West Carleton Secondary School
SPH3U - Practice Exam
This practice exam is NOT intended to be a substitute for preparing for the exam, but a support for you. It can not
cover every possible type of question you must be able to answer. As with the actual exam, you need to:
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
____
____
____
____
____
1. Which of the following is a "scalar" quantity?
a. distance
d. displacement
b. velocity
e. none of the above
c. acceleration
2. Which of the following would be considered a "base" quantity rather than a "derived" quantity?
a. speed
d. acceleration
b. velocity
e. none of the above
c. distance
3. Consider the following velocity-time graph and select the statement that is true.
a. At no time can the motion be considered "uniform."
b. The object returns to its original position.
c. The object travels in one direction and then the other.
d. The object is accelerating throughout the entire recorded time.
e. The object speeds up and later slows down.
4. A ball is thrown vertically upward into the air. Which of the following acceleration-time graphs represents the ball's
motion?
a. A
d. D
b. B
e. E
c. C
5. You set out in a canoe from the east shore of a south-flowing river. To maximize your velocity relative to the shore
you should point your boat
a. north
d. south
b. east
e. southeast
c. west
6. A pilot flies to a destination due north from the departure point. During the flight there is a wind blowing from the
west. What direction must the pilot point the plane during the flight?
a. due east
d. due west
b. east of north
e. west of north
c. due north
____
____
____
____
____
7. A taxi cab drives 2.0 km [W], then 3.0 km [N], then 4.0 km [W], and finally 5.0 km [N]. The entire trip takes 0.30 h.
What is the taxi's average velocity?
a. 47 km/h [53° W of N]
d. 33 km/h [53° W of N]
b. 47 km/h [53° N of W]
e. 10 km/h [53° W of N]
c. 33 km/h [53° N of W]
8. If an object accelerates at 6.2 m/s2 [N], how long will it take to reach a velocity of 25 m/s [N] if starting from rest?
a. 25 s
d. 0.25 s
b. 4.0 m/s
e. 4.0 s
c. 31 s
9. An object is thrown vertically upward at 25.0 m/s. If it experiences an acceleration due to gravity of 9.8 m/s2 [down],
what is the object's velocity 3.0 s later?
a. 22 m/s [down]
d. 4 m/s [down]
b. 22 m/s [up]
e. zero (it has hit the ground)
c. 4 m/s [up]
10. A stone is thrown vertically downward with a speed of 10 m/s from a bridge. Accelerating under gravity (9.8 m/s2),
the stone strikes the water 1.8 s later. From what height above the water was the stone thrown? (Assume 2 significant
digits.)
a. 50 m
d. 15 m
b. 34 m
e. 3 m
c. 27 m
11. Which of the following free-body diagrams best represents the forces acting on an astronaut in orbit around the
Earth?
a. A
d. D
b. B
e. E
c. C
____ 12. Study the free-body diagram below and determine what additional force(s) would be required for the object to
achieve uniform motion.
a. 1 N [W]
b. 1 N [E]
c. 2 N [N] and 1 N [W]
d. 2 N [S] and 1 N [E]
e. 2 N [S] and 1 N [W]
____ 13. The free-body diagram below illustrates the forces acting on a 2.0-kg object as it is being pushed along a horizontal
surface. What is the motion of the object?
____ 14.
____ 15.
____ 16.
____ 17.
____ 18.
____ 19.
____ 20.
____ 21.
a. moving at 5.3 m/s2
d. moving at 3.1 m/s2
b. moving at 3.1 m/s
e. not moving
c. moving at 5.3 m/s
Projectile motion is a motion which has constant:
a. acceleration
d. velocity
b. horizontal acceleration
e. deceleration
c. vertical acceleration
A heavy crate is pushed across a rough surface. The force that is ultimately responsible for the crate's motion is the
a. applied force
d. net force
b. frictional force
e. normal force
c. gravitational force
A hockey puck of mass 150 g is sliding south along the ice and slows at a rate of 1.2 m/s2. What is the net force
acting on the puck?
a. 1.8 × 102 N [N]
d. 1.8 × 10-1 N [N]
2
b. 1.8 × 10 N [S]
e. 1.9 × 10-1 N [S]
1
c. 1.8 × 10 N [N]
The value of "g" at the surface of Mars is 3.7 N/kg. How much would a 60.0-kg person weigh at an altitude above the
Martian surface equivalent to the planet's radius?
a. 2.2 × 102 N
d. 56 N
2
b. 1.6 × 10 N
e. 28 N
c. 1.1 × 102 N
If you were placed in the middle of a large room on a totally frictionless surface,
a. it would be impossible to get to a wall
b. it would be difficult to get to a wall
c. it would be a simple task to get to a wall
d. it would take a very long time to get to a wall, but you would eventually be able to do it
e. it is not possible to predict what would happen because there are no frictionless surfaces
A 55-kg person is skating on the Rideau Canal. She reaches a maximum speed and then glides to a stop in 100 m.
The coefficient of friction between her skates and the ice is 0.010. What is the work done by the kinetic friction?
a. –5.5 × 101 J
d. –5.5 × 105 J
b. –5.4 × 102 J
e. +5.4 × 102 J
1
c. +5.5 × 10 J
The unit of work is the joule (J) which is equivalent to
a. kg·m/s2
d. watt
b. kg·m3/s2
e. kg·m2/s2
c. kg·m/s
A construction worker does 450 J of work in lifting a load of bricks from the ground to a support stand 1.50 m from
the ground. What was the mass of the bricks she lifted?
a. 300 kg
d. 0.327 kg
b. 3.06 kg
e. 30.6 kg
c. 68.9 kg
____ 22. A cheerleader is thrown vertically upward into the air. As the cheerleader rises, which one of the following quantities
increases?
a. gravitational potential energy
d. acceleration
b. speed
e. mechanical energy
c. kinetic energy
____ 23. An elevator motor lifts a load of 2500 kg a height of 12.0 m in 3.00 seconds. The energy required by the motor to
accomplish this task is 300 000 J. What is the efficiency of the elevator?
a. 10.0%
d. 102%
b. 98.0%
e. 8.17%
c. 30.0%
____ 24. If two substances of equal mass are supplied the same amount of thermal energy and their final temperatures are
different, you can assume that they have
a. different heat capacities
d. different densities
b. the same volume
e. different volumes
c. different abilities to conduct heat
____ 25. How much heat is required to raise the temperature of 40 g of water 20°C?
(cw = 4.18 × 103 J/kg·°C)
a. 5.2 J
d. 3.3 × 105 J
3
b. 3.3 × 10 J
e. 2.1 × 106 J
c. 8.0 × 10–1 J
____ 26. If heat was transferred through a vacuum, you would know it was transferred by means of
a. convection
d. heat exchange
b. heat transfer
e. conduction
c. radiation
____ 27. A 40.0-kg boy rides his 0.70-kg skateboard. He starts at 1.0 m/s and at a constant acceleration reaches 3.0 m/s in 10 s
on a horizontal surface. How much power did he use?
a. 1.6 × 101 W
d. 8.1 × 102 W
b. 4.1 × 100 W
e. 6.1 × 100 W
1
c. 1.8 × 10 W
____ 28. According to the law of conservation of energy,
a. The amount of energy present before an energy transformation is the same as the amount
of energy present after the transformation.
b. Energy is conserved only when the device is 100% efficient.
c. The amount of energy present before and after an energy transformation is not equal.
d. Energy is conserved in all cases where the efficiency of the device is 50% or above.
e. Energy cannot change from one form to another.
____ 29. A 2500-W electric motor raises a 500-kg sack from a height of 2.0 m to 24.0 m in 50 s. The efficiency of the motor is
a. 0.42%
d. 95%
b. 86%
e. 8.8%
c. 40%
____ 30. Which of the following is not a renewable energy source?
a. water
d. coal
b. geothermal
e. solar
c. biomass
____ 31. The largest abundance of tar sands in the world are found in which country?
a. Saudi Arabia
d. Canada
b. Kuwait
e. Russia
c. United States
____ 32. The speed of any mechanical wave as it propagates through a medium is dependent mainly on the
a. frequency of the wave source
b. wavelength
c. period of the wave
d. type of medium through which the wave travels
e. amplitude
____ 33. In a crest, the particles
a. are displaced at right angles to the rest position in a positive direction
b. are displaced at right angles to the rest position in a negative direction
c. move forward parallel to the direction of energy motion
d. move backward parallel to the direction of energy motion
e. remain at rest due to destructive interference
____ 34. A sound wave with a frequency of 256 Hz, travelling at 340 m/s has a wavelength of
a. 1.33 cm
d. 1.33 m
b. 0.75 m
e. 87 km
c. 0.75 cm
____ 35. An earthquake creates a seismic wave that travels at 3500 m/s with a wavelength of 1750 m. Find the frequency of
the seismic wave.
a. 2.0 m
d. 0.50 Hz
b. 0.50 m
e. 2.0 Hz
c. 2.0 kHz
____ 36. A guitar string produces a musical note with a wavelength of 75 cm. If the speed of sound in air is 344 m/s, what is
the frequency of the note?
a. 460 Hz
d. 4.6 Hz
b. 0.22 Hz
e. 26 kHz
c. 22 Hz
____ 37. Waves can bend as they change speeds when travelling through different mediums. This is due to a property called
a. diffraction
d. resonance
b. refraction
e. interference
c. reflection
____ 38. A standing wave with three loops is generated in a string. If the wavelength is 10 cm, how far apart are the nodes
created?
a. 2.5 cm
d. 20 cm
b. 5.0 cm
e. 30 cm
c. 10 cm
____ 39. Which wave property most affects the intensity or loudness of sound?
a. reflection
d. amplitude
b. complexity
e. speed
c. frequency
____ 40. At normal pressure, what is the speed of sound in air at 0°C?
a. 0 m/s
d. 332 m/s
b. 300 m/s
e. 344 m/s
c. 322 m/s
____ 41. When two trumpets are played together, 20 beats are heard in 4.0 s. If the frequency of the lower pitched trumpet is
440 Hz, what is the frequency of the higher pitched trumpet?
a. 460 Hz
d. 520 Hz
b. 444 Hz
e. 456 Hz
c. 445 Hz
____ 42. Sound waves are
a. torsional
d. surface
b. longitudinal
e. transverse
c. electromagnetic
____ 43. An ambulance is approaching a stationary observer. For the observer, the apparent frequency of the siren compared to
the actual frequency of the siren
a. increases or decreases depending on the speed of the ambulance
b. resonates
c. decreases
d. stays the same
e. increases
____ 44. On which of the following is pitch most dependent?
a. intensity
d. frequency
b. amplitude
c. loudness
____ 45. One sound source has an intensity of 40 dB, while another has an intensity of 70 dB. The intensity of these two
differs by a factor of
a. 3
d. 2800
b. 30
e. 1030
c. 1000
____ 46. Which of the following intensities is 100 times greater than 10 dB?
a. –90 dB
d. 110 dB
b. 0 dB
e. 1000 dB
c. 30 dB
____ 47. An object produces a sound wave with a wavelength 75.0 cm. If the speed of sound is 350 m/s, the frequency of the
sound is
a. 263 Hz
d. 4.67 Hz
b. 467 Hz
e. 425 Hz
c. 2.63 × 104 Hz
____ 48. A 256-Hz tuning fork creates sound which travels through the air at 344 m/s. The distance between adjacent
rarefactions is
a. 67.2 cm
d. 1.34 m
b. 2.69 m
e. 88.0 m
c. 88.0 cm
____ 49. When standing waves are formed on a string fastened at both ends, how many nodes should be present in the third
overtone?
a. one
d. four
b. two
e. five
c. three
____ 50. A standing wave with a fundamental mode wavelength of 60 cm forms in an air column closed at one end. How long
is the column for the fundamental mode?
a. 15 cm
d. 60 cm
b. 30 cm
e. 90 cm
c. 45 cm
____ 51. To give an electrically neutral object a positive charge, you must
a. add electrons to it
b. remove electrons from it
c. add protons to it
d. remove protons from it
e. remove neutrons from it
____ 52. An atom with 9 protons, 10 electrons, and 10 neutrons has a net charge of
a. –1.6 × 10–19 C
d. –1.6 × 10–18 C
–19
b. +1.6 × 10 C
e. –1.4 × 10–18 C
c. +3.0 × 10–18 C
____ 53. The SI unit for measuring charge is the
a. coulomb
d. joule
b. ampere
e. watt
c. volt
____ 54. One ampere is equal to one
a. N/s
d. V/C
b. C/s
e. V/s
c. s/C
____ 55. If 2.75 × 1019 electrons pass a point in a circuit in 30 s, the current is
a. 52 A
d. 0.15 A
b. 9.2 A
e. 1.3 × 102 A
c. 4.4 A
____ 56. A toy train set runs on a current of 250 mA. It has a resistance of 20 Ω. If the train ran for 60 min, how much energy
was did the train use?
a. 5.0 J
d. 4.5 × 103 J
b. 12 J
e. 5.0 × 102 J
c. 75 J
____ 57. Magnetic field lines
a. show the strength of a magnetic field
b. show the direction of a magnetic field
c. become more widely spaced as the magnetic force weakens
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
____ 58. The field lines around a straight conductor are drawn in clockwise circles around the conductor. The current in the
conductor must be travelling
a. into the page
d. to the right
b. out of the page
e. in clockwise circles
c. to the left
____ 59. A coil is connected to a galvanometer. When a permanent magnet is held steady in the center of the coil, the
galvanometer will indicate
a. A steady current.
d. A decreasing current.
b. An alternating current.
e. No current.
c. An increasing current.
____ 60. A transformer has 200 turns in its primary coil and 600 turns in its secondary coil. If the current in the primary coil is
12.0 A, what is the current in the secondary coil?
a. 3.0 A
d. 20.0 A
b. 4.0 A
e. 36.0 A
c. 12.0 A
Practice Exam SPH3U = Answer Section
1.
4.
7.
10.
13.
16.
19.
22.
25.
28.
31.
34.
37.
40.
43.
46.
49.
52.
55.
58.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
A
D
C
B
D
D
B
A
B
A
D
D
B
D
E
C
E
A
D
A
2.
5.
8.
11.
14.
17.
20.
23.
26.
29.
32.
35.
38.
41.
44.
47.
50.
53.
56.
59.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
C
D
E
C
C
D
E
B
C
B
D
E
B
C
D
B
A
A
D
E
3.
6.
9.
12.
15.
18.
21.
24.
27.
30.
33.
36.
39.
42.
45.
48.
51.
54.
57.
60.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
E
E
D
E
D
C
E
A
A
D
A
A
D
B
C
D
B
B
D
B