GEO-q-3
Introduction to Geography, 6e (Dahlman/Renwick)
Chapter 9 Food and Agriculture
1) Agriculture probably originated in
A) the Middle East.
B) South America.
C) Ethiopia.
D) Nigeria.
2) Which of the following is NOT a major center of plant and/or animal domestication?
A) Meso-America
B) Eastern North America
C) the Middle East
D) Southeast Asia
3) Maize (corn) was domesticated in
A) Africa.
B) Europe.
C) Asia.
D) Mexico.
E) Australia.
4) The Green Revolution
A) allowed civilizations to develop in the ancient Middle East.
B) concentrated on higher yielding varieties of crops.
C) allowed farmers in the Midwestern United States to feed most of the world.
D) is an attempt to preserve traditional seed varieties.
5) Genetically modified (GM) plants are produced by
A) applying pesticides.
B) using large quantities of fertilizer.
C) joining the DNA of two organisms to produce an organism with recombined DNA.
D) mass production in a factory.
6) Which of the following is a characteristic of commercial agriculture?
A) Most of the production is sold to companies that process the food and sell it to consumers.
B) The farmer depends on his or her own production for most food.
C) Technology is low.
D) A great deal of human labor goes into farming.
7) Quinoa and amaranth are
A) African names for millet and sorghum.
B) newly developed kinds of fertilizer.
C) sources of illegal drugs.
D) traditional South American grains, dating back to the Inca, that are now being grown in new places and enjoying
renewed popularity.
8) The Cartagena Protocol (1992) is an international agreement dealing with
A) global warming from methane produced by cattle.
B) the illegal drug trade.
C) pollution from fertilizer runoff.
D) trade in genetically modified (GM) food products.
9) Since Thomas Malthus's theory was first published, all of the following have happened EXCEPT:
A) Disasters such as wars and epidemics have killed tens of millions of people.
B) Vast areas of the planet that were scarcely utilized during Malthus's lifetime have been opened to productive
agriculture.
C) Many food crops have been transplanted to new areas where they have thrived.
D) Mass starvation has occurred throughout the world, placing a strong control on population growth.
E) New genetically engineered plants are being introduced into the tropics.
10) Which of the following does NOT improve local food supplies?
A) spread of disease
B) trade
C) transportation
D) storage
11) Which is NOT one of the world's most basic foods?
A) potatoes
B) wheat
C) rice
D) cattle
12) Earth's nonagricultural land is usually characterized by one or more of the following EXCEPT
A) too cold.
B) too hot.
C) too wet.
D) too dry.
13) Which is a form of subsistence agriculture?
A) shifting cultivation
B) mixed farming with livestock
C) prairie cereal farming
D) plantation farming
14) Nomadic herding is least likely to occur in
A) Central America.
B) the Middle East.
C) Central Asia.
D) North Africa.
15) Which of the following is an animal NOT characteristically raised by nomadic herders?
A) cattle
B) pigs
C) horses
D) sheep
16) Shifting cultivation
A) can support low population densities.
B) is characterized by monoculture.
C) is most commonly found in high latitude regions.
D) makes extensive use of machinery.
17) Shifting cultivation is being replaced by all of the following EXCEPT
A) commercial logging.
B) cattle ranching.
C) industry.
D) cultivation of cash crops.
18) Wet-rice cultivation needs to take place on flat land because
A) large-scale machinery is used.
B) the fields are flooded part of the year.
C) major highways are the main means to get the crop to market.
D) hillside fields would erode.
19) About what proportion of the world's people depends wholly or in part on wet rice?
A) one-quarter
B) one-half
C) one-third
D) two-thirds
20) In areas where climate makes growing wet rice difficult, the major grain is
A) corn.
B) oats.
C) wheat.
D) sorghum.
21) Of the following crops, which has both the shortest growing season and the ability to grow farther north than the
others?
A) maize
B) wheat
C) rice
D) barley
22) Which of the following is least likely to be produced in Mediterranean agriculture?
A) butter
B) fruits
C) grapes
D) olives
23) Which of the following is not a typical practice in growing rice in Asia?
A) harvesting with a plow drawn by oxen
B) flooding the plowed land with rain water
C) flattening the land
D) transplanting seedlings grown in a nursery
24) The first domesticated animals were probably
A) horses.
B) cattle.
C) dogs.
D) sheep
25) The number of domesticated livestock in 2011 was over ________, more than ________ times the human
population.
A) 27 billion; 3
B) 15 billion; 2
C) 10 billion; 1.5
D) 3 billion; 0.5
26) Over one-third of the world's total grain harvest is fed to
A) people.
B) livestock.
C) poor countries.
D) developed countries.
27) Of all the domesticated animals, the ________ is the most efficient transformer of grain into edible meat.
A) pig
B) cow
C) sheep
D) turkey
E) chicken
28) Livestock, especially cattle, contribute to ________ through the production of ________.
A) environmental devastation; milk
B) religious significance; milk
C) overpopulation; meat
D) greenhouse gasses; methane
29) In general, the farther a dairy farm is from a large urban area, the lower the percentage of output devoted to fresh
milk. This occurs primarily because
A) land costs are lower farther from the urban area.
B) milk is more perishable than butter.
C) transport costs are greater farther from the urban area.
D) the quality of soil is lower near an urban area.
30) Worldwide, about two-thirds of aquatic foods are captured in the wild; the rest are the result of
A) aquaculture.
B) marine capture production.
C) freshwater capture production.
D) artisanal fishing.
31) Traditional fishing is most likely to occur in
A) Oceania.
B) South America.
C) North America.
D) Europe.
32) Traditional fishing provides low incomes, but these activities employ about ________ of the world's fishermen.
A) 30
B) 60
C) 80
D) 90
33) Almost one-fourth of the global fish catch now goes into meal and oil, mostly to ________ in wealthy countries.
A) feed people
B) feed livestock and pets
C) feed school children
D) provide vitamin supplements
34) "Depleting the Common" is a process where
A) overfishing by several countries creates a rapid depletion of the fisheries.
B) international funding for fishing operations declines.
C) local fisherman are pushed out of their fishing grounds by commercial fishermen.
D) the most desired fish are overharvested, requiring fishermen to gather less desirable fish, which are worth less
money.
35) Marine animals rely on coastal wetlands, mangrove swamps and rivers for spawning grounds,
A) but in recent years these animals have found other spawning grounds.
B) but human intervention has provided artificial spawning grounds.
C) but these only constitute a small percentage of marine animals.
D) but these are being destroyed by pollution and over development.
36) Depletion of atmospheric ozone has increased ultraviolet radiation which is responsible for a ________ decrease
in plankton.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
37) About 90% of the world's marine fish harvest takes place within
A) the international fishing waters.
B) twelve miles of shore.
C) coastal countries.
D) the exclusive economic zone.
38) The process of herding and domesticating aquatic animals is known as
A) aquaculture.
B) agriculture.
C) processing.
D) artisanal fishing.
39) Which of the following is not a cause for hunger?
A) calorie deficiency
B) protein deficiency
C) nutrient surplus
D) vitamin deficiency
40) A person is considered malnourished when they consume
A) the ideal number of nutrients.
B) too few nutrients.
C) too many nutrients.
D) too few or too many nutrients.
41) The world today produces ________ pounds of food per person per day.
A) 1.2
B) 2.7
C) 4.3
D) 5.6
42) Ejidos means
A) Mexican cowboys.
B) land in Mexico that can be used for collateral in obtaining a loan for agriculture.
C) a form of land tenure in which a peasant community collectively owns a piece of land.
D) the slums where migrants to Mexican cities live.
43) Food supply problems are often a result of problems with
A) economics or politics.
B) geography.
C) technology.
D) climate.
44) Many governments enact policies that affect what farmers can earn and keep them at the subsistence level.
These policies include all of the following EXCEPT
A) price controls.
B) export and import taxes.
C) exchange rate manipulation.
D) reduce the cost to purchase equipment.
45) The redistribution of large land holdings such as plantations to poor would-be farmers is known as
A) land redistribution.
B) land reform.
C) land rededication.
D) land segmentation.
46) Poor countries do not have the opportunity to sell food products to rich countries because
A) the quality of their produce does not meet the standards set by rich countries.
B) the rich countries have erected tariff walls to close their markets of food imports from poor countries.
C) they hardly have the capability to produce sufficient food for themselves.
D) the types of food grown in poor countries are alien to the tastes found in rich countries.
E) poor countries would not know how to use the foreign exchange they received in such an enterprise.
47) Sustainable agriculture is food production that can be continued indefinitely and that
A) limits or even reverses environmental degradation.
B) increases food production profits.
C) creates demand for cash crops.
D) supports subsistence agricultural initiatives.
Introduction to Geography, 6e (Dahlman/Renwick)
Chapter 10 Cities and Urbanization
1) The region to which a city provides services and from which it draws its needs is its
A) economy.
B) situation.
C) hinterland.
D) central place.
2) The first cities appeared in
A) China.
B) Egypt.
C) the Indus Valley.
D) Turkey and Iraq.
3) ________ is the process by which cities bring people and activities together in one place for greater convenience.
A) Agglomeration
B) Geomancy
C) Urbanization
D) Incorporation
4) A firm that sells its products primarily to consumers outside a settlement is a
A) basic industry.
B) functional classification.
C) nonbasic industry.
D) primate city.
5) When several cities grow and merge together into vast urban areas, they are called
A) primate cities.
B) regions.
C) agglomerations.
D) conurbations.
6) Which of the following countries does not contain a primate city?
A) United States
B) France
C) Thailand
D) Primate cities no longer exist.
7) By 100 C.E., Rome had probably reached a population of
A) 50,000.
B) 200,000.
C) 300,000.
D) 450,000.
E) 500,000.
8) Cities rely on their ________ for food and provide them goods and services.
A) populations
B) neighboring cities
C) hinterlands
D) farmers
9) Jobs in the basic sector often create or support jobs in the nonbasic sector through the
A) development of primate cities.
B) reduction in government workers.
C) efforts of employees to save money rather than spend money.
D) multiplier effect.
10) Which of the following was NOT true of early settlements?
A) They contained society's schools, museums, libraries and archives.
B) They housed women and children while the men searched for food.
C) They protected the group's land claims and food sources.
D) They were often surrounded by defensive walls.
11) In central place theory, the minimum demand for a product or service is called the
A) threshold.
B) hinterland.
C) isotropic plain.
D) hierarchy.
E) radius.
12) The only geometric shape that meets the three requirements of Christaller's central place theory is a pattern of
A) circles.
B) squares.
C) triangles.
D) polygons.
E) hexagons.
13) Gateway cities are those that
A) arise where two physical areas meet or at the border between two cultures.
B) are surrounded by walls.
C) developed in European countries.
D) were established during the Industrial Revolution.
14) An example of a major city that is located in an unfavorable location would be
A) New York City.
B) Louisville.
C) Mexico City.
D) Boston.
15) In an urban hierarchy, there is a relationship between the market area and the diffusion of goods and services,
which is an example of a ________ region.
A) peripheral
B) vernacular
C) formal
D) functional
16) Itinerant businesses are those that
A) are only open seasonally.
B) are based on providing convenience items.
C) agglomerate services to save travel costs.
D) travel from place to place to sell their goods.
17) Central place theory
A) states that cities and towns are surrounded by core areas.
B) was formulated by Walter Christaller.
C) asserts that market hinterlands must be of intermediate shape.
D) asserts that the ideal shape for the market hinterland is the oval.
18) Self-built houses on the periphery of cities in developing countries are known as
A) squatter settlements.
B) refugee camps.
C) ghettos.
D) slums.
19) In the seventeenth century, ________ became the first modern urban country, with over one-half of its
population living in cities and towns.
A) England
B) The Netherlands
C) Spain
D) France
E) Greece
20) Today urbanization is occurring in many places without economic development, especially in
A) poor countries.
B) rich countries.
C) European countries.
D) the United States.
21) Governments often invest more in cities than in rural areas because it
A) is politically popular.
B) is more cost effective.
C) increases opportunities.
D) improves migration.
22) Backyard shops, street hawkers, and providers of simple services on street corners constitute the
A) workforce.
B) informal sector.
C) tax base.
Answer: B
23) An estimated 4 billion people cannot create wealth or recuperate from disaster because of the lack of
A) legal records.
B) money.
C) capital investment.
D) credit.
24) Which of the following is unlikely to be found in the zone of transition that surrounds the CBD?
A) warehouses
B) wholesaling
C) upper-class residences
D) light industry
25) The central business district is characterized by
A) a high degree of accessibility.
B) low buildings.
C) a random arrangement of different functions.
D) single-family homes.
26) Functions within the CBD are often
A) clustered.
B) exempt from zoning laws.
C) randomly arranged.
D) housed in one-story buildings.
27) This urban form model describes how highways disperse central-city activities around the region.
A) peripheral model
B) sector model
C) multiple-nuclei model
D) concentric zone model
28) According to the sector model, low-income housing is located near
A) industry and its associated transportation corridors.
B) an outer ring surrounding the city.
C) nodes near universities and parks.
D) renovated inner-city neighborhoods.
29) Government restrictions on the use to which various parcels of land may be put is called
A) planning.
B) suburbanization.
C) zoning.
D) restrictive ordinances.
E) districting.
30) According to the authors, the most important city planner of the 20th century was
A) Howard.
B) Le Corbusier.
C) Frank Lloyd Wright.
D) Christaller.
E) Lucio Costa.
31) Retail activities which tend to concentrate in the CBD include those which have
A) a low threshold.
B) a low range.
C) services for office workers.
D) a manufacturing component.
32) Land values are high in the CBD primarily because of
A) competition for limited space.
B) high threshold and range.
C) less intensive land use.
D) construction of skyscrapers.
33) The multiple nuclei theory recognized that
A) cities grow.
B) residential areas are racially segregated.
C) cities develop around several nodes.
D) urban sprawl has developed in cities.
34) Which of the following groups is NOT likely to be attracted to a gentrifying neighborhood?
A) young professionals
B) empty-nesters
C) young family with many children.
D) the highly educated
35) The process by which a city expands its boundaries is called
A) incorporation.
B) rank-size rule.
C) annexation.
D) central place.
36) The Federal Housing Administration (FHA) programs had the effect of
A) promoting gentrification.
B) integrating neighborhoods racially.
C) improving urban schools.
D) promoting housing segregation.
37) When populations spread out from urban centers creating conurbations, the Census Bureau created the term
________ to describe these areas.
A) metropolitan statistical areas
B) major urbanized regions
C) agglomeration
D) high density rural areas
38) The desire to live in suburbs relates to Americans' fondness for
A) heavy traffic.
B) lower opportunity for home ownership.
C) return to nature.
D) row houses and apartments.
39) When a developer buys land beyond the edge of growth causing the infrastructure network to be developed in an
irregular pattern, it is called
A) suburban growth.
B) urban sprawl.
C) leapfrogging.
D) agglomeration.
40) The U.S. government has encouraged the use of cars in part by
A) building interstate highways.
B) charging high gasoline taxes.
C) constructing new subways.
D) protecting prime agricultural land.
Introduction to Geography, 6e (Dahlman/Renwick)
Chapter 11 A World of States
1) An independent political unit that claims exclusive jurisdiction over a territory and all the people in it is a
A) colony.
B) nationality.
C) satellite.
D) state.
2) The ________ established the principle of a ruler over a territory and noninterference in the territory of another
ruler.
A) dominum
B) Merovingian kings
C) Treaty of Westphalia
D) United Nations Charter
3) Willingness to join together to form a government to solve common problems is
A) a political community.
B) a state.
C) a constitution.
D) an election.
4) A group of people who occupy a particular area and want to have their own government is a
A) centripetal force.
B) nation.
C) self-determination.
D) unitary state.
5) The Swiss philosopher ________ laid the foundations for the idea of the "social contract."
A) Jean Jacques Rousseau
B) Immanuel Kant
C) Jean Paul Sarte
D) Herbert Spencer
6) Who was responsible for spreading the idea of the nation-state across Europe in the early nineteenth century?
A) King Louis XVII
B) Napoleon Bonaparte
C) Pope Pius VII
D) Admiral Horatio Nelson
7) The idea of nationalism matured in Europe in
A) the Middle Ages.
B) the Reformation.
C) the Renaissance.
D) the nineteenth century.
8) The theory of "Social Darwinism" was created by
A) Charles Darwin.
B) David Hume.
C) Herbert Spencer.
D) John Locke.
9) Europeans often used the native rulers in a colony as intermediaries between themselves and the people. This
form of government is called
A) an oligarchy.
B) irredenta.
C) rule by envoy.
D) indirect rule.
10) How old is the idea that the whole world should be divided into countries?
A) It dates from the beginning of human history.
B) It began when the first civilizations arose in Mesopotamia.
C) It started in the Roman Empire.
D) It has developed over the last two hundred years or so.
11) A nation is typically distinguished by the nation's
A) arts.
B) culture.
C) history.
D) desire for sovereignty.
12) A nation-state
A) must be recognized by the United Nations Security Council in order to be legitimate.
B) rules a territory that contains all members of a nation.
C) is very large in most cases.
D) is a concept that was old by the time of the Roman Empire.
13) An example that comes closest to being a true nation-state would be
A) the United States.
B) Germany.
C) Iceland.
D) China.
14) A set of unwritten rules or unwritten ways in which written rules are interpreted and actually enforced is
A) a constitution.
B) a police force.
C) an oligarchy.
D) a political culture.
15) The concept that nationalities have the right to govern themselves is known as
A) centripetal force.
B) nation-state.
C) self-determination.
D) sovereignty.
16) A ________ may have administrative divisions, but most decisions are made in the national capital.
A) federal state
B) nation-state
C) compact state
D) unitary state
17) About ________ percent of Canada remains in territorial status.
A) 75
B) 60
C) 40
D) 25
18) Poland and Zimbabwe are examples of ________ states.
A) compact
B) prorupt
C) elongated
D) fragmented
19) Which shape features a narrow extension called a corridor?
A) prorupted
B) elongated
C) fragmented
D) compact
20) ________ is an example of a prorupt state.
A) Poland
B) Thailand
C) Zimbabwe
D) Chile
E) Japan
21) Norway is a good example of a(n)________ state.
A) prorupt
B) compact
C) perforated
D) elongated
E) fragmented
22) Geometric boundaries are generally used
A) in cities.
B) in the mountains.
C) in featureless places.
D) nowhere.
23) A government that is run according to the interests of its ruler or ruling elite is
A) a democracy.
B) an oligarchy.
C) an autocracy.
D) a theocracy.
24) The United States has a(n) ________ form of government with internal unitary subdivisions.
A) oligarchical
B) monarchical
C) unitary
D) federal
25) Forces that bind a state together are ________ forces.
A) unitary
B) federal
C) centripetal
D) centrifugal
Nat Geo Standard: 13. Human Systems: How the forces of cooperation and conflict among people influence the
26) Forces that pull a state apart are ________ forces.
A) unitary
B) federal
C) centripetal
D) centrifugal
27) Which of the following is NOT a centripetal force?
A) subnationalism
B) education
C) symbols
D) public institutions
28) In political geography, the collection of symbols of a state is
A) the treasury.
B) the government.
C) the legislature.
D) iconography.
29) Subnationalism is when
A) a state is split by regional or other allegiances.
B) a nation is divided between two states.
C) one nation is ruled by another.
D) a group uses a symbol to unify the state.
30) An example of a nationality divided among more than one state would be the
A) Belgians.
B) Kurds.
C) Japanese.
D) United States.
31) Rebel groups fighting for greater rights and independence from a central government commonly result in
A) a poor standard of living.
B) an improved governmental system.
C) peace between national groups.
D) civil wars.
32) Forcible and violent expulsion from a state is called
A) genocide.
B) subnationalism.
C) ethnic cleansing.
D) civil wars.
33) The practice of intentionally trying to eliminate a national, ethnic, racial or religious group is known as
A) genocide.
B) subnationalism.
C) ethnic cleansing.
D) civil wars.
34) Geopolitics
A) was first discussed in the middle of the twentieth century.
B) focuses on the economic cooperation between countries.
C) includes ideas that advocated territorial expansion of countries.
D) is the study of political geography.
35) The fundamental form of cooperation between states, in which they formally acknowledge each other's
existence, is
A) allegiance.
B) treaties.
C) recognition.
D) boundary demarcation.
36) The Law of the Sea permits each coastal state to claim an exclusive economic zone that extends ________
nautical miles from shore.
A) 3
B) 12
C) 100
D) 200
37) A situation of disagreement between states, whether it includes warfare or not, is called
A) a misunderstanding.
B) an overture.
C) a war.
D) a conflict.
38) A specific agreement that binds states to cooperate in a set of ways on various issues are
A) treaties.
B) considered diplomacy.
C) geopolitics.
D) squabbles.
39) The ________ was created in 1948 to deal with combating disease around the world.
A) Centers for Disease Control
B) International Court of Justice
C) World Health Organization
D) United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
40) The International Atomic Energy Agency was created in 1957 and reports to the
A) World Health Organization.
B) United Nations.
C) United States.
D) European Union.
41) In 1994 the United States, Canada and Mexico were linked through the
A) North American Free Trade Agreement.
B) European Union.
C) United Nations.
D) North Atlantic Treaty Organization.
42) German geographer Friedrich Ratzel suggested that each nation needed Lebensraum, which means
A) geopolitics.
B) room to live.
C) survival of the fittest.
D) the strong will survive at the expense of the weak.
43) Drawing the boundaries of voting districts so that one group has an unfair advantage is
A) apportionment.
B) a census.
C) gerrymandering.
D) a technique used throughout Europe.
44) Electoral geography studies elections and voting patterns and is a sub-field of
A) cultural geography.
B) urban geography.
C) political geography.
D) economic geography.
45) The process of ________ determines how many representatives each part of the country should have in the U.S.
House of Representatives.
A) apportionment
B) gerrymandering
C) districting
D) an election
46) A state must have a minimum of ________ representative(s) in the House of Representatives.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
47) Each state is represented by ________ senators regardless of the state's population.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
48) Majority-minority districts dictate that
A) you must have equal number of people in the majority and minority races.
B) the majority of districts contain minority populations.
C) the districts should assess the voter dilution.
D) the majority of voters belong to racial minorities.
Introduction to Geography, 6e (Dahlman/Renwick)
Chapter 12 Economy and Development
1) The value of total outputs of goods and services in a year in a country is its
A) level of development.
B) gross domestic product.
C) productivity.
D) value added.
2) Gross domestic product
A) is 95 percent of the goods produced in a country divided by the population.
B) includes foreign investment.
C) is the total value of all goods and services produced in a country.
D) is a very good indicator of a state's economic level.
3) Compared to relatively developed countries, developing countries have a higher percentage of workers in which
sector of the economy?
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
4) Tertiary-sector jobs involve the
A) the harvesting of agricultural products.
B) extraction of materials from Earth.
C) provision of services.
D) manufacturing of raw materials.
5) Tertiary-sector employment is increasing in poor countries where
A) most people are subsistence farmers.
B) most people are hunter-gatherers.
C) the tertiary sector is well integrated into the world economy.
D) there is an abundance of raw materials.
6) In terms of the stage of its economic sectoral evolution, the United States is
A) post-industrial.
B) extractive.
C) industrial.
D) rapacious.
7) A society in which a majority of the workers are engaged in the tertiary sector is said to be a(n) ________ society.
A) pre-industrial
B) industrial
C) post-industrial
D) communist
8) An example of the new economy is
A) farming.
B) manufacturing.
C) the Internet.
D) retailing.
9) The key to national wealth is
A) having a lot of natural resources.
B) having a large population.
C) being a tourist destination.
D) adding value to raw materials.
10) The process of economic development means
A) encouraging population growth.
B) progressively increasing the value of goods and service that a place can produce.
C) finding more natural resources.
D) building highways.
11) A steel manufacturing plant located next to an iron ore deposit is an example of
A) material-oriented manufacturing.
B) market-oriented manufacturing.
C) raw material manufacturing.
D) minimal cost-distance manufacturing.
12) When a manufacturing facility is located near the market where the products will be sold, it is called
A) material-oriented manufacturing.
B) market-oriented manufacturing.
C) raw material manufacturing.
D) minimal cost-distance manufacturing.
13) As manufactured products have become more and more complex, the ________ added by manufacturing has
increased.
A) transportation
B) cost
C) time
D) value
14) Which country had the highest total manufacturing value added output in 2011?
A) Japan
B) United States
C) Germany
D) China
15) Japan's principal asset in promoting development is
A) a favorable ratio of population resources.
B) an abundant supply of labor.
C) high physiological density.
D) extensive supplies of critical raw materials.
16) Japan invests in factories in less developed countries to manufacture items that are low in the value-added scale.
These countries include all EXCEPT
A) Vietnam.
B) Indonesia.
C) Singapore.
D) Thailand.
17) The most rapidly increasing component of manufactured goods is
A) labor.
B) raw materials.
C) technology and capital.
D) advertising.
18) Which of the following is NOT an advantage that poor countries offer to entrepreneurs wanting to build
factories?
A) raw materials
B) inexpensive labor
C) hospitable regulatory environment
D) lack of pollution
19) Over the last forty years, men's dress shirt manufacture for the American market has migrated around the world.
The first country to engage in this activity was
A) Hong Kong.
B) Taiwan.
C) Japan.
D) Bangladesh.
E) Costa Rica.
20) The study of the principles that a country develops to organize its economic life is known as
A) political economy.
B) economic geography.
C) political geography.
D) governing laws.
21) Which of the following is NOT an example of a positive externality?
A) national security
B) education
C) food supply
D) transportation infrastructure
22) The system found in some Asian countries where the government does not own much outright, but it does plan
and regulate the economy, is called
A) chaebol.
B) positive externalities.
C) negative externalities.
D) state-directed capitalism.
E) dictatorship.
23) There has been a transportation revolution in the United States called just-in-time manufacturing, which saves
all of the following EXCEPT
A) transport costs.
B) opportunity costs on inventory.
C) storage costs.
D) natural resources.
24) In a communist political economy, natural resources and productive enterprises are owned by
A) individuals.
B) corporations.
C) the government.
D) foreigners.
25) Laissez-faire capitalism
A) maximizes the role of the government in the economy.
B) was adopted by the Soviet Union during the height of the Cold War.
C) emphasizes the importance of a minimum of restrictions on economic activity.
D) is also known as state-directed capitalism.
26) A crony is a
A) really old person.
B) former elected official.
C) ruling elite.
D) business partner or friend of ruling elites.
27) Canada's vast northern regions are almost empty of population but are exploited for all of the following
EXCEPT
A) agriculture.
B) mineral resources.
C) timber resources.
D) hydroelectric power.
28) In the United States and Canada, which general region has been losing population?
A) the East
B) the Pacific Coast
C) the central regions
D) the South
29) Investment in improved transportation and communication systems is usually done with the intent to
A) increase economic growth.
B) increase tax revenues.
C) increase transportation costs.
D) increase regional divides.
30) Infant industries are those that as new industries only manufacture small quantities until they reach the national
market and produce a larger quantity. This is called achieving
A) economies of scale.
B) success.
C) affordable products.
D) supply and demand.
31) Import-substitution policies' purpose is to
A) expand exports.
B) protect domestic infant industries.
C) increase farm output.
D) build schools.
32) Export-substitution policies' purpose is to
A) expand exports.
B) protect domestic infant industries.
C) increase farm output.
D) build schools.
33) As a major importer of products from other countries, the United States has
A) improved public relations.
B) increased its economic standing with other countries.
C) few domestically manufactured goods.
D) accumulated substantial trade deficits.
34) The result of China's policy of moving industry inland between 1949 and 1976 was
A) exports increased enormously.
B) exports plummeted.
C) the capital was moved inland.
D) inland areas became rich, while the coast stagnated.
35) In 2004, China surpassed ________ as the world's leading exporter of technology and telecommunications
goods.
A) the United States
B) Japan
C) Korea
D) India
36) Foreign direct investment means
A) that foreigners invest directly in domestic industry.
B) that a government invests in foreign governments.
C) investment in enterprises that are actually operated by a foreign owner.
D) that direct investment in industry is a foreign ideal.
37) Enormous enterprises that own and coordinate production and marketing facilities in several countries are called
A) transnational corporations.
B) global corporations.
C) capitalist industries.
D) offshore profit shifting.
38) Countries that transnational corporations have invested in and that export globally, even if there is no market for
the product within the country, are
A) developing countries.
B) more developed countries.
C) export platforms.
D) in violation of international laws.
39) A corporation that has established production facilities in other countries primarily to meet the consumption
needs of those countries is in this stage of the evolution of a multinational corporation.
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
40) The portion of world trade that is between divisions of the same corporation is
A) one half.
B) one third.
C) one quarter.
D) unknown.
41) International trade in services
A) is less profitable than trade in goods.
B) is more profitable than trade in goods.
C) has not yet become feasible.
D) demonstrates the same trends as trade in goods.
42) Most foreign direct investment (FDI) is
A) from one rich country to another rich country.
B) from one poor country to another poor country.
C) from one poor country to one rich country.
D) from one rich country to one poor country.
43) The World Trade Organization
A) does not count the United States among its members.
B) evolved into GATT.
C) can impose trade sanctions on members who misbehave.
D) no longer offers members most favored nation status.
44) ________ is one of the most thoroughly globalized forms of trade and also one of the largest markets in the
world.
A) Car manufacturing
B) Investment banking
C) Telecommunications manufacturing
D) Legal services
Answer: B