2.58 kg
Ans. B
Que.
For 1 mole of C2H6 ,theoretical
amount of air required for complete
combustion is 486.96 gm. Calculate actual
amount of air supplied if 30 % excess was
supplied
A. 633.04 gm
B. 550 gm
C. 381.54 gm
D. 500 gm
Ans. A
Que.
For a fuel to burn completely
13.33 kg of oxygen is required. Calculate
actual amount of air supplied if 30 %
excess air was supplied.
A. 35.55 kg
B. 87.54 kg
C. 75.36 kg
D. 54.55 kg
Ans. C
Que.
The oxygen required for
complete combustion of 1 m3 fuel is 0.44
m3. If it was burnt in 10 % excess air, then
calculate the actual volume of air supplied
A. 3.66 m3
B. 2.30 m3
C. 5.87 m3
D. 7.21 m3
Ans. B
Que.
0.64 m3 of oxygen theoretically
required for complete combustion of 1 m3
of a fuel. If it was burnt in 10 % excess
air, calculate the actual volume of air
supplied
A. 3.35 m3
B. 2.30 m3
C. 5.87 m3
D. 7.21 m3
Ans. A
Que.
0.64 m3 of oxygen theoretically
required for complete combustion of 1 m3
of a fuel. If it was burnt in 15 % excess air,
calculate the actual volume of air supplied
A. 4.35 m3
B. 2.30 m3
C. 5.87 m3
D. 3.50 m3
Ans. D
Que.
Theoretical volume of oxygen
required for complete combustion of 1 m3
of fuel with CH4 = 35 % and CO2 = 65 %
is ______
A. 0.90 m3
B. 0.45 m3
C. 0.70 m3
D. 2 m3
Ans. C
Que.
Theoretical amount of oxygen
required for complete combustion of 2 m3
CH4 is ___
A. 4 m3
B. 3 m3
C. 2 m3
D. 1 m3
Ans. A
Que.
Fuel combustion is a process in
which _____
A. heat is not absorbed nor liberated
B. heat is absorbed
C. heat is liberated
D. none of these
Ans. C
Que. Which is an application of natural
gas?
A. excellent domestic fuel
B. used in manufacture of carbon black
and hydrogen
C. feedstock for production of ammonia by
haber’s process
D. all of them
Ans. D
Que. Application of LPG is not _____
A. as domestic and industrial fuel
B. as automobile fuel
C. as rocket propellants
D. in refrigeration
Ans. C
Que. Efficiency of phosphoric acid fuel
cell (PAFC) is about ____
A. 100 %
B. 70-75 %
C. 50-66 %
D. 40-45 %
Ans. D
Que. In PAFC, for hydrocarbons fuels,
electrolyte used is _______
A. nafion
B. potassium hydroxide
C. phosphoric acid
D. zirconia
Ans. C
Que. Operating temperature of PAFC is
_____
A. 25 °C
B. 100°C
C. 200°C
D. 410°C
Ans. C
Que. Electrolyte used in polymer
electrolyte membrane fuel cell (PEMFC)
is ______
A. nafion
B. potassium hydroxide
C. phosphoric acid
D. zirconia
Ans. A
Que. PEM fuel cell operates at around
________
A. 25°C
B. 80°C
C. 150°C
D. 200°C
Ans. B
Que. Practical efficiency of PEM fuel cell
is _______
A. 50 %
B. 60 %
C. 70 %
D. 80 %
Ans. B
Que. Electrodes used in PEMFC are _____
A. Ag-AgCl electrode
B. calomel electrode
C. porous carbon
D. all of these
Ans. C
Que. PEMFC are preferred because of
_____
A. low temperature operation
B. reduced emisssion
C. high power and energy
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que. CNG is obtained by compressing
natural gas to a pressure of about _____
A. 0.1 atm
B. 10 atm
C. 100 atm
D. 1000 atm
Ans. D
Que.
For complete combustion of 1
m3 of a gaseous fuel, if volume of oxygen
required is 1.05 m3,then the volume of air
required = _____
A. 5 m3
B. 0.25 m3
C. 2.5 m3
D. 0.5 m3
Ans. A
UNIT – V
Chemistry of Hydrogen and Carbon
1. The first element in periodic table is
__________.
a) Hydrogen
b) Carbon
c) Nitrogen
d) None of these
Ans. a
2. In ionic compounds charge on
hydrogen is__________.
a) positive
b) negative
c) negative or positive
d) partially negative
Ans. c
3. Hydrogen has__________isotopes.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1
3
4
2
Ans. b
4. Isotopes of hydrogen are _____.
a) Protium
b) Dueterium
c) Tritium
d) All of these.
Ans. d
5. Hydrogen can be prepared in
laboratory by using_________.
a) Acid
b) Base
c) Acid as well as base.
d) None of these.
Ans. c
6. The most preferred mehod of
hydrogen preparation on Industrial
scale is __________.
a) Steam Reforming of methane
b) Steam generation of gas
c) Steam catalysis
d) None of these
Ans. a
7. Hydrogen can be stored in
__________form.
a) Compressed
b) Liquefied
c) Metal hydride
d) All of these
Ans. d
8. Hydrogen can be stored in form of
carbon materials like __________.
a) Fullerenes
b) SWCNT
c) MWCNT
d) All of these
Ans. d
9. The method which satisfies all aspects
of storage and transport of hydrogen
is________.
a) Compressed
b) Liquefied
c) Metal hydride
d) All of these
Ans. c
10.Hydrogen can be stoared chemically as well
as physically. The statement is
a)
b)
c)
d)
True
False
Partially true
Partially false
Ans. a
11. Binary compounds of hydrogen are
classified into _______classes.
a) 1
b) Graphite
b) 2
c) Fullerene
c) 3
d) carbon nanotubes
d) 4
Ans. a
Ans. c
12. Hydrogen is proposes as future fuel
because _________.
a) its production from renewable source
b) clean burning
c) high calorific value
d) All of these
Ans. d
13. Carbon has ___________ naturally
occurring isotops.
15. Softest allotrope of carbon is ___________.
a) Diamond
b) Graphite
c) Fullerene
d) carbon nanotubes
Ans.b
16. Bucky ball is __________.
a) Diamond
b) Graphite
a) 1
c) Fullerene
b) 2
d) carbon nanotubes
c) 3
Ans. c
d) 4
Ans. c
14. _________ is zero dimensional allotrope of
carbon.
a) Diamond
b) Graphite
c) Fullerene
d) carbon nanotubes
Ans. C
15. Hardest allotrope of carbon is
___________.
a) Diamond
17. Fullerene has ___________.
a) 12 pentagons and 20 hexagons
b) 14 pentagons and 20 hexagons
c) 12 pentagons and 25hexagons
d) 20 pentagons and 12 hexagons
Ans. a
17. Fullerene has ___________.
a) 12 pentagons and 20 hexagons
b) 14 pentagons and 20 hexagons
c) 12 pentagons and 25hexagons
d) 20 pentagons and 12 hexagons
Ans. a
18. ___________ carbon nanotubes are
conductive in nature.
a) SWCNT
b) Arm chair
c) Zigzag
d) Chiral
Ans. b
19. ___________ are stiffer than steel.
b) Carbon nanofibres
c) Fullerene
d) Carbon black
Ans. b
22) element gives highest number of
compounds
a) Oxygen,
b) Carbon,
a) CNTs
c) Hydrogen
b) Fullerenes
Ans. c
c) Carbon nanofibres
23) Most abundant isotope of hydrogen is
d) None of these
a) H1,
Ans. a
20. ___________ Used as a black pigment in
printer’s ink.
b) H2
c) H3
Ans. a
a) SWCNT
24) Most abundant isotope of carbon is
b) MWCNT
a) C12,
c) Fullerene
b) C13,
d) Carbon black
c) C14
Ans. d
Ans. a
21. ___________ Used as an excellent absorber
to absorb poisonous gases..
25) Compounds of hydrogen with s-block
metals are called as
a) Activated carbon/ charcoal
a) covalent hydrides,
b) MWCNT
b) saline hydrides,
c) Fullerene
c) borderline hydrides
d) Carbon black
Ans. b
Ans. a
26) shows highest hydrogen storage capacity.
21. ___________ Used Tennis rackets.
a) LiH,
a) Activated carbon/ charcoal
b) LiAIH4,
a) stratosphere,
c) Both of the above
b) thermosphere
Ans. c
Ans. b
27) large scale use of D20is
30) Classic example of hydrogen bridge bonds
is in
a) in nuclear reactor,
a)diborane,
b) to make high density water,
b) electron deficient compounds,
c) to make radioactive materials
c) saline hydrides
Ans. b
28) Industrially hydrogen is manufactured by
a) action of metal on acids,
b) steam reforming,
c) splitting of water
Ans. b
29) Tritium exists in
Ans. a
31. Saline hydrides have
a) covalent character,
b) ionic character,
c) bridge bonds
Ans. b
************
Copy protected with Online-PDF-No-Copy.com
Unit VI
Corrosion Science
1. Dry corrosion is also called as
a) Chemical corrosion
b) Electrochemical corrosion
c) Wet corrosion
d) Oxidation corrosion
Answer: a
Explanation: Dry corrosion is also called as the chemical corrosion. The corrosion is divided into two types. They
are dry corrosion and wet corrosion.
2. Anhydrous inorganic liquid metal surface in absence of moisture undergoes
a) Wet corrosion
b) Dry corrosion
c) Galvanic corrosion
d) Pitting corrosion
Answer: b
Explanation: Anhydrous inorganic liquid metal surface in absence of moisture undergoes the dry corrosion.
Atmospheric gases also undergo the dry corrosion.
3. The rusting iron is the
a) Oxidation corrosion
b) Liquid metal corrosion
c) Wet corrosion
d) Corrosion by other gases
Answer: a
Explanation: The rusting of iron comes under the oxidation corrosion. Direct action oxygen at high or low
temperatures will be on metals.
4. Chemical action of flowing liquid metal at high temperatures is
a) Liquid metal corrosion
b) Corrosion by other gases
c) Oxidation corrosion
d) Wet corrosion
Answer: a
Explanation: Chemical action of flowing liquid metal at high temperatures is called liquid metal corrosion.
5. Corrosion between the dissimilar metals is called as
a) Galvanic corrosion
b) Dry corrosion
c) Oxidation corrosion
d) Concentration cell corrosion
Answer: a
Explanation: Corrosion between the dissimilar metals is called as the galvanic corrosion. Dry corrosion also called
as the chemical corrosion.
6. Wet corrosion is also called as
a) Chemical cell
b) Electro chemical cell
c) Oxidation reaction
d) Liquid metal corrosion
Answer: b
Explanation: Wet corrosion is also called as the electro chemical corrosion. Corrosion due to the conducting liquid
in contact with cathodic and anodic areas is called as wet corrosion.
7. Corrosion due to the corrosiveness of the soil is called as
a) Soil corrosion
b) Oxidation corrosion
c) Galvanic corrosion
d) Concentration cell corrosion
Answer: a
Explanation: Corrosion due to the corrosiveness of the soil is called as the soil corrosion. Direct action of the
oxygen on metal causes the oxidation corrosion.
8. Corrosion due to the formation of cavities around the metal is called as the
a) Pitting corrosion
b) Soil corrosion
c) Water line corrosion
d) Galvanic corrosion
Answer: a
Explanation: Corrosion due to the formation of cavities around the metal is called as the pitting corrosion. Corrosion
between the dissimiliar metals is called galvanic corrosion.
9. Corrosion due to the flow of the
between the cathodic and anodic areas is called as the
electro chemical corrosion by evolution of hydrogen ad absorption of oxygen.
a) Electron current
b) Proton current
c) Ion current
d) Neutron current
Answer: a
Explanation: Corrosion due to the flow of the electron current between the cathodic and anodic areas is called as the
electro chemical corrosion by evolution of hydrogen ad absorption of oxygen.
10. Corrosion due to difference in water level is
a) Soil corrosion
b) Oxidation corrosion
c) Pitting corrosion
d) Water line corrosion
Answer: d
Explanation: Corrosion due to the difference in water level is water line corrosion. Corrosion due to formation of
varying concentrations of the aeration.
11. Which of the following comes under the wet corrosion?
a) Concentration cell corrosion
b) Oxidation corrosion
c) Liquid metal corrosion
d) Corrosion by other gases
Explanation: Oxidation corrosion, liquid metal corrosion and corrosion by other gases comes under the dry
corrosion and concentration cell corrosion comes under the wet corrosion.
12. Corrosion is uniform in
a) Dry corrosion
b) Wet corrosion
c) Pitting corrosion
d) Water line corrosion
Answer: a
Explanation: In dry corrosion, the corrosion is uniform and in the wet corrosion, the corrosion is not uniform.
Pitting and water line corrosion comes under the wet corrosion.
13. Corrosion along the grain boundaries is called as
a) Stress corrosion
b) Inter granular corrosion
c) Water line corrosion
d) Pitting corrosion
Answer: b
Explanation: Corrosion along the grain boundaries is called as the inter granular corrosion and stress corrosion is due
to the static tensile strength.
14. Dry corrosion takes place in
a) Homogeneous process
b) Heterogeneous process
c) Neither homogeneous nor heterogeneous
d) Both homogeneous and heterogeneous
Answer: d
Explanation: Dry corrosion takes place in the both homogeneous and heterogeneous processes. The wet corrosion
takes place in only heterogeneous process.
15. In wet corrosion
are formed at the cathodic areas.
a) Organic compounds
b) Metallic ions
c) Non-metallic ions
d) Inorganic compounds
Answer: c
Explanation: In wet corrosion, non-metallic ions are formed at the cathodic areas. Cathodes are negatively charged
electrodes and attract positive charges or non-metallic ions.
16. Which type of reaction occurs in anodic areas?
a) Oxidation
b) Reduction
c) Displacement
d) Addition
Answer: a
Explanation: Oxidation occurs in anodic areas. Oxidation means the addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen or
loss of electrons.
17. Rusting of iron in neutral aqueous solution of electrolyte occurs in the presence of oxygen with the evolution
of
a) Nitrogen
b) Chloride
c) Sulphide
d) Hydrogen
Answer: d
Explanation: Rusting of iron in neutral aqueous solution of electrolyte occurs in the presence of oxygen with the
evolution of hydrogen. Only hydrogen gas is evolved in this process.
18. Where does corrosion occurs in the rusting of iron?
a) At cathode
b) At anode
c) In electrolytic solution
d) Outside the solution
Answer: b
Explanation: Corrosion occurs at anode but rust is deposited near cathode.
19. Which of the following cathodic reaction does not occur due to release of electrons at the anode?
a) Oxygen absorption
b) Hydrogen evolution
c) Electrodialysis
d) Electroplating
Answer: c
Explanation: Oxygen absorption, hydrogen evolution and electroplating occur due to the release of electrons at
the anode.
20. Select the incorrect statement about the wet corrosion from the following option.
a) It involves the setting up of large number of galvanic cells
b) It is explained by absorption mechanism
c) It occurs only on heterogeneous metal surface
d) It is a fast process
Answer: b
Explanation: Wet corrosion is explained by the mechanism of electrochemical reaction. All the other options are
correct.
21. Which of the following factor does not contribute to the rusting of iron?
a) Presence of acids and electrolytes
b) Contact with less reactive metal
c) Presence of water and oxygen
d) Contact with more reactive metal
Answer: d
Explanation: Contact with the more reactive metal does not contribute to the rusting of iron whereas all the other
given factors contribute to the rusting of iron.
22.
corrosion occurs when a metallic surface is partially immersed in an electrolyte and partially
exposed to air.
a) Concentration cell
b) Dry corrosion
c) both a) and b)
d) None of above
Answer: a
Explanation: Concentration cell corrosion occurs when a metallic surface is partially immersed in an electrolyte and
partially exposed to air. This is due to formation of differtial aeration cell
23. Which of the following does not promote the differential aeration corrosion?
a) Accumulation of dirt
b) Partially covering metals
c) Wire fence kind of structures
d) Accumulation of oxygen
Answer: d
Explanation: Accumulation of dirt, partially covering metals and wire fence kind of structures are the factors which
promote the differential aeration corrosion.
24. Poorly oxygenated part becomes cathode whereas well oxygenated part becomes anode in the
corrosion.
a) Galvanic corrosion
b) Differential aeration
c) Dry corrosion
d) None of above
Answer: b
Explanation: Poorly oxygenated part becomes anode and undergoes oxidation whereas well oxygenated part
becomes cathode in the differential aeration corrosion.
25. Which code is followed by the corrosion of metals?
a) Burger’s vector
b) Pilling–Bedworth
c) Frank-Read mechanism
d) Miller’s theorem
Answer: b
Explanation: The Pilling-Bedworth ratio is the ratio of the volume of the basic cell of a metal oxide to the volume of
the basic cell of an equivalent or standard metal. It is used to find out the likeliness of the metal to corrode or resist
it.
26. Which type of reaction occurs in cathodic areas?
a) Oxidation
b) Reduction
c) Displacement
d) Addition
Answer: b
Explanation: Reduction occurs in catodic areas. Reduction means the addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen or
gain of electron.
27. Rusting of iron in neutral aqueous solution of electrolyte occurs in the presence of oxygen with the evolution
of
a) Nitrogen
b) Chloride
c) Sulphide
d) Hydrogen
Answer: d
Explanation: Rusting of iron in neutral aqueous solution of electrolyte occurs in the presence of oxygen with the
evolution of hydrogen. Only hydrogen gas is evolved in this process.
28. Where does corrosion occurs in the rusting of iron?
a) At cathode
b) At anode
c) In electrolytic solution
d) Outside the solution
Answer: b
Explanation: Corrosion occurs at anode but rust is deposited near cathode.
29. Which of the following cathodic reaction does not occur due to release of electrons at the anode?
a) Oxygen absorption
b) Hydrogen evolution
c) Electrodialysis
d) Electroplating
Answer: c
Explanation: Oxygen absorption, hydrogen evolution and electroplating occur due to the release of electrons at
the anode.
30. Select the incorrect statement about the wet corrosion from the following option.
a) It involves the setting up of large number of galvanic cells
b) It is explained by absorption mechanism
c) It occurs only on heterogeneous metal surface
d) It is a fast process
Answer: b
Explanation: Wet corrosion is explained by the mechanism of electrochemical reaction. All the other options are
correct.
31. Which of the following factor does not contribute to the rusting of iron?
a) Presence of acids and electrolytes
b) Contact with less reactive metal
c) Presence of water and oxygen
d) Contact with more reactive metal
Answer: d
Explanation: Contact with the more reactive metal does not contribute to the rusting of iron whereas all the other
given factors contribute to the rusting of iron.
32. In wet corrosion
are formed at the cathodic areas.
a) Organic compounds
b) Metallic ions
c) Non-metallic ions
d) Inorganic compounds
Answer: c
Explanation: In wet corrosion, non-metallic ions are formed at the cathodic areas. Cathodes are negatively charged
electrodes and attract positive charges or non-metallic ions.
33. Which of the following does not promote the differential aeration corrosion?
a) Accumulation of dirt
b) Partially covering metals
c) Wire fence kind of structures
d) Accumulation of oxygen
Answer: d
Explanation: Accumulation of dirt, partially covering metals and wire fence kind of structures are the factors which
promote the differential aeration corrosion.
34. Poorly oxygenated part becomes
whereas well oxygenated part becomes
in the
differential aeration corrosion.
a) anode, cathode
b) cathode, anode
c) anode, anode
d) cathode, cathode
Answer: a
Explanation: Poorly oxygenated part becomes anode and undergoes oxidation whereas well oxygenated part
becomes cathode in the differential aeration corrosion.
35. Which of the following factor influences the rate and extent of corrosion?
a) Nature of metal only
b) Nature of the environment only
c) Both nature of metal and environment
d) Nature of reaction
Answer: c
Explanation: Both nature of metal and environment influence the rate and extent of corrosion as corrosion is a
natural process, which converts a refined metal to a more stable form, such as its oxide, hydroxide, or sulfide.
36. Which of the following is not associated with the nature of metal?
a) Nature of oxide film
b) Nature of electrolyte
c) Purity
d) Physical state
Answer: b
Explanation: Nature of metal includes its purity, physical state, nature of oxide film, position in galvanic series, etc
and hence it is not associated with the nature of electrolyte.
37. Which of the following oxide film is protective?
a) Porous
b) Non porous
c) Volitile
d) None of above
Answer: b
Explanation: Non porous oxide film does not conains pores or holes and hence forms protective layer
38. Which of the following is not associated with the nature of the environment?
a) Humidity
b) Temperature
c) Effect of pH
d) Volatility of corrosion products
Answer: d
Explanation: Nature of the environment includes temperature, humidity, effect of pH, nature of electrolyte, etc and
hence volatility of corrosion product is not associated with it.
39. Lesser is the purity of the percentage of metal,
is the rate of corrosion.
a) faster
b) slower
c) moderate
d) slowest
Answer: a
Explanation: Lesser is the purity of the percentage of metal, faster is the rate of corrosion. Pure metals does not
corrose easily whereas impure metals corrode easily.
40. Rate of corrosion of anodic region is directly proportional to the
a) Cathodic area
b) Anodic area
c) Product of anodic area and cathodic area
d) Sum of anodic area and cathodic area
Answer: a
Explanation: Rate of corrosion of the anodic region is directly proportional to the cathodic area. Greater will be the
cathodic area, faster will be the corrosion at an anode. (Reduction occurs at cathode…Reduction means gain of
electron so greater cathodic area will demand more elecrons and rate of corrosion is fast.)
41. Corrosion of zinc can be minimized by increasing the pH to
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12
Answer: c
Explanation: Corrosion of zinc can be minimized by increasing the pH to 11. pH 11 means it will be basic in nature
and hence will be less prone to corrosion.
42. Which of the following medium is most corrosive?
a) Acidic
b) Alkaline
c) Neutral
d) Both acidic and basic
Answer: a
Explanation: Acidic medium is more corrosive than alkaline and neutral media. In acidic medium, metals are more
reactive and more prone to corrosion.
43. Non Protective oxide film is
a) Porous
b) Non porous
c) Volitile
d) Unstablel
Answer: d
Explanation: Porous oxide film conains pores or holes and hence oxygen can pentrate through this fiim.
44. Excessive corrosion of metal takes place if corrosion product is
a) Volatile
b) Non-volatile
c) Both volatile as well as non-volatile
d) Initially volatile and then non-volatile
Answer: a
Explanation: Excessive corrosion of metal takes place if corrosion product is volatile. When the corrosion product is
volatile it easily escapes with gases and hence allowing more metal to corrode.
45. The specific volume ratios of W, Cr and Ni are 3.6, 2.0 and 1.6 respectively. Which of them will have the least rate
of corrosion?
a) Ni
b) Cr
c) W
d) All will have the same rate of corrosion
Answer: c
Explanation: W will have the least rate of corrosion, even at higher temperatures because the specific volume ratio is
inversely proportional to the rate of corrosion.
46. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the anodic coating?
a) Protects the metal from corrosion sacrificially
b) Base metal is not corroded
c) Example- coating of tin on iron
d) No negative consequence
Answer: c
Explanation: Example- coating of zinc on iron. All the other options are correct.
47. Electrochemical protection is
a) Anodic protection
b) Sacrificial Anodic protection
c) Impressed current cathodic protection
d) Cathodic protection
Answer: d
Explanation: Electrochemical protection is cathodic protection(CP). It is a technique used to control the corrosion of
a metal surface by making it the cathode of an electrochemical cell.
48. Which of the following metal is not used as a sacrificial anode?
a) Zinc
b) Copper
c) Magnesium
d) Aluminium
Answer: b
Explanation: Zinc, aluminium, magnesium are used as a sacrificial anode. Copper is not used as a sacrificial anode.
49. The protective coatings are used to
a) Corrode the metal
b) Prevent from corrosion
c) Increase the corrosion
d) Slightly increase the corrosion
Answer: b
Explanation: The protective coatings are used to prevent the corrosion of the metal. The protective layers are thin
layer on the surface of the metal.
50. The
resistance is given by the protective coatings.
a) oxidation
b) Reduction
c) both a) and b)
d) None of above
Answer: a
Explanation: The protective layer is used to provide the oxidation resistance to the metal and to give thermal
insulating properties of the metal.
51. The cleaning methods before applying the protective coating are of
types.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Answer: d
Explanation: The cleaning methods before applying the protective coating are of 6 types. They are: solvent cleaning,
alkali cleaning, mechanical cleaning, flame cleaning, sand blasting and pickling and etching.
52. In anodic coatings, the coating metals possess
reduction potential than base
metal.
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) 0
d) Cannot be said
Answer: b
Explanation: In anodic coating, the coating metals possess the lower reduction potential than base metal. The
coating metals possess the higher reduction potential than base metal.
53. Tinning is the example of
a) Anodic coatings
b) Cathodic coatings
c) Neither anode nor cathode
d) Both anode and cathode
Answer: b
Explanation: Tinning is an example of the cathodic coatings. The galvanisation comes under the anodic coatings.
54. The process of coating iron or steel sheet with a thin coat of zinc to prevent iron from rusting is called
a) Tinning
b) Galvanisation
c) Metal cladding
d) Electroplating
Answer: b
Explanation: The process of coating iron or steel sheet with a thin coat of zinc to prevent iron from rusting is called
galvanisation. The process of depositing the coating metal on the surface of base metal by electrolysis is called
electroplating.
55. Which of the following coatings has a glass composition?
a) Paint
b) Galvanized
c) Enamel
d) Anodized
Answer: c
Explanation: Enamel (vitreous) is a protective coating composed of glass containing a metal substrate. Paint is
composed of organic material, whereas galvanized coating has anodic metal, both of which contain metal substrate.
The anodized coating has an Al composition with an aluminum substrate.
56. Which of the following is not a type of protective coating?
a) Metallic
b) Non-metallic
c) Organic
d) Inorganic
Answer: b
Explanation: A protective coating is generally defined as a layer of an inert substance which is applied to a material
to prevent the chemical and electrochemical attack. These are classified into metallic, organic, and inorganic
coatings.
57. An example of an anodic coating is
a) Zinc
b) Copper
c) Nickel
d) Chromium
Answer: a
Explanation: The anodic coating is a classification of a metallic coating of metals which are anodic to the base metal.
Zinc, aluminum, and cadmium are examples of anodic coatings. Cathodic coatings include Cu, Ni, Ag, etc.
58. The method of immersing a material into a molten bath for coating is known as
a) Electroplating
b) Hot dipping
c) Cladding
d) Cementation
Answer: b
Explanation: Hot dipping is a method of metallic coating in which the product to be coated is dipped into a molten
bath of the coating metal. Water pipe fittings coated with by the method of hot dipping.
59. Which of these methods uses a filler wire at a high-temperature flame?
a) Hot dipping
b) Metal spraying
c) Vapor plating
d) Cementation
Answer: b
Explanation: In metal spraying, the surface to be coated is sprayed with the coating metal from a filler wire or powder
at a high-temperature flame using a spray gun. A few materials like Al, Cu, Pb, Sn, and Zn can be coated by a spraying
method.
60. The veneering of metals for coating is known as
a) Electroplating
b) Vapor plating
c) Cladding
d) Cementation
Answer: c
Explanation: Veneering of two or metals under a pressure is described as the cladding method of metallic coatings.
The metal which needs to be applied the protective coating on is kept between two layers of the coating metal. This
is then rolled into the required thickness, producing a protective coating.
61. Alclad is the cladding method where
a) Duralumin
b) Molybdenum
c) Tin
d) Silver
is coated with pure aluminum.
Answer: a
Explanation: When two materials are veneered by pressure, it is defined as the cladding process. The cladding of
duralumin with pure aluminum is called Alclad.
62. Which method uses the powdered form of a coating to form the protective layer?
a) Electroplating
b) Hot dipping
c) Vapor plating
d) Cementation
Answer: d
Explanation: Cementation is the process of alloying powdered coating metal with the base metal below melting
point temperatures. Carburizing and sherardising are types of cementation processes. Al, Zn, Cr, and W are only a
few metals used for cementation.
63. Phosphate coating and Chromate coating are classifications of
coatings.
a) anodic
b) cathodic
c) chemical
d) vitreous
Answer: c
Explanation: Chemical or electrochemical conversion is a form of an inorganic coating. They are used to improve
corrosion resistance and for decoration. Phosphate, chromate, anodized, and chemical oxide coating are the various
classifications of inorganic coatings.
64. The mixture of oil and a pigment is known as
a) Varnish
b) Paint
c) Lacquer
d) Enamel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Paint is a form of an organic coating which is applied to protect against corrosion and to beautify
surfaces. Oil is the wet component, whereas pigment is the dry material which adds color. The oil oxidizes to form a
protective layer of the dry pigment.
65. A varnish is a mixture of
and oil.
a) Resin
b) Pigment
c) Turpentine
d) Soybean
Answer: a
Explanation: A mixture of natural or thermosetting resin and drying oil is used to form varnishes. These coatings do
not contain pigments. However, reduced viscosity is obtained by adding turpentine to the mixture.
66. A mixture of oil and pigment in water is known as
a) Enamel
b) Emulsion
c) Shellac
d) Lacquer
Answer: b
Explanation: An emulsion is a suspension of particles of drying oil and pigment in water. It is an organic type of
protective coating. Here, the water evaporates and the mixture of oil and pigment forms the required film. The
emulsions are applied for decoration in household appliances.
67. Which organic coating is made from Lac dissolved in alcohol?
a) Lacquer
b) Shellac
c) Emulsion
d) Enamel
Answer: b
Explanation: Shellac is an organic protective coating which is made from the dissolved Lac in alcohol. It usually dries
by evaporation of the solvent and leaves an organic finish. Lacquers contain nitrocellulose dissolved in the solvent.
68. Which common application do anodizing and galvanizing serve?
a) Corrosion resistance
b) Improved surface
c) Zinc coating
d) Increased strength
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Both anodizing and galvanizing processes are carried out to improve the corrosion resistance of
materials. Additionally, anodizing improves the surface which helps in painting, whereas a layer of zinc is coating in
the galvanizing process.
69. What is the main principle of electroplating?
a) Hydrolysis
b) Neutralization
c) Esterification
d) Saturation
Answer: a
Explanation: Electroplating is the process by which a metal gets deposited over the other in the presence of metal
salt (in aqueous solution). In this process, the water molecule is given out as the end product. Hence the principle
behind electroplating is hydrolysis.
70. The process of modifying a metal’s properties is called
a) Electrolysis
b) Electro deposition
c) Electro less plating
d) Electroplating
Answer: b
Explanation: Electroplating coats a thin layer of metal over the other metals but does not modify its properties. But
electro deposition is the process by which the coating is permanent and the property of
the coated metal changes.
71 Corrosion of metal is ----------a) Oxidation of metal
b) Destruction of metal
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
Ans: c
72 Dry corrosion is also called as ---------a. Electrochemical Corrosion
b. Atmospheric Corrosion
c. Wet Corrosion
d. Galvanic Corrosion
Ans : b
73 Rate of Corrosion depends on---------a. Temperature
b. Chemical affinity
c. Moisture
d. All of these
Ans: d
74 Corrosion occurs due to the attack of atmospheric gases is ---------a. Wet Corrosion
b. Electrochemical corrosion
c. Dry Corrosion
d. Concentration cell corrosion
Ans: c
75 The rusting of iron is the -----------a. Reduction
b. Oxidation
c. Electrodeposition
d. Electrolysis
Ans: b
76 Corrosion between the dissimilar metal is called as-------a. Galvanic Corrosion
b. Concentration cell corrosion
c. Immersed corrosion
d. Wet corrosion
Ans: a
77 The oxide film formed by the metal Na is ---------a. Porous film
b. Nonporous film
c. Unstable oxide film
d. Volatile oxide film
Ans: a
78 The oxide film formed by the metals like Au, Ag is ---------a. Porous film
b. Nonporous film
c. Unstable oxide film
d. Volatile oxide film
Ans: c
79 Wet corrosion is also called as ----------a. Direct Corrosion
b. Electrochemical corrosion
c. Atmospheric corrosion
d. None of these
Ans: b
80 The oxide film formed by the metal Mo is --------a. Porous film
b. Nonporous film
c. Unstable oxide film
d. Volatile oxide film
Ans: d
81 Breaking of metal by the H2 accumulation is -----------a. Reduction
b. Oxidation
c. H2 embrittlement
d. Decarburisation
Ans – c
82 In stressed and unstressed parts of the same metal, stressed part acts as -------a. Anodic
b. Cathodic
c. Passive
d. Inactive
Ans – a
83 Corrosion due to the formation of cavities around the metal is called as the ---------a. Pitting corrosion
b. Water line corrosion
c. Galvanic corrosion
d. Immersed corrosion
Ans- a
84 Corrosion due to the varying O2 concentration is called as -----a. Pitting corrosion
b. Differential aeration cell corrosion
c. Concentration Cell corrosion
d. Both b & c
Ans- d
85 Reaction at anode is known as -------a. Reduction
b. Oxidation
c. Displacement
d. Oxygen absorption
Ans- b
86 Reaction at Cathode is known as ---------a. Reduction
b. Oxidation
c. Displacement
d. Oxygen absorption
Ans-a
87 H2 liberation/evolution takes place in-------------------- medium.
a. Alkaline
b. Neutral
c. Basic
d. Acidic
Ans- d
88 The higher placed metals in galvanic/electrochemical series are ----------------------.
a. Cathodic
b. Anodic
c. Active
d. Both b & c
Ans-d
89 The lower placed metals in galvanic/electrochemical series are ------------------- --.
a. Inactive
b. Cathodic
c. Passive
d. All of these
Ans-d
90 If the metal or alloy is of smaller (grain size), then the rate of corrosion is --------a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. None of these
Ans-a
91 Which of the following is the protective oxide film?
a. Porous
b. Nonporous
c. Unstable
d. All of these
Ans- b
92 Which of the following is/are destructive oxide film/s?
a. Porous
b. Unstable
c. Nonporous
d. Bothe a & b
Ans – d
93 Which of the following ions are more corrosive?
a. Cl-, NO3b. PO4
c. SiO4
d. Oxalates
Ans – a
94 Rate of corrosion increases by increase in -----------a. Temperature
b. Moisture
c. Conductivity of corroding medium
d. All of these
Ans- d
95 In cathodic protection method, the metal to be protected is forced to behave as ------a. Cathode
b. Anode
c. Sacrificial anode
d. Oxidant
Ans- a
96 The metals which have wide range of passivity voltage range can be protected by------------
a. Cathodic protection
b. Anodic protection
c. Sacrificial anodic method
d. Metallic coating
Ans- b
97 If the coating metal is higher placed in galvanic series than the base metal, then the coating is
------a. Cathodic coating
b. Anodic coating
c. Hot dipping
d. Electroless coating
Ans- b
98 The process of galvanizing is -----------a. Coating of Zn on iron
b. Coating of Sn on iron
c. Hot dipping
d. Both a & c
Ans- d
99 Which of the following process is applicable to store the edible material?
a. Galvanising
b. Tinning
c. Electroplating
d. Metallic coating
Ans- b
100 The formation of strong layer of alloy of coating metal and base metal, on the surface of the metal is called as-----------a. Hot dipping
b. Metal cladding
c. Electroplating
d. Cementation
Ans – d
101 Metal cladding is the process in which-------------a. Thin sheet of the coating metal is bonded to the base metal.
b. Strong alloy layer of coating metal and base metal is formed.
c. Metallic coating is formed.
d. Metal is dipped in hot molten liquid of other metal.
Ans-a
102 Addition of corrosion inhibitors to the aqueous corrosive environment,---------a. Increases the rate of reaction.
b. Decreases the rate of reaction
c. Doesn’t affect the rate of reaction.
d. First increases and then decreases the rate of reaction.
Ans- b
103 The metals like Cu, Al forms ----------------------oxide film.
a. Porous
b. Nonporous
c. Unstable
d. Volatile
Ans- b
104 The metals like Fe, Mg, Na & K forms ------------------------ oxide film.
a. Porous
b. Nonporous
c. Unstable
d. Volatile
Ans- a
105 Which of the following comes under the wet corrosion?
a. Concentration cell corrosion
b. Galvanic corrosion
c. Corrosion by the atmospheric gasses
d. Both a & b
Ans- d
106 Poorly oxygenated part becomes cathode whereas well oxygenated part becomes anode in ---------Corrosion.
a. Galvanic
b. Differential aeration
c. Dry
d. Pitting
Ans- b
107 Which ratio is followed by the corrosion of metal?
a. Burger’s vector
b. Frank-Read mechanism
c. Pilling- Bedworth
d. Miller’s theorem
Ans – c
108 Which of the following is not associated with the nature of metal?
a. Nature of oxide film
b. Nature of electrolyte
c. Purity
d. Physical state
Ans-b
109 Rate of corrosion is directly proportional to the ----------a. Cathodic area
b. Anodic area
c. Product of anodic and cathodic area
d. Sum of anodic and cathodic area
Ans-a
110 Which of the following medium is most corrosive?
a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Neutral
d. Both acidic and basic
Ans- a
111 Which of the following metal is not used as a sacrificial anode?
a. Zinc
b. Copper
c. Magnessium
d. Aluminium
Ans- b
112 The process of coating iron or steel sheet with a thin coat of tin to prevent iron from rusting is called as ----------a. Tinning
b. Galvanising
c. Metal cladding
d. Electroplating
Ans- a
113 The method of immersing a material into a molten bath for coating is known as -------a. Electroplating
b. Hot dipping
c. Cladding
d. Cementation
Ans- b
114 Which method uses the powdered form of a coating to form the protective layer?
a. Electroplating
b. Hot dipping
c. Metal cladding
d. Cementation
Ans- d
**************
Copy protected with Online-PDF-No-Copy.com