TEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 2
1. The two kinds of cells in the nervous system are __________, which receive and transmit information to
other cells, and __________, which do not transmit information.
A) neurons, glia
B) glia, hypoglia
C) glia, neurons
D) neurons, corpuscles
2. The outer surface of a cell is called the __________ and the fluid inside the cell is the __________.
A) cytoplasm, endoplasm
B) membrane, nuclear fluid
C) wall, goo
D) membrane, cytoplasm
3. Which structure within an animal cell contains the chromosomes?
A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) mitochondrion
C) membrane
D) nucleus
4. The main feature that distinguishes a neuron from other cells is the neuron's
A) larger nucleus.
B) ability to metabolize a variety of fuels.
C) high internal concentration of sodium ions.
D) varied shape.
5. Which part of a neuron contains the nucleus?
A) cell body
B) dendrites
C) axon
D) presynaptic ending
6. Neurons have one __________, but can have any number of __________.
A) dendrite, axons
B) axon, dendrites
C) cell body, axons
D) axon hillock, cell bodies
7. An axon hillock is
A) the end of an axon, close to the next cell.
B) a swelling in the middle of an axon.
C) a point at which the axon branches in two or more directions.
D) a swelling at the start of an axon, next to the cell body.
8. As a general rule, axons convey information
A) toward dendrites of their own cell.
B) toward their own cell body.
C) away from the cell body.
D) to glia.
9. One way to tell the difference between a dendrite and an axon is that dendrites usually
A) form branches perpendicular to the main trunk of the dendrite.
B) are longer than the axon.
C) are covered with myelin.
D) taper in diameter toward their periphery.
10. An interneuron is
A) a glia cell that separates one neuron from another.
B) a neuron that receives all its information from other neurons and conveys impulses only to other
neurons.
C) a neuron that has its cell body in the spinal cord and an axon that extends to a muscle or gland.
D) a cell whose properties are halfway between those of a neuron and those of a glia cell.
11. A neuron that conveys information toward the hippocampus is considered a (an) __________ cell, with
regard to the hippocampus.
A) afferent
B) efferent
C) intrinsic
D) motor
12. A neuron that conveys information away from the hippocampus is considered a (an) __________ cell,
with regard to the hippocampus.
A) afferent
B) efferent
C) intrinsic
D) sensory
13. A neuron that has an axon and dendrites that branch diffusely, but only extend within a small radius,
is probably a(n)_________.
A) Purkinje cell
B) motor neuron in the spinal cord
C) interneuron
D) sensory neuron
14. In the human brain, glia cells are
A) larger than neurons.
B) capable of transmitting impulses when neurons fail to do so.
C) more numerous than neurons.
D) like neurons, except that they lack axons.
15. One function NOT performed by glia is to
A) remove waste materials.
B) build myelin sheaths.
C) transmit information.
D) guide the growth of axons and dendrites.
16. Keeping animals in a varied environment with much stimulation leads to which change in neuronal
structure?
A) Increased branching of dendrites.
B) Increased velocity of action potentials.
C) Increased diameter of cell bodies.
D) Division of mature neurons to form additional neurons.
17. How does the structure of neurons change when an older person becomes senile?
A) No structural change occurs.
B) Neurons develop new but inappropriate connections.
C) Many neurons die and dendrites branch less widely in the remainder.
D) The diameter of axons and cell bodies decreases.
18. The difference in voltage between the inside and the outside of a neuron that typically exists is called
the
A) concentration gradient.
B) generator potential.
C) resting potential.
D) shock value.
19. What is meant by the term "concentration gradient"?
A) Sodium ions are more concentrated inside the cell and potassium ions are more concentrated outside.
B) Potassium ions are more concentrated inside the cell and sodium ions are more concentrated outside.
C) Sodium ions are more concentrated in the dendrites and potassium ions are more concentrated in the
axon.
D) Potassium ions are more concentrated in the dendrites and sodium ions are more concentrated in the
axon.
20. The sodium potassium pump pumps sodium ions __________ and potassium ions __________.
A) into the cell, into the cell
B) into the cell, out of the cell
C) out of the cell, out of the cell
D) out of the cell, into the cell
21. The sodium potassium pump makes possible which of the following features of a neuron?
A) Refractory period.
B) Resting potential.
C) Selective permeability.
D) Saltatory conduction.
22. When the neuron is at rest, which of the following forces tends to move potassium ions OUT OF the
cell?
A) Concentration gradient.
B) Electrical gradient.
C) Both concentration gradient and electrical gradient.
D) Sodium potassium pump.
23. If a stimulus shifts the potential inside a neuron from the resting potential to a more negative
potential, the result is
A) hyperpolarization.
B) depolarization.
C) an action potential.
D) a threshold.
24. If a stimulus shifts the potential inside a neuron from the resting potential to a potential slightly closer
to zero, the result is known as
A) hyperpolarization.
B) depolarization.
C) selective permeability.
D) the refractory period.
25. A membrane produces an action potential whenever the potential across it reaches
A) the resting potential.
B) 90 mV.
C) the threshold.
D) the myelin sheath.
26. According to the all or none law,
A) every depolarization produces an action potential.
B) every hyperpolarization produces an action potential.
C) the size of the action potential is independent of the strength of the stimulus that initiated it.
D) every depolarization reaches the threshold, even if it fails to produce an action potential.
27. For a given neuron, the resting potential is 70 mV and the threshold is 55 mV.
Stimulus A depolarizes the membrane to exactly 55 mV.
Stimulus B depolarizes the membrane to 40 mV. What can we expect to happen?
A) Stimulus A will produce an action potential of greater amplitude than stimulus B.
B) Stimulus A will produce an action potential that is conducted at a faster speed than that of stimulus B.
C) Stimulus B will produce an action potential and stimulus A will not.
D) Stimulus A and stimulus B will produce action potentials of the same size.
28. How can a neuron signal the difference between an intense stimulus and a stimulus that just barely
reaches the threshold for an instant?
A) Magnitude of the action potential.
B) Speed of the action potential.
C) Frequency of action potentials.
D) Shape of the action potential.
29. During the entire course of events from the start of an action potential until the membrane returns to
its resting potential, the net movement of ions is
A) sodium in, potassium in.
B) sodium out, potassium out.
C) sodium in, potassium out.
D) sodium out, potassium in.
30. The refractory period of a neuron is a period of time when
A) the sodium gates of the membrane are open.
B) the sodium potassium pump is active.
C) a usually adequate stimulus cannot produce an action potential.
D) both the sodium gates and the potassium gates are fully closed.
31. No stimulus can excite a membrane to produce an action potential if
A) the membrane is in its absolute refractory period.
B) it occurs at the same time as a hyperpolarizing stimulus.
C) sodium ions are more concentrated outside the cell than inside.
D) the potassium gates have been blocked.
32. Which feature of a neuron limits the number of action potentials it can produce per second?
A) Threshold.
B) Refractory period.
C) Saltatory conduction.
D) Length of the axon.
33. Suppose we find that the maximum firing rate of a given neuron is 50 action potentials per second.
What is the refractory period of that cell?
A) 50 msec.
B) 1/50 sec.
C) 5 sec.
D) Not enough information is given to determine an answer.
34. Most action potentials begin
A) in the dendrites.
B) in the cell body.
C) at the axon hillock.
D) at the tip of the axon.
35. Once an action potential starts,
A) it is conducted the rest of the way as an electrical current.
B) it needs additional stimuli from outside the cell to keep it going at various points along the axon.
C) it increases in speed as it goes.
D) it is regenerated at various points along the axon, the same way that it began.
36. The velocity of an action potential is
A) the same as the velocity of electricity.
B) approximately the speed of sound.
C) 1 100 m/sec.
D) impossible to measure.
37. On which of the following would action potentials travel the slowest?
A) A thin, myelinated axon.
B) A thin, unmyelinated axon.
C) A thick, myelinated axon.
D) A thick, unmyelinated axon.
38. The function of a myelin sheath is to
A) prevent action potentials from traveling in the wrong direction.
B) increase the velocity of transmission along an axon.
C) increase the magnitude of an action potential.
D) enable an action potential in one cell to influence the transmission in other cells.
39. What are the nodes of Ranvier?
A) Gates in the membrane that admit all ions freely.
B) Branching points in an axon.
C) Places where dendrites join the cell body.
D) Interruptions in the myelin sheath.
40. Saltatory conduction refers to
A) production of an action potential by the movement of sodium ions.
B) transmission of an impulse along a myelinated axon.
C) transmission of impulses along dendrites.
D) transmission of an impulse between one neuron and another.
41.
1. By an IPSP (Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potential), electric potential differences across the postsynaptic
membrane increase.
2. By an EPSP (Excitatory Postsynaptic Potential), electric potential differences across the postsynaptic
membrane increase.
3. By an IPSP, electric potential differences across the postsynaptic membrane decrease.
4. By an EPSP, electric potential differences across the postsynaptic membrane decrease.
A) 1 is true; 2, 3 and 4 are untrue.
B) 1 and 4 are true; 2 and 3 are untrue.
C) 4 is true; 1, 2 and 3 are untrue.
D) 2 and 3 are true; 1 and 4 are untrue.
42. Suppose that the brains of two adult rats are to be investigated.
The first rat was raised in an environment full with fellow rats and sensory stimuli (enriched
environment), and the second was raised singly in a small empty cage (impoverished environment). It
will appear that the brain of the first rat in comparison with the second:
A) contains more nerve cells, whereas the number of synapses of nerve cells is also larger.
B) contains more nerve cells, while the number of synapses of nerve cells remains the same.
C) contains almost the same number of nerve cells; on the other hand, the number of synapses of nerve
cells is increased.
D) contains almost the same number of nerve cells, whereas also the number of synapses of nerve cells
remains the same.
43. Assume that the duration of an action potential is 1 msec and the duration of the refractory period is
also 1 msec. What is the largest number of action potentials that can be transported over the axon per
second?
A) 1000.
B) 500.
C) 100.
D) 50.
44. Which of the following statements related to nerve and glia cells is NOT true?
A) The myelin sheath around the axon of nerve cells is formed by glia cells.
B) Glia cells have a supportive and feeding function for nerve cells.
C) Nerve cells, just as glia cells, have the power to divide.
D) The brain contains many more glia cells than nerve cells.
45. By the creation of action potentials, shifts in the concentrations of sodium and potassium ions play an
essential role. If we follow these changes over a certain period, we note the following:
A) first potassium ions enter the cell, somewhat later sodium ions leave the cell.
B) first sodium ions enter the cell, somewhat later potassium ions leave the cell.
C) first sodium ions leave the cell, somewhat later potassium ions enter the cell.
D) first potassium ions leave the cell, somewhat later sodium ions enter the cell.
46. The speed that an action potential travels down an axon is increased by
A) an increase in the intensity of the evoking stimulus.
B) increased activity by autoreceptors.
C) the presence of a myelin sheath.
D) the absence of lateral inhibition.
2 ANSWERS
1. Ans: A
24. Ans: B
2. Ans: D
25. Ans: C
3. Ans: D
26. Ans: C
4. Ans: D
27. Ans: D
5. Ans: A
28. Ans: C
6. Ans: B
29. Ans: C
7. Ans: D
30. Ans: C
8. Ans: C
31. Ans: A
9. Ans: D
32. Ans: B
10. Ans: B
33. Ans: B
11. Ans: A
34. Ans: C
12. Ans: B
35. Ans: D
13. Ans: C
36. Ans: C
14. Ans: C
37. Ans: B
15. Ans: C
38. Ans: B
16. Ans: A
39. Ans: D
17. Ans: C
40. Ans: B
18. Ans: C
41. Ans: B
19. Ans: B
42. Ans: C
20. Ans: D
43. Ans: B
21. Ans: B
44. Ans: C
22. Ans: A
45. Ans: B
23. Ans: A
46. Ans: C
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TEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 3
1. The abbreviation EPSP stands for
A) extra psychic sensory perception.
B) exterior partial sensory process.
C) end point stationary physiology.
D) excitatory post synaptic potential.
2. An EPSP is a
A) graded depolarization.
B) depolarization alternating rapidly with a hyperpolarization.
C) graded hyperpolarization.
D) canceling out of competing effects.
3. If an EPSP adds to what is left of a previous EPSP, what has occurred?
A) Temporal summation.
B) Spatial summation.
C) Saltatory conduction.
D) Inhibitory synaptic transmission.
4. An EPSP results from
A) the deactivation of cytoplasmic enzymes.
B) the opening of sodium channels in the presynaptic membrane.
C) the entry of sodium into the postsynaptic neuron.
D) inherited paranormal psychic abilities.
5. Spatial summation refers to
A) adding two stimuli from the same source that occurred at different times.
B) the decrease in responsiveness by a neuron that has been stimulated repeatedly.
C) adding two stimuli from different sources at the same time.
D) a progressive increase in the magnitude of action potentials in a given axon over time.
6. Where do temporal summation and spatial summation take place?
A) Interneurons, but not motor or receptor neurons.
B) Glia cells.
C) Along the surface of an axon.
D) The postsynaptic membrane in the axon hillock.
7. A normal, healthy animal never contracts the flexor muscles and the extensor muscles of the same leg
at the same time. Why not?
A) The nerves to one set of muscles have inhibitory synapses onto the nerves to the other set.
B) The two sets of muscles are mechanically connected in a way that makes it impossible for both to
contract at the same time.
C) Nerves to flexor muscles release acetylcholine; nerves to extensor muscles release epinephrine.
D) Both muscles are controlled by branches of the same axon.
8. An IPSP is a(n)
A) location where a dendrite branches.
B) interruption in a myelin sheath.
C) subthreshold depolarization.
D) temporary hyperpolarization.
9. Which of the following combinations would be most likely to produce an action potential?
A) Two IPSPs.
B) Two EPSPs.
C) An IPSP plus an EPSP.
D) Any of these combinations would be equally likely to produce an action potential.
10. The distance a synapse is from the axon hillock
A) determines the influence of that synapse: farther synapses have stronger influences.
B) determines the influence of that synapse: nearer synapses have stronger influences.
C) does not matter since EPSPs are all or none.
D) does not matter since IPSPs are all or none.
11. The "spontaneous rate" of a neuron is its
A) resting potential.
B) rate of synthesizing its synaptic transmitter.
C) rate of producing action potentials when it is not stimulated.
D) velocity of action potential.
12. Which of the following is true about spontaneous firing rates of neurons?
A) EPSPs increase the frequency.
B) EPSPs decrease the frequency.
C) IPSPs increase the frequency.
D) B and C are correct.
13. What determines whether a neuron has an action potential?
A) EPSPs.
B) IPSPs.
C) The combined effect of EPSPs and IPSPs.
D) Spontaneous firing rate alone (EPSPs and IPSPs have no effect).
14. What is the chemical relationship between the synaptic transmitters dopamine and norepinephrine?
A) They are chemically unrelated.
B) They are just different names for the same chemical substance.
C) They are both made from acetate and choline, although the two are combined in different ways.
D) The brain can convert dopamine into norepinephrine in one step.
15. The synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules takes place
A) in the bloodstream.
B) in the cell body.
C) in the presynaptic terminal.
D) in either the cell body or the presynaptic terminal, depending on the particular neurotransmitter.
16. When an action potential reaches the end of an axon, the depolarization causes what ionic movement?
A) Bicarbonate out of the presynaptic cell.
B) Lithium out of the presynaptic cell.
C) Iron into the cell.
D) Calcium into the cell.
17. The synaptic cleft is
A) the gap between the presynaptic neuron and the postsynaptic neuron.
B) a packet that stores molecules of the synaptic transmitter.
C) a subthreshold depolarization.
D) a dietary precursor to the synthesis of a synaptic transmitter.
18. When a presynaptic cell releases a neurotransmitter, the chemical
A) reacts with other chemicals present in the synaptic cleft, which, in turn, affect the postsynaptic
membrane.
B) diffuses across the synaptic cleft.
C) is actively transported across the synaptic cleft.
D) breaks down into its constituent components before reaching the postsynaptic membrane.
19. The effect that a neurotransmitter has on the postsynaptic neuron is determined by
A) the speed the action potential travelled down the axon.
B) the number of branches in the presynaptic axon.
C) the receptors of the postsynaptic membrane.
D) the number of synaptic vesicles present.
20. Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that
A) synthesizes acetylcholine from constituents of the diet.
B) increases the sensitivity of the postsynaptic cell to acetylcholine.
C) blocks further release of the transmitter acetylcholine.
D) breaks acetylcholine down, after its release, into less active components.
21. After acetylcholine attaches to a receptor on the postsynaptic cell,
A) the enzyme acetylcholinesterase breaks it into two fragments.
B) it detaches from the receptor and is reabsorbed intact by the presynaptic cell.
C) the postsynaptic cell metabolizes it as a source of energy.
D) it remains in place until it is displaced by the next batch of acetylcholine released at the synapse.
22. What would be the effect of a drug that inhibits the action of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase?
A) Prolonged action of the transmitter acetylcholine at its synapses.
B) Decreased duration of action of the transmitter acetylcholine at its synapses.
C) Decreased synthesis of the transmitter acetylcholine by the presynaptic cell.
D) Increased synthesis of the transmitter acetylcholine by the presynaptic cell.
23. One way to prolong the effects of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine is to use a drug that
A) prevents calcium from entering the presynaptic cell.
B) stimulates autoreceptors of the presynaptic cell.
C) mimics the effects of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.
D) inhibits the effects of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.
24. A drug that blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter is a(n) __________; a drug that mimics or increases
the effects is a(n) __________.
A) neuromodulator, synergist
B) agonist, antagonist
C) depressant, stimulant
D) antagonist, agonist
25. Saying that a drug has an affinity for a particular receptor means
A) they have similar chemical compositions and produce similar effects.
B) the drug readily binds with the receptor.
C) the drug is attracted to the opposite electrical charge of the receptor.
D) the drug has warm, positive feelings for the receptor.
26. The stronger an agonist's affinity is to a receptor, the __________ powerful a drug it is likely to be; the
stronger an antagonist's affinity the __________ powerful it is likely to be.
A) more, less
B) less, more
C) more, more
D) less, less
27. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways drugs can affect the presynaptic neuron?
A) They may block the synthesis of neurotransmitters.
B) They may stimulate the release of neurotransmitters.
C) They may cause synaptic vesicles to divide and multiply.
D) They may inhibit presynaptic synapses on the presynaptic neuron.
28. A drug that attaches directly to the receptors on the postsynaptic neuron
A) will eventually destroy those receptors.
B) has agonistic effects.
C) has antagonistic effects.
D) could have either agonistic or antagonistic effects.
29. Drugs influence brain activity by
A) affecting presynaptic events.
B) affecting postsynaptic receptors.
C) affecting neurotransmitters in the synapse after transmission has occurred.
D) all of the above
30. The deadly effect of the curare used by Indians on the tips of their arrows to poison wild animals is
caused by:
A) preventing the release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine from the synaptic clefts.
B) disturbing the diffusion process in the synaptic vesicles so that acetylcholine can no longer reach the
postsynaptic membrane.
C) breaking down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft.
D) occupying the postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors so that acetylcholine no longer can function.
31. In general, a psychoactive drug influences synaptic transmission by three of the four following
processes:
1. The psychoactive drug occupies postsynaptic receptors, leading to an inactivation of the genuine
neurotransmitter.
2. The psychoactive drug cannot be cleared by the esterase, normally clearing the genuine
neurotransmitter.
3. The psychoactive drug leads to a disturbance of the diffusion process in the synaptic cleft, inhibiting
diffusion of the genuine neurotransmitter to the postsynaptic receptors.
4. The psychoactive drug modulates the release of the genuine neurotransmitter from the presynaptic
vesicles. Which process is not known to influence synaptic transmission?
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.
32. Suppose that at rest, the axon hillock of a nerve cell simultaneously receives 10 EPSP's and 3 IPSP's
where all EPSP's are 4 millivolt and IPSP's are 9 millivolt. The result is:
A) a depolarisation; no action potentials are generated.
B) a hyperpolarisation; no action potentials are generated.
C) a depolarisation; one or more action potentials are generated.
D) a hyperpolarisation; one or more action potentials are generated.
33.
A. An EPSP (Excitatory PostSynaptic Potential) is a reduction of the electrical potential across a
postsynaptic membrane.
B. During an EPSP, the cell membrane is not permeable for sodium ions.
A) A is false, B is true.
B) A is true, B is false.
C) A is true, B is true.
D) A is false, B is false.
34. Variations in diet control variations in
A) synthesis of synaptic transmitters.
B) synthesis of myelin sheaths.
C) the activity of the sodium potassium pump.
D) the resting potential of the membrane of a neuron.
35. Assume that on the axon hillock in rest simultaneously arrive 10 ESPS's and 4 ISPS's, where all ESPS's
are 3 millivolts and all ISPS's are 9 millivolt, then:
A) a depolarisation is caused. No action potentials are generated.
B) a hyperpolarisation is caused. No action potentials are generated.
C) a depolarisation is caused. One or more action potentials are generated.
D) a hyperpolarisation is caused. One or more action potentials are generated.
3 ANSWERS
1. Ans: D
2. Ans: A
3. Ans: A
4. Ans: C
5. Ans: C
6. Ans: D
7. Ans: A
8. Ans: D
9. Ans: B
10. Ans: B
11. Ans: C
12. Ans: A
13. Ans: C
14. Ans: D
15. Ans: D
16. Ans: D
17. Ans: A
18. Ans: B
19. Ans: C
20. Ans: D
21. Ans: A
22. Ans: A
23. Ans: D
24. Ans: D
25. Ans: B
26. Ans: C
27. Ans: C
28. Ans: D
29. Ans: D
30. Ans: D
31. Ans: C
32. Ans: A
33. Ans: B
34. Ans: A
35. Ans: B
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TEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 4
1. The central nervous system is made up of the __________ and __________.
A) autonomic nervous system, somatic nervous system
B) cerebrum, cerebellum
C) sympathetic division, parasympathetic division
D) brain, spinal cord
2. The division of the nervous system that is made up of neurons that control the heart, intestines, and
other organs is the
A) central.
B) peripheral.
C) somatic.
D) autonomic.
3. The autonomic and somatic nervous systems make up the
A) central nervous system.
B) endocrine system.
C) peripheral nervous system.
D) subconscious nervous system.
4. An axon in your hand that causes contraction of a muscle fiber in your finger would be part of the
__________ nervous system.
A) central
B) somatic
C) sympathetic
D) parasympathetic
5. Comparing the brains of mammals, such as rats and humans, to fish and reptiles, one finds
A) many structures present in the fish and reptile brains that are not present in the mammalian brains.
B) three major areas for mammals, compared to only two for fish and reptiles.
C) the hindbrain forms a larger proportion of the brain in mammals.
D) the forebrain forms a larger proportion of the brain in mammals.
6. Two structures that are on the same side of the body are said to be __________ to each other.
A) ventral
B) medial
C) contralateral
D) ipsilateral
7. Which of the following means "toward the side, away from the midline"?
A) Lateral.
B) Medial.
C) Proximal.
D) Distal.
8. A set of axons within the CNS is called a
A) lamina.
B) column.
C) tract.
D) nerve.
9. What is the difference between a ganglion and a nucleus?
A) Size.
B) Location in the nervous system.
C) Number of cells.
D) All of the above.
10. Which of the following would be found outside the CNS?
A) Tract.
B) Ganglion.
C) Nucleus.
D) Gyrus.
11. The sensory nerves enter the spinal cord on its __________ side; the motor nerves leave the spinal cord
on its __________ side.
A) ventral, dorsal
B) dorsal, ventral
C) right, left
D) left, right
12. Gray matter in the brain and spinal cord consists mainly of
A) cell bodies and dendrites.
B) myelinated axons.
C) unmyelinated axons.
D) mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulums.
13. The portion of the nervous system that prepares the body for "fight or flight" activities, and consists of
two paired chains of ganglia is the __________ nervous system.
A) sympathetic
B) somatic
C) parasympathetic
D) craniosacral
14. The sympathetic and parasympathetic make up the __________ nervous system.
A) somatic
B) autonomic
C) central
D) peripheral
15. Which is controlled by a chain of ganglia near the thoracic and lumbar areas of the spinal cord?
A) Sympathetic nervous system.
B) Parasympathetic nervous system.
C) Both sympathetic and parasympathetic.
D) Neither sympathetic nor parasympathetic.
16. Activity of the sympathetic nervous system increases
A) salivation.
B) adrenal gland secretions.
C) digestive activity.
D) sexual arousal.
17. Activity of the parasympathetic nervous system promotes
A) fight or flight activity.
B) increased heart rate.
C) increased adrenal gland secretions.
D) energy conserving, nonemergency functions.
18. What, generally, is the relationship between the activity of the sympathetic and the parasympathetic
nervous systems?
A) The sympathetic controls internal organs while the parasympathetic controls peripheral organs.
B) The sympathetic usually has specific, localized effects, while the parasympathetic has broad effects.
C) They usually have opposite effects on the same organ.
D) The sympathetic is involved in voluntary behavior, while the parasympathetic is involved in reflexive
behavior.
19. Eye movements are controlled by
A) the sympathetic nervous system.
B) cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6.
C) the cervical region of the spinal cord.
D) the thoracic region of the spinal cord.
20. How many pairs of cranial nerves do humans have?
A) 8.
B) 10.
C) 12.
D) 16.
21. Which of the following is NOT part of the hindbrain?
A) Cerebellum.
B) Hippocampus.
C) Pons.
D) Medulla.
22. Suppose someone suffered damage to cranial nerves 5, 9, and 10.
Which of the following functions would be most likely to be impaired?
A) Vision.
B) Control of arm muscles.
C) Control of leg muscles.
D) Chewing and swallowing.
23. The cerebellum makes a well established contribution to the control of
A) Hunger.
B) Temperature.
C) Olfaction.
D) Movement.
24. Which of the following is NOT part of the forebrain?
A) Hippocampus.
B) Thalamus.
C) Medulla.
D) Cerebral cortex.
25. The forebrain structures located around the brain stem that are important for motivated and
emotional behavior are collectively known as the
A) limbic system.
B) reticular formation.
C) tegmentum.
D) basal ganglia.
26. An impairment of hormonal secretion, feeding, drinking, temperature regulation, or sexual behavior
suggests possible damage to the
A) midbrain.
B) hippocampus.
C) hypothalamus.
D) cerebellum.
27. If you wanted to see the olfactory bulbs, where should you look?
A) In the center of the brain, between the two lateral ventricles.
B) On the dorsal surface of the hindbrain, near the cerebellum.
C) On the dorsal surface of the cerebral cortex, near the central sulcus.
D) On the ventral surface of the brain, near the optic chiasm.
28. Damage to the basal ganglia would most likely result in
A) a movement disorder.
B) problems with visual perception.
C) problems with auditory perception.
D) a loss of cutaneous sensation.
29. The cerebral cortex receives most of its input from neurons in the
A) thalamus.
B) spinal cord.
C) superior colliculus.
D) medulla.
30. The ventricles of the brain contain
A) cell bodies.
B) dendrites and axons.
C) cerebrospinal fluid.
D) glia.
31. What do the ventricles, central canal, and subarachnoid space have in common?
A) All are part of the forebrain.
B) All are filled with cerebrospinal fluid.
C) All are involved in cognitive functioning.
D) All are filled with blood.
32. Each hemisphere of the cerebral cortex receives most of its input from the __________ side of the body
and controls the muscles on the __________ side.
A) ipsilateral, ipsilateral
B) contralateral, contralateral
C) contralateral, ipsilateral
D) ipsilateral, contralateral
33. The large bundle of axons connecting the two hemispheres of the brain is the
A) corpus callosum.
B) tectum.
C) fornix.
D) cerebral cortex.
34. Which part of the cerebral cortex is most important for visual information?
A) Occipital.
B) Parietal.
C) Temporal.
D) Frontal.
35. After damage to the striate cortex in the occipital cortex, a person suffers
A) deafness.
B) blindness.
C) loss of touch and other body sensations.
D) loss of fine motor control.
36. Which part of the cerebral cortex is most important for perception of body information, including the
sense of touch?
A) Occipital lobe.
B) Parietal lobe.
C) Temporal lobe.
D) Frontal lobe.
37. Someone who suddenly loses the ability to identify objects by feeling them has probably suffered
damage to the
A) parietal lobe of the cerebral cortex.
B) temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex.
C) frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex.
D) dorsomedial nucleus of the thalamus.
38. One of the common symptoms of damage to the parietal lobe of the cerebral cortex is
A) loss of ability to identify objects by touch.
B) loss of social inhibitions.
C) outbursts of unprovoked anxiety or aggressive behavior.
D) trouble recognizing faces and other highly complex visual stimuli.
39. What separates the frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex from the parietal lobe?
A) The lateral ventricles.
B) The central sulcus.
C) The corpus callosum.
D) The optic chiasm.
40. The primary area of the cerebral cortex for auditory and equilibrium sensations is the
A) occipital lobe.
B) parietal lobe.
C) temporal lobe.
D) frontal lobe.
41. The temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex is the primary target for which kind of sensory information?
A) Somatosensory, including touch.
B) Auditory and equilibrium.
C) The simplest aspects of vision.
D) Gustatory.
42. A strip along the rear of the frontal lobe, the precentral gyrus, is essential for the control of
A) fine movements.
B) coordination between vision and hearing.
C) emotions.
D) hunger and thirst.
43. A significant difference between the brains of primates and those of most other species is the
A) extensive expansion of primary visual, auditory, and somatosensory cortex.
B) increased number of neurotransmitters.
C) increased speed of neural transmission.
D) extensive folding of the cerebral cortex.
44. What is a lesion?
A) An area of brain next to a blood vessel.
B) A cell that lines the surface of a ventricle.
C) A point from which epileptic seizures originate.
D) An area that has been damaged.
45. In an electroencephalograph
A) radioactively labeled slices of brain tissue are placed on X ray film.
B) 180 X rays are passed through the body and combined in a computer.
C) electrodes are attached to the scalp to record electrical activity of the brain.
D) high resolution images of brain anatomy can be obtained from a living person.
46. Which instrument is used in studies of evoked potentials?
A) Stereotaxic instrument.
B) PET scanner.
C) Electroencephalograph.
D) Phrenological map.
47. Early in development, the nervous system begins as
A) a tube surrounding a fluid filled cavity.
B) a spherical structure in the center of the embryo.
C) a diffuse system of cells scattered throughout the body and not connected to one another.
D) a single layer of cells covering the heart and other internal organs.
48. When do the ventricles and the central canal of the spinal cord form?
A) Shortly after birth in humans.
B) Just as the forebrain starts its rapid phase of growth.
C) At the beginning of the formation of the nervous system.
D) At puberty.
49. The average adult brain weight is 1,200 to 1,400 g. The brain weighs almost that much (1,000 g)
A) at the sixth month after conception.
B) at birth.
C) at 1 year.
D) in early adolescence, but not until after puberty.
50. How does the number of neurons in a fetus compare to the number in an adult of 40 years?
A) They have practically the same number.
B) The adult has about 50 percent more.
C) The adult has about twice as many.
D) The fetus has more.
51. The hypothalamus has a function by:
A) sensory motor coordination.
B) control of the automatic nervous system.
C) perception of sensory impulses.
D) regulation of muscle tone.
52. Which cranial nerves mediate the sensations and the expression of the face?
A) The trigeminal nerve and the facial nerve.
B) The trochlear nerve and the trigeminal nerve.
C) The vagus nerve and the trochlear nerve.
D) The facial nerve and the vagus nerve.
53. Which statement with respect to the cerebellum is NOT correct?
A) The cerebellum is mainly important for sensomotor coordination.
B) The cerebellum is a structure originating from the metencephalon.
C) The cerebellum is located ventrally of the brain stem.
D) Damage of the cerebellum produces deficits in movements.
54. Although the human brain in many respects resembles the brain of animals, there appear to be
quantitative differences. The most striking is that:
A) the size of the human brain is larger, compared to animals.
B) the surface of the human brain is folded, while that of animals is smooth.
C) in the human brain, a corpus callosum is developed.
D) in the human brain, cortical association areas are relatively most expanded.
55. During which state of alertness is the pupil of the eye, under identical light conditions, the most
dilated?
A) During REM sleep (paradoxical sleep).
B) During the waking state, associated with beta rhythm in the EEG.
C) During the waking state, associated with alpha rhythm in the EEG.
D) During deep slow wave sleep (stage 3 and stage 4).
56. The feeling of sensations in the right foot can be felt by stimulations of:
A) the dorsal part of the left somatosensory cortex.
B) the dorsal part of the right somatosensory cortex.
C) the lateral part of the right somatosensory cortex.
D) the lateral part of the left somatosensory cortex.
57. The brain develops from the neural tube. At the side of the head five vesicles emerge. The thalamus
and the pons develop respectively from:
A) the telencephalon and the metencephalon.
B) the telencephalon and the mesencephalon.
C) the diencephalon and the metencephalon.
D) the diencephalon and the mesencephalon.
58. Which cranial nerves are involved in moving the eye balls?
A) The optic nerve, the trochlear nerve and the oculomotor nerve.
B) The vagus nerve, the abducens nerve and the optic nerve.
C) The olfactory nerve, the facial nerve and the oculomotor nerve.
D) The oculomotor nerve, the trochlear nerve and the abducens nerve.
ANSWERS
1. Ans: D
30. Ans: C
2. Ans: D
31. Ans: B
3. Ans: C
32. Ans: B
4. Ans: B
33. Ans: A
5. Ans: D
34. Ans: A
6. Ans: D
35. Ans: B
7. Ans: A
36. Ans: B
8. Ans: C
37. Ans: A
9. Ans: B
38. Ans: A
10. Ans: B
39. Ans: B
11. Ans: B
40. Ans: C
12. Ans: A
41. Ans: B
13. Ans: A
42. Ans: A
14. Ans: B
43. Ans: D
15. Ans: A
44. Ans: D
16. Ans: B
45. Ans: C
17. Ans: D
46. Ans: C
18. Ans: C
47. Ans: A
19. Ans: B
48. Ans: C
20. Ans: C
49. Ans: C
21. Ans: B
50. Ans: D
22. Ans: D
51. Ans: B
23. Ans: D
52. Ans: A
24. Ans: C
53. Ans: C
25. Ans: A
54. Ans: D
26. Ans: C
55. Ans: B
27. Ans: D
56. Ans: A
28. Ans: A
57. Ans: C
29. Ans: A
58. Ans: D
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TEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 6
1. In many ways the eye is analogous to a camera. The light sensitive surface in the back of the eye that
would correspond to the film in a camera is the
A) pupil.
B) retina.
C) blind spot.
D) vitreous humor.
2. Where are the rods and cones of the eye located?
A) Retina.
B) Pupil.
C) Optic nerve.
D) Cornea.
3. The fovea is the part of the retina
A) with the greatest perception of detail.
B) that surrounds the point of exit of the optic nerve.
C) that falls in the shadow cast by the pupil.
D) that has only rods, not cones.
4. If you want to see something in fine detail, you should focus the light on which part of your retina?
A) Optic nerve.
B) Fovea.
C) Part containing mostly rods.
D) Cornea.
5. Anatomically, which of the following types of cell in the retina is located closest to the pupil?
A) Rods.
B) Cones.
C) Bipolar cells.
D) Ganglion cells.
6. Rods and cones make direct synaptic contact with __________ and __________.
A) bipolar cells, ganglion cells
B) bipolar cells, horizontal cells
C) ganglion cells, amacrine cells
D) horizontal cells, amacrine cells
7. The optic nerve, which conveys visual information to the brain, is composed of axons from which kind
of cell?
A) Rods and cones.
B) Bipolar cells.
C) Horizontal cells.
D) Ganglion cells.
8. Why is the blind spot of the retina blind?
A) It is on the border between the area with rods and the area with cones.
B) It is the point where the optic nerve leaves the retina and there are no rods or cones.
C) It is in the shadow of the pupil.
D) Activity of the receptors is silenced by excessive lateral inhibition.
9. The point at which the optic nerve leaves the retina is known as the
A) blind spot.
B) fovea.
C) optic chiasm.
D) amacrine.
10. The two kinds of receptors in the retina are
A) rods and cones.
B) rods and reels.
C) rods and guns.
D) cones and cilia.
11. The optic nerves from the two eyes
A) meet to form the optic chiasm, where half of the axons from each eye cross to the other side.
B) go directly to the ipsilateral hemisphere, without contacting each other.
C) go directly to the contralateral hemisphere, without contacting each other.
D) combine to send identical information to each hemisphere.
12. The occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex receives visual information directly from
A) the optic nerves.
B) the cerebellum.
C) the superior colliculus.
D) the lateral geniculate of the thalamus.
13. In comparison to the rods, the cones of the retina are
A) more common toward the periphery of the retina.
B) more sensitive to detail.
C) more sensitive to dim light.
D) more common in rodents and other nocturnal animals.
14. Walking down a dark alley at night, Nathan is startled by the movement of a cat that he sees out of the
"corner of his eye". He is unable to see the cat when he looks directly at it because
A) the fovea is mostly rods.
B) cones are less sensitive to dim light.
C) dark adaptation occurs more quickly in the periphery than it does centrally.
D) in the fovea there is a higher ratio of receptors to ganglion cells.
15. The perception of color depends on
A) rods.
B) cones.
C) both rods and cones.
D) neither rods nor cones.
16. In comparison to the cones, the rods are
A) more concentrated in the fovea.
B) more sensitive to dim light.
C) more important for color vision.
D) more sensitive to detail.
17. Why are humans unable to distinguish colors in their extreme peripheral vision?
A) As light from the periphery bends through the pupil, different wave lengths are distorted to different
degrees.
B) The periphery of the retina responds only to bright lights.
C) The periphery of the retina contains only rods.
D) The cornea and lens focus all colored lights onto the fovea.
18. Retinal ganglion cells form two classes, based on characteristics of their receptive fields: 1) "on centre
off surround" cells, 2) "off centre on surround" cells. A light moves across type 2, so that it FIRST hits the
periphery (surround) and THEN the centre, one would note the following changes in the firing frequency
of this ganglion cell:
A) a reduction in the frequency, followed by an increase until the original level.
B) an increase of the frequency, followed by a reduction until the original level.
C) an increase of the frequency, followed by a reduction falling under the original level.
D) a reduction in the frequency, followed by an increase till over the original level.
19. Compared to the periphery of the retina, the fovea
A) is more sensitive to dim light.
B) has more receptors funnelling their input to each postsynaptic cell.
C) has a greater percentage of cones.
D) has its receptors more spread out.
20. The range of wavelengths detected by the human eye is approximately
A) 10 100 nm.
B) 400 700 nm.
C) 1,000 10,000 nm.
D) 20 20,000 hz.
21. According to the Young Helmholtz theory, color vision is based on
A) a different receptor for each color.
B) three kinds of receptors.
C) a single receptor that produces different responses for each color.
D) the combined influences of rods and cones.
22. In the most common form of color blindness people have difficulty distinguishing between what two
colors?
A) Blue and yellow.
B) Green and blue.
C) Red and green.
D) Hot pink and neon yellow.
23. Males are __________ likely to be color blind compared to females.
A) less
B) equally
C) more
D) much less
24. Lateral inhibition refers to
A) the effects of autoreceptors on the presynaptic membrane.
B) the reduction of activity in one neuron by activity in a neighbouring neuron.
C) the reduction of activity in one neuron due to inactivity in neighbouring neurons.
D) the opposite effects of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
25. In the vertebrate retina, which type of cell is responsible for lateral inhibition?
A) Horizontal cell.
B) Ganglion cell.
C) Bipolar cell.
D) Glia cell.
26. Horizontal cells in the vertebrate retina receive their input from __________; they send inhibitory input
to __________.
A) rods and cones, ganglion cells
B) rods and cones, bipolar cells
C) bipolar cells, ganglion cells
D) cones, rods
27. What is the receptive field for a neuron in the visual system?
A) The extent of its dendrites.
B) An area of the retina in which stimulation influences the activity of the cell.
C) The area(s) where its axons extend.
D) The set of neurons surrounding it.
28. If stimulating receptor A leads to either excitation or inhibition of a particular neuron in the brain,
then receptor A is part of that neuron's
A) sine wave grating.
B) convergence.
C) receptive field.
D) bipolar area.
29. The typical shape of a receptive field for a retinal bipolar cell is
A) circular, with an inhibitory region in the middle and an excitatory region surrounding it.
B) circular, with an excitatory region in the middle and an inhibitory region surrounding it.
C) bar shaped.
D) either a or b above, depending on the individual cell
30. Which stimulus is most adequate in activating a ganglion cell with an off centre on surround receptive
field?
A) A stimulus which simultaneously lightens the total centre and darkens the total surround.
B) A stimulus which simultaneously lightens the total centre and the total surround.
C) A stimulus which simultaneously darkens the total centre and lightens the total surround.
D) A stimulus which simultaneously darkens the total centre and the total surround.
31. What happens when a small spot of light is moved over the receptive field of an on centre off surround
ganglion cell of the retina in a way that the spot first hits the surround and then the centre?
A) First there is a reduction in the spontaneous firing rate of the cell, followed by a sharp increase.
B) First there is a sharp increase in the spontaneous firing rate of the cell, followed by a reduction.
C) Firstly the cell does not react to the stimulus and then there is a reduction in the spontaneous firing
rate.
D) Firstly the cell does not react to the stimulus and then there is a sharp increase in the spontaneous
firing rate.
32. How can one find the receptive field of a cell in the visual system?
A) Determine which structure sends axons to the cell.
B) Determine where the cell sends its own axon.
C) Measure the extent of the cell's dendrites.
D) Shine light on various parts of the retina and determine the cell's responses.
33. If we compare neurons at progressively higher levels of the visual system (bipolar, ganglion, etc.),
what do we generally find about their receptive fields?
A) At higher levels, the receptive fields are smaller, since at each level the cell focuses on a more restricted
portion of the visual field.
B) At higher levels, the receptive fields are larger and more complicated, since they are made up of a
combination of lower level receptive fields.
C) The receptive fields are the same size at all levels.
D) Sometimes they are larger, sometimes smaller; there is no general trend.
34. Axons from the lateral geniculate extend directly to which parts of the cerebral cortex?
A) Striate cortex.
B) Precentral gyrus.
C) Postcentral gyrus.
D) Cingulate gyrus.
35. In which layer of the retina is visual information coded in series of action potentials?
A) In the layer of the receptor cells.
B) In the layer of the bipolar cells.
C) In the layer of the horizontal cells.
D) In the layer of the ganglion cells.
36. The function of the horizontal cells in the retina is related to:
A) colour vision.
B) depth perception.
C) perception of brightness.
D) increase of contrast.
37. The corpus geniculatum laterale is a nucleus:
A) in the thalamus, belonging to the auditory system.
B) in the midbrain, belonging to the auditory system.
C) in the midbrain, belonging to the visual system.
D) in the thalamus, belonging to the visual system.
38. Where is the receptive field of a lateral geniculate cell located?
A) In the retina.
B) In the midbrain.
C) In the thalamus.
D) In the cerebral cortex.
39. Where is the receptive field of a visual cell in the striate cortex located?
A) In the retina.
B) In the lateral geniculate.
C) In the cerebral cortex.
D) In the superior colliculus.
40. Which stimulus is most adequate in activating a ganglion cell with an on centre off surround receptive
field?
A) A stimulus which simultaneously darkens the total centre and lightens the total surround.
B) A stimulus which simultaneously lightens the total centre and the total surround.
C) A stimulus which simultaneously darkens the total centre and the total surround.
D) A stimulus which simultaneously lightens the total centre and darkens the total surround.
41. The three types of cells in the primary visual cortex are known as
A) simple, complex, and hypercomplex.
B) W, X, and Y.
C) bipolar, ganglion, and horizontal.
D) inferior, middle, and superior.
42. A simple cell in the primary visual cortex responds to light in a receptive field shaped like a
A) bar in a particular orientation.
B) bar of a particular length.
C) circle of a particular radius.
D) circle with a hole in the middle.
6 Answers
1. Ans: B
23. Ans: C
2. Ans: A
24. Ans: B
3. Ans: A
25. Ans: A
4. Ans: B
26. Ans: B
5. Ans: D
27. Ans: B
6. Ans: B
28. Ans: C
7. Ans: D
29. Ans: D
8. Ans: B
30. Ans: C
9. Ans: A
31. Ans: A
10. Ans: A
32. Ans: D
11. Ans: A
33. Ans: B
12. Ans: D
34. Ans: A
13. Ans: B
35. Ans: D
14. Ans: B
36. Ans: D
15. Ans: B
37. Ans: D
16. Ans: B
38. Ans: A
17. Ans: C
39. Ans: A
18. Ans: C
40. Ans: D
19. Ans: C
41. Ans: A
20. Ans: B
42. Ans: A
21. Ans: B
22. Ans: C
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TEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 7
1. What is the basis for differences in sensory abilities across species?
A) The larger the organism, the more intense the stimulus must be to be detected.
B) All organisms detect the same stimuli, but focus attention only on those involved in survival.
C) Organisms detect a range of stimuli that are biologically relevant for that species.
D) Organisms high on the phylogenetic scale can detect all stimuli; lower organisms can only detect a
specific range of stimuli.
2. Which of the following would be able to see the ultraviolet markings on a flower?
A) A bee.
B) A human.
C) Both a bee and a human.
D) Neither a bee nor a human.
3. The conversion of physical energy from some external source (eg. light or sound) into an
electrochemical pattern in the neurons is called
A) reception.
B) transduction.
C) coding.
D) reconstitution.
4. With reference to the sensory systems, "transduction" means
A) the absorption of physical energy.
B) the changing of one sensory modality to another within the brain (eg. converting words you read into
sounds).
C) a one to one correspondence between the physical stimulus and the neural response.
D) the conversion of physical energy into an electrochemical pattern in the neurons.
5. According to the law of specific nerve energies,
A) electrical stimulation of the auditory nerve is perceived as sound.
B) a single nerve can convey either auditory or visual information, depending on the frequency of action
potentials.
C) the brain has ways of inhibiting the activity of neurons that convey no useful information.
D) if one sensory system becomes inactive, others will compensate by increasing their activity.
6. Which of the following (if true) would most seriously violate the "law of specific nerve energies"?
A) A given sensory nerve conveys visual information at one time and auditory information at another.
B) A given sensory nerve can be excited by light of one wavelength and inhibited by light of a different
wavelength.
C) The activity of a given sensory neuron contributes to the perception of both sweet tastes and salty
tastes.
D) Two auditory neurons produce action potentials at different rates in the presence of the same sound.
7. The intensity of a sound wave is its __________; the perception of that intensity is its __________.
A) frequency, amplitude
B) loudness, tone
C) amplitude, pitch
D) amplitude, loudness
8. The average healthy adult can hear pitches ranging from a low of __________ Hz to a high of almost
__________ Hz.
A) 15, 20,000
B) 100, 100,000
C) 1, 5,000
D) 100, 1,000
9. Suppose the highest pitch you can hear is about 20,000 Hz. Under what circumstances will that limit
decrease?
A) It drops naturally as you grow older.
B) It drops if you go several months without listening to any high pitches.
C) It drops only as a result of injury or disease.
D) It drops if the diet is low in calcium.
10. Three small bones connect the tympanic membrane to the oval window of the inner ear. The function
of those bones is to
A) hold the tympanic membrane in place.
B) convert air waves into waves of greater pressure.
C) spread out the air waves over an area of a larger diameter.
D) change the frequency of air waves to a frequency that can be heard.
11. The cochlea is part of which sensory system?
A) Visual.
B) Auditory.
C) Somatosensory.
D) Olfactory.
12. The receptor cells of the auditory system are known as
A) rods.
B) cones.
C) hair cells.
D) Pacinian corpuscles.
13. Transduction of sound occurs when hair cells are bent on the
A) semicircular canal.
B) tympanic membrane.
C) basilar membrane.
D) malleus, incus, and stapes.
14. "Every sound causes one location along the basilar membrane to resonate, and thereby excites
neurons in that area" This is one way to state which theory about pitch perception?
A) Volley principle.
B) Frequency theory.
C) Place theory.
D) Opponent process theory.
15. Travelling waves for high frequency tones produce maximum displacement
A) at the base of the basilar membrane.
B) at the apex of the basilar membrane.
C) in the narrow end of the cochlea.
D) in the eighth cranial nerve.
16. Damage to the cochlea, hair cells, or auditory nerve can produce
A) conductive deafness.
B) nerve deafness.
C) temporary deafness.
D) hysterical deafness.
17. Most people with nerve deafness (inner ear deafness) can hear
A) some frequencies of sound better than others.
B) external sounds, but not their own voices.
C) soft sounds better than loud sounds.
D) nothing at all.
18. Touch, pain, and other body sensations are known as __________ senses.
A) primitive
B) gustatory
C) olfactory
D) mechanical
19. Which two sensory systems are based on the responses of hair cells?
A) Hearing and vision.
B) Hearing and vestibular sensation.
C) Olfaction and taste.
D) Temperature and pain.
20. Various types of somatosensation (pain, discriminative touch, hair movement, stretch of muscles, etc.)
A) are produced by varied responses of a single type of receptor in the skin.
B) are based on different kinds of receptors, although they send their information through the same
spinal pathway.
C) are kept separate through the level of the spinal cord, but are controlled by a single set of neurons in
the brain.
D) are kept separate at all levels from the receptors through the cerebral cortex.
21. What kind of stimulation does a Pacinian corpuscle respond to?
A) Sound waves.
B) Temperature.
C) Movements of the head.
D) Displacement of the skin.
22. Somatosensory information travels from the thalamus to four parallel strips in the
A) parietal lobe.
B) frontal lobe.
C) hippocampus.
D) limbic cortex.
23. The brain chemicals known as endorphins and enkephalins produce effects similar to
A) vitamin B 1 (thiamine).
B) substance P.
C) opiates.
D) amphetamine.
24. In what way do morphine and other opiate drugs decrease sensitivity to pain?
A) By depleting substance P from parts of the nervous system.
B) By mimicking the effects of endorphins at the synapses.
C) By preventing sodium from crossing the membrane.
D) By altering blood flow to various parts of the nervous system.
25. Which of the following produces analgesia (relief from pain)?
A) Substance P.
B) Capsaicin.
C) Naloxone.
D) Endorphins.
26. If a tumor develops in the dorsal somatosensory cortex of the right half of the brain, this can lead to a
loss of feeling in
A) the right side of the face.
B) the left side of the face.
C) the left foot.
D) the right foot.
27. In the skin lie a large number of sensory receptors that together provide information about senses.
Findings indicate that feelings of pain are transmitted through
A) the Pacinian corpuscles.
B) the hair receptors.
C) the free nerve endings.
D) the Meissnes corpuscles.
28. The corpus geniculatum mediale is a nucleus
A) in the thalamus, belonging to the auditory system.
B) in the midbrain, belonging to the auditory system.
C) in the thalamus, belonging to the visual system.
D) in the midbrain, belonging to the visual system.
29. Various receptor systems which together mediate somato sensory information, are present in the
skin. Evidence exists that the sensation of pressure is mediated by
A) Pacinian corpuscles.
B) hair receptors.
C) free nerve endings.
D) Meissner's corpuscles.
7 ANSWERS
1. Ans: C
2. Ans: A
3. Ans: B
4. Ans: D
5. Ans: A
6. Ans: A
7. Ans: D
8. Ans: A
9. Ans: A
10. Ans: B
11. Ans: B
12. Ans: C
13. Ans: C
14. Ans: C
15. Ans: A
16. Ans: B
17. Ans: A
18. Ans: D
19. Ans: B
20. Ans: D
21. Ans: D
22. Ans: A
23. Ans: C
24. Ans: B
25. Ans: D
26. Ans: C
27. Ans: C
28. Ans: A
29. Ans: A
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TEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 8
1. The type of muscle that is responsible for movement of your body with respect to the environment is
the __________ muscle.
A) smooth
B) striated
C) cardiac
D) syncarpous
2. The relationship between axons of motor neurons and muscle fibers is
A) each axon innervates one, and only one, muscle fiber.
B) the more muscle fibers a single axon innervates, the more precise the movements the muscle can
make.
C) the more axons there are innervating a single muscle fiber, the more precise the movements the
muscle can make.
D) the fewer muscle fibers a single axon innervates, the more precise the movements the muscle can
make.
3. Why can the eye muscles be moved with greater precision than the biceps muscles?
A) The biceps have only Golgi tendon organs, no muscle spindles.
B) The biceps have only muscle spindles, no Golgi tendon organs.
C) The biceps are opposed by an antagonistic muscle; the eye muscles are not.
D) The eye muscles have a higher ratio of axons to muscle fibers.
4. A high ratio of axons to muscle fibers leads to
A) greater precision of movement.
B) more rapid fatigue of movement.
C) oscillators rather than reflexes.
D) greater muscle strength.
5. When an axon releases a transmitter at the nerve muscle junction, the muscle
A) relaxes (always).
B) contracts (always).
C) sometimes relaxes and sometimes contracts, depending on the transmitter.
D) sometimes relaxes and sometimes contracts, depending on the duration and amount of release.
6. Acetylcholine causes a muscle to contract. What will cause the muscle to relax?
A) Electrical stimulation.
B) Prolonged absence of acetylcholine.
C) Norepinephrine.
D) Dopamine.
7. What transmitter do axons release at the nerve muscle junction of skeletal muscles?
A) Different axons release different transmitters.
B) They all release dopamine.
C) They all release norepinephrine.
D) They all release acetylcholine.
8. The synapse where a motor neuron's axon meets a muscle fiber is called a(n)
A) Neuromuscular junction.
B) Polar region.
C) Muscle spindle.
D) Annulospiral receptor.
9. Which muscle is "antagonistic" to a flexor muscle in the left leg?
A) A flexor muscle in the right leg.
B) An extensor muscle in the left leg.
C) An extensor muscle in the right leg.
D) Another flexor muscle in the right leg.
10. In order to be able to move your arm in all directions, each set of muscles in your arm and shoulder
must have
A) a high ratio of axons to nerve fibers.
B) a low ratio of axons to nerve fibers.
C) both smooth and striated fibers.
D) an antagonist set of muscles.
11. The cell bodies of motor neurons in mammals are located
A) in ganglia just outside the spinal cord.
B) in the spinal cord and medulla.
C) adjacent to the muscle bundle they innervate.
D) within the muscle bundle they innervate.
12. Loss of eye movements may be due to damage to either the __________ or the __________.
A) basal ganglia, spinal cord.
B) hypothalamus, corpus callosum.
C) hippocampus, amygdala.
D) cerebellum, cranial nerves.
13. Which of these disorders is commonly treated with L DOPA?
A) Phenylketonuria (PKU).
B) Parkinson's disease.
C) Huntington's disease.
D) Schizophrenia.
14. Which would be especially important (i.e. used much more than normal) when you run up a flight of
stairs at full speed?
A) Fast twitch muscles.
B) Slow twitch muscles.
C) Smooth muscles.
D) Intermediate muscles.
15. Which of the following fatigues rapidly?
A) Smooth muscle.
B) Cardiac muscle.
C) Slow twitch muscles.
D) Fast twitch muscles.
16. A proprioceptor is a receptor that is sensitive to
A) the degree of relaxation or contraction of smooth muscle tissue.
B) the position and movement of a part of the body.
C) the percentage of fibers that are contracting within a muscle bundle.
D) the degree of fatigue in a muscle.
17. The muscle spindle is a receptor that responds to
A) the oxygen level in the muscle.
B) the acetylcholine concentration at the nerve muscle junction.
C) fatigue of the muscle.
D) stretch of the muscle.
18. A sudden stretch of a muscle excites a feedback system that opposes the stretch. That system starts
with the excitation of the
A) dorsal root ganglion.
B) cerebellum.
C) Pacinian corpuscles.
D) muscle spindles.
19. What statement is valid regarding Parkinson's disease?
A) The cerebellum is affected, expressed in a tremor during rest.
B) The basal ganglia are affected, expressed in a tremor during rest.
C) The cerebellum is affected, expressed in an intention tremor.
D) The basal ganglia are affected, expressed in an intention tremor.
20. A muscle spindle in your leg is stretched. It sends a message to the spinal cord which, in turn, sends a
message
A) back to the same muscle, causing it to contract.
B) back to the same muscle, causing it to relax.
C) to the antagonist muscle, causing it to contract.
D) to the corresponding muscle on the other leg, causing it to contract.
21. Which kind of proprioceptor responds to increases in muscle tension?
A) Golgi tendon organ.
B) Oscillator.
C) Muscle spindle.
D) Vestibular organ.
22. The role of the Golgi tendon organs is to
A) control the intensity of muscle contractions.
B) guard against fatigue of muscles.
C) produce rapid repetitive movements such as finger tapping.
D) regulate flow of blood to the tendons and muscles.
23. Muscle spindles respond to changes in muscle __________; Golgi tendon organs respond to changes in
muscle __________.
A) tension, fatigue
B) fatigue, tension
C) stretch, tension
D) tension, stretch
24. Activity in a muscle spindle ultimately results in __________ of the relevant muscle; activity in the Golgi
tendon organ ultimately results in __________ of the relevant muscle.
A) contraction, inhibition of contraction
B) inhibition of contraction, contraction
C) inhibition of contraction, inhibition of contraction
D) contraction, contraction
25. One difference between a skilled and an unskilled sequence of movements is that the unskilled
movements rely more on
A) reflexes.
B) moment by moment feedback.
C) oscillators.
D) ballistic movements.
26. A motor program is a
A) mechanism that guides movement on the basis of sensory feedback during the movement itself.
B) mechanism that produces alternation between two movements.
C) movement that, once triggered, continues automatically until its completion.
D) mechanism that controls a large coordinated group of movements.
27. The cerebellum is most important for
A) reflexive movements that use muscles on both sides of the body.
B) slow movements guided by sensory feedback from previous movements.
C) movements that require great physical strength.
D) learned motor programs of ballistic movements.
28. People who have suffered damage to the cerebellum
A) have to plan their movements one at a time, not as a smooth sequence.
B) ignore feedback from previous movements when they are starting a new one.
C) become paralyzed in certain parts of the body.
D) can move normally except that they fatigue quickly.
29. Speaking, piano playing, athletic skills, and other rapid movements are most impaired by damage to
the
A) eighth cranial nerve.
B) cerebellum.
C) caudate nucleus.
D) parasympathetic nervous system.
30. The finger to nose test is a common way of testing for possible damage to the
A) spinal cord.
B) basal ganglia.
C) medulla.
D) cerebellum.
31. Tests for alcoholic intoxication resemble the tests for damage to the
A) temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex.
B) cerebellum.
C) spinal cord.
D) basal ganglia.
32. The symptoms of damage to the cerebellum resemble those of
A) the third stage of syphilis.
B) damage to the hypothalamus.
C) alcoholic intoxication.
D) calcium deficiency.
33. The caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus, substantia nigra, and subthalamic nucleus make up
the
A) basal ganglia.
B) limbic system.
C) pyramidal system.
D) parasympathetic nervous system.
34. Following damage to the basal ganglia, people
A) are unable to move.
B) continually move while awake.
C) move inappropriately, failing to respond to instructions.
D) have difficulty initiating movements.
35. Direct electrical stimulation of the motor cortex generally produces
A) a cessation of all ongoing movements.
B) a coordinated movement involving more than one muscle.
C) spastic, uncoordinated movements involving several muscles.
D) isolated movement of a single muscle.
36. Muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs are two kinds of proprioceptors in the muscle. Which
statement is correct?
A) Muscle spindles contain, besides a sensory part also a motor part. They are linked in series with the
muscle fibers.
B) Golgi tendon organs contain, besides a sensory part also a motor part. They are linked in series with
the muscle fibers.
C) Muscle spindles contain, besides a sensory part also a motor part. They are linked in parallel with the
muscle fibers.
D) Golgi tendon organs contain, besides a sensory part, also a motor part. They are linked in parallel with
the muscle fibers.
37. Which statement is correct?
A) Muscle spindles cause the actual contraction of a muscle. They are innervated by gamma motor
neurons.
B) Muscle fibers cause the actual contraction of a muscle. They are innervated by gamma motor neurons.
C) Muscle spindles cause the actual contraction of a muscle. They are innervated by alpha motor neurons.
D) Muscle fibers cause the actual contraction of a muscle. They are innervated by alpha motor neurons.
38. The two major systems in the mammalian cerebral cortex for controlling movement are the __________
and the __________.
A) endocrine, exocrine
B) sympathetic, parasympathetic
C) dorsolateral, ventromedial
D) basal ganglia, limbic system
39. Axons of the dorsolateral motor system extend from the __________ to the ____.
A) cerebellum, basal ganglia
B) substantia nigra, caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus
C) cerebral cortex, medulla and spinal cord
D) thalamus, cerebral cortex
40. More than half of the axons of the dorsolateral system originate in the
A) primary motor cortex.
B) primary somatosensory cortex of the parietal lobe.
C) primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe.
D) red nucleus and reticular formation.
41. A common treatment for Parkinson's disease is a drug that
A) inhibits activity of the immune system.
B) increases the brain's production of dopamine.
C) blocks the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.
D) facilitates the passage of sodium across neuron membranes.
42. A common treatment for Parkinson's disease is the drug
A) haloperidol.
B) physostigmine.
C) L DOPA.
D) Dilantin.
43. Which of the following is NOT common in people with Parkinson's disease?
A) Difficulty initiating voluntary movements.
B) Slowness of movements.
C) Rigidity and tremors.
D) Outbursts of emotional excitement.
44. One of the main symptoms of Parkinson's disease is
A) rapid fatigue of the muscles.
B) loss of saccadic eye movements.
C) difficulty initiating movements.
D) inability to coordinate speech with movements.
45. Fine motor control of such movements as threading a needle depend mostly on the __________ system.
A) sympathetic
B) parasympathetic
C) dorsolateral
D) ventromedial
46. The dorsolateral motor system is most important for
A) control of postures.
B) saccadic eye movements and control of rapid alternating movements.
C) fine control of precise movements.
D) involuntary movements such as coughing.
8 ANSWERS
1. Ans: B
17. Ans: D
33. Ans: A
2. Ans: D
18. Ans: D
34. Ans: D
3. Ans: D
19. Ans: B
35. Ans: B
4. Ans: A
20. Ans: A
36. Ans: C
5. Ans: B
21. Ans: A
37. Ans: D
6. Ans: B
22. Ans: A
38. Ans: C
7. Ans: D
23. Ans: C
39. Ans: C
8. Ans: A
24. Ans: A
40. Ans: A
9. Ans: B
25. Ans: B
41. Ans: B
10. Ans: D
26. Ans: D
42. Ans: C
11. Ans: B
27. Ans: D
43. Ans: D
12. Ans: D
28. Ans: A
44. Ans: C
13. Ans: B
29. Ans: B
45. Ans: A
14. Ans: A
30. Ans: D
46. Ans: C
15. Ans: D
31. Ans: B
47. Ans: C
16. Ans: B
32. Ans: C
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TEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 9
1. "Endogenous" means
A) occurring at regular intervals.
B) learned.
C) sensitive to light/dark patterns.
D) generated from within.
2. Which of the following is most clearly under the control of a circadian rhythm in most animals?
A) Sleep.
B) Storage of body fat.
C) Migration.
D) Mating.
3. A "free running rhythm" is
A) the activity level of an animal that does not have a biological clock.
B) the sleep pattern of someone who has just finished a period of sleep deprivation and who is now
permitted to sleep without restrictions.
C) a pattern of activity that varies unpredictably from one day to the next.
D) the time cycle generated by a biological clock that is not reset.
4. A "Zeitgeber" is
A) a biological clock.
B) an animal that does not have a biological clock.
C) a mechanism that resets a biological clock.
D) a body activity that is controlled by a biological clock.
5. What is the principal Zeitgeber for land animals?
A) The tides.
B) Temperature.
C) Light.
D) Social stimuli.
6. Under what circumstance is a person's circadian activity cycle most likely to drift out of phase with the
activity of other people?
A) If the person spends a period of time in the forest, away from clocks.
B) If the person habitually eats a heavy meal just before bedtime.
C) If the person spends a period of time in a cave, away from sunlight.
D) If the person spends a period of time near the equator, where the seasons do not vary.
7. If people live in an environment in which the cycle of light and dark is not 24 hours,
A) within a few days they adjust to waking and sleeping on the new schedule, whatever it is.
B) they adjust better if the cycle is some multiple of 24 (e.g. 48).
C) they adjust better if the cycle is close to 24 (e.g. 25).
D) they fail to adjust at all.
8. When humans who are cut off from sunlight and outside contact start sleeping on a schedule other than
24 hours, their waking/sleeping cycle generally drifts out of phase with their __________ cycle.
A) eating
B) hormone secretion
C) temperature
D) activity
9. What ordinarily happens to a humans body temperature over the course of 24 hours?
A) It is about 1 Celsius degree higher in the afternoon than in the middle of the night.
B) It is about 1 Celsius degree higher in the middle of the night than in the afternoon.
C) It varies about 2 Celsius degrees from the hottest point to the coldest, but there is no regularity in the
time when those extremes occur.
D) It is constant throughout the day.
10. The evidence we have for the existence of two (or more) biological clocks in humans is that
A) under some conditions the wake/sleep cycle drifts out of phase with the temperature cycle.
B) light in the evening resets the biological clock but light in the morning does not.
C) it is easier to adjust to a day longer than 24 hours than one shorter than 24 hours.
D) damage to either hemisphere of the cerebral cortex abolishes the biological clock.
11. The biological clock that controls sleeping and wakefulness is apparently independent (or partly
independent) of the biological clock that controls __________.
A) eating
B) drinking
C) temperature
D) hormones
12. Brain damage in what area disrupts the biological clock most greatly?
A) Lateral hypothalamus.
B) Substantia nigra.
C) Suprachiasmatic nucleus.
D) Caudate nucleus.
13. What is the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus in the biological clock?
A) Its neurons generate a 24 hour rhythm themselves.
B) Its neurons can reset the biological clock, but they do not generate it.
C) It relays visual information to the biological clock.
D) It relays information from the biological clock to the brain areas that control temperature and activity.
14. One line of evidence AGAINST the repair and restoration theory of sleep is that
A) people sleep as long after an inactive day as after a vigorous day.
B) digestion and protein synthesis take place during sleep.
C) prolonged sleep deprivation leads to irritability and impaired concentration.
D) certain stimulant drugs can interfere with sleep.
15. A device that can be used to measure stages of sleep is the
A) GSR.
B) EEG.
C) ACTH.
D) FSH.
16. An electroencephalograph measures
A) action potentials in an individual neuron.
B) the electrical resistance of the scalp.
C) the rate of glucose uptake in active regions of the brain.
D) the net average activity of a large number of neurons in a given region of the brain.
17. What is the best way to objectively determine if someone is asleep?
A) Monitor breathing rates.
B) Measure muscle tension.
C) Monitor brain waves.
D) Quietly ask them.
18. Alpha waves occur in an EEG record during
A) non REM sleep.
B) nightmares.
C) relaxed wakefulness.
D) periods of great excitement.
19. What do the EEG waves look like when brain activity is "desynchronized"?
A) Long, slow waves of large amplitude.
B) Short, rapid waves of large amplitude.
C) Regular alternation between waves of large amplitude and waves of small amplitude.
D) Irregular with low amplitude.
20. EEG waves are larger when brain activity decreases because
A) the EEG measures muscle tension, not brain activity.
B) neurons become more synchronized when stimulation decreases.
C) neurons become desynchronized when stimulation decreases.
D) blood flow increases to compensate for the decreased brain activity.
21. If as the result of an accident the brain is damaged and such that the frontal part of the
mesencephalon is destroyed then the patient would:
A) suffer from a more of less constant sleeplessness.
B) suffer from a more or less permanent coma.
C) show no effects related to wakefulness or sleep.
D) show a rather selective reduction in REM sleep.
22. The cause for a reduction in sleep among older persons is that there is a:
A) reduced amount of REM sleep and a reduced amount of slow wave sleep, especially of stage 4.
B) reduced amount of REM sleep and a reduced amount of slow wave sleep, especially of stage 2.
C) reduced amount of REM sleep.
D) reduced amount of slow wave sleep.
23. Suppose the EEG shows a pattern of irregular waves of low amplitude. What must be going on in the
brain?
A) The neurons are active out of phase with one another.
B) Relatively few neurons are active.
C) A great many neurons are active, in phase with one another.
D) We can draw no conclusion about the activity of the neurons.
24. Sleep spindles (bursts of 12 to 14 Hz waves) and K complexes are most characteristic of __________
sleep.
A) stage 1
B) stage 2
C) stage 3
D) stage 4
25. REM sleep is synonymous with
A) alpha waves.
B) stages 1 and 2.
C) stages 3 and 4.
D) paradoxical sleep.
26. Stages 2, 3, and 4 differ in their
A) percentage of REM sleep.
B) percentage of slow, low amplitude waves.
C) body position.
D) dependence on the synaptic transmitter serotonin.
27. The contradiction in "REM" sleep is the fact that
A) the frequency of the brain waves is low, while the amplitude is high.
B) the brain is very active, while many of the muscles of the body are deeply relaxed.
C) subcortical structures are very active, while the cerebral cortex is inactive.
D) postural muscles are tense, while heart rate and breathing rate are very low.
28. Facial twitches, finger twitches, and eye movements are most characteristic of
A) stage 1 sleep.
B) stage 4 sleep.
C) NREM sleep.
D) REM sleep.
29. Which of the following is NOT associated with REM sleep?
A) Increased probability of dreaming.
B) Difficulty to awaken the person.
C) EEG pattern resembling wakefulness.
D) Postural muscles tense and active.
30. The EEG record for REM sleep is most similar to that of
A) stage 1 sleep.
B) stage 2 sleep.
C) stage 3 sleep.
D) stage 4 sleep.
31. REM sleep is associated with
A) tension and activity of the postural muscles.
B) high probability of awakening in the presence of any external stimulus.
C) a high level of brain activity.
D) a highly synchronized EEG pattern.
32. REM sleep stands for
A) reverse electro magnetism.
B) reverberating excitatory mechanism.
C) residual excitation of muscles.
D) rapid eye movement.
33. For a normal person, a cycle of sleep from stage 1 to stage 4 and back again to stage 1 lasts about
A) 5 10 minutes.
B) 90 100 minutes.
C) 4 hours.
D) 7 8 hours.
34. REM sleep, also called paradoxical sleep, is characterised by:
A) an EEG pattern with large waves and a high muscle tension.
B) an EEG pattern with small waves and a high muscle tension.
C) an EEG pattern with small waves and a low muscle tension.
D) an EEG pattern with large waves and a high musle tension.
35. For a normal person, which part of a night's sleep contains the largest percentage of stage 4 sleep?
A) Early in the night’s sleep.
B) The middle of the night’s sleep.
C) Toward the end of the night.
D) All parts equally.
36. Compared to the early part of a night's sleep, the later part
A) includes a larger percentage of REM sleep.
B) includes a lower percentage of REM sleep.
C) is characterized by declining body temperature.
D) has more rapid cycles through the stages of sleep.
37. What is the relationship between sleep stage and dreaming?
A) Dreams occur only in REM sleep.
B) Dreams occur only in non REM sleep.
C) Dreams occur in both, but they are more frequent and more vivid in REM sleep.
D) Dreams occur in both, but they are more frequent and more vivid in non REM sleep.
38. If a person's dream seemed to that person to have lasted about 5 minutes, how long did it really last?
A) About 5 minutes.
B) No more than a few seconds.
C) Much longer than 5 minutes.
D) We have no way of knowing.
39. What is the best way to determine if an individual who claims to never dream does, in fact, have
dreams?
A) Ask them about their dreams immediately after they wake up in the morning.
B) Wake them up during REM sleep and ask them if they had been dreaming.
C) Wake them up during NREM sleep and ask them if they had been dreaming.
D) Ask them under hypnosis if they had any dreams recently.
40. If a person has been awakened every time he or she entered REM sleep for a few days, and is now
permitted to sleep without interruptions, he or she
A) gets about 50 percent more REM sleep than usual.
B) gets nothing but REM sleep for the next several nights.
C) gets little or no REM sleep for the next several nights.
D) gets about the same amount of REM sleep as usual.
41. Which statement with respect to stage 2 and stage 4 of slow wave sleep is correct?
A) Stage 2 dominates in the later part of the night, while stage 4 dominates in the first part.
B) Stage 4 dominates in the later part of the night, while stage 2 dominates in the first part.
C) Stage 2 dominates in the first part of the night, while stage 4 equally occurs over the whole night.
D) Stage 4 dominates in the later part of the night, while stage 2 equally occurs over the whole night.
42. If a cat is awakened every time it starts to enter REM sleep, the number of attempts to enter REM
sleep
A) remains steady over days.
B) gradually decreases to zero.
C) gradually increases, up to a point.
D) increases or decreases, depending on the cat's sex and age.
43. Human subjects deprived of REM sleep for several consecutive days generally report
A) no noticeable negative effects.
B) anxiety, irritability, and impaired concentration.
C) elation, euphoria, and improved concentration.
D) the same effects as control subjects woken at random times.
44. Which of the following most accurately describes the effect of external stimuli while a person is
asleep?
A) While asleep, people are completely cut off from external stimuli.
B) While asleep, external stimuli are processed at the level of the sense organ, but are inhibited before
reaching the brain.
C) You process some external stimuli while you are asleep, and those stimuli may or may not influence
your dreams.
D) You process most external stimuli while you are asleep, and those stimuli completely determine dream
content.
45. The brain goes into a prolonged state of sleep if it is cut off from
A) visual and auditory input.
B) the raphe system.
C) the ascending reticular activating system.
D) somatosensory input.
46. High frequency electrical stimulation to the ascending reticular activating system leads to
A) sudden onset of sleep.
B) increased wakefulness.
C) PGO waves.
D) hypnagogic hallucinations.
47. In contrast to the visual system, the somatosensory system, or any other single sensory system, the
cells of the ascending reticular activating system
A) make fewer connections with one another.
B) project more distinctly to one area of the cerebral cortex.
C) have more diffuse, irregular connections.
D) generate less spontaneous activity on their own.
48. The structure of the ascending reticular activating system makes it highly suitable for
A) conveying general arousal.
B) conveying specific sensory information.
C) localizing sensory information.
D) inhibiting useless sensory information.
49. The ascending reticular activating system receives input from __________ sources, and sends impulses
__________.
A) a variety of diffuse, diffusely throughout the cerebral cortex
B) a few specific, diffusely throughout the cerebral cortex
C) a variety of diffuse, to a few specific locations
D) a few specific, to a few specific locations
50. PGO (as in PGO waves) is an abbreviation for
A) paradoxical gradual onset.
B) psycho galvanic oscillation.
C) pons geniculate occipital.
D) Professional Golf Organization.
51. In the EEG ______ waves dominate when the subject is engaged in solving complicated problems, ______
waves dominate when the subject is awake but in a relaxed state, and ______ waves dominate when the
subject is in deep sleep.
A) alpha, beta, theta
B) alpha, beta, delta
C) beta, alpha, theta
D) beta, alpha, delta
52. Narcolepsy is characterized by
A) inability to breathe while sleeping.
B) involuntary movements of the limbs while sleeping.
C) sudden periods of sleepiness during the day.
D) sleepwalking.
53. Which of the following has often been interpreted as an intrusion of REM sleep into wakefulness?
A) Narcolepsy.
B) Sleep apnea.
C) REM behavior disorder.
D) Somnambulism.
9 ANSWERS
1. Ans : D
10. Ans : A
19. Ans : D
28. Ans : D
37. Ans : C
46. Ans : B
2. Ans : A
11. Ans : C
20. Ans : B
29. Ans : D
38. Ans : A
47. Ans : C
3. Ans : D
12. Ans : C
21. Ans : B
30. Ans : A
39. Ans : B
48. Ans : A
4. Ans : C
13. Ans : A
22. Ans : A
31. Ans : C
40. Ans : A
49. Ans : A
5. Ans : C
14. Ans : A
23. Ans : A
32. Ans : D
41. Ans : A
50. Ans : C
6. Ans : C
15. Ans : B
24. Ans : B
33. Ans : B
42. Ans : C
51. Ans : D
7. Ans : C
16. Ans : D
25. Ans : D
34. Ans : C
43. Ans : B
52. Ans : C
8. Ans : C
17. Ans : C
26. Ans : B
35. Ans : A
44. Ans : C
53. Ans : A
9. Ans : A
18. Ans : C
27. Ans : B
36. Ans : A
45. Ans : C
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TEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 10
1. How do adult mammals with damage to the preoptic area regulate their body temperature?
A) Physiologically.
B) Pharmacologically.
C) Behaviorally.
D) Not at all.
2. Mammals with damage to their preoptic area regulate their body temperature the same way as
__________.
A) birds
B) reptiles
C) normal mammals
D) inanimate objects
3. Prostaglandin E is a chemical that
A) causes damage to the hypothalamus.
B) causes an increase in body temperature.
C) leads to hypovolemic thirst.
D) increases the preference for fluids containing sodium.
4. Which of these chemicals is responsible for producing fevers?
A) 6 hydroxy dopamine.
B) Aldosterone.
C) CCK.
D) Prostaglandin E.
5. If an animal that lacks physiological mechanisms of temperature control gets an infection, it
A) gets cold instead of feverish.
B) gets hot only at the point where the infection began.
C) chooses a hotter environment and gets a fever behaviorally.
D) recovers from the infection faster than animals that do control body temperature.
6. Which of the following is TRUE about a fever?
A) It develops automatically, independent of the preoptic area.
B) It is an indication that the body is not yet fighting the infection.
C) It is part of the body's defense against an illness.
D) It has nothing to do with fighting an infection but it makes the animal feel more comfortable.
7. Which animal would have the best chance of surviving a bacterial infection?
A) One whose temperature dropped slightly.
B) One whose temperature remained normal.
C) One with a slight or moderate temperature increase.
D) One with an extreme temperature increase.
8. Highly concentrated urine would most likely come from a __________ in its natural habitat.
A) fish
B) beaver
C) sea gull
D) gerbil
9. Your posterior pituitary would be most likely to release antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
A) if you are very thirsty.
B) shortly after drinking a large glass of water.
C) if you are very hungry.
D) shortly after eating a large meal.
10. Which of the following reports is a replicable phenomenon?
A) A deficiency of sodium in the blood triggers an immediate increase in preference for salty tastes.
B) An animal that is given reinforcements for increasing its rate of intestinal contractions will increase the
rate even if the skeletal muscles are paralyzed.
C) An injection of a brain extract from a trained animal will allow a new, untrained animal to learn the
task faster.
D) The application of certain enzymes that decrease scar tissue formation enables axons to grow across a
cut in the mammalian spinal cord.
11. Most of the calories people consume are used
A) to form new memory traces.
B) to propagate action potentials.
C) in exercise.
D) for basal metabolism.
12. Lesions to the lateral hypothalamus and ventromedial hypothalamus alter feeding at least partly via
effects on
A) protein synthesis.
B) vision.
C) insulin levels.
D) taste buds.
13. The hormone released by the posterior pituitary that causes your kidneys to reabsorb and conserve
water is __________.
A) antidiuretic hormone
B) insulin
C) luteinizing hormone
D) oxytocin
14. Thirst depends on two set points: one for __________ and the other for __________.
A) artery pressure, vein pressure
B) pH of the blood, temperature of the brain
C) pH of the blood, hematocrit
D) blood volume, water concentration in the cell
15. Osmotic pressure of the body fluids increases when you
A) drink a large glass of water.
B) excrete highly concentrated urine.
C) gain solutes (e.g. sodium chloride).
D) donate blood.
16. Osmotic thirst results from
A) dryness of the throat.
B) the availability of tasty fluids.
C) low blood volume.
D) increased concentration of solutes in the blood.
17. When food distends the duodenum, the duodenum releases the hormone
A) CCK.
B) aldosterone.
C) angiotensin II.
D) prolactin.
18. An injection of CCK
A) increases sodium appetite.
B) leads to constriction of the blood vessels.
C) decreases the size of the next meal.
D) causes increased storage of food as fats.
19. One way in which CCK probably acts to decrease meal size is by
A) decreasing the rate of absorption in the large intestine.
B) inhibiting the flow of nutrients from the stomach to the duodenum.
C) acting on the taste receptors to decrease the appeal of sweet tastes.
D) decreasing metabolic rate throughout the body.
20. According to one likely interpretation, the hormone CCK promotes satiety by
A) speeding up the digestive processes in the intestines.
B) increasing the rate at which glucose enters the cells of the body.
C) prolonging the distention of the stomach.
D) facilitating the conversion of dopamine to norepinephrine in the brain.
21. Why does the level of glucose in the blood vary so little under normal circumstances?
A) The hunger level is not affected by any nutrient that cannot be converted to glucose.
B) Glucose does not leave the blood to enter the cells of the body.
C) Mammals learn to eat only foods that contain glucose.
D) The liver can convert stored nutrients into glucose.
22. When insulin levels are high,
A) fat supplies are converted to glucose, which enters the blood.
B) glucose entry into the cells increases.
C) the individual steadily loses weight.
D) activity and energy levels increase.
23. How does a chronically high insulin level lead to increased appetite?
A) It speeds up the emptying of the stomach and the digestive processes of the intestines.
B) It prevents glucose from entering the cells.
C) It causes a high percentage of available glucose to be stored as fat.
D) It directly alters the responses of the taste buds.
24. When blood levels of insulin are extremely low (as in diabetes),
A) glucose leaves the blood to be stored as fat.
B) appetite is low.
C) much glucose is in the blood but it cannot enter the cells.
D) the brain shifts to proteins as its main source of fuel.
25. Both high levels of insulin and very low levels of insulin lead to increased eating because in both cases
A) glucose leaves the blood to be stored as fat.
B) fat supplies are being rapidly converted to glucose.
C) little glucose is reaching the cells to be used as fuel.
D) activity of the taste buds is directly enhanced.
26. While an animal is putting on extra fat in preparation for migration or hibernation, we should expect
insulin levels to be
A) very low, as in diabetes.
B) intermediate.
C) high.
D) unstable and rapidly fluctuating.
27. Variations in insulin level alter hunger by changing the
A) rate of emptying by the stomach.
B) sensitivity of the taste buds.
C) availability of glucose to the cells.
D) ability of thiamine to cross the blood brain barrier.
28. When people are eating, or getting ready to eat,
A) CCK levels rise.
B) CCK levels fall.
C) insulin levels rise.
D) insulin levels fall.
29. When obese people eat, they
A) release no insulin.
B) release some insulin, but less than people of normal weight.
C) release more insulin than people of normal weight.
D) release the same amount of insulin as normal people, but apparently do not respond to it.
30. What effect, if any, does dieting have on basal metabolism?
A) Metabolic rate decreases when dieting.
B) Metabolic rate is unaffected by restricted food intake.
C) Metabolic rate increases when dieting.
D) Metabolic rate fluctuates wildly when dieting.
31. Which of the following activate the same satiety mechanism that the taste of food does?
A) Taste of plain water.
B) Taste of sugar water.
C) Taste of salty water.
D) All of the above: there is only one satiety mechanism.
32. Prostaglandines are:
A) endogenous morphines that set pain killers to work in the back marrow (gates of Melzack and Wall).
B) endogenous stimulators of an increase in body temperature due to an event in the preoptic area.
C) endogenous morphines that set pain killers to work in the preoptic area.
D) endogenous stimulators of an increase in body temperature due to a working on the back marrow
(gates of Melzack and Wall).
33. Which of the following conclusions to the statement below is FALSE?
Lesions in the hypothalamus, including the preoptic area, can lead to:
A) disturbances of food regulation (too little food intake).
B) disturbances in body temperature.
C) disturbances in osmotic thirst.
D) disturbances in hypovolemic thirst.
34. Humans expend most of their energy
A) on walking, running, and other forms of locomotion.
B) in the beating of their hearts and blood circulation.
C) propagating action potentials in the billions of neurons in the nervous system.
D) maintaining body temperature.
35. A homeostatic process is one that
A) is governed by hormones.
B) maintains a variable within a fixed range.
C) depends on a combination of two synaptic transmitters.
D) regulates blood flow.
36. What is one of the main differences between temperature regulation in mammals and a thermostat in
a house?
A) The thermostat has an upper and lower limit; the body only has a lower limit for temperature
regulation.
B) The thermostat has an upper and lower limit; the body only has an upper limit for temperature
regulation.
C) The body monitors several locations, rather than just one.
D) A thermostat can vary, but the set point for temperature in the body is constant.
37. If an animal's body temperature stays the same as that of the environment, it is said to be __________.
A) homeostatic
B) homeothermic
C) poikilothermic
D) hypovolemic
38. One advantage of being homeothermic is that it
A) reduces the fuel requirements of the body.
B) prevents excessive reliance on a single sensory system.
C) enables the evolution of precise coordination of chemical reactions.
D) decreases the need for shivering and sweating.
39. One advantage of maintaining a constant body temperature is that it
A) enables the animal to stay equally active at all environmental temperatures.
B) enables the animal to survive on a wider variety of diets.
C) minimizes the energy that must be expended on basal metabolism.
D) enables the animal to detect changes in the temperature of the environment.
40. Shivering, fur erection, blood vessel constriction, and sweating are controlled by the
A) pineal body.
B) preoptic area of the hypothalamus.
C) ventromedial hypothalamus.
D) cells that line the third ventricle.
41. Cells in the preoptic area of the hypothalamus monitor
A) their own temperature and the temperature of the skin.
B) the difference in temperature between the arteries and veins.
C) their own temperature and their own blood pressure.
D) the ratio of calcium to magnesium in the blood.
42. A person is most likely to shiver if
A) the skin and the preoptic area are both cold.
B) there is a large difference in temperature between the skin and the preoptic area.
C) the skin and the preoptic area are both hot.
D) the skin is cold and the preoptic area is at normal temperature.
43. After damage to the preoptic area, an animal
A) eats a great deal and gains weight.
B) stops eating.
C) loses its hypovolemic thirst but keeps its osmotic thirst.
D) fails to shiver and sweat sufficiently.
44. The evidence we have that the preoptic area controls body temperature is that
A) after damage to the preoptic area, an animal simultaneously sweats and shivers at all times.
B) each cell in the preoptic area has its own preferred temperature, at which it is more active.
C) cells removed from the preoptic area can maintain a constant temperature even in cell culture.
D) heating or cooling the preoptic area leads to sweating or shivering.
45. How do amphibians and reptiles control their body temperature (if at all)?
A) Not at all.
B) By shivering and sweating.
C) By changing the reflectivity of their skin.
D) By choosing an area of the environment.
46. Which organisms, if any, use behavioral means to regulate their body temperature?
A) Poikilothermic, but not homeothermic.
B) Homeothermic, but not poikilothermic.
C) Both poikilothermic and homeothermic.
D) Neither poikilothermic nor homeothermic.
47. How do infant rats regulate their body temperature?
A) Behaviorally, like lizards.
B) By shivering and licking themselves, like adult rats.
C) By varying the thickness of their fur.
D) Not at all.
10 ANSWERS
1. Ans : C
9. Ans : A
17. Ans : D
25. Ans : C
33. Ans : B
41. Ans : B
2. Ans : B
10. Ans : A
18. Ans : A
26. Ans : C
34. Ans : D
42. Ans : A
3. Ans : B
11. Ans : D
19. Ans : C
27. Ans : C
35. Ans : D
43. Ans : A
4. Ans : D
12. Ans : C
20. Ans : B
28. Ans : C
36. Ans : B
44. Ans : D
5. Ans : C
13. Ans : A
21. Ans : C
29. Ans : C
37. Ans : C
45. Ans : D
6. Ans : C
14. Ans : B
22. Ans : D
30. Ans : C
38. Ans : C
46. Ans : D
7. Ans : C
15. Ans : D
23. Ans : B
31. Ans : A
39. Ans : C
8. Ans : D
16. Ans : C
24. Ans : C
32. Ans : B
40. Ans : A
47. Ans : C
Back to top
TEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 12
1. Which of the following would greatly activate the parasympathetic nervous system?
A) A sudden loud noise.
B) Removal of a stimulus that excited the sympathetic nervous system.
C) A controllable or escapable electric shock.
D) A competitive task.
2. Just after removal of a stimulus that excites the sympathetic nervous system, what happens?
A) Sympathetic nervous system continues for a while and then gradually decreases.
B) Activity of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems returns immediately to the resting
condition.
C) The animal actively seeks new stimuli to maintain sympathetic nervous system arousal.
D) Parasympathetic activity increases as a rebound.
3. Under what circumstances, if any, does a series of shocks excite the parasympathetic nervous system?
A) If the shocks are intense enough to be painful.
B) If the person believes the shocks are escapable.
C) If the person believes the shocks are inescapable.
D) Under no circumstances.
4. A scientist would be most likely to use which of the following when attempting to obtain an objective
measure of emotion?
A) A self-report.
B) Ratings by independent observers.
C) Measures of sympathetic nervous system responses.
D) Measures of parasympathetic nervous system responses.
5. One prediction based on the James Lange theory of emotions is that
A) people have to feel an emotion before they can show physiological effects of it.
B) removal of the stimulus for one emotion causes the onset of an opposite emotion.
C) the more intense the physiological arousal, the greater the emotion.
D) all emotional states produce the same physiological arousal.
6. One prediction based on the James Lange theory of emotions is that
A) at the end of feeling one emotion, one should feel the opposite emotion.
B) the intensity of felt emotion has nothing to do with intensity of physiological arousal.
C) emotions that feel different must be associated with different physiological states.
D) people should express emotions more strongly on the right side of the face than on left side.
7. The James Lange theory of emotions and the Cannon Bard theory differ mainly with regard to the
question,
A) do emotions depend on autonomic changes or are they independent?
B) do nonhumans experience emotions similar to those of humans?
C) do all emotions give rise to physiological changes, or only certain emotions?
D) which are more intense, the pleasant emotions or the unpleasant ones?
8. According to the Cannon Bard theory of emotions, emotions occur
A) before physiological changes.
B) at the same time as physiological changes, but independent of them.
C) after physiological changes, and as a result of them.
D) either before or after physiological changes, depending on whether the emotion is pleasant or
unpleasant.
9. The currently accepted view on the role of psychological factors in health is that
A) most causes of disease are best explained in purely physical, not psychological, terms.
B) psychological reactions play a role in both disease and wellness.
C) positive reactions help recovery, but negative reactions do not affect the risk of disease.
D) psychological factors probably are the primary determining factor in almost all diseases.
10. A psychosomatic illness is one that
A) is imagined, not real.
B) has real psychological symptoms, but not physical symptoms.
C) involves malfunctioning in the synaptic transmission of the nervous system.
D) has real physical symptoms caused, in part, by the person's personality or experiences.
11. Shocks that are __________ cause more ulcers than shocks that are __________.
A) unpredictable, predictable
B) weak, strong
C) administered to the lower half of the body, administered to the upper half
D) continuous, intermittent
12. When an animal works hard to avoid shocks, what process is likely to cause ulcers?
A) Exhaustion of the sympathetic nervous system and depletion of the supply of epinephrine.
B) Excessive stimulation of the digestive system by the sympathetic nervous system.
C) Rebound over-activity by the parasympathetic nervous system during rest periods.
D) Prolonged lack of stimulation of the digestive system.
13. Which of the following is most likely to be a stimulus for the formation of ulcers?
A) A period of stress and hard work.
B) A rest period after a period of stress.
C) A prolonged period without even mild stress.
D) Eating food immediately after a period of exercise.
14. Extreme fluctuations in activity of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems can lead to
__________.
A) amnesia
B) apraxia
C) ulcers
D) anorexia nervosa
15. After removal of a stimulus that had excited the __________, the __________ shows rebound overactivity.
A) sympathetic nervous system, parasympathetic nervous system
B) pyramidal system, extrapyramidal system
C) visual system, auditory system
D) anterior pituitary gland, posterior pituitary gland
16. Which of the following pairings of a system with a behavioral function is WRONG?
A) Sympathetic nervous system readiness for fight or flight behaviors.
B) Dorsolateral system – movement.
C) Limbic system – vision.
D) Peripheral nervous system control of muscles and sensations from the body.
17. Suppose you have just gone through a period of stress and you wish to avoid ulcers. Which of the
following would be good advice?
A) Eat a small snack.
B) Induce vomiting to empty your stomach of all food.
C) Introduce brief, mild stressors during the rest period.
D) Take drugs that suppress activity of the sympathetic nervous system.
18. Over the counter cold remedies stimulate the sympathetic or inhibit the parasympathetic nervous
system. Which of the following effects would you expect such drugs to have?
A) Cause ulcers or increase their severity.
B) Decrease probability of ulcers.
C) Stimulate salivation and appetite.
D) Decrease signs of nervousness.
19. Ulcers are caused by excessive activity of the __________ system.
A) sympathetic
B) parasympathetic
C) pyramidal
D) extrapyramidal
20. A rat's whiskers are cut off; then it is forced to swim in a tank of turbulent water. It dies quickly. Why?
A) Overactivity of the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) Overactivity of the sympathetic nervous system.
C) Inability to swim without its whiskers.
D) Rapid fatigue followed by drowning.
21. A dewhiskered rat, thrown into a tank of turbulent water, resembles a human victim of "voodoo
death" in that both are believed to die from
A) physical exhaustion.
B) lack of adequate sleep.
C) excessive sympathetic nervous system activity.
D) excessive parasympathetic nervous system activity.
22. Certain cases of sudden death, as in voodoo death, are due to
A) Overactivity of the sympathetic nervous system.
B) Underactivity of the sympathetic nervous system.
C) Overactivity of the parasympathetic nervous system.
D) Underactivity of the parasympathetic nervous system.
23. Benzodiazepines are steadily replacing the less desirable barbiturates. Which of the following
characteristics of benzodiazepines is TRUE?
A) Benzodiazepines strengthen the working of GABA agonists.
B) Benzodiazepines strengthen the working of GABA antagonists.
C) Benzodiazepines strengthen the working of serotonin agonists.
D) Benzodiazepines strengthen the working of serotonin antagonists.
24. When benzodiazepines attach to their receptors, the net effect is
A) increased flow of chloride at GABA synapses.
B) increased flow of sodium at GABA synapses.
C) decreased flow of chloride at serotonin synapses.
D) decreased flow of sodium at serotonin synapses.
25. Benzodiazepines bind to the same receptor sites in the brain as the naturally occurring chemicals
known as
A) monoamines.
B) nerve growth factors.
C) carbolines.
D) endorphins.
26. The involvement of the limbic system in expressing and regulating emotions is recognised. Which of
the following interventions does NOT really confirm this hypothesis?
A) Lesions in the hypothalamus.
B) Intra cranial self stimulation in the medial forebrain bundle.
C) Lesions in the amygdala.
D) Lesions deep in the cerebellum nucleus.
27. Alcohol decreases anxiety by
A) promoting chloride flow at the GABA receptor complex.
B) inhibiting chloride flow at the GABA receptor complex.
C) promoting sodium flow at serotonin synapses.
D) inhibiting sodium flow at serotonin synapses
28. People who are subject to panic attacks tend to have
A) an underresponsive sympathetic nervous system.
B) an overresponsive sympathetic nervous system.
C) higher than normal levels of GABA activity in the brain.
D) less than normal response to lactate.
29. People with panic attacks have chronically high levels of ____circulating in the blood.
A) norepinephrine
B) GABA
C) carbolines
D) acetylcholine
30. Many people with panic attacks make their own problems worse by
A) excessive sleeping.
B) hyperventilating.
C) consistent exercise.
D) eating foods rich in tryptophan.
31. Damage to which area of the brain makes animals emotionally unresponsive?
A) Amygdala.
B) Cerebellum.
C) Locus coeruleus.
D) Lateral geniculate.
32. Many people with panic disorder have an overresponsive
A) basal ganglia.
B) sympathetic nervous system.
C) immune system.
D) reticular activating system.
33. Which of the following sometimes leads to immediate indications of pleasure?
A) Injections of the drug naloxone.
B) Impaired release of the synaptic transmitter serotonin.
C) Electrical stimulation of the brain.
D) Release of the synaptic transmitter substance P.
34. Benzodiazepines are most commonly used in the treatment of __________.
A) psychotic thought disorder
B) anxiety
C) alcoholism
D) obesity
12 ANSWERS
1. Ans: B
6. Ans: C
11. Ans: A
16. Ans: C
21. Ans: D
26. Ans: D
31. Ans: A
2. Ans: D
7. Ans: A
12. Ans: C
17. Ans: A
22. Ans: C
27. Ans: A
32. Ans: B
3. Ans: C
8. Ans: B
13. Ans: B
18. Ans: B
23. Ans: A
28. Ans: B
33. Ans: C
4. Ans: C
9. Ans: B
14. Ans: C
19. Ans: B
24. Ans: A
29. Ans: A
34. Ans: B
5. Ans: C
10.Ans: D
15. Ans: A
20. Ans: A
25. Ans: C
30. Ans: B
Back to top
TEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 13
1. The neurological patient H.M. became widely known because of his almost total inability to
A) form new memories.
B) comprehend spoken language.
C) judge how much to eat and drink.
D) control his emotional outbursts.
2. Thiamine deficiency leads to Korsakoff's syndrome because thiamine is necessary for the
A) metabolism of glucose.
B) synthesis of proteins.
C) myelination of axons.
D) protection against toxins.
3. What produces Korsakoff's syndrome?
A) Reduced stimulation during development.
B) A diet deficient in thiamine.
C) A phase advanced temperature cycle.
D) An extra copy of chromosome 21.
4. The net effect of blocking potassium gates in the membrane is to
A) stimulate increased activity of the sodium potassium pump.
B) decrease the refractory period.
C) prevent the neuron from reaching its threshold.
D) prolong the action potential.
5. The degree of memory loss in Alzheimer's disease victims correlates with
A) the number of family members the victim has with the disease.
B) a decline in brain acetylcholine levels.
C) an increase in blood glucose levels.
D) the age of onset of the disease (i.e. the older the person is when symptoms first appear, the more
memory loss).
6. Both classical and operant conditioning can be described as
A) an association between two events.
B) instrumental conditioning.
C) stimulus independent.
D) consequence independent.
7. Pavlov believed that classical conditioning reflected a strengthened connection between a brain area
that represents __________ and a brain area that represents __________.
A) reinforcement, punishment
B) a response, a consequence
C) US activity, UR activity
D) CS activity, US activity
8. Lashley found that a deep cut in a rat's cerebral cortex impaired learning under what circumstances (if
any)?
A) If the cut was made prior to the learning.
B) If the cut was made after the learning.
C) If the learned task was simple.
D) Under none of the circumstances he studied.
9. Lashley's principles of mass action and equipotentiality imply that
A) amount of brain damage is more critical than location.
B) location of brain damage is more critical than amount.
C) learning depends on connections that grow from the CS center to the US center.
D) learning depends on connections that grow from the US center to the CS center.
10. Which of the following observations (if true) would most seriously CONTRADICT Lashley's principles
of mass action and equipotentiality?
A) A learned response is lost after damage to one connection but not others.
B) An individual with damage to the occipital cortex has the same learning impairment as one with
damage to the temporal cortex.
C) Within a family of animals, the larger species learn faster and remember longer than the smaller
species.
D) Brain damage impairs performance of complex tasks more than simple tasks.
11. Lashley's experiments in search of the engram involved damaging cells in
A) the cerebral cortex.
B) subcortical areas of the brain.
C) all areas of the brain, cortical and subcortical, equally.
D) the pathways that connect the cerebral cortex to the subcortical areas.
12. Which of the following statements about amnesia is TRUE?
A) Someone who loses memory for past events will also be unable to form new memories.
B) Only damage to the cerebral cortex will produce amnesia.
C) Some people show severe impairments in some aspects of memory without any impairments in other
aspects of memory.
D) Amnesia refers to a loss in previously stored memories, not to an impairment in forming new
memories.
13. The patient H.M. has suffered severe memory disorders following a surgical operation that removed
his
A) corpus callosum.
B) lateral interpositus nucleus and hypothalamus.
C) hippocampus and amygdala.
D) prefrontal cortex and dorsomedial thalamus.
14. Retrograde amnesia means __________; anterograde amnesia means __________.
A) temporary loss of memory, permanent loss of memory
B) loss of short term memory, loss of long term memory
C) inability to form new memories, loss of memory for old events
D) loss of memory for old events, inability to form new memories
15. The patient H.M., who had his hippocampus and amygdala removed surgically in 1953, suffered a
severe difficulty in remembering events that happened
A) in 1953.
B) during or after 1953.
C) long before 1953.
D) at any time in his life.
16. One peculiarity of the memory of the neurological patient H.M. is that he
A) retains new skills but does not remember having learned them.
B) forms new long term memories but not short term memories.
C) thinks he remembers certain events but recalls the exact opposite of what really happened.
D) remembers people's names but not which name goes with which person.
17. Korsakoff's syndrome is a type of brain damage caused by deficiency of _________.
A) thiamine
B) protein
C) sodium
D) calcium
18. If Korsakoff's syndrome is detected early, it can be treated effectively with
A) choline and lecithin.
B) glucose.
C) benzodiazepines.
D) thiamine.
19. Patients with Korsakoff's syndrome typically suffer from
A) both anterograde and retrograde amnesia.
B) only anterograde amnesia.
C) only retrograde amnesia.
D) neither anterograde nor retrograde amnesia.
20. The symptoms of Korsakoff's syndrome include
A) inability to localize sensory stimuli.
B) retrograde and anterograde amnesia.
C) inability to coordinate the left and right halves of the body.
D) coarse coughing.
21. Most Korsakoff's victims have extensive damage in the dorsomedial thalamus and atrophy in the
A) cingulate gyrus.
B) occipital lobe.
C) prefrontal cortex.
D) cerebellum.
22. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) "Plaques" and "Tangles" are anatomical characteristics of patients suffering from Turner's Syndrome.
B) "Plaques" and "Tangles are anatomical characteristics of patients suffering from Down's Syndrome.
C) "Plaques" and "Tangles" are anatomical characteristics of patients suffering from Alzheimer's disease.
D) "Plaques" and "Tangles" are anatomical characteristics of patients suffering from Korsakoff's
Syndrome.
23. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) If a conditioned stimulus (CS) results from Pavlovian conditioning, then the CS can cause emotions if it
was coupled to an unconditioned response (UCR or UR), that raised the same emotions.
B) If a conditioned stimulus (CS) is no longer associated with an unconditioned stimulus (US), then the CS
slowly loses its power to cause a conditioned response (CR). This is called extinction.
C) Classic conditioning arises independent of the temporal relationship between the conditioned stimulus
(CS) and the unconditioned stimulus (US).
D) A neutral stimulus must frequently be paired with an unconditioned stimulus (US) before the neutral
stimulus can become a conditioned stimulus (CS).
24. The degree of memory loss that occurs in normal aging is known to correlate with the amount of
decline in brain levels of __________.
A) glia
B) glucose
C) cerebrospinal fluid
D) acetylcholine
25. The memory performances of children in the first four or five years of life resembles (in milder
degree) that of adults who have suffered damage to the
A) parietal lobe.
B) lateral interpositus nucleus.
C) arcuate fasciculus.
D) hippocampus.
26. What do all the following have in common: children under the age 4, old people, monkeys with
damage to the hippocampus, monkeys with damage to the prefrontal cortex?
A) better working memory than reference memory
B) better memory for skills than facts
C) better learning of facts than of skills
D) better sensitization than habituation
27. One reason that memory declines in aged animals is
A) endorphin levels are lower than in young animals.
B) there is less corticosterone available for the hippocampus.
C) calcium channels become "leaky".
D) acetylcholine levels in the brain rise.
28. A neuron that is "potentiated" is one that
A) is highly responsive to new input similar to the stimuli that potentiated it.
B) is completely unresponsive to any stimulus other than the specific stimulus that potentiated it.
C) has increased numbers of collaterals branching from its axon.
D) has an elevated spontaneous rate of firing.
29. How does one produce long term potentiation of cells in the mammalian nervous system?
A) A burst of many stimuli within a few seconds.
B) Many stimuli spaced at exactly equal intervals over a period of minutes.
C) Minutes of uninterrupted inhibitory stimulation.
D) One simultaneous pairing of an excitatory stimulus and an inhibitory stimulus.
30. If a mild touch on the siphon is repeatedly paired with electrical stimulation to the tail of an Aplysia
the animal will gradually begin to withdraw its siphon in response to touch. This is an example of
__________.
A) habituation
B) sensitization
C) classical conditioning
D) operant conditioning
31. In Aplysia, sensitization has been found to depend on a series of events that
A) block sodium gates in the motor neuron.
B) decrease calcium concentration in the area surrounding the sensory neuron.
C) open chloride gates in the motor neuron.
D) block potassium gates in the sensory neuron.
32. In Aplysia, following a certain kind of experience, a facilitating interneuron causes changes that block
the potassium channels at the end of the axon of the sensory neuron. The result will be
A) sensitization.
B) habituation.
C) both sensitization and habituation.
D) neither sensitization nor habituation.
13 ANSWERS
4.
Ans : A
5.
Ans : A
6.
Ans : B
7.
Ans : D
8.
Ans : B
9.
Ans : A
10. Ans : D
11. Ans : D
9. Ans : A
17. Ans : A
25. Ans : D
10. Ans : A
18. Ans : D
26. Ans : B
11. Ans : A
19. Ans : A
27. Ans : C
12. Ans : C
20. Ans : B
28. Ans : A
13. Ans : C
21. Ans : C
29. Ans : A
14. Ans : D
22. Ans : C
30. Ans : C
15. Ans : B
23. Ans : B
31. Ans : D
16. Ans : A
24. Ans : D
32. Ans : A
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TEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 14
1. Both monkeys and humans with damage to the prefrontal cortex are impaired in their performance of
tasks requiring
A) learning of motor skills.
B) discriminating between different visual stimuli.
C) suppressing one's previous response and substituting a new one.
D) classical conditioning.
2. Perseveration (the tendency to make the same response repeatedly when another response should be
made instead) is characteristic of humans and monkeys with damage to the
A) prefrontal cortex.
B) hypothalamus.
C) amygdala.
D) temporal lobes.
3. Difficulty shifting from performing a task following one rule to following a different rule is a common
symptom of damage to the
A) prefrontal cortex.
B) hippocampus.
C) amygdala.
D) temporal lobes.
4. Using the distinction between short term and long term memory, one would describe H. M.'s memory
problems as an inability to
A) recall previously formed long term memories.
B) form short term memories.
C) retrieve short term memories.
D) establish new long term memories.
5. H.M., Korsakoff's patients, and Alzheimer's patients all have impairments in __________ memory, but are
unimpaired in __________ memory.
A) short term, long term
B) reference, working
C) declarative, reference
D) declarative, procedural
6. Memory for acquired skills, such as tying shoelaces or driving a car, is called __________ memory.
A) declarative memory
B) procedural memory
C) reference memory
D) working memory
7. The study of amnesiac patients leads us to the conclusion that people have __________ kind of memory,
and that memory depends on __________ of the brain.
A) one, one specific location
B) one, different parts
C) more than one, one specific location
D) more than one, different parts
8. In the context of memory, the term consolidation refers to
A) the formation of long term memory.
B) the formation of short term memory.
C) disruption of the formation of long term memory.
D) disruption of the formation of short term memory.
9. Rats given electroconvulsive shock (ECS) shortly after learning a task
A) remember the task better.
B) forget the task for a few days, but the memory eventually completely recovers.
C) are more likely to forget the task if there is a long delay between learning and the ECS.
D) are more likely to forget the task if there is only a short delay between learning and the ECS.
10. When a rat re-enters a correct arm in a radial arm maze, before trying other correct arms, there has
been a failure in __________ memory.
A) working
B) long term
C) reference
D) declarative
11. Which of the following tests is used to measure working memory in animals?
A) Radial maze.
B) Visual discrimination.
C) Passive avoidance.
D) Taste aversion learning.
12. Damage to the dorsomedial thalamus and atrophy in the prefrontal cortex are most associated with
A) Alzheimer's disease.
B) Korsakoff's syndrome.
C) Excess thiamine in the diet.
D) Down's syndrome.
13. When prompted with cues, Korsakoff's victims can often produce words from lists they saw but claim
to have never seen. This is an example of __________ memory.
A) reference
B) procedural
C) implicit
D) explicit
14. A group of Korsakoff's syndrome patients read over a list of words. Later, what evidence of memory (if
any) do they show?
A) None at all.
B) They remember the first word and the last word only.
C) They remember reading a list, although they cannot remember any of the words.
D) They say many of the correct words if they are given the first three letters.
15. Someone with a mild to moderate case of Alzheimer's disease would be most likely to remember
A) how to drive a car.
B) what make of car he or she drives.
C) where he or she parked the car.
D) the time he or she most recently drove a car.
16. H.M., Korsakoff's patients, and Alzheimer's patients all have their best success at learning and
retaining new __________.
A) facts
B) skills
C) names of people
D) words
17. H.M., Korsakoff's patients, and Alzheimer's patients all have better memory for
A) recent events than events of the remote past.
B) what is happening at a given moment than general principles.
C) skills than facts.
D) verbal information than visual information.
18. Alzheimer's disease is associated with what kind of brain damage?
A) Progressive loss of the fibers connecting the substantia nigra to the basal ganglia.
B) Loss of cell bodies in the dorsomedial thalamus and the mammillary bodies.
C) Tangles and plaques in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus.
D) An epileptic focus in the temporal lobe of the cortex.
19. Plaques and tangles in the cerebral cortex are characteristic of people with
A) retrograde amnesia.
B) anterograde amnesia.
C) Korsakoff's syndrome.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
20. Which of the following is TRUE about the role of genetics in the development of Alzheimer's?
A) Only people with a family history of Alzheimer's will develop the disease.
B) People with a family history of Alzheimer's have an increased chance of getting the disease, but others
get it as well.
C) There is no known genetic influence in the development of Alzheimer's.
D) People with close relatives who have Alzheimer's are actually less likely to develop the disease than
most people.
21. If people with Down's syndrome live long enough, they invariably develop
A) Korsakoff's syndrome.
B) Parkinson's disease.
C) Huntington's disease.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
22. Which kind of person is most likely to develop Alzheimer's disease?
A) Chronic alcoholics.
B) People with Down's syndrome.
C) People exposed to paraquat and similar herbicides.
D) People with epilepsy.
23. Remembering which of the following is an example of working memory?
A) How to drive a car.
B) The layout of streets in your city.
C) Where you left your keys today.
D) The laws governing traffic.
14 ANSWERS
1. Ans. : C
7. Ans. : D
13. Ans. : C
19. Ans. :
D
2. Ans. : A
8. Ans. : A
14. Ans. : D
20. Ans. :
B
3. Ans. : A
9. Ans. : D
15. Ans. : A
21. Ans. :
D
4. Ans. : D
10. Ans. : A
16. Ans. : B
22. Ans. :
B
5. Ans. : D
11. Ans. : A
17. Ans. : C
23. Ans. :
C
6. Ans. : B
12. Ans. : B
18. Ans. : C
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TEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 15
1. What does the enzyme MAO do?
A) Breaks down catecholamines
B) Increases protein synthesis
C) Metabolizes alcohol into a toxic substance
D) Metabolizes glucose as a source of energy
2. The consequence of stimulating an autoreceptor is to
A) decrease the branching pattern of the dendrites.
B) increase the release of transmitter from the presynaptic cell.
C) decrease the release of transmitter from the presynaptic cell.
D) produce IPSPs in the postsynaptic cell.
3. Which of these disorders is associated with short latency to REM sleep early in the night?
A) Fetal alcohol syndrome.
B) Parkinson's disease.
C) Korsakoff's syndrome.
D) Depression.
4. The sleep and temperature cycles of seasonal affective disorder patients are __________, unlike other
depressed patients.
A) normal
B) phase delayed
C) phase advanced
D) totally random
5. Lithium is most commonly prescribed for
A) seasonal affective disorder.
B) endogenous depression.
C) reactive depression.
D) manic depressive disorder.
6. Why must physicians carefully monitor the dosage of lithium they give to manic depressive patients?
A) People develop a tolerance to the drug and must gradually increase their dosage.
B) People develop a sensitivity to the drug and must gradually decrease their dosage.
C) The amount of drug needed to achieve a good effect varies from one time of year to another.
D) The most beneficial dosage is just less than the dosage that is toxic.
7. Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of schizophrenia?
A) Deterioration of everyday functioning.
B) Hallucinations or delusions.
C) Impaired understanding of abstract concepts.
D) Alternation between one personality and another.
8. Someone with deterioration of everyday functioning AND hallucinations or delusions or thought
disorder is classified as having
A) schizophrenia.
B) bipolar disorder.
C) attention deficit disorder.
D) Klinefelter's syndrome.
9. Which of the following behaviors meets the definition of schizophrenia?
A) Alternation between one personality and another.
B) Outbursts of unprovoked violent behavior toward strangers.
C) Deterioration of daily functioning, hallucinations, and thought disorder.
D) Episodes of being unable to remember certain events of one's past.
10. The most common thought disorder of schizophrenia is
A) obsessive concentration on a single thought.
B) alternating between one personality (with its own memories) and another.
C) excessive anxiety when thinking about one particular topic.
D) impaired understanding of abstract concepts.
11. Which of the following is an example of a "negative symptom" of schizophrenia?
A) Hallucinations.
B) Lack of emotional expression.
C) Delusions.
D) Thought disorder.
12. A schizophrenic patient whose main symptoms are lack of emotional expression, lack of social
interaction, and lack of speech is said to suffer from
A) positive symptoms.
B) negative symptoms.
C) thought disorder.
D) delusions.
13. With regard to schizophrenia, the difference between positive symptoms and negative symptoms
refers to a difference between
A) beneficial behaviors and harmful behaviors.
B) behaviors that are present and behaviors that are absent.
C) behaviors that are related to abnormal brain functioning and those that are not.
D) behaviors that are shown by one personality and behaviors that are shown by another.
14. What is meant when we say that a schizophrenic patient has a "negative symptom"?
A) The patient engages in a behavior that is harmful to himself/herself.
B) The patient engages in a behavior that is harmful to others.
C) The patient engages in a behavior that is unusual for other people.
D) The patient fails to engage in a behavior common in other people.
15. Which is NOT true about the incidence of schizophrenia?
A) It is commonly estimated to occur in 10 15 percent of the population.
B) It is reported more often in the United States than in Third World countries.
C) Within the United States, it is more common in impoverished areas than in wealthy areas.
D) It is about equally common in women and men.
16. Schizophrenia is generally diagnosed for the first time when a person is between the ages
A) 5 and 10.
B) 10 and 15.
C) 15 and 30.
D) 40 and 50.
17. What is the usual time course of schizophrenia?
A) Onset in childhood, substantial improvement in adolescence.
B) Onset in childhood, continuation for years, perhaps for life.
C) Onset in young adulthood, substantial improvement in middle age.
D) Onset in young adulthood, continuation for years, perhaps for life.
18. Which of these indications of brain damage is common in people with schizophrenia?
A) Smaller than normal cerebral ventricles.
B) Loss of neurons in the thalamus, cerebral cortex, and hippocampus.
C) Loss of axons between the substantia nigra and the basal ganglia.
D) Heavier forebrains.
19. Which of the following is common in schizophrenia?
A) Bursts of rapid activity in cells of the hippocampus.
B) Relatively low metabolism in the frontal cortex.
C) Altered pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.
D) Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid into the brain.
20. Which statement relating to the following two hypotheses is TRUE?
A) Dopamine hypothesis: too much dopamine causes schizophrenia; Monoamine hypothesis: a shortage
of norepinephrine and/or serotonin is responsible for affective disorders.
B) Dopamine hypothesis: a shortage of dopamine causes schizophrenia; Monoamine hypothesis: a
shortage of norepinephrine and/or serotonin is responsible for affective disorders.
C) Dopamine hypothesis: a shortage of dopamine causes schizophrenia; Monoamine hypothesis: too
much adrenaline and/or serotonin causes affective disorders.
D) Dopamine hypothesis: too much dopamine causes schizophrenia; Monoamine hypothesis: too much
norepinephrine and/or serotonin causes affective disorders.
21. Total brain activity, as measured by the rate of glucose metabolism, is
A) high in both mania and depression.
B) low in both mania and depression.
C) low in mania and high in depression.
D) high in mania and low in depression.
22. Borna disease virus has been found in some of the people who suffer from
A) schizophrenia.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) attention deficit disorder.
D) manic depressive disorder.
23. Which of the following is associated with depression and bipolar disorder?
A) Digestive system abnormalities.
B) Borna disease virus.
C) Excess of the synaptic transmitter glutamate.
D) Shrinkage of the cerebral ventricles.
24. Which of the following is NOT associated with depression?
A) Impulsiveness.
B) Sleep disorders.
C) Inactivity.
D) Decreased left hemisphere activity.
25. A restless, impulsive person whose speech rambles from one idea to another may fit which of these
categories?
A) Autism.
B) Depression.
C) Mania.
D) Narcolepsy.
26. People with unipolar disorder
A) are always depressed.
B) vary between depression and mania.
C) vary between depression and normal mood.
D) only show chemical imbalances in one half of their brain.
27. Which of the following is TRUE about unipolar disorder?
A) People with unipolar disorder go to sleep earlier and wake up later than other people.
B) It is less common than bipolar disorder.
C) The average age of onset is younger than in bipolar disorder.
D) It is more common in women than in men.
28. Manic depressive disorder is synonymous with
A) unipolar disorder.
B) bipolar disorder.
C) hypomania.
D) autism.
29. Which is TRUE when considering the role of genetics in depression?
A) Unipolar disorder runs in families, bipolar does not.
B) Bipolar disorder runs in families, unipolar does not.
C) Adopted children who become depressed are more likely to have depressed biological relatives than
depressed adoptive relatives.
D) Adopted children who become depressed are more likely to have depressed adoptive relatives than
depressed biological relatives.
30. The hormonal changes associated with menstruation and giving birth have what apparent effect on
depression?
A) They decrease the probability of a woman's becoming depressed.
B) They temporarily decrease the severity of an episode of depression.
C) They trigger an episode of depression or aggravate such an episode.
D) They cause temporary episodes of depression even in women who would not have become depressed
otherwise.
31. Depressed people as a rule have signs of decreased activity in the __________ hemisphere of their
cerebral cortex. When they are given ECT to just one hemisphere, it is given on the __________ side.
A) left, left.
B) left, right.
C) right, left.
D) right, right.
32. When a patient is given electroconvulsive shock therapy today,
A) the patient receives ECT once a day until the mental symptoms are lifted.
B) the shock intensity is as severe as the patient will accept.
C) the patient must first give informed consent.
D) the treatment is more a punishment for a misbehaving patient than a serious attempt at helping the
patient.
33. For which of these people is electroconvulsive shock LEAST likely to be given?
A) Patients who do not respond to antidepressant drugs.
B) Schizophrenic patients.
C) Depressed patients with suicidal tendencies.
D) Patients with delusions as well as depression.
34. For which of these types of disorders is electroconvulsive shock MOST likely to be used?
A) Schizophrenia.
B) Depression with delusions.
C) Seasonal affective disorder.
D) Mild postpartum depression.
35. One advantage of electroconvulsive shock over antidepressant drugs is that the shock treatment
A) produces its benefits faster.
B) does not impair memory.
C) produces a permanent, not a temporary, relief.
D) is based on a theory, not just trial and error discoveries.
36. What is the best treatment for seasonal affective disorder?
A) Bright light.
B) Electroconvulsive shock therapy.
C) Adrenal hormones.
D) Dietary changes.
15 ANSWERS
1. Ans : A
7. Ans : D
13. Ans : B
19. Ans : B
25. Ans : C
31. Ans : B
2. Ans : C
8. Ans : A
14. Ans : D
20. Ans : A
26. Ans : C
32. Ans : C
3. Ans : D
9. Ans : C
15. Ans : A
21. Ans : D
27. Ans : B
33. Ans : B
4. Ans : B
10. Ans : D
16. Ans : C
22. Ans : D
28. Ans : B
34. Ans : B
5. Ans : D
11. Ans : B
17. Ans : D
23. Ans : B
29. Ans : C
35. Ans : A
6. Ans : D
12. Ans : B
18. Ans : B
24. Ans : A
30. Ans : C
36. Ans : A