CHAPTER 5
1) Effort, persistence, and direction are basic components of
A) attitude.
B) equity
C) expectancy.
D) performance.
E) motivation.
Answer: E
2) According to the text, which of the following is not a basic characteristic or component of
motivation?
A) Effort
B) Direction
C) Performance
D) Persistence
E) Goals
Answer: C
3) Which of the following is most likely to stimulate intrinsic motivation?
A) Company policies
B) Challenging job
C) High pay
D) Generous fringe benefits
E) Close supervision
Answer: B
4) The extent to which an organizational member contributes to achieving the objectives of the
organization is called
A) performance.
B) expectancy.
C) intrinsic motivation.
D) extrinsic motivation.
E) effort.
Answer: A
5) Al told his friends that "the job makes me feel good about myself. I feel a real sense of
accomplishment at the end of the day." Al is probably
A) intrinsically motivated.
B) extrinsically motivated.
C) self- actualized.
D) fulfilling his relatedness needs on the job.
E) experiencing inequity.
Answer: A
6) "An interesting job that pays well" suggests that the job
A) is high in extrinsic motivation.
B) meets the motivational requirements of equity theory.
C) is high in extrinsic but low in intrinsic motivation.
D) is high in intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.
E) is high in intrinsic motivation.
Answer: D
7) Some researchers have argued that intrinsic and extrinsic motivation are incompatible. By
this, they mean that
A) intrinsic rewards may decrease extrinsic motivation.
B) when used in combination, they result in lower levels of performance.
C) extrinsic rewards usually lead to better performance than intrinsic rewards.
D) intrinsic rewards usually lead to better performance than extrinsic rewards.
E) extrinsic rewards may decrease intrinsic motivation.
Answer: E
8) Which of the following statements about motivation and performance is FALSE?
A) A person could be highly motivated and yet perform poorly.
B) General cognitive ability and emotional intelligence are important for motivation to be
converted into performance.
C) A person could perform fairly well despite low motivation.
D) Motivation is defined as the extent to which workers contribute to achieving organizational
objectives.
E) Task understanding is important for motivation to be converted into performance.
Answer: D
9) Two process theories of motivation include
A) Maslow's Need Hierarchy and Expectancy.
B) Maslow's Need Hierarchy and ERG.
C) Equity and Expectancy.
D) Equity and ERG.
E) Maslow's Need Hierarchy and McClelland's theory of needs.
Answer: C
10) According to Maslow, once an individual has fulfilled his or her belongingness needs, the
__________ needs become motivating.
A) relatedness
B) esteem
C) affiliation
D) physiological
E) safety
Answer: B
11) Which of the following theories proposes that individuals have basic needs, which are
associated with extrinsic motivation, and higher- order needs, which are associated with intrinsic
motivation?
A) Expectancy theory
B) Goal setting theory
C) Equity theory
D) Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs
E) Valence theory
Answer: D
12) According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, a given worker at a given point in time is most
motivated by
A) the highest level unsatisfied need.
B) the lowest level unsatisfied need.
C) physiological needs, because these are most basic and important.
D) belongingness needs, because everyone needs some form of social interaction.
E) self- actualization, because all persons seek to fulfill their highest potential.
Answer: B
13) According to Maslow, the __________ level __________ need is most motivational.
A) highest; satisfied
B) lowest; unsatisfied
C) highest; unsatisfied
D) highest; emotional
E) lowest; satisfied
Answer: B
14) Alderfer's existence needs correspond closely to Maslow's
A) esteem needs.
B) physiological needs.
C) belongingness needs.
D) self- actualization needs.
E) growth needs.
Answer: B
15) Other things equal, which ERG theory need should be of particular interest in a highly
collective culture?
A) Resistance
B) Safety
C) Relatedness
D) Existence
E) Growth
Answer: C
16) Alderfer differs from Maslow in that his ERG theory assumes
A) the least concrete needs become more desired as they are fulfilled.
B) growth needs can be completely satisfied just as existence and relatedness needs can be.
C) a lower level need must be gratified before a less concrete need becomes operative.
D) if higher level needs are strong but ungratified, individuals will increase their desire for the
gratification of lower level needs.
E) a rigid hierarchy of needs exists.
Answer: D
17) If Steve desires friendly and supportive supervision, he is trying to fulfill
A) any one of his needs, depending on which is operative.
B) his relatedness needs.
C) his safety needs.
D) his existence needs.
E) his growth needs.
Answer: B
18) Paul has a secure, well- paying, but boring job. He gets along well with his boss and his
coworkers. Recently, he has put in a bid for several more interesting jobs that have opened up,
but each time the job has been given to someone with more seniority. According to Alderfer's
ERG theory Paul will probably
A) continue to pursue a more interesting job indefinitely.
B) quit his job and leave the company.
C) exhibit frequent absenteeism.
D) press for higher pay.
E) seek support and additional attention from his boss and co- workers.
Answer: E
19) Which theory proposes a weak or flexible hierarchy of needs?
A) Equity
B) ERG
C) Expectancy
D) Adams
E) Maslow
Answer: B
20) In McClelland's theory of needs sales jobs are attractive to those high in need for
__________, and management jobs are attractive to those high in need for __________.
A) affiliation; power
B) achievement; affiliation
C) power; achievement
D) achievement; power
E) achievement; achievement
Answer: D
21) A person who is high in need for achievement will tend to favour __________ goals.
A) fairly easy
B) moderately difficult
C) moderately easy
D) fairly easy or very difficult
E) very difficult
Answer: B
22) McClelland's need for affiliation is most closely related to Alderfer's __________ need.
A) growth
B) relatedness
C) existence
D) esteem
E) resistance
Answer: B
23) According to McClelland, which need profile characterizes the most effective managers?
A) High power, high affiliation
B) High power, low affiliation
C) High achievement, high affiliation
D) High achievement, low power
E) Low affiliation, high achievement
Answer: B
24) McClelland's need for affiliation is most closely related to (or an example of) Maslow's
__________ needs.
A) esteem
B) belongingness
C) safety
D) physiological
E) self- actualization
Answer: B
25) Which of the following statements about persons with high need for achievement is least
accurate?
A) High need achievers tend to seek out performance feedback.
B) High need achievers tend to excel in sales jobs.
C) High need achievers tend to set extremely difficult goals for themselves.
D) High need achievers prefer situations in which they can take personal responsibility for
outcomes.
E) High need for achievement can be acquired through training.
Answer: C
26) Maurice sees his organization's performance evaluation system as arbitrary, capricious, and
unreliable. In motivational terms, this performance evaluation system has reduced
A) expectancy.
B) instrumentality.
C) the valence of second- level outcomes.
D) the valence of first- level outcomes.
E) both levels of valence.
Answer: A
27) The manager who tells an employee, "I'll recommend you for a promotion if you implement
the new system by January" is attempting to strengthen which expectancy theory component?
A) Valence of second- level outcomes
B) Expectancy
C) Relatedness
D) Instrumentality
E) Needs
Answer: D
28) In expectancy theory, the valence of first- level outcomes is the sum of the product of
A) force and instrumentalities.
B) expectancies and instrumentalities.
C) second- level valences and instrumentalities.
D) second- level valences and expectancies.
E) second- level instrumentalities and expectancies.
Answer: C
29) According to the expectancy theory of motivation, if we find that workers feel that they are
unable to perform at a high level, we are dealing with a problem of
A) valence.
B) relatedness.
C) second- level outcomes.
D) expectancy.
E) instrumentality.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 163
Skill: A pplied
30) Mike, a production worker, reports on a research questionnaire that high performance has a
valence of 10, average performance a valence of 5, and low performance a valence of 1. Also, he
reports that he is certain that he can perform at low or average levels but only 40 percent sure
that he can perform at a high level. According to expectancy theory, at which level should Mike
perform?
A) Average
B) Low
C) Instrumentalities are also needed to answer this question
D) High if task complexity is low to moderate
E) High
Answer: A
Page Ref: 164
Skill: A pplied
31) Cassandra's boss has not had time to clearly explain her new job to her. According to
expectancy theory, this should have a direct impact on
A) relatedness.
B) instrumentality.
C) first- level valence.
D) second- level valence.
E) expectancy.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 163
Skill: A pplied
32) According to the expectancy theory of motivation, if we find that employees don't like the
rewards the firm offers, we are dealing with a problem of
A) first- level outcomes
B) inputs.
C) second- level outcomes.
D) expectancy.
E) instrumentality.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 163
Skill: A pplied
33) The consultant said to a client company "Look, you people offer the highest pay in the
industry! If you tied it to performance, you'd get some motivational punch." The consultant is
saying that
A) expectancy is low.
B) expectancy is high.
C) instrumentality is low and second- level valence is high.
D) second- level valence is low, and instrumentality is low.
E) second- level valence is low, and instrumentality is high.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 163
Skill: A pplied
34) Which theory suggests that a social comparison process which affects perceived fairness can
have an impact on motivation?
A) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
B) ERG theory
C) McClelland's need theory
D) Equity theory
E) Need hierarchy theory
Answer: D
Page Ref: 167
Skill: Recall
35) Which theory of work motivation most explicitly involves a comparison with others?
A) Maslow
B) ERG
C) Expectancy
D) Alderfer
E) Equity
Answer: E
Page Ref: 167
Skill: Recall
36) According to equity theory, an underpaid individual would not __________ to achieve
equity.
A) reduce his or her outcomes
B) reduce his or her inputs
C) perceptually distort the inputs or outcomes of a comparison person
D) perceptually distort his or her inputs or outcomes
E) accept a job in another organization
Answer: A
Page Ref: 167
Skill: A pplied
37) According to equity theory, the overpaid worker
A) may reduce inputs and increase outcomes to achieve equity.
B) may increase inputs to achieve equity.
C) may increase outcomes to achieve equity.
D) should not experience inequity.
E) may reduce inputs to achieve equity.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 168
Skill: A pplied
38) According to equity theory, individuals compare themselves with others when determining if
the company is treating them fairly. Which of the following comparisons is likely to happen?
A) men tend to make equity comparisons with women.
B) men tend to make equity comparisons with both men and women.
C) women tend to make equity comparisons with men.
D) men tend to make equity comparisons with men.
E) none of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 168
Skill: A pplied
39) How might equity theory explain employee theft?
A) High work instrumentalities
B) Low work outcomes
C) High work expectancies
D) Low work inputs
E) Low need for achievement
Answer: B
Page Ref: 168
Skill: A pplied
40) Which motivation theory seems to translate across cultures best?
A) McClelland's theory of needs
B) Equity theory
C) Expectancy theory
D) Maslow's need hierarchy
E) ERG theory
Answer: C
Page Ref: 176
Skill: Recall
41) Expectancy theory
A) applies across cultures because it was formulated to be explicitly cross- cultural.
B) applies to nearly as many cultures as Maslow's need hierarchy.
C) is most relevant to the Western cultures because of its need- based philosophy.
D) is most relevant to North America because of its rigid hierarchy.
E) applies across cultures because of its flexibility.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 176
Skill: Recall
42) In collective cultures it is often observed that groups favour an equality norm for reward
allocation. Which theory's motivational premises does this norm most clearly contradict?
A) ERG theory
B) Expectancy theory
C) Equity theory
D) McClelland's theory of needs
E) Maslow's need hierarchy
Answer: C
Page Ref: 174
Skill: A pplied
43) A person's overall capacity and efficiency for processing information is called
A) motivation.
B) emotional intelligence.
C) general cognitive ability.
D) intelligence.
E) performance.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 154
Skill: Recall
44) Which of the following is most accurate about the relationship between general cognitive
ability and performance?
A) General cognitive ability is a better predictor of performance for more complex tasks.
B) General cognitive ability predicts performance to the same degree on all tasks.
C) General cognitive ability predicts performance only on manual tasks.
D) General cognitive ability does not predict performance.
E) General cognitive ability predicts performance only on mental tasks.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 154
Skill: Recall
45) A study on the career success of MBA graduates found that
A) students with high emotional intelligence and high motivation were most successful.
B) students with high motivation were most successful.
C) students with high general cognitive ability and high emotional intelligence were most
successful.
D) students with high general cognitive ability and high motivation were most successful.
E) students with high general cognitive ability were most successful.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 154
Skill: Recall
46) From bottom to top, what is the correct order of Salovey and Mayer's model of emotional
intelligence?
A) Management of emotions; knowledge and understanding of emotions; integration and
assimilation of emotions; perception of emotions.
B) Knowledge and understanding of emotions; perception of emotions; integration and
assimilation of emotions; management of emotions.
C) Perception of emotions; knowledge and understanding of emotions; integration and
assimilation of emotions; management of emotions.
D) Perception of emotions; integration and assimilation of emotions; knowledge and
understanding of emotions; management of emotions.
E) Perception of emotions; management of emotions; knowledge and understanding of emotions;
integration and assimilation of emotions.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 154
Skill: Recall
47) What step is the most basic level of emotional intelligence?
A) It depends on the situation.
B) Integration and assimilation of emotions.
C) Perception of emotions.
D) Knowledge and understanding of emotions.
E) Management of emotions.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 154
Skill: Recall
48) Being able to calm oneself when angry or lower the anxiety of another person is an example
of
A) perception of emotions.
B) knowledge and understanding of emotions.
C) management of emotions.
D) general cognitive ability.
E) integration and assimilation of emotions.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 155
Skill: A pplied
49) Emotional intelligence is especially important in jobs
A) that involve manual tasks.
B) that are complex.
C) at higher organizational levels.
D) that involve mental tasks.
E) that involve social interaction.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 155
Skill: Recall
50) Research has found that emotional intelligence
A) predicts job performance and academic performance.
B) predicts job performance but not academic performance.
C) does not predict job performance.
D) does not predict academic performance.
E) predicts academic performance but not job performance.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 155
Skill: Recall
51) Research has found that general cognitive ability
A) predicts learning, training success, and job performance.
B) predicts learning and job performance but not training success.
C) predicts learning and training success but not job performance.
D) does not predict learning, training success, or job performance.
E) predicts training success and job performance but not learning.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 154
Skill: Recall
52) The ability to accurately identify emotions in people's faces and nonverbal behaviour is an
example of the
A) diagnosis of emotions.
B) knowledge and understanding of emotions.
C) management of emotions.
D) perception of emotions.
E) integration and assimilation of emotions.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 154
Skill: Recall
53) Which of the following is a good practical example of goal challenge?
A) Encourage a D student to set a goal of achieving Ds in the coming semester.
B) Encourage a D student to set a goal of achieving Bs in the coming semester.
C) Encourage a D student to set a goal of achieving Cs in the coming semester.
D) Encourage a D student to set a goal of achieving As in the coming semester.
E) It depends on the student.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 170
Skill: A pplied
54) Which of the following is most accurate concerning participation in goal setting?
A) Participation should never be used for goal setting in a climate of distrust between employees
and management.
B) Participation in goal setting never increases performance.
C) Participation in goal setting always increases performance.
D) Participation in goal setting almost always results in the setting of less difficult goals.
E) Participation in goal setting sometimes increases performance and sometimes it does not.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 170
Skill: Recall
55) Research shows that participation in goal setting
A) can reduce performance by lowering the difficulty of goals that employees adopt.
B) can improve performance by lowering the difficulty of goals that employees adopt.
C) can reduce performance by increasing the difficulty of goals that employees adopt.
D) has no effect at all on performance or goal difficulty.
E) can improve performance by increasing the difficulty of goals that employees adopt.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 171
Skill: Recall
56) What is the relationship between monetary incentives in goal setting and performance?
A) Goal setting has led to performance decreases when monetary incentives are not provided for
goal accomplishment.
B) It depends on the employees and the incentive.
C) Goal setting has led to performance increases without monetary incentives for goal
accomplishment.
D) Goal setting has led to performance decreases with monetary incentives for goal
accomplishment.
E) Goal setting only leads to performance increases when monetary incentives for goal
accomplishment are provided.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 171
Skill: Recall
57) Goals that focus attention on the achievement of specific performance outcomes are called
A) specific goals.
B) outcome goals.
C) learning goals.
D) performance goals.
E) challenging goals.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 171
Skill: Recall
58) Process- oriented goals that enhance understanding of a task and the use of task strategies are
called
A) performance goals.
B) strategy- oriented goals.
C) task goals.
D) learning goals.
E) process goals.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 171
Skill: Recall
59) If your goal in this course is to achieve a particular grade, what kind of goal have you set?
A) A performance goal.
B) A learning goal.
C) A proximal goal.
D) A challenging goal.
E) An outcome goal.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 171
Skill: A pplied
60) What are the mechanisms of goal setting?
A) Goal specificity, challenge, commitment, and feedback.
B) Goal specificity, participation, rewards, supportiveness.
C) Direction, effort, persistence, feedback.
D) Direction, effort, persistence, and task strategies.
E) Goal specificity, challenge, effort, persistence.
Answer: D
61) You have two good friends who are about to graduate and begin working full- time. Omar
wants to open his own small business and Jason wants to be a social worker. According to
McClelland's theory of needs, what are the needs of your friends?
A) Omar has a high need for power and Jason has a high need for affiliation
B) Omar has a high need for achievement and Jason has a high need for affiliation
C) Omar has a high need for affiliation and Jason has a high need for power
D) Omar has a high need for achievement and Jason has a high need for achievement
E) Omar has a high need for power and Jason has a high need for achievement
Answer: B
Page Ref: 161
Skill: A pplied
62) What is employee engagement?
A) the extent to which an organizational member contributes to achieving the objectives of the
organization
B) the extent to which persistent effort is directed toward a goal
C) the extent to which an individual immerses his or her true self into his or her work roles
D) motivation that stems from the direct relationship between the worker and the task
E) the ability to understand and manage one's own and other's feelings and emotions
Answer: C
Page Ref: 157
Skill: Recall
63) When people are engaged, how do they express themselves in the performance of their role?
A) physically, cognitively, and socially
B) physically, cognitively, and emotionally
C) physically, socially, and emotionally
D) emotionally, cognitively, and socially
E) socially, politically, and emotionally
Answer: B
Page Ref: 157
Skill: Recall
64) You have two friends who just started jobs after graduating. Tory says she spends a lot of
time thinking about her job and she is engrossed in it. Rory says that his new job gives him
feelings of achievement and accomplishment. What can you say about your two friends?
A) Tory is engaged and Rory is engaged
B) Tory has intrinsic motivation and Rory has instrinsic motivation
C) Tory has intrinsic motivation and Rory is engaged
D) Tory is engaged and Rory has intrinsic motivation
E) Tory has extrinsic motivation and Rory has intrinsic motivation
Answer: D
Page Ref: 153
Skill: A pplied
65) You have two coworkers who you like to work with because they are hard workers. Sal says
he works hard because of the pay and benefits. Trisha says she works hard because the job gives
her feelings of achievement
and accomplishment. What can you say about your two coworkers?
A) Sal has extrinsic motivation and Trisha is engaged
B) Sal has extrinsic motivation and Trisha has intrinsic motivation
C) Sal has intrinsic motivation and Trisha is engaged
D) Sal is engaged and Trisha is engaged
E) Sal has extrinsic motivation and Trisha has extrinsic motivation
Answer: B
Page Ref: 153
Skill: A pplied
66) What are two important components of employee engagement?
A) absorption and availability
B) attention and meaningfulness
C) attention and absorption
D) meaningfulness and safety
E) attention and availability
Answer: C
Page Ref: 157
Skill: Recall
67) As a manager, you need to evaluate the performance of your employees. Stan seems to
always be engrossed in his work and focused on what he is doing. Sue seems to spend a great
deal of time thinking about her work. What can you say about each of these employees?
A) Stan is motivated and Sue is attentive
B) Sue is attentive and Stan is motivated
C) Stan is engaged and Sue is motivated
D) Stan is absorbed and Sue is attentive
E) Sue is absorbed and Stan is attentive
Answer: D
Page Ref: 157
Skill: A pplied
68) After several months on your new job, you ask your manager how you are doing. She says,
"You are always psychologically present" at work. What does she mean?
A) you are motivated
B) you are high on general cognitive ability
C) you are engaged
D) you are emotionally intelligent
E) you are high on intrinsic motivation
Answer: C
Page Ref: 157
Skill: A pplied
69) What factors contribute to people's engagement at work?
A) meaningfulness, safety, attention
B) safety, attention, absorption
C) availability, attention, absorption
D) meaningfulness, attention, absorption
E) meaningfulness, safety, availability
Answer: E
Page Ref: 157
Skill: Recall
70) If your job provides you with incentives and you feel worthwhile, useful, valuable, and not
taken for granted, then you will experience:
A) psychological safety
B) psychological rewards
C) intrinsic motivation
D) psychological availability
E) psychological meaningfulness
Answer: E
Page Ref: 157
Skill: A pplied
71) If you have job in which you can employ and express yourself without fear of negative
consequences to your self- image, status, or career, then you have:
A) psychological meaningfulness
B) psychological safety
C) job security
D) psychological security
E) psychological availability
Answer: B
Page Ref: 157
Skill: A pplied
72) If you have the physical, emotional, and cognitive resources required to engage yourself in
your job then you have:
A) physiological safety
B) psychological availability
C) psychological meaningfulness
D) psychological safety
E) psychological security
Answer: B
Page Ref: 157
Skill: A pplied
73) Where did William Kahn study employee engagement?
A) accounting firm and summer camp
B) architectural firm and summer camp
C) law firm and summer camp
D) accounting firm and law firm
E) accounting firm and architectural firm
Answer: B
Page Ref: 157
Skill: Recall
74) If you are learning a complex task and you do not have the required knowledge and skills,
what kind of goal will be most effective for you?
A) specific high learning goal
B) specific high performance goal
C) specific and challenging performance goal
D) specific performance goal
E) do your best goal
Answer: A
Page Ref: 172
Skill: A pplied
75) What is the performance impact of specific, challenging goals?
A) weaker for simple jobs
B) stronger for complex jobs
C) the same for all kinds of jobs
D) stronger for simple jobs
E) weaker for complex jobs
Answer: D
Page Ref: 174
Skill: Recall
76) When a task is novel or complex and individuals need to acquire new knowledge and skills
for good performance, which of the following is most accurate?
A) setting a specific learning goal will be most effective
B) setting a do your best goal will be most effective
C) setting a high performance goal and a low learning goal will be most effective
D) setting a high performance goal and a high learning goal will be most effective
E) setting a high performance goal will be most effective
Answer: A
Page Ref: 174
Skill: A pplied
77) You have just been hired to perform a job that you have done before and have the ability to
perform effectively. What kind of goal should your boss set for you?
A) a high learning goal and a low performance goal
B) a specific learning goal
C) a do your best goal
D) a high performance goal
E) a high performance goal and a high learning goal
Answer: D
Page Ref: 174
Skill: A pplied
78) Which of the following about the relationship between goals and performance is most
accurate?
A) when a task is straightforward, a specific learning goal will increase performance
B) when a task is complex, a specific challenging performance goal can decrease performance
C) when a task is novel, a specific challenging performance goal will increase performance
D) when a task is straightforward, a specific learning goal can decrease performance
E) when a task is complex, a specific learning goal can decrease performance
Answer: B
Page Ref: 172
Skill: Recall
79) Which of the following is true about the classic goal setting study conducted at
Weyerhaeuser Company?
A) drivers were assigned a specific learning goal
B) the results were achieved with driver participation
C) drivers were assigned a specific challenging performance goal
D) the effects were short- lived
E) the results were achieved with monetary incentives
Answer: C
Page Ref: 172
Skill: Recall
80) When will setting a specific learning goal be more effective than setting a high performance
goal?
A) when the job is simple
B) when the task is straightforward
C) when the task is complex
D) when individuals have the knowledge and skills to perform the task effectively
E) when the task is intrinsically motivating
Answer: C
CHAPTER 6
1) Piece rate pay systems
A) are most effective when applied to white- collar jobs.
B) usually increase cooperation among workers on peripheral, nonproduction tasks (for example,
keeping
the shop clean).
C) are especially useful when few objective performance criteria exist.
D) generally lead to increased productivity unless restriction occurs.
E) have generally been supported by unions.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 188
Skill: A pplied
2) Restriction of productivity is a phenomenon associated with
A) MBO.
B) piece rate pay.
C) merit pay.
D) hourly pay.
E) job enrichment.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 189
Skill: Recall
3) Managers have a tendency to __________ the pay of their boss and __________ the pay of
their employees.
A) underestimate; underestimate
B) correctly estimate; underestimate
C) overestimate; overestimate
D) underestimate; overestimate
E) overestimate; underestimate
Answer: D
Page Ref: 193
Skill: Recall
4) As discussed in the book, the rationale for removing the secrecy surrounding salaries is that
A) they know salaries anyway, via the grapevine, but secrecy reduces confidence in the
company.
B) positive motivational consequences may occur if the pay system is well designed.
C) we should be honest with employees, and this is a good place to start.
D) a more open pay policy will expose the inadequacy of the merit system.
E) consumers should understand that labour costs contribute greatly to retail prices.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 193
Skill: Recall
5) The systematic mis-estimates that managers make of the pay of others in their firm suggests
that they will often
A) experience equity with regard to employees.
B) experience equity with regard to peers.
C) underestimate the value of a promotion.
D) underestimate the pay of employees.
E) overestimate the value of a promotion.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 193
Skill: A pplied
6) The Scanlon Plan is a type of __________ system.
A) piece rate pay
B) job enrichment
C) gain- sharing
D) MBO
E) skill- based
Answer: C
Page Ref: 196
Skill: Recall
7) Alice, a middle manager in an oil company, makes $35,000 a year. Her boss makes $41,000,
her peers average $33,000, and her employees average $29,000. Alice doesn't know the pay of
these coworkers, but we ask her to
guess. Research suggests that she will say
A) the peers average $30,000.
B) the employees average $28,000.
C) the peers average $34,000.
D) the boss makes $43,000.
E) the boss makes $45,000.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 193
Skill: A pplied
8) Joe, Margaret, and Denise are coworkers. Joe produces five widgets and is paid $5. Margaret
produces twenty widgets and is paid $20. Denise produces fifty widgets and is paid $50. These
workers are being paid according
to a(n)__________ pay plan.
A) hourly
B) Scanlon
C) piece rate
D) lump sum
E) merit
Answer: C
Page Ref: 188
Skill: A pplied
9) One reason why merit pay plans are employed with a much greater frequency than wage
incentive plans is that
A) white- collar workers particularly believe that performance should be an important
determinant of pay.
B) substantial evidence indicates that pay is directly related to performance under merit plans.
C) blue- collar jobs more often offer objective performance criteria with which pay can be
linked.
D) merit pay plans that are actually in use are very effective.
E) blue- collar workers tend to perceive a strong link between rewards and performance.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 190
Skill: Recall
10) The owner of Acme Manufacturing Company is thinking about introducing the Scanlon Plan.
This plan will most likely have the greatest impact on his employees'
A) working hours.
B) pay.
C) skill level.
D) autonomy.
E) job design.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 196
Skill: A pplied
11) Which system is specifically based on cost reduction?
A) MBO
B) Skill- based pay
C) Goal setting
D) Gain sharing
E) Merit pay
Answer: D
Page Ref: 196
Skill: Recall
12) Under a skill- based pay plan, people are paid according to
A) how skillfully they can perform their main job function.
B) their contribution to product or service quality.
C) the number of tasks they know how to perform.
D) their personal productivity.
E) the goals which have been established through MBO.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 196
Skill: Recall
13) An organization wishes to base pay on objective, measurable performance data, but the
performance of individual workers cannot be isolated and measured. Which system should it
adopt?
A) Hourly pay
B) Piece rate
C) Gain sharing
D) Merit pay
E) Skill- based pay
Answer: C
Page Ref: 196
Skill: A pplied
14) Which pay system is intentionally designed to motivate groups of employees rather than
individual employees?
A) Piece rate pay
B) Gain sharing
C) Goal setting
D) Skill- based pay
E) Merit pay
Answer: B
Page Ref: 196
Skill: Recall
15) The practices of Scientific Management seem LEAST compatible with
A) piece rate pay.
B) job enrichment.
C) goal setting.
D) high specialization.
E) close supervision.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 199
Skill: Recall
16) In general, we would not expect a high scope job to __________ than a low scope job.
A) pay more
B) involve more task variety
C) have higher "motivating potential"
D) have more job depth
E) conform more closely to the principles of Scientific Management
Answer: E
Page Ref: 199
Skill: A pplied
17) Debbie's job is very broad, but it has almost no depth. She is most likely a(n)
A) assembly line utility worker.
B) quality control inspector.
C) physician.
D) manager.
E) professor.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 200
Skill: A pplied
18) Al's job is very broad, but it has almost no depth. Al has a(n) __________ job.
A) enriched
B) high- scope
C) high autonomy
D) high MPS
E) low- scope
Answer: E
Page Ref: 199
Skill: A pplied
19) Which motivational technique is most closely associated with goal setting?
A) Wage incentives
B) Job sharing
C) Flextime
D) MBO
E) Job enrichment
Answer: D
Page Ref: 206
Skill: Recall
20) Which job enrichment technique would prove most threatening to workers with poor social
skills?
A) Combining tasks
B) Making feedback more direct
C) Reducing supervision
D) Establishing client relationships
E) Reducing reliance on others
Answer: D
Page Ref: 205
Skill: A pplied
21) Very strict union rules about who does what work are most likely to pose a problem for
installing which system?
A) Scanlon plan
B) Merit pay
C) Flextime
D) Job enrichment
E) Gainsharing
Answer: D
Page Ref: 206
Skill: A pplied
22) What is the motivating potential score (MPS) for this job profile? Variety = 1; identity = 2;
significance = 3; autonomy = 3; feedback = 5.
A) 90
B) 28
C) 30
D) 45
E) 14
Answer: C
23) According to Hackman and Oldham's Job Characteristic Model, employees should respond
most favourably to job enrichment when growth need strength is __________ and satisfaction
with job context factors is
__________.
A) moderate; low
B) low; high
C) low; low
D) high; low
E) high; high
Answer: E
Page Ref: 204
Skill: A pplied
24) In terms of job design, satisfaction with __________ would not be an example of context
satisfaction.
A) pay
B) workplace safety
C) autonomy
D) supervision
E) company policy
Answer: C
Page Ref: 204
Skill: A pplied
25) Which of the following is both a core job characteristic and a necessary condition for goals
to motivate performance?
A) Feedback
B) Context satisfaction
C) Pay
D) Identity
E) Growth need strength
Answer: A
Page Ref: 201
Skill: Recall
26) A company is thinking about enriching a certain job. Which of the following factors would
suggest that this strategy is incorrect?
A) The current job has a very high Motivating Potential Score (MPS).
B) The job knowledge and skills of the workers are very high.
C) Context satisfaction among the workers is very high.
D) Task significance is low.
E) The workers have very high growth need strength.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 201
Skill: A pplied
27) The degree to which a job has a substantial impact on the lives of other people, whether
those people are in the immediate organization or in the world at large is called
A) skill variety.
B) task significance.
C) feedback.
D) autonomy.
E) task identity.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 201
Skill: Recall
28) In Hackman and Oldham's Job Characteristics Model, which of the following is not a
psychological state?
A) Responsibility for outcomes
B) Knowledge of results
C) Significance of task
D) Meaningfulness of work
E) None of the above
Answer: C
Page Ref: 202
Skill: Recall
29) Veronica doesn't feel responsible for the outcomes of her work. According to Hackman and
Oldham's Job Characteristics Model, which core job characteristic is low?
A) Task significance
B) Skill variety
C) Feedback
D) Task identity
E) Autonomy
Answer: E
Page Ref: 202
Skill: A pplied
30) What is the motivating potential score (MPS) for a job in which all five core characteristics
are scored "4" on the Job Diagnostic Survey?
A) 48
B) 64
C) 96
D) 80
E) 20
Answer: B
31) According to the Job Characteristics Model, what should be done to increase experienced
responsibility for work outcomes?
A) Increase skill variety
B) Increase autonomy
C) Reduce feedback
D) Increase task significance
E) Reduce task identity
Answer: B
Page Ref: 202
Skill: A pplied
32) Ross's job is very low in feedback. According to Hackman and Oldham's Job Characteristics
Model, which psychological state will be most affected by this low feedback?
A) Experienced meaningfulness of the work
B) Experienced autonomy
C) Experienced identity of the work
D) Experienced responsibility for work outcomes
E) Knowledge of results of the work
Answer: E
Page Ref: 202
Skill: A pplied
33) Establishing client relationships is an example of which motivational strategy?
A) Goal setting
B) Gain sharing
C) Job sharing
D) Flextime
E) Job enrichment
Answer: E
Page Ref: 205
Skill: Recall
34) Which motivational strategy is most clearly associated with written agreements and
paperwork?
A) Compressed workweek
B) Job enrichment
C) Job sharing
D) Management by Objectives
E) Flextime
Answer: D
Page Ref: 207
Skill: Recall
35) One problem that may cause MBO to fail is that
A) workers may become fatigued because of longer working days.
B) the objectives are too specific.
C) MBO may lead to problems in achieving adequate supervisory coverage.
D) top management gets too involved in the MBO program.
E) performance reviews may become an exercise in punishing employees.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 208
Skill: A pplied
36) "Core time" is
A) a term associated with the compressed workweek.
B) the overlap in shifts between two workers who are job sharing.
C) the time frame over which goals are set in a Management by Objectives program.
D) the time under which pay is calculated at a base rate rather than an overtime rate.
E) the time when employees working under flex- time are all in the office.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 208
Skill: Recall
37) In a flex- time system, the period when all employees must be present at work is called
A) flexband.
B) compressed time.
C) nonflex.
D) core time.
E) full force.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 208
Skill: Recall
38) In a flex- time system, core time is
A) the amount of time an employee must work to acquire flextime privileges.
B) the total amount of time per week that each employee must work.
C) the time in excess of a normal work shift.
D) the time of the day when all employees must be present at work.
E) the time period within which employees are free to exercise flextime privileges.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 208
Skill: Recall
39) Which of the following consequences is least likely to occur as a result of flex- time or a
compressed workweek?
A) Increased performance
B) Worker acceptance of the system
C) Increased satisfaction
D) More time with family
E) Decreased absenteeism
Answer: A
Page Ref: 210
Skill: Recall
40) In its most simple form, people who work under a compressed workweek work
A) fewer days per week than normal.
B) fewer hours per month than normal.
C) less hours per day than normal.
D) fewer hours per week than normal.
E) less weeks per year than normal.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 210
Skill: Recall
41) Research on financial incentives and pay- for- performance plans have found that they
A) increase performance and lower turnover.
B) lower performance and lower turnover.
C) lower performance and increase turnover.
D) increase performance but have no effect on turnover.
E) have no effect on performance or turnover.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 187
Skill: Recall
42) What is job sharing?
A) Two jobs are combined into one and shared by two people
B) Two people help each other do their separate jobs
C) Two people do the work of three people
D) Two jobs are given to one individual
E) Two people do one job
Answer: E
Page Ref: 210
Skill: Recall
43) The extent to which an individual identifies psychologically with his/her work and the
importance of work to one's total self- image is known as
A) job involvement.
B) job enrichment.
C) experienced meaningfulness.
D) experienced responsibility for outcomes of the work.
E) task significance.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 204
Skill: Recall
44) A lump sum bonus is
A) a wage incentive that is awarded in a single payment and not built into base pay.
B) merit pay that is awarded in a single payment and built into base pay.
C) a wage incentive that is awarded in a single payment and built into base pay.
D) is a payment that employees receive as part of the Scanlon plan.
E) merit pay that is awarded in a single payment and not built into base pay.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 191
Skill: Recall
45) What is task identity?
A) The extent to which a job involves doing a complete piece of work, from beginning to end.
B) The extent to which an individual can identify the core tasks of a job.
C) The opportunity to do a variety of job activities using various skills and talents.
D) The extent to which an individual identifies psychologically with his/her job.
E) The impact that a job has on other people.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 201
Skill: Recall
46) Which of the following is most accurate about the importance of pay as a motivator?
A) employees and managers underestimate the importance of pay as a motivator
B) employees overestimate and managers underestimate the importance of pay as a motivator
C) employees underestimate and managers overestimate the importance of pay as a motivator
D) employees and managers overestimate the importance of pay as a motivator
E) employees overestimate the importance of pay as a motivator
Answer: A
Page Ref: 187
Skill: Recall
47) As the size of the team __________, the relationship between any individual's productivity
and his or her pay __________.
A) increases; increases
B) increases; becomes stable
C) decreases; will approach zero
D) decreases; decreases;
E) increases; decreases
Answer: E
Page Ref: 189
Skill: Recall
48) In a recent study in a unionized auto parts manufacturing plant, a Scanlon gainsharing
program had a positive effect on
A) scrap and waste reduction
B) labour required
C) number of errors made by employees
D) quality and quantity of parts
E) number of suggestions provided by employees
Answer: E
Page Ref: 196
Skill: Recall
49) If your boss has given you a stretch assignment, what does this mean?
A) you will have to get more accomplished in a shorter period of time
B) you will have to share your job with another employee
C) you will be working on a variety of tasks with new responsibilities
D) you will be working on a new task for an extended period of time
E) you have many more tasks to perform as part of your job
Answer: C
50) Where do the moderator variables in the Job Characteristics Model intervene?
A) between job characteristics and the critical psychological states
B) between job characteristics and growth need strength
C) between job characteristics and outcomes
D) between the critical psychological states and outcomes
E) between job characteristics and the critical psychological states and between the critical
psychological
states and outcomes
Answer: E
Page Ref: 202
Skill: Recall
51) Of the five core job characteristics, which ones have been found to be negatively and
consistently related to absenteeism?
A) task identity, task significance, and feedback
B) skill variety, task identity, and autonomy
C) skill variety, feedback, and autonomy
D) skill variety, task significance, and autonomy
E) skill variety, task identity, and task significance
Answer: B
Page Ref: 204
Skill: Recall
52) Where does the Job Characteristics Model falter in its predictions?
A) task identity and the critical psychological states
B) growth need strength and knowledge and skill
C) feedback and knowledge of results
D) growth need strength and context satisfaction
E) knowledge and skills and context satisfaction
Answer: D
Page Ref: 204
Skill: Recall
53) If your boss has decided to redesign your job using job enlargement, what does this mean?
A) you will have more job breadth
B) your will have more job scope
C) you will have more job depth
D) you will have more job breadth and less job depth
E) you will have less job breadth and more job depth
Answer: A
Page Ref: 205
Skill: A pplied
54) If your job has been redesigned so that you are given more boring, fragmented, routine tasks
to do, what has happened?
A) job shrinkage
B) job enrichment
C) job enlargement
D) job derichment
E) job engorgement
Answer: C
Page Ref: 205
Skill: A pplied
55) If your organization has just offered you the opportunity to work at a telework centre, what
does this mean?
A) you can spend part of the week working anywhere you want
B) you can work at home and telecommute
C) you can work anywhere you want all the time
D) you can work out of an office located near your home
E) you will no longer be able to have your own office
Answer: D
Page Ref: 212
Skill: A pplied
56) If you work for a company that has a distributed work program, what does this mean?
A) your can arrive and leave work when you want within certain time periods
B) you can work at a satellite office near your home
C) you must work at home and telecommute
D) you can either work at home and telecommute or work at the company's offices
E) you can work at home, at a satellite office, or at the company's offices
Answer: E
Page Ref: 212
Skill: A pplied
57) If your company allows employees to work at their business office, a satellite office, and/or a
home office, what kind of program do they have?
A) telework centre program
B) distributed work program
C) alternative work office program
D) telecommuting program
E) flexible work program
Answer: B
Page Ref: 211
Skill: A pplied
58) At Bell Canada, employees are eligible to participate in the company's __________ program.
A) telework centre
B) job sharing
C) distributed work
D) compressed workweek
E) distant staffing
Answer: C
Page Ref: 212
Skill: A pplied
59) What is the most common compressed workweek system?
A) the 4- 50 system
B) the 5- 50 system
C) the 4- 40 system
D) the 3- 40 system
E) the 5- 40 system
Answer: C
Page Ref: 210
Skill: Recall
60) A review of research on the compressed workweek concluded that
A) there is a positive effect on productivity
B) there is a positive effect on absenteeism
C) there is a positive effect on job satisfaction
D) there is a positive effect on satisfaction with one's boss
E) there is a positive effect on life satisfaction
Answer: C
CHAPTER 7
1) Temporarily organized groups that are formed to achieve particular goals or solve particular
problems are called
A) task forces.
B) work groups.
C) self- managed teams.
D) informal groups.
E) committees.
Answer: A
2) According to behavioural scientists,
A) groups have at least five members.
B) group members must interact face- to- face.
C) group members have a common goal and interact with each other.
D) members of larger groups tend to report higher levels of satisfaction.
E) informal groups are shown on organizational charts.
Answer: C
3) As a group size increases
A) members become less inhibited about participating in group activities.
B) the group becomes more socially elaborate.
C) members become more satisfied with group membership.
D) performance on conjunctive tasks improves.
E) the group consistently performs better.
Answer: B
4) Identify the proper sequence of group development activities.
A) Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning.
B) Norming, forming, storming, performing, adjourning.
C) Storming, forming, norming, performing, adjourning.
D) Forming, norming, storming, performing, adjourning.
E) Forming, storming, performing, norming, adjourning.
Answer: A
5) During which stage of group development is conflict likely to develop?
A) Performing
B) Forming
C) Norming
D) Adjourning
E) Storming
Answer: E
6) Which of the following equations is accurate?
A) Process losses = potential performance + actual performance
B) Potential performance = actual performance + process losses
C) Potential performance = actual performance - process losses
D) Actual performance = potential performance - process losses
E) Process performance = actual performance - process losses
Answer: D
Page Ref: 230
Skill: Recall
7) A group performing a disjunctive task will perform at the level of
A) the relative process loss.
B) its worst member.
C) the average performance of all its members.
D) the member who is most friendly to other members.
E) its best member.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 230
Skill: Recall
8) One reason for members reporting less satisfaction in larger groups is
A) people are less inhibited about participating in larger groups.
B) they have more time to develop friendships with other group members.
C) conflict and dissension are less likely in larger groups.
D) opportunities for participation increase in larger groups.
E) individual members can identify less easily with the success of the group.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 230
Skill: Recall
9) Which of the following is a primary feature of virtual teams?
A) Diversity of members.
B) Small group size.
C) Team member stability.
D) Superordinate goals.
E) Lack of face- to- face contact.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 249
Skill: Recall
10) A manager recommends an employee for a promotion because the employee stood up for the
manager during a leadership crisis. Which reward allocation norm led the superior to recommend
this employee for promotion?
A) Social responsibility
B) Reciprocity
C) Equity
D) Equality
E) Performance
Answer: B
Page Ref: 233
Skill: A pplied
11) On which task is the presence of only one poor performer most likely to damage group
performance?
A) Additive
B) Disjunctive
C) Conjunctive
D) Reflexive
E) Complexive
Answer: C
Page Ref: 230
Skill: Recall
12) A television news team consists of a reporter, a camera operator, and a sound technician.
Their job is to get good news reports to the station in time to make the evening news. A bad
story, a bad picture, or bad sound means
they have failed. This is a(n) __________ task.
A) complexive
B) additive
C) reflexive
D) disjunctive
E) conjunctive
Answer: E
Page Ref: 230
Skill: A pplied
13) Which of the following statements is most indicative of a process loss?
A) Carly was clearly the star of the group and they could not have completed the project on time
without her
participation.
B) As the task force got bigger, it encountered more coordination problems.
C) Nan experienced role conflict when her boss told her to do something that she felt was
unethical.
D) Bill forgot how to program FORTRAN computer language because he hadn't used it in ten
years.
E) Zeke worked harder when his colleagues were present than when he was alone.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 230
Skill: A pplied
14) The relationship between group size and group __________ is particularly complex and
highly contingent upon the task being performed.
A) member satisfaction
B) cohesiveness
C) performance
D) norms
E) member participation
Answer: C
Page Ref: 230
Skill: Recall
15) Which of the following is an example of process loss?
A) The source of the quality problems could have originated in any one of three separate
departments.
B) After they failed to land the big contract, the status of the sales staff decreased.
C) Because the group was so large, communication became a problem.
D) After losing the game, the team was much less cohesive.
E) No one in the group could remember how to work the video machine.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 230
Skill: A pplied
16) As a group performing an additive task gets bigger
A) potential group productivity decreases.
B) process losses decrease.
C) the average productivity per member decreases.
D) group cohesiveness should increase.
E) the performance of the best member becomes more critical to group success.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 230
Skill: A pplied
17) Which of the following is an additive task for a group?
A) Looking for a single error in a complicated computer program.
B) Passing water buckets along a human chain.
C) Picking grapes at harvest.
D) Working in a self- managed group.
E) Writing a short story.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 230
Skill: A pplied
18) Diverse groups tend to develop more __________ than less diverse groups.
A) poorly
B) loyalty norms
C) quickly
D) slowly
E) roles
Answer: D
Page Ref: 231
Skill: Recall
19) Tasks that depend on the performance of the best group member's performance are
A) disjunctive.
B) conjunctive.
C) complexive.
D) injunctive.
E) reflexive.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 230
Skill: Recall
20) Which of the following is an example of a process loss?
A) reduced status
B) performance norm
C) loyalty norm
D) social loafing
E) disjunctive task
Answer: D
Page Ref: 241
Skill: A pplied
21) The group had trouble coordinating its efforts because it was so big. This is an example of
A) a conjunctive task.
B) punctuated equilibrium.
C) a process loss.
D) role ambiguity.
E) social loafing.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 230
Skill: A pplied
22) In the punctuated equilibrium model of group development, a critical point occurs
A) when the group enters the storming stage.
B) toward the end of Phase 2.
C) at the midpoint of the group's allotted time until deadline.
D) at the midpoint of the volume of work that has to be accomplished.
E) at the middle of Phase 1.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 228
Skill: Recall
23) In the punctuated equilibrium model of group development, the midpoint transition occurs
A) at the beginning of Phase 1.
B) as the group enters the storming stage.
C) at the end of Phase 2.
D) when half the group's work is done.
E) when half the group's time is elapsed.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 228
Skill: Recall
24) In the stage model of group development, conflict is a particular problem
A) in the stage after norming.
B) in the forming stage.
C) in the stage before norming.
D) in the performing stage.
E) in the adjourning stage.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 228
Skill: Recall
25) Lisa is a very religious person whose boss tells her to offer an illegal bribe to a government
official to obtain a lucrative contract. What kind of role conflict is she experiencing?
A) Interrole
B) Intersender
C) Intrasender
D) Person- role
E) Role ambiguity
Answer: D
Page Ref: 235
Skill: Applied
26) Darlene is a physician who is employed as the director of research for a large drug company.
She often worries that her actions as a manager could possibly violate the physicians' code of
professional conduct. This is most
clearly an example of __________ conflict.
A) intersender
B) interrole
C) intrasender
D) role ambiguity
E) person- role
Answer: B
Page Ref: 235
Skill: Applied
27) Who is experiencing interrole conflict?
A) The plant manager debated in his mind whether he should open the valve and risk polluting
the
environment.
B) Jack is vice-president of sales and marketing.
C) The head of engineering told Jan to do one thing and the head of design told her to do the
opposite.
D) Michael's boss told him to relax as he handed him another report to finish by the end of the
day.
E) The straw boss on the construction job was unsure if he was a worker or a supervisor.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 235
Skill: Applied
28) The members of a work group are paid a group bonus according to the productivity of the
group. Because of this, each member expects the other to perform at the highest level. This
expectation is an example of which
aspect of group structure?
A) A role
B) A norm
C) Cohesiveness
D) Status
E) A disjunctive task
Answer: B
Page Ref: 232
Skill: Applied
29) Which of the following statements about norms is true?
A) Norms are generally unrelated to attitudes.
B) Roles are made up of "packages" of norms.
C) Norms cannot be targeted at a specific individual.
D) A person can have his or her own private, personal norm.
E) Norms are not an aspect of group structure.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 232
Skill: Applied
30) The workforce petitioned management to be paid on an individual piece rate basis. Which
reward allocation norm do the workers favour?
A) Loyalty
B) Social responsibility
C) Equality
D) Reciprocity
E) Equity
Answer: E
Page Ref: 233
Skill: Applied
31) The boss who constantly changes his mind can cause uncertainty for an employee. To put
this another way,
A) role ambiguity can cause interrole conflict.
B) role ambiguity can cause intersender role conflict.
C) intersender role conflict can cause interrole conflict.
D) intrasender role conflict can cause role ambiguity.
E) person- role conflict can cause role ambiguity.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 235
Skill: Applied
32) Which aspect of group structure most closely reflects the way members evaluate each other?
A) Roles
B) Diversity
C) Norms
D) Status
E) Size
Answer: D
Page Ref: 236
Skill: Recall
33) Higher status group members __________ than lower status members.
A) have more influence
B) communicate more
C) are addressed more frequently
D) participate more
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Page Ref: 236
Skill: Recall
34) Which of the following statements about status and communication is true?
A) Most people like to communicate with others at their own status or lower.
B) People can be inhibited from communicating upward if status differences are large.
C) Communication has a tendency to move down the status hierarchy.
D) Lower- status members do more talking.
E) Status has very little relation to communication in organizations.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 236
Skill: Recall
35) Janice thought that her summer job as a municipal garbage collector would be easy.
Unfortunately, her supervisor tells her to do one thing one day and the exact opposite the next
day. Janice's role ambiguity
A) is inherent in the job she performs.
B) stems from a role sender.
C) is a function of person- role conflict.
D) is a function of intersender role conflict.
E) stems from the social facilitation effect.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 235
Skill: Applied
36) Which of the following statements about status is true?
A) All organizations have both formal and informal status systems.
B) In organizations, status symbols are more a part of the informal status system than the formal
status
system.
C) In most organizations, formal and informal status systems are equivalent.
D) Most organizations try not to tie status symbols to assigned roles.
E) Informal status in the organization into the community
Answer: A
Page Ref: 236
Skill: Recall
37) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Equity norms allocate rewards equally to everyone in the group.
B) People with similar attitudes are less likely to form a group than those with different attitudes.
C) The "class clown" fills an emergent role in his or her school.
D) A group has at least three members.
E) Moving a heavy crate is a disjunctive task.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 233
Skill: Applied
38) Positions in a group that have attached to them a set of expected behaviors are called
A) norms.
B) roles.
C) status symbols.
D) conjunctive tasks.
E) attributes.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 233
Skill: Recall
39) Robin is a member of a task force that may do away with her own department. Robin is most
obviously experiencing
A) person- role conflict.
B) intrasender role conflict.
C) interrole conflict.
D) intersender role conflict.
E) role ambiguity.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 235
Skill: A pplied
40) Which of the following types of role conflict is most likely to provoke role ambiguity?
A) Interrole conflict
B) Intrasender role conflict
C) Status- role conflict
D) Intersender role conflict
E) Person- role conflict
Answer: B
Page Ref: 235
Skill: Recall
41) The first-line supervisor who serves as the interface between "management" and "the
workers" is most likely to experience __________ role conflict when labour relations are poor.
A) intersender
B) boundary
C) status
D) intrasender
E) person- role
Answer: A
Page Ref: 235
Skill: A pplied
42) Which of the following factors is most influential in achieving formal organizational status?
A) Assigned role in the organization
B) Nationality and religion
C) Ability to perform disjunctive tasks
D) Age
E) Loyalty norms
Answer: A
Page Ref: 236
Skill: Recall
43) The task force is large, successful, and experiencing moderate threat. Which factor would
most likely prevent the task force from being cohesive?
A) The threat
B) Its tough initiation procedures
C) Its homogeneous makeup
D) Its success
E) Its size
Answer: E
Page Ref: 239
Skill: A pplied
44) Highly cohesive work groups almost always
A) accomplish their own goals effectively.
B) produce more than less cohesive groups.
C) accomplish the goals of the organization effectively.
D) produce less than less cohesive groups.
E) have high levels of turnover.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 240
Skill: Recall
45) Which factor is least likely to promote group cohesiveness?
A) Small group size
B) Losing a contest
C) Competing in a contest
D) Experiencing a tough initiation into the group
E) Winning a contest
Answer: B
Page Ref: 238
Skill: A pplied
46) Highly cohesive groups tend to be __________ than less cohesive groups.
A) larger
B) more or less productive
C) more conflict- ridden
D) less productive
E) more productive
Answer: B
Page Ref: 240
Skill: Recall
47) Which of the following statements concerning group cohesiveness is false?
A) Smaller groups generally have a more difficult time becoming and staying cohesive.
B) Under extreme threat or loss of a contest, group cohesiveness is likely to suffer.
C) Groups that are tough to get into should be more attractive than those that are easy to join.
D) Voluntary turnover from highly cohesive groups should be low.
E) A group becomes more attractive to its members when it has successfully accomplished some
important
goal.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 239
Skill: A pplied
48) Organizations that allocate rewards to those who truly need the rewards have adopted a
reward system that is
based on a(n) __________ norm.
A) loyalty
B) social responsibility
C) reciprocity
D) equity
E) equality
Answer: B
Page Ref: 233
Skill: Recall
49) Social loafing is an example of
A) punctuated equilibrium.
B) a disjunctive task
C) role ambiguity.
D) a process loss.
E) role conflict.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 241
Skill: A pplied
50) Conventional specialized __________ usually disappear when effective self- managed teams
are used by
organizations.
A) tasks
B) aspirations
C) roles
D) values
E) norms
Answer: C
Page Ref: 244
Skill: Recall
51) A successful self- managed work team would probably not be
A) high in expertise.
B) high in social skills.
C) performing an interesting task.
D) extremely large.
E) highly cohesive.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 244
Skill: Recall
52) Which factor is most important in leading to the success of a self- managed work team?
A) Large size
B) An interesting task
C) Great similarity of members
D) Extra pay
E) Great diversity of members
Answer: B
Page Ref: 243
Skill: A pplied
53) Self- managed work groups typically
A) are used only for white- collar work.
B) suffer from the free rider effect.
C) have highly specialized, carefully defined roles within the group.
D) must have stable membership to be effective.
E) perform best when assigned to very routine tasks.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 244
Skill: A pplied
54) What kind of tasks are most appropriate for self- managed work groups?
A) Conjunctive
B) Blue- collar
C) Complex and challenging
D) Routine and boring
E) White- collar
Answer: C
Page Ref: 243
Skill: Recall
55) All relevant specialties should be included when designing
A) virtual teams.
B) self- managed teams.
C) cross- functional teams.
D) task forces.
E) any kind of team.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 249
Skill: Recall
56) The technologies used by virtual teams tend to be
A) asynchronous ones.
B) synchronous ones.
C) chat and groupware.
D) email, faxes, and voice mail.
E) either asynchronous or synchronous ones.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 249
Skill: Recall
57) Virtual teams are
A) groups that use technology to communicate and collaborate across time, space, and
organizational
boundaries.
B) groups of individuals who are always available when the organization needs to form a team.
C) groups that use technology to accomplish their tasks and communicate with other groups in
the
organization.
D) groups of people who have expertise in technology and are always available when needed to
complete a
task.
E) groups that exist throughout an organization and include customers and suppliers.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 249
Skill: Recall
58) Which of the following is the most accurate statement about virtual teams?
A) Although the were once a dream, it now appears that they will never deliver the benefits that
many had
hoped for.
B) Although they were once a dream, they are now being used by a small and select group of
companies.
C) Although they still remain a dream, some companies plan to begin using them in the next five
to ten years.
D) Although they still remain a dream, some companies are now experimenting with them.
E) Although the were once a dream, they are now spreading and are used by numerous
companies.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 249
Skill: Recall
59) Which one of the following is not an advantage of virtual teams?
A) Reduced travel time.
B) Trust.
C) Around- the- clock work.
D) Larger talent pool.
E) Reduced cost.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 249
Skill: Recall
60) Research on virtual teams has found that they reduced instances of
A) discrimination.
B) personality conflicts.
C) stereotyping.
D) the formation of cliques.
E) All of the above.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 251
Skill: Recall
61) A major disadvantage of virtual teams is that they increase
A) personality conflicts.
B) instances of discrimination.
C) miscommunication.
D) stereotyping.
E) the formation of cliques.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 251
Skill: Recall
62) Work groups that bring people with different functional specialties together to better invent,
design, or deliver a product or service are called
A) virtual teams.
B) task forces.
C) self- managed teams.
D) cross- functional teams.
E) formal teams.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 247
Skill: Recall
63) What does Rubbermaid, Thermos, Ford, and Rolls- Royce have in common?
A) They have all used task forces.
B) They have all used self- managed teams.
C) They have all used virtual teams.
D) They have all had bad experiences with teams.
E) They have all used cross- functional teams.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 247
Skill: Recall
64) Superordinate goals are an important factor that contribute to the effectiveness of
A) informal groups.
B) virtual teams.
C) cohesive groups.
D) cross- functional teams.
E) self- managed teams.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 249
Skill: Recall
CHAPTER 11
1) The well- structured problem does not exhibit which of the following characteristics?
A) existing state is clear
B) uncertainty about what to do
C) certainty about what to do
D) desired state is clear
E) problem is repetitive and familiar
Answer: B
Page Ref: 375
Skill: Recall
2) Which of the following is another name for a programmed problem solution technique?
A) rules of thumb
B) routines
C) rules
D) standard operating procedures
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Page Ref: 375
Skill: Recall
3) One is most likely to see a program used to make a(n) __________ decision.
A) important
B) executive- level
C) routine
D) ill- structured
E) unique
Answer: C
Page Ref: 375
Skill: A pplied
4) Which of the following most clearly involves a decision program?
A) A task force to improve company image
B) A corporate merger
C) A standing order to a supplier
D) A medical ethics committee
E) A billion dollar investment decision
Answer: C
Page Ref: 375
Skill: A pplied
5) The ill- structured problem is one where the
A) existing state is unclear, desired state is clear.
B) existing state is clear, desired state is clear.
C) existing state is unclear, desired state is unclear.
D) existing state is clear, desired state is unclear.
E) existing state is clear but the method of getting to the desired state is unknown.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 376
Skill: Recall
6) At what part of an organization would an ill- structured problem most likely be encountered?
A) The top of the hierarchy
B) The bottom of the hierarchy
C) Ill- structured problems are equally likely throughout the organizational hierarchy
D) Where the bottom of the hierarchy meets the middle
E) The middle of the hierarchy
Answer: A
Page Ref: 376
Skill: Recall
7) Which of the following problems would most likely be solved with a program (that is, using
programmed decision- making)?
A) In which part of the country should we locate our new business?
B) Which candidate should we choose to be vice- president of marketing?
C) How many workers should we call out to staff the assembly line next week?
D) Should this convict be granted parole?
E) Should we merge with this company or not?
Answer: C
Page Ref: 375
Skill: A pplied
8) Which of the following is characteristic of well- structured problems?
A) They often entail high risk.
B) They frequently arouse controversy and conflict among those interested in the problem.
C) They are unusual and have not been encountered before.
D) The existing state and the desired state are understood.
E) They tend to be complex and involve a high degree of uncertainty.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 375
Skill: Recall
9) A program would most likely be used
A) to solve a risky problem.
B) to solve problems dealt with by top management.
C) to justify group decision- making.
D) to solve an ill- structured problem.
E) to solve a well- structured problem.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 375
Skill: Recall
1
0) Which of the following is an example of an ill- structured problem?
A) The sales manager must decide what to do about sales that seem sluggish.
B) The production manager must decide how many workers to schedule on the line next week.
C) The assistant bank manager must decide which automobile loan applications to approve.
D) The retailer must decide whether to reorder lawn chairs.
E) The welfare officer must decide how much assistance a particular client should receive.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 376
Skill: A pplied
11) Economic Person does not
A) have adequate information to make good decisions.
B) use logic in making decisions.
C) use economic gain to evaluate the correctness of decisions.
D) make rational decisions.
E) make decisions like the average consumer or manager.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 376
Skill: Recall
12) Nonprogrammed decision- making
A) is most likely to be required at lower levels of the organizational hierarchy.
B) is used to solve well- structured problems.
C) may stimulate strong political considerations.
D) tends to involve much certainty.
E) is used to solve repetitive problems.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 377
Skill: Recall
13) Managers who exhibit bounded rationality
A) might be operating under time constraints.
B) might be factoring political considerations into decisions.
C) might be subject to cognitive biases.
D) might be limited in their capacity to acquire and process information.
E) all of the above.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 377
Skill: Recall
14) In evaluating alternative solutions, decision- makers with bounded rationality
A) tend to exhibit maximization.
B) often consider the political acceptability of the solution to other organizational members.
C) rarely engage in satisficing.
D) know the ultimate value of each alternative.
E) know the probability that each alternative will work.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 381
Skill: Recall
15) When he heard that turnover was increasing, the human resource manager immediately told
the president that salaries would have to be raised. Unfortunately, low pay wasn't the cause of the
turnover. Which decision- making error did the manager commit?
A) He treated sunk costs improperly.
B) He defined the problem in terms of a solution.
C) He exhibited the knew- it- all- along effect.
D) He revealed a confirmation bias.
E) He escalated commitment.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 378
Skill: A pplied
16) Information overload is likely to lead to
A) lower satisfaction with the ultimate decision.
B) only relevant information influencing decision- making.
C) higher quality decisions.
D) fast decision- making.
E) greater confidence by managers in their decisions.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 379
Skill: A pplied
17) Mark has two alternatives. There is a 50 percent chance that he will earn $120,000 if he
accepts a government contract. If he decides not to accept the contract and instead continues on
his present project he has an 80 percent chance of earning $100,000. If Mark is a perfectly
rational decision- maker which of the following
statements is true?
A) He will accept the government contract.
B) His expected value of continuing on the present project is $80,000.
C) He will revise his earnings estimate on the government contract to make it more attractive.
D) He will ignore economic criteria in making his decision.
E) He will attempt to satisfice.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 380
Skill: A pplied
18) At which stage of the rational decision- making model is information overload a particular
problem?
A) Problem identification
B) Implement chosen solution
C) Monitor and evaluate chosen solution
D) Evaluate alternative solutions
E) Search for relevant information
Answer: E
Page Ref: 379
Skill: Recall
19) Which of the following is an example of faulty hindsight?
A) The small business owner who had been let down by a supplier gave the supplier another
large order.
B) Suki decided to spend more money upgrading her old computer instead of buying a new one.
C) Alan erroneously predicted that his superiors would favour the reorganization plan.
D) The small business owner could never forget how she had been let down by a particular
supplier.
E) When it became clear that the investment was a poor one, Pierre realized that he had known it
was bad all along.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 384
Skill: A pplied
20) Which of the following is an example of diffusion of responsibility?
A) The surgery team decided on a more conservative operating technique when they discussed
the operation
face- to- face.
B) A firing squad of ten soldiers was used to execute the prisoner.
C) After her boss's decision turned out to be wrong, Sally said she knew all along that it was
wrong.
D) Paul allows his secretary to make certain decisions without consulting him.
E) As Douglas accepted the award on behalf of his department he made a point of
acknowledging the
contributions of his colleagues.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 385
Skill: A pplied
21) Escalation of commitment
A) is the most common outcome of information overload.
B) runs counter to the general tendency for decision- makers to try to justify their actions.
C) only occurs when the decision- maker is responsible for beginning a course of action.
D) involves committing more and more resources to a failing course of action.
E) illustrates how decision- makers often ignore sunk costs.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 383
Skill: Recall
22) Escalation of commitment to a failing course of action
A) only occurs if the decision- maker was personally responsible for the initial loss.
B) is the most common outcome of information overload.
C) only occurs in highly competitive situations.
D) is what defines the occurrence of a risky shift.
E) shows how people may treat sunk costs improperly.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 383
Skill: Recall
23) Managers must often rely upon others when making decisions and solving problems. At what
stage of the rational decision- making process does reliance upon others often cause special
problems?
A) Evaluation of alternative solutions
B) Development of alternative solutions
C) Solution implementation
D) Solution choice
E) Information search
Answer: C
Page Ref: 383
Skill: Recall
24) Who failed to treat sunk costs properly?
A) The manager who escalated commitment
B) The leader of the group that exhibited groupthink
C) The devil's advocate in the meeting
D) The politician who cancelled the public works project
E) The salesperson who acted unethically
Answer: A
Page Ref: 383
Skill: A pplied
25) Which of the following is probably an example of the irrational treatment of sunk costs?
A) The company president decided to cancel the expansion project even though construction
work had already begun.
B) Jim studied the computer output for two hours before the big meeting, but he couldn't use the
information. Before the next meeting he studied the output for four hours.
C) The pilot feared landing on the remote airstrip because there had been an accident there the
day before.
D) Mary obtained much more information than she needed in order to make a decision on the
leasing arrangement.
E) Janine had her travel agent book two flights for her to New York so that she was certain not to
miss the big meeting.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 383
Skill: A pplied
26) Decision- makers who establish an adequate level of acceptability for a solution and then
screen solutions until one that exceeds this level is found are
A) diffusers.
B) optimizers.
C) satisficers.
D) rationalizers.
E) maximizers.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 381
Skill: Recall
27) Satisficing is a concept that is most associated with
A) implementing a solution.
B) searching for information.
C) choosing a solution.
D) monitoring a solution.
E) identifying a problem.
Answer: C
20) Which of the following is an example of diffusion of responsibility?
A) The surgery team decided on a more conservative operating technique when they discussed
the operation
face- to- face.
B) A firing squad of ten soldiers was used to execute the prisoner.
C) After her boss's decision turned out to be wrong, Sally said she knew all along that it was
wrong.
D) Paul allows his secretary to make certain decisions without consulting him.
E) As Douglas accepted the award on behalf of his department he made a point of
acknowledging the
contributions of his colleagues.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 385
Skill: A pplied
21) Escalation of commitment
A) is the most common outcome of information overload.
B) runs counter to the general tendency for decision- makers to try to justify their actions.
C) only occurs when the decision- maker is responsible for beginning a course of action.
D) involves committing more and more resources to a failing course of action.
E) illustrates how decision- makers often ignore sunk costs.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 383
Skill: Recall
22) Escalation of commitment to a failing course of action
A) only occurs if the decision- maker was personally responsible for the initial loss.
B) is the most common outcome of information overload.
C) only occurs in highly competitive situations.
D) is what defines the occurrence of a risky shift.
E) shows how people may treat sunk costs improperly.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 383
Skill: Recall
23) Managers must often rely upon others when making decisions and solving problems. At what
stage of the
rational decision- making process does reliance upon others often cause special problems?
A) Evaluation of alternative solutions
B) Development of alternative solutions
C) Solution implementation
D) Solution choice
E) Information search
Answer: C
Page Ref: 383
Skill: Recall
24) Who failed to treat sunk costs properly?
A) The manager who escalated commitment
B) The leader of the group that exhibited groupthink
C) The devil's advocate in the meeting
D) The politician who cancelled the public works project
E) The salesperson who acted unethically
Answer: A
Page Ref: 383
Skill: A pplied
25) Which of the following is probably an example of the irrational treatment of sunk costs?
A) The company president decided to cancel the expansion project even though construction
work had already begun.
B) Jim studied the computer output for two hours before the big meeting, but he couldn't use the
information. Before the next meeting he studied the output for four hours.
C) The pilot feared landing on the remote airstrip because there had been an accident there the
day before.
D) Mary obtained much more information than she needed in order to make a decision on the
leasing arrangement.
E) Janine had her travel agent book two flights for her to New York so that she was certain not to
miss the big meeting.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 383
Skill: A pplied
26) Decision- makers who establish an adequate level of acceptability for a solution and then
screen solutions until one that exceeds this level is found are
A) diffusers.
B) optimizers.
C) satisficers.
D) rationalizers.
E) maximizers.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 381
Skill: Recall
27) Satisficing is a concept that is most associated with
A) implementing a solution.
B) searching for information.
C) choosing a solution.
D) monitoring a solution.
E) identifying a problem.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 381
Skill: Recall
28) According to the anchoring effect, people
A) don't adjust successive estimates enough in the face of new information.
B) rely too much on the most recent information received.
C) depend too much on problem solutions developed by others.
D) resist problem solutions developed by others.
E) tend to invest additional resources in an apparently failing course of action.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 381
Skill: Recall
29) Which of the following is a problem frame?
A) How the decision- makers are rewarded
B) How the solution is evaluated
C) How the solution is implemented
D) How the problem is solved
E) How the problem is stated
Answer: E
Page Ref: 382
Skill: A pplied
30) Sharon framed the problem as a choice between two losses. What is she likely to do now?
A) Ignore economic considerations
B) Make a risky decision
C) Make a conservative decision
D) Ignore sunk costs
E) Ignore sample sizes
Answer: B
Page Ref: 382
Skill: A pplied
31) After group discussion, group members tend to make decisions that are __________ the
positions of individual members before discussion.
A) more risky or more conservative than
B) equal to the average risk of
C) more risky than
D) less risky or less conservative than
E) more conservative than
Answer: A
Page Ref: 393
Skill: A pplied
32) Diffusion of responsibility might contribute to
A) conservative shifts.
B) information overload.
C) confirmation bias.
D) risky shifts.
E) hindsight.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 393
Skill: A pplied
33) Which of the following is not a characteristic of groupthink?
A) Group members censor themselves from bringing up issues which are contrary to the group
consensus.
B) The group constructs unfavourable stereotypes of outsiders.
C) Much conformity occurs in the group.
D) The group experiences much dissension and argument.
E) The group sees itself as morally correct.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 391
Skill: Recall
34) The manager who wishes to diffuse responsibility for a potentially incorrect decision should
A) use nonprogrammed decision- making.
B) make the decision herself.
C) be prepared to accept the sunk costs associated with the decision.
D) use a group to make the decision.
E) disregard the rational decision- making model.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 390
Skill: A pplied
35) A devil's advocate is
A) a group member that everyone dislikes.
B) a group member who bullies other members into accepting the group consensus.
C) a genuinely evil person.
D) a person who intentionally stimulates controversy.
E) a person who smoothes over conflict.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 395
Skill: Recall
36) According to the groupthink theory, group members who are overconfident and willing to
assume great risks are suffering from
A) the knew- it- all- along effect.
B) an illusion of unanimity.
C) the conservative shift phenomenon.
D) an illusion of invulnerability.
E) an escalation of commitment.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 391
Skill: A pplied
37) What is a strong cause of groupthink?
A) Conflict exists within the group.
B) The group contains a devil's advocate.
C) The group leader favours a particular decision.
D) The absence of mindguards.
E) Group members feel too free to speak their minds.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 391
Skill: Recall
38) After meeting together, the members of the venture capital group decided not to fund any
more projects for the year. Before the meeting, some members had been cautiously in favour of
funding. What happened?
A) Hindsight
B) Groupthink
C) Diffusion of responsibility
D) Risky shift
E) Conservative shift
Answer: E
Page Ref: 393
Skill: A pplied
39) Illusion of invulnerability, illusion of morality, and illusion of unanimity are all
characteristics of
A) risky shift.
B) maximization.
C) hindsight.
D) confirmation bias.
E) groupthink.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 391
Skill: Recall
40) Which of the following is a potential example of the risky shift?
A) Steve decided to take an elective course in statistics even though he wasn't very good at
quantitative subjects.
B) A manager quit her secure job in a large company to start her own business even though she
had to mortgage her house.
C) The board of directors voted to proceed with the expansion even though it would cost $10
million more than originally planned.
D) Three partners were uncertain about expanding their business. After discussing the matter,
they decided to expand even though the economy was bad.
E) A drug company put a new drug on the market even though it was possible that the drug
would provoke bad side effects.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 393
Skill: A pplied
41) Which is an example of a conservative shift?
A) The individual city councilors were moderately opposed to the expensive bond issue. During
the council meeting, so many negative points were raised that the bond issue was soundly
defeated.
B) After reading an article about the economy in Business Week Frank decided not to expand his
small business.
C) Because of the recession, the construction firm lowered its profit margin to get more of its
bids accepted.
D) Coach Smith decided to play it safe and kick a field goal rather than having the injured
quarterback try a pass.
E) Several board members were cautiously optimistic about the merger proposal before the
meeting. During the board meeting, so many problems were cited that the proposal was
unanimously defeated.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 362
Skill: A pplied
42) When people can brainstorm electronically, entering their ideas at computer terminals,
A) group brainstorming is superior to individual brainstorming.
B) brainstorming is superior to the nominal group technique.
C) less flaming is likely to occur.
D) individual brainstorming is superior to group brainstorming.
E) group brainstorming works as well as individual brainstorming.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 396
Skill: Recall
43) A key advantage of the use of electronic brainstorming groups is that
A) as group size increases, so does flaming.
B) as group size increases, so does the idea generation.
C) as group size increases, so do individual inhibitions.
D) as group size increases, so does social loafing.
E) None of the above.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 396
Skill: Recall
44) Conventional (i.e. nonelectronic) brainstorming
A) is a decision- making technique in which the decision- makers do not meet face- to- face.
B) is not a very effective technique for generating ideas.
C) is more effective at generating ideas than the nominal group technique.
D) is a method of training discussion leaders to help groups make more effective decisions.
E) is a technique for evaluating solutions to problems.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 395
Skill: Recall
45) If we employ __________ to improve decisions, the participants never meet face- to- face.
A) a devil's advocate
B) the nominal group technique
C) brainstorming
D) group discussion
E) the Delphi technique
Answer: E
Page Ref: 397
Skill: Recall
46) Which technique of improving decision- making involves the use of several waves of
questionnaires and requires a lot of time?
A) The nominal group technique
B) Brainstorming
C) Group discussion
D) The Delphi technique
E) Electronic brainstorming
Answer: D
47) Which of the following is a benefit of using electronic brainstorming systems?
A) Less risky decisions than face- to- face groups.
B) The ability to "flame" someone anonymously.
C) Impulsive communication.
D) People feel more accountable for electronic decisions.
E) Participation is more equally distributed among members.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 396
Skill: A pplied
48) In what kind of decisions does mood have its greatest impact?
A) Certain and well- structured.
B) Uncertain and ambiguous.
C) Well- structured and unambiguous.
D) Uncertain and ill- structured.
E) Certain and unambiguous.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 386
Skill: Recall
49) Which of the following accurately describes the effect of moods on decision making?
A) Mood affects what but not how people think when making decisions.
B) Mood affects what and how people think when making decisions.
C) Only a positive mood has an affect on how people think when making decisions.
D) Mood does not affect what or how people think when making decisions.
E) Mood affects how but not what people think when making decisions.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 386
Skill: Recall
50) What is most likely to lead one to adopt a simplified, short- cut decision- making strategy
that is likely to violate
the rational model?
A) A positive emotion.
B) A negative emotion.
C) A positive mood.
D) The lack of emotion.
E) A negative mood.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 386
Skill: Recall
51) What three things are noteworthy about the definition of decision making?
A) choice, problem, and resources
B) choice, problem, and program
C) choice, problem, and process
D) problem, process, and resources
E) choice, process, and resources
Answer: E
Page Ref: 374
Skill: Recall
52) Ineffective hiring decisions are a good example of
A) confirmation bias
B) escalation of commitment
C) the difficulties of nonprogrammed decision making
D) bounded rationality
E) the difficulties of programmed decision making
Answer: E
Page Ref: 375
Skill: Recall
53) What did Nobel Prize winner Herbert Simon recognize?
A) the perfectly rational characteristics of Economic Person do not exist in real decision makers
B) the existence of groupthink
C) the characteristics of Economic Person
D) the usefulness of programmed decision making
E) the usefulness of nonprogrammed decision making
Answer: A
Page Ref: 376
Skill: Recall
54) The following illustrate the operation of bounded rationality except
A) political considerations
B) emotions and moods
C) framing
D) cognitive biases
E) maximization
Answer: E
Page Ref: 380
Skill: Recall
55) You have just applied for a job and when completing the application form you were
surprised to see questions about your age and marital status. Such questions would seem to
violate equal employment and human rights legislation and not likely to be related to the job. It
made you wonder why a company would ask these questions. What is a good explanation for
this?
A) cognitive biases
B) difficulties of programmed decision making
C) difficulties of nonprogrammed decision making
D) bounded rationality
E) information overload
Answer: B
Page Ref: 375
Skill: A pplied
56) Which of the following is an example of an ill- structured problem?
A) Which of these 10 car loan applications should I approve?
B) How much weight should I carry?
C) In which part of the country should we build a new plant?
D) How much assistance should this client receive?
E) all of the above
Answer: C
Page Ref: 376
Skill: A pplied
57) The following are difficulties that can result from bounded rationality in problem
identification except
A) problem diagnosed in terms of symptoms
B) perceptual defence
C) problem defined as ill- structured
D) problem defined in terms of solution
E) problem defined in terms of functional specialty
Answer: C
Page Ref: 378
Skill: Recall
58) Sales at the Smelly Cheese Company had been down all year. Management met to try and
identify the problem. The marketing manager which convinced that the problem was poor
marketing. The manager of human resources believed the problem was employee motivation.
What is the difficulty they are having?
A) too little information
B) perceptual defence
C) problem defined in terms of solution
D) problem defined in terms of functional specialty
E) problem diagnosed in terms of symptoms
Answer: D
Page Ref: 378
Skill: A pplied
59) When Thelma's boss said, "What we have here is a morale problem" what was she doing?
A) confirmation bias
B) hindsight
C) defining a problem in terms of solution
D) defining a problem in terms of functional specialty
E) diagnosing a problem in terms of symptoms
Answer: E
Page Ref: 378
Skill: A pplied
60) Which of the following is a cognitive bias that contributes to decision makers failure to
acquire enough information to make a good decision?
A) perceptual defence
B) anchoring effect
C) satisficing
D) confirmation bias
E) hindsight
Answer: D
Page Ref: 379
Skill: Recall
61) Decision makers violate statistical principles at what stage of the decision making process?
A) solution evaluation
B) alternative development, evaluation, and choice
C) information search
D) solution implementation
E) problem identification
Answer: B
Page Ref: 381
Skill: Recall
62) After graduating from university your are planning to get a job as an accountant. Your best
friend Jay is planning on opening his own restaurant. He says he has thought a great deal about
his this and believes he will be very successful and it is a good decision. You explain to him the
fact that most new restaurants fail but it does factor into Jay's decision. What does this
demonstrate?
A) perceptual defence
B) sunk costs
C) hindsight
D) anchoring effect
E) base rates
Answer: E
Page Ref: 381
Skill: A pplied
63) Absenteeism has become a problem at the Smelly Cheese Company so the human resource
manager has decided to do something about it. He has decided to choose the first solution he
comes across that will get the level to what it was in the previous year. What is this an example
of?
A) anchoring effect
B) framing
C) confirmation bias
D) satisficing
E) sunk costs
Answer: D
Page Ref: 381
Skill: A pplied
64) Research by Daniel Kahneman and Amos Tversky shows that
A) when people view a problem as a choice between gains, they tend to make risky decisions
B) when people view a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make poor decisions
C) when people view a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make better decisions
D) when people view a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make risky decisions
E) when people view a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make conservative
decisions
Answer: D
Page Ref: 382
Skill: Recall
65) Which of the following accurately depicts the relationship between personality and
escalation?
A) people high on neuroticism and low on negative affectivity are less likely to escalate
B) people low on neuroticism and high on negative affectivity are more likely to escalate
C) people high on neuroticism and high on negative affectivity are more likely to escalate
D) people high on neuroticism and high on negative affectivity are less likely to escalate
E) people high on neuroticism and low on negative affectivity are more likely to escalate
Answer: D
Page Ref: 384
Skill: Recall
66) You and a friend have decided to study for your final exams together. However, time to
study for your organizational behaviour exam is running out. Your friend persuades you to only
study only the first five of the ten chapters to be covered on the exam. When you get to the exam
you quickly read through all of the questions and are surprised to see that in fact the majority of
the questions are from the first five chapters you studied. You and your friend both receive very
good grades on the exam. Your friend never misses an opportunity to remind you how smart it
was to only study the first five chapters. What is this an example of?
A) anchoring effect
B) hindsight
C) framing
D) confirmation bias
E) escalation of commitment
Answer: B
Page Ref: 384
Skill: A pplied
67) A study of 356 decisions in medium and large organizations in the United States and Canada
found that __________ of the decisions made in organizations fail.
A) one third
B) over 50 percent
C) one quarter
D) 10 percent
E) half
Answer: E
Page Ref: 388
Skill: Recall
68) What does brainstorming focus on?
A) the generation of ideas by individuals and evaluation of the ideas by groups
B) the generation of ideas rather than the evaluation of ideas
C) the generation and evaluation of ideas
D) the evaluation of ideas rather than the generation of ideas
E) the generation of ideas by groups and the evaluation of the ideas by individuals
Answer: B
Page Ref: 395
Skill: Recall
69) What does brainstorming and the nominal group technique (NGT) focus on?
A) brainstorming and NGT focus on the evaluation of ideas
B) brainstorming focuses on the generation of ideas; NGT focuses on the evaluation of ideas
C) brainstorming focuses on the generation of ideas; NGT focuses on the generation and
evaluation of ideas
D) brainstorming and NGT focus on the generation of ideas
E) brainstorming and NGT focus on the generation and evaluation of ideas
Answer: C
Page Ref: 397
Skill: Recall
70) Which of the following best describes the nominal group technique (NGT) and the Delphi
technique?
A) participants engage in face- to- face interaction in both
B) participants do not engage in face- to- face interaction in both
C) participants engage in face- to- face interaction in the Delphi technique but not the NGT
D) participants engage in face- to- face interaction for idea generation but not evaluation in both
E) participants engage in face- to- face interaction in the NGT but not the Delphi technique
Answer: E
Page Ref: 397
Skill: Recall
71) Which of the following represents the effectiveness of electronic brainstorming groups?
A) once over the size of two members, electronic brainstorming groups perform better than faceto- face groups in terms of quantity but not quality of ideas
B) once over the size of two members, electronic brainstorming groups perform worse than faceto- face groups in terms of quantity but not quality of ideas
C) once over the size of two members, electronic brainstorming groups perform better than faceto- face groups in terms of both quantity and quality of ideas
D) once over the size of two members, electronic brainstorming groups perform the same as
face- to- face groups in terms of both the quantity and quality of ideas
E) once over the size of two members, electronic brainstorming groups perform better than faceto- face groups in terms of quality but not quantity of ideas
Answer: C
Page Ref: 396
Skill: Recall
72) Which of the following is most accurate about electronic brainstorming groups?
A) as they get larger, they tend to produce more ideas, but the ideas- per- person remains stable
B) as they get larger, they tend to produce less ideas and the ideas- per- person remains stable
C) as they get larger, they tend to produce more ideas, and the ideas- per- person increases
D) as they get larger, they tend to produce more ideas, but the ideas- per- person decreases
E) as they get larger, they tend to produce less ideas, and the ideas- per- person decreases
Answer: A