chapter 6 test review
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. A mutual electrical attraction between the nuclei and valence electrons of different atoms that binds the atoms
together is called a(n)
a. dipole.
c. chemical bond.
b. Lewis structure.
d. London force.
____
2. The electrons involved in the formation of a chemical bond are called
a. dipoles.
c. Lewis electrons.
b. s electrons.
d. valence electrons.
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3. As independent particles, most atoms are
a. at relatively high potential energy.
b. at relatively low potential energy.
c. very stable.
d. part of a chemical bond.
4. Atoms naturally move
a. toward high potential energy.
b. toward low potential energy.
c. toward less stability.
d. away from each other.
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____
5. If two covalently bonded atoms are identical, the bond is
a. nonpolar covalent.
c. dipole covalent.
b. polar covalent.
d. coordinate covalent.
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6. If the atoms that share electrons have an unequal attraction for the electrons, the bond is called
a. nonpolar.
c. ionic.
b. polar.
d. dipolar.
____
7. What are shared in a covalent bond?
a. ions
b. Lewis structures
c. electrons
d. dipoles
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8. The greater the electronegativity difference between two bonded atoms, the greater the percentage of ____ in
the bond.
a. ionic character
c. metallic character
b. covalent character
d. electron sharing
____
9. The pair of elements that forms a bond with the least ionic character is
a. Na and Cl.
c. O and Cl.
b. K and Cl.
d. Mg and Cl.
____ 10. The B—F bond in BF3 (electronegativity for B is 2.0; electronegativity for F is 4.0) is
a. polar covalent.
c. nonpolar covalent.
b. ionic.
d. metallic.
____ 11. In the three molecules, O2, HCl, and F2, what atom would have a partial negative charge?
a. oxygen
c. chlorine
b. hydrogen
d. fluorine
____ 12. A neutral group of atoms held together by covalent bonds is a
a. molecular formula.
c. polyatomic ion.
b. chemical formula.
d. molecule.
____ 13. Which of the following is not an example of a molecular formula?
a. H2O
c. NH3
b. B
d. O2
____ 14. The electron configuration of nitrogen is 1s2 2s2 2p3. How many more electrons does nitrogen need to satisfy
the octet rule?
a. 1
c. 5
b. 3
d. 8
____ 15. What group of elements satisfies the octet rule without forming compounds?
a. halogen
c. alkali metal
b. noble gas
d. alkaline-earth metal
____ 16. In drawing a Lewis structure, each nonmetal atom except hydrogen should be surrounded by
a. 2 electrons.
c. 8 electrons.
b. 4 electrons.
d. 10 electrons.
____ 17. In drawing a Lewis structure, the central atom is generally the
a. atom with the greatest mass.
b. atom with the highest atomic number.
c. atom with the fewest electrons.
d. least electronegative atom.
____ 18. What is the correct Lewis structure for hydrogen chloride, HCl?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
____ 19. Bonding in molecules or ions that cannot be correctly represented by a single Lewis structure is
a. polyatomic.
c. single bonding.
b. resonance.
d. double bonding.
____ 20. The chemical formula for an ionic compound represents the
a. number of atoms in each molecule.
b. number of ions in each molecule.
c. ratio of the combined ions present in a sample.
d. total number of ions in the crystal lattice.
____ 21. A formula that shows only the types and numbers of atoms combined in a single molecule is called a(n)
a. molecular formula.
c. Lewis structure.
b. ionic formula.
d. covalent formula.
____ 22. The chemical formula for water, a covalent compound, is H2O. This formula is an example of a(n)
a. formula unit.
c. ionic formula.
b. Lewis structure.
d. molecular formula.
____ 23. The ions in most ionic compounds are organized into a
a. molecule.
c. polyatomic ion.
b. Lewis structure.
d. crystal.
____ 24. A chemical bond formed by the attraction between positive ions and surrounding mobile electrons is a(n)
a. nonpolar covalent bond.
c. polar covalent bond.
b. ionic bond.
d. metallic bond.
____ 25. In metallic bonds, the mobile electrons surrounding the positive ions are called a(n)
a. Lewis structure.
c. electron cloud.
b. electron sea.
d. dipole.
____ 26. To appear shiny, a material must be able to
a. form crystals.
b. absorb and re-emit light of many wavelengths.
c. absorb light and change it all to energy as heat.
d. change light to electricity.
____ 27. If a material can be shaped or extended by physical pressure, such as hammering, which property does the
material have?
a. conductivity
c. ductility
b. malleability
d. luster
____ 28. Metals are malleable because the metallic bonding
a. holds the layers of ions in rigid positions.
b. maximizes the repulsive forces within the metal.
c. allows one plane of ions to slide past another.
d. is easily broken.
____ 29. Malleability and ductility are characteristic of substances with
a. covalent bonds.
c. Lewis structures.
b. ionic bonds.
d. metallic bonds.
____ 30. Shifting the layers of an ionic crystal causes the crystal to
a. be drawn into a wire.
c. become metallic.
b. shatter.
d. emit light.
____ 31. The concept that electrostatic repulsion between electron pairs surrounding an atom causes these pairs to be
separated as far as possible is the foundation of
a. VSEPR theory.
c. the electron-sea model.
b. the hybridization model.
d. Lewis theory.
____ 32. According to VSEPR theory, the structure of the ammonia molecule, NH3, is
a. trigonal-planar.
c. trigonal-pyramidal.
b. bent.
d. tetrahedral.
____ 33. Use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the hydrogen chloride molecule, HCl.
a. tetrahedral
c. bent
b. linear
d. trigonal-planar
____ 34. Use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of carbon dioxide, CO2.
a. tetrahedral
c. bent
b. linear
d. octahedral
____ 35. The following molecules contain polar bonds. The only polar molecule is
a. CCl4.
c. NH3.
b. CO2.
d. CH4.
chapter 6 test review
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
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C
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D
1
A
2
B
2
A
3
B
3
C
3
A
4
D
5
B
5
C
5
D
1
B
1
B
3
B
3
C
4
D
4
D
5
B
5
C
1
A
1
D
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SC.A.1.4.5
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SC.A.2.4.2
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SC.A.2.4.2
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DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
DIF: III
REF: 1
DIF: III
REF: 1
DIF: III
REF: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
DIF: II
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
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DIF: III
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 2
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: I
REF: 3
DIF: II
REF: 3
1
SC.A.1.4.5
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B
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C
2
B
2
B
2
C
5
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DIF: I
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DIF: I
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DIF: I
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DIF: I
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DIF: I
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DIF: I
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PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 5
PTS: 1
DIF: III
REF: 5
PTS: 1
DIF: III
REF: 5
PTS: 1
STA: SC.A.1.4.5
DIF: III
REF: 5