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Angela Pauline Chua
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PRE TEST VETERINARY PATHOLOGY
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Angela Pauline Chua
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Submission 1
Question 1
Acute diarrhea may result to:
a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis
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Question 2
What congenital anomaly is common to in utero infection of cats with feline
panleukopenia virus, cattle with BCD-MD virus and swine with hog
cholera virus?
a. microencephaly
b. hypomyelogenesis
c. spinal dysraphism
d. cerebellar hypoplasia
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Question 3
The presence of chicken fat clot is:
a. a form of embolus
b. not useful in diagnosis
c. indicative of heart failure
d. a sign of fatty liver syndrome
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Question 4
All of the following will cause eosinopenia except?
a. stress
b. administration of ACTH
c. Cushing
d. None of the above
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Question 5
This is an example of coagulation necrosis:
a. Infarct
b. Abscess
c. Granuloma
d. Encephalomalacia
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Question 6
Increased urine specific gravity may be due to any of the following
EXCEPT:
a. Dehydration due to vomiting or diarrhea
b. Hypovolemic shock
c. Chronic renal disease
d. High fever
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Question 7
Why are young piglets more susceptible to TGE?
a. they have longer production time for epithelial cells
b. they have naive immune system
c. they have faster metabolism
d. they have higher nutritional demands
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Question 8
This stage of estrus is characterized by the presence of low numbers of
cornified epithelial cells, numerous non-cornified epithelial cells and lots
of neutrophils:
a. Proestrus
b. Estrus
c. Metestrus
d. Anestrus
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Question 9
Alkaline urine usually have these crystals deposited resulting in cloudy
appearance:
a. amorphous phosphates
b. calcium phosphates
c. uric acid
d. cystine
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Question 10
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) is computed by:
a. Dividing the Hb in grams by the total RBC count
b. Dividing the Hb in grams by the volume of PCV
c. Dividing the PCV by the Hb in grams
d. Dividing the PCV by the total RBC count.
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Question 11
Manifestations of the disease in animals such as coughs and fever are
known as:
a. lesion
b. clinical symptoms
c. etiology
d. diagnosis
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Question 12
This refers to Hb concentration that is less than normal:
a. microcytic
b. normochromic
c. hypochromic
d. hyperchromic
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Question 13
All are important electrolytes in the body EXCEPT:
a. sodium
b. potassium
c. Chloride
d. Phosphates
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Question 14
Urine foam test detects the presence of:
a. unconjugated bilirubin
b. conjugated bilirubin
c. urolithiasis
d. lead poisoning
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Question 15
What are the effects of malignant catarrhal fever?
a. cardiac murmurs
b. atherosclerosis
c. polyarteritis
d. phlebitis
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Question 16
Coagulation of the proteins of the sarcoplasm is known as:
a. zenker`s necrosis
b. myelin degeneration
c. coagulative degeneration
d. none of the above
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Question 17
Principal mineral deficiencies that may lead to anemia include any of the
following EXCEPT:
a. iron
b. cobalt
c. copper
d. zinc
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Question 18
Muscle atrophy in cancer is due to:
a. a.disuse
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b. chronic in ammation
c. interleukin 1
d. none of the above
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Question 19
The best sample for the demonstration of Demodex canis is:
a. Deep skin scraping
b. Hair sample
c. Periphery of the lesion
d. Center of the lesion
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Question 20
Yellowish-brown to greenish yellow urine is indicative of:
a. Hematuria
b. Hemoglobinuria
c. Bilirubinuria
d. Proteinuria
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Question 21
Feeding of diet low in calcium and high in phosphorous like bran in horses
results in facial and head deformities leading to the so-called Bran disease
or big head. The lesion in the bones is basically:
a. rickets
b. osteomalacia
c. osteoporosis
d. brous osteodystrophy
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Question 22
Viral arthritis is poultry is due to:
a. reovirus
b. parvovirus
c. retrovirus
d. coronavirus
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Question 23
Hyperplasia of the thyroid follicular cells result to:
a. goiter
b. thyroiditis
c. adenoma
d. carcinoma
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Question 24
First sign of cell injury:
a. occulation of mitochondrial proteins
b. swelling of mitochondria
c. swelling of endoplasmic reticulum
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d. condensation of DNA
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Question 25
Mannheimia haemolytica causes:
a. shipping fever
b. atrophic rhinitis
c. mud fever
d. anemia
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Question 26
The predicted outcome of a disease is known as:
a. symptom
b. diagnosis
c. pathogenesis
d. prognosis
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Question 27
An increase in the number of circulating RBCs is known as:
a. Anemia
b. Ischemia
c. Polycythemia
d. Hypoxia
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Question 28
Fatty liver will appear as EXCEPT:
a. greasy
b. enlarged
c. yellow
d. rm
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Question 29
Spermatozoal abnormalities observed in stained semen includes all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. Coiled or double tail
b. Piriform and swollen heads
c. Double head
d. Darker and deeply-stained sperm
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Question 30
The scientist credited for the necropsy technique:
a. Carl Rokitansky
b. Rudolf Virchow
c. Louis Pasteur
d. Giovanni Morgagni
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Question 31
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This is the end-stage liver characterized by nodular hyperplasia, bile duct
hyperplasia and fibrosis:
a. cirrhosis
b. nutmeg liver
c. postnecrotic scarring
d. bridging brosis
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Question 32
What are the main characteristics of the different pandemics in the 20th
century?
a. All occurred in Asia
b. Birds are always involve as mixing vessels
c. Thousands died
d. Vaccine was too expensive
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Question 33
Disease diagnosis based on the location:
a. morphologic
b. etiologic
c. de nitive
d. clinical
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Question 34
Hemoglobin in grams divided by the volume of PCV will get the value of:
a. Mean Corpuscular Volume
b. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin
c. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration
d. Icteric index
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Question 35
This polymorpholeukocyte in dogs is characterized by the presence of fine
bluish cytoplasmic granules:
a. Basophil
b. Neutrophil
c. Lymphocyte
d. Eosinophil
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Question 36
The following are signs of necrosis EXCEPT:
a. pyknosis
b. cytoplasmolysis
c. acidophilia
d. cytoplasmic vacuolation
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Question 37
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Serum is obtained when:
a. Blood is allowed to clot
b. Blood with anticoagulant is allowed to clot
c. Fluid separated from blood with anticoagulant is obtained
d. Any of the above
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Question 38
A sign of proliferative change in the nervous tissue comparative to the
formation of fibrous granulation tissue due to proliferation of fibrillary
astrocytes of the neuroglia is called:
a. gliosis
b. gitter cells
c. chromatolysis
d. neuronophagia
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Question 39
This is a diagnostic feature of Ehrlichiosis:
a. Leukopenia
b. Neutropenia
c. Eosinophilia
d. Thrombocytopenia
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Question 40
A male pseudophermaphrodite has:
a. normal testes with rudimentary organs
b. normal testes with female accessory organs
c. rudimentary testes with normal accessory organs
d. normal ovaries with male accessory organs
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Question 41
Specific change attributed to a particular disease:
a. lesion
b. pathognomonic lesion
c. clinical sign
d. symptoms
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Question 42
What other disease can lead to atherosclerosis?
a. vitamin D de ciency
b. diabetes
c. hyperthyroidism
d. cushing`s syndrome
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Question 43
In dogs, metabolic acidosis occurs in all of the following situations
EXCEPT:
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a. Vomiting
b. Diarrhea
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Hypovolemic shock
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Question 44
What do you call a newborn calf with normal ovaries, rudimentary
reproductive tubular tract and with accesory organs resembling that of
the male?
a. hermaphrodite
b. pseudohermaphrodite
c. male pseudohermaphrodite
d. female pseudohermaphrodite
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Question 45
In areas of necrosis, calcium deposition is called:
a. dystrophic calci cation
b. metastatic calci cation
c. focal ossi cation
d. tophic formation
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Question 46
Which is not a sequela of necrosis?
a. Dystrophic calci cation
b. Metastatic calci cation
c. localization followed by resorption or sequestration
d. lysis or secondary infection
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Question 47
Which is not a cause of goiter?
a. calcium de ciency
b. goiterogenic compounds interfering with thyroxinogenesis
c. excess dietary iodide
d. genetic defects.
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Question 48
Cell death is:
a. always called as necrosis
b. is always harmful
c. is a normal process
d. is always useful
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Question 49
Loss of hair and atrophy of the epidermis is associated with the following
conditions EXCEPT:
a. hypothyroidism
b. hyperestrinism
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c. hyperthyroidism
d. Sertoli cell tumor
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Question 50
Feline panleukopenia :
a. is restricted to felids only
b. has low mortality
c. a ects villous absortive cells
d. racoons can be a ected
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Question 51
Modified Knott’s Technique is a concentration method of determination for:
a. Hookworm ova
b. Micro lariae
c. Fungal spores
d. Demodex sp.
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Question 52
Serum Alkaline phosphatase is found in high concentrations in the
following organs EXCEPT:
a. Bone
b. Liver
c. Intestinal mucosa
d. None of the above
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Question 53
Which is not true about intracellular inclusions?
a. Hyalin droplets represent compensatory functional change.
b. Hyaline droplets are eosinophilic intracellular inclusions in renal tubules.
c. “Brick-red” inclusions in renal tubular epithelium of dogs are signi cant ndings.
d. Viral inclusions maybe eosinophilic or basophilic
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Question 54
Isolation of Bordetella bronchiseptica in the pig`s nose is:
a. characteristic of atrophic rhinitis
b. without consequence, it's part of the normal micro ora
c. indicative of herd disease
d. just an error
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Question 55
The larvae of Habronema sp. or Draschia sp. cause cutaneous
habronemiasis also known as:
a. impetigo
b. summer sores
c. furunculosis
d. allergic dermatitis.
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Question 56
Which is not related to the term etiology?
a. hypoxia
b. chromosome
c. virus
d. bacteria
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Question 57
These glial cells represent the mononuclear cells that transform into gitter
cells during injuries:
a. astrocytes
b. oligodendroglia
c. microglia
d. gemistocytes
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Question 58
This species has yellow pale kidneys with large amounts of fat in the renal
tubular epithelium and is considered normal:
a. dog
b. cat
c. pig
d. horse
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Question 59
This test is of value in the administration of fluids during emergency such
as in shock, dehydration or hemorrhage:
a. Total protein
b. Urinalysis
c. Van den Bergh
d. All of the above
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Question 60
Which statement is false about acute tubular necrosis or nephrosis?
a. due to toxins or uschemia
b. ischemia leads to disruption of basement membranes leading to brosis
c. toxic injuries do not damage basement membranes
d. toxic injuries lead to brosis also.
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Question 61
Which is an example of morphologic diagnosis:
a. suppurative bronchopneumonia
b. b.diro liariasis
c. heart failure
d. canine distemper
Question 62
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Malnutrition atrophy is common in:
a. cats
b. dogs
c. birds
d. none of the above
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Question 63
Which is not a hallmark of necrosis:
a. pyknosis
b. karyorrhexis
c. karyolysis
d. pyklysis
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Question 64
The centrifuged blood from a dog in a capillary tube is useful in providing
estimate of the following blood values EXCEPT:
a. WBC count
b. Icteric index
c. Micro lariae
d. Reticulocytosis.
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Question 65
Area of necrosis where the cellular architecture is preserved:
a. coagulative
b. casseous
c. liquefactive
d. pyogenic
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Question 66
Cutaneous myiasis is infestation of tissues by the:
a. argasid ticks
b. psoroptic mites
c. chorioptic mites
d. larvae of dipterous ies
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Question 67
The clearing agent for debris in skin scraping in fungal examination is:
a. 10% KOH solution
b. Acetone
c. Glacial acetic acid
d. 10% formalin
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Question 68
All of the following are TRUE about CRENATION EXCEPT:
a. Due to delayed drying
b. Projections on the surface of WBC
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c. Exposure to hypotonic solution
d. Exposure to lytic substances
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Question 69
The predominant pigment in feces is:
a. bilirubin
b. urobilin
c. stercobilin
d. hemosiderin
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Question 70
The normal platelet count in animals is between 175 to:
a. 200/ul
b. 300/ul
c. 400/ul
d. 500/ul
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Question 71
These are common renal neoplasms of pigs and chickens:
a. adenoma
b. carcinoma
c. embryonal nephroma
d. all of the above
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Question 72
The process of creating the damage in the tissue from the initial infection:
a. lesion
b. clinical symptom
c. pathogenesis
d. prognosis
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Question 73
The dilution fluid for enumeration of spermatozoa is:
a. Glacial acetic acid
b. N/10 HCl
c. Hayem’s solution
d. Sodium bicarbonate and formalin in distilled water
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Question 74
Parakeratosis in swine is due to this mineral deficiency:
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Calcium
d. Copper
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0/1
Question 75
The main characteristic of coagulative necrosis is:
a. found in nervous and digestive tissue.
b. caused by Mycobacteria and Streptococci
c. common in abscess
d. hard to diagnose
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Question 76
In areas of necrosis, calcium salts may be deposited by the process of:
a. dystrophic calci cation
b. metastatic calci cation
c. focal ossi cation
d. tophic formation
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Question 77
Which is not a myopathy?
a. porcine stress syndrome
b. white muscle disease
c. captive myopathy
d. none of the above
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Question 78
This postmortem change is characterized by the gravitational settling of
blood on the downside of the animal:
a. rigor mortis
b. livor mortis
c. algor mortis
d. pseudomelanosis
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Question 79
A qualitative method of fecal examination based on the difference of the
specific gravity of the liquid with that of the parasite.
a. Flotation method
b. McMaster technique
c. Stoll-ova counting technique
d. Bauermann Apparatus Technique
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Question 80
The type of anemia in Feline Infectious Anemia is:
a. Normocytic normochromic
b. Normocytic hypochromic
c. Microcytic hypochromic
d. Macrocytic normochromic
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Question 81
Formation of a hollow, large, round ghost-like nucleus:
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a. pyknosis
b. karyorrhexis
c. karyolysis
d. absence of the nucleus
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Question 82
Which of the following implies an unfavorable response?
a. falling total leukocyte count with reappearance of lymphocytes and eosinophils
b. disappearance of toxic neutrophils
c. an extremely high total leukocyte count with a high percentage of neutrophils
d. temporary increase in monocytes
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Question 83
All of the following have alkaline urine EXCEPT:
a. Bovine
b. Ovine
c. Caprine
d. Canine
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Question 84
What is the term for exogenous pathological pigmentations in the lung?
a. anthracosis
b. silicosis
c. asbestosis
d. pneumoconiosis
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Question 85
Normal RBC size means:
a. normochromic
b. normocytic
c. macrocytic
d. microcytic
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Question 86
In dogs, bone marrow samples are obtained through the:
a. rib
b. sternum
c. femur
d. iliac crest
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Question 87
Variation in shape of RBC is termed:
a. Anisocytosis
b. Poikilocytosis
c. Leptocytosis
d. Spherocytosis
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Question 88
Cloudy swelling is due to:
a. changes in the DNA
b. injury to cytoplasmic
c. cell membrane injury
d. electrolyte imbalance
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Question 89
What is the effect on the plasma membrane if the cell is injured:
a. Formation of blebs and vessiculations in the mitochondria
b. damage to atpase
c. condensation of DNA
d. no e ect
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Question 90
Gastric ulcers of swine: Which is not true?
a. involves non-glandular stomach
b. ner grains cause it
c. greater incidence in wet feeds
d. diets rich in unsaturated fatty acids cause it
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Question 91
Amyloid deposits are most common in:
a. glomeruli
b. basement membranes
c. medullary intertitium
d. none of the above.
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Question 92
All of the following is a pathological and physiological alterations of the
erythron EXCEPT:
a. hypertrophy or polycythemia
b. atrophy or anemia
c. hemoconcentration or shock
d. hydremia or hemodilution
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Question 93
This type of cystic endocrine disorder of the ovary arises from follicles that
fail to ovulate or undergo atresia:
a. lutein cyst
b. dermoid cyst
c. follicular cyst
d. parovarian cyst
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Question 94
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Inflammation around the biliary duct is:
a. hepatitis
b. cholangitis
c. cholangiohepatitis
d. pericholangitis.
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Question 95
Which does not cause circulatory disease?
a. Strongylus vulgaris
b. Diro laria immitis
c. Histophilus somni
d. E. coli
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Question 96
The following are favorable responses except?
a. reapperance of eosinophils
b. temporary increase in monocytes
c. occurrence of regenerative left shift in an animal that has had a leucopenia
d. None of the above
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Question 97
What is the classic cause of rickets in young animals?
a. Calcium de ciency
b. Vitamin D de ciency
c. Phosphorous de ciency
d. Calcium-phosphorous imbalance.
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Question 98
Metastatic calcification is found in organelles particularly in:
a. cell membrane
b. nucleus
c. mitochondria
d. endoplasmic reticulum
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Question 99
Decreased specific gravity of urine may be due to any of the following
EXCEPT:
a. diuretic phase of toxic nephrosis
b. advanced renal amyloidosis
c. acute generalized nephritis
d. high fever
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Question 100
Necrosis plus putrefaction is known as:
a. gangrene
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b. autolysis
c. necrobiosis
d. necrosis
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