1. Species trait of the microorganism, genetically fixed and characterizing their ability to cause
disease: A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all true
2. A measure of pathogenicity, individually specific to a particular strain of pathogen: A)
Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all true
3. The interaction of pathogen and host organism under certain environmental conditions - is:
A) infection B) infectious diseases C) Immunity D) all true
4. Particular manifestations of infection, reflecting the degree of its development and has
specific nosologic features - it is: A) infection B) infectious disease
C) Infection D) Immunity E) all true
5. For infectious disease characterized by: А) the specificity of the etiological agent B) cyclic
flow C) the formation of immunity D) infectivity E) all true
6. Ability to develop and allocate different toxins: A) pathogenicity B) virulence C)
toxigenicity D) invasiveness E) all true
7. For infectious disease is not characterized by: А) the specificity of the etiological agent B) is
acyclic flow C) the formation of immunity D) infectivity E) mono - and mixed infection
8. The ability to penetrate into the tissues and organs in the host organism and spread them is:A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all true
9. By the properties of the pathogen does not apply: A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C)
Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) infectivity
10. Nonspecific protective factors of the organism all except: A) lysozyme B) skin and mucous
membranes C) interferons D) complement system E) genes of HLA system
11. Indicate the period from the time of infection to the onset of illness: A) Primary B) middle C)
ncubation D) recovery E) the correct answer is absent
12. Diagnosis of infectious diseases is based on: A) collection of history of illness B) the
epidemiological history C) objective examination D) laboratory and instrumental methods E)
all true
13. To the specific methods of diagnosis include everything except: A) in the bacteriological B)
hemogram C) virological D) serological E) biological
14. Periods of the infectious diseases all, except: A) initial B) middle C) incubation D) recovery
E) during the precursor
15. Relapse, developed as a result of new infection by the same agent, called: A) reinfection B)
mono infection C) to infection D) super infection E) becomes chronic
16. By zoonotic infections include: A) rabies B) brucellosis C) leptospirosis D) anthrax E) all
true
17. The forms of infectious diseases, no symptoms, but with immunologic, functional,
morphological changes: A) in the demonstrative B) inapparent C) slow D) latent E) Chronic
18. Material for specific methods of diagnosis may be: A) blood B) CSF C) sputum D) swabs
from mucous E) all true
19. To slow human infections are currently in diseases caused by: A) spirochete B) prions C)
bacteria D) helminth E) protozoa
20. The basic principles of antibacterial therapy include all except: a) account for the sensitivity
of selected flora B) choice of the optimal doses and methods of introducing C) the timely
commencement and duration of course D) selection of the most active drug is not given the
degree of toxicity E) a combination of drugs to enhance the antibacterial effect .
21. The interaction of pathogen and host organism under certain environmental conditions - is:
A) infection B) infectious diseases C) Immunity D) all true
22. Particular manifestations of infection, reflecting the degree of its development and has
specific nosologic features - it is: A) infection B) infectious disease
C) Infection D) Immunity E) all true
23. For infectious disease characterized by: А) the specificity of the etiological agent B) cyclic
flow C) the formation of immunity D) infectivity E) all true
24. Ability to develop and allocate different toxins: A) pathogenicity B) virulence C)
toxigenicity D) invasiveness E) all true
25. Species trait of the microorganism, genetically fixed and characterizing their ability to cause
disease: A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all true
26. A measure of pathogenicity, individually specific to a particular strain of pathogen: A)
Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all true
27. For infectious disease is not characterized by: А) the specificity of the etiological agent B) is
acyclic flow C) the formation of immunity D) infectivity E) mono - and mixed infection
28. The ability to penetrate into the tissues and organs in the host organism and spread them is:A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all true
29. By the properties of the pathogen does not apply: A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C)
Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) infectivity
30. Nonspecific protective factors of the organism all except: A) lysozyme B) skin and mucous
membranes C) interferons D) complement system E) genes of HLA system
31. Indicate the period from the time of infection to the onset of illness: A) Primary B) middle C)
ncubation D) recovery E) the correct answer is absent
32. Periods of the infectious diseases all, except: A) initial B) middle C) incubation D) recovery
E) during the precursor
33. Relapse, developed as a result of new infection by the same agent, called: A) reinfection B)
mono infection C) to infection D) super infection E) becomes chronic
34. By zoonotic infections include: A) rabies B) brucellosis C) leptospirosis D) anthrax E) all
true
35. The forms of infectious diseases, no symptoms, but with immunologic, functional,
morphological changes: A) in the demonstrative B) inapparent C) slow D) latent E) Chronic
36. To slow human infections are currently in diseases caused by: A) spirochete B) prions C)
bacteria D) helminth E) protozoa
37. Diagnosis of infectious diseases is based on: A) collection of history of illness B) the
epidemiological history C) objective examination D) laboratory and instrumental methods E)
all true
38. Material for specific methods of diagnosis may be: A) blood B) CSF C) sputum D) swabs
from mucous E) all true
39. The basic principles of antibacterial therapy include all except: a) account for the sensitivity
of selected flora B) choice of the optimal doses and methods of introducing C) the timely
commencement and duration of course D) selection of the most active drug is not given the
degree of toxicity E) a combination of drugs to enhance the antibacterial effect .
40. To the specific methods of diagnosis include everything except: A) in the bacteriological B)
hemogram C) virological D) serological E) biological
41. Specify the number of dry matter in grams required to prepare 1 liter of 1% solution
dezaktina: A) 1, 0 B) 10.0 C) 100.0 D) 0, 1
42. Specify the number of dry matter in grams required to prepare 10 liters of 0.5% solution
dezaktina: A) 50.0 B) 10.0 C) 500.0 D) 0,5 E) 5,0
43. Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes without food residue, in intestinal
infections of bacterial etiology:А) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30 min D)
0,1% - 60 min E) 0,5% - 90 min
44. Indicate disinfection method, involving the use of ultra-high frequency currents, radiant
energy, ultrasound, cold, heat: A) physical B) chemical C) Mechanical D) Sterilization
45. Excreta patient (feces, urine, sputum, etc.), dishes for food and excreta, things take care of
the sick, the premises shall be: A) deratisection B) disinfestation C) disinfection D)
sterilization E) all true
46. Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes, with leftovers, with the air - droplet
infection: A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30 min D) 0,1% - 60 min E) 0,5% 90 min
47. Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes without food residue in tuberuleze:
A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30 min D) 1% - 60 min E) 0 5% - 90 min
48. Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina objects of care, tolerate parenteral viral
hepatitis: A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,5% - 120 min D) 0,1% - 60 min E) 0,5% 90 min
49. Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina sputum of patients with tuberculosis: A)
2% - 30 min B) 2,5% - 60 min C) 2,5% - 360 min D) 1% - 60 min E) 0,5% - 90 min
50. The concentration of active chlorine in the «Dezactine» should be: A) not more than 14% B)
At least 10% C) at least 12% D) not less than 50% E) not less than 14%
51. Disinfection is carried out to destroy: А) infectious agents B) opportunistic pathogens C)
transmissible pathogens D) staphylococci E) viral hepatitis B and C.
52. Sterilization is carried out in order to destroy pathogens: A) intestinal B) transmissible
infections C) all microorganisms D) of hepatitis E
53. What type of disinfection is carried out in endemic foci: A) focal B) preventive C) current
D) final E) all true except B.
54. For disinfected using the following ways: A) mechanical B) physical C) chemical D) a
combination of E) are correct
55. For monitor the effectiveness before sterilization processing for the detection of blood
sample is used: A) azopiramovaya B) amidopirinovaya C) sample with sudan III D) with
phenolphthalein E) is true A and B
56. The concentration of active chlorine in the «Dezactine» should be: A) not more than 14% B)
At least 10% C) at least 12% D) not less than 50% E) not less than 14%
57. Disinfection is carried out to destroy: А) infectious agents B) opportunistic pathogens C)
transmissible pathogens D) staphylococci E) viral hepatitis B and C.
58. Sterilization is carried out in order to destroy pathogens: A) intestinal B) transmissible
infections C) all microorganisms D) of hepatitis E
59. What type of disinfection is carried out in endemic foci: A) focal B) preventive C) current
D) final E) all true except B.
60. For disinfected using the following ways: A) mechanical B) physical C) chemical D) a
combination of E) are correct
61. Indicate disinfection method, involving the use of ultra-high frequency currents, radiant
energy, ultrasound, cold, heat: A) physical B) chemical C) Mechanical D) Sterilization
62. Excreta patient (feces, urine, sputum, etc.), dishes for food and excreta, things take care of
the sick, the premises shall be: A) deratisection B) disinfestation C) disinfection D)
sterilization E) all true
63. For monitor the effectiveness before sterilization processing for the detection of blood
sample is used: A) azopiramovaya B) amidopirinovaya C) sample with sudan III D) with
phenolphthalein E) is true A and B
64. Specify the number of dry matter in grams required to prepare 1 liter of 1% solution
dezaktina: A) 1, 0 B) 10.0 C) 100.0 D) 0, 1
65. Specify the number of dry matter in grams required to prepare 10 liters of 0.5% solution
dezaktina: A) 50.0 B) 10.0 C) 500.0 D) 0,5 E) 5,0
66. Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes without food residue, in intestinal
infections of bacterial etiology:А) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30 min D)
0,1% - 60 min E) 0,5% - 90 min
67. Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes, with leftovers, with the air - droplet
infection: A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30 min D) 0,1% - 60 min E) 0,5% 90 min
68. Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes without food residue in tuberuleze:
A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30 min D) 1% - 60 min E) 0 5% - 90 min
69. Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina objects of care, tolerate parenteral viral
hepatitis: A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,5% - 120 min D) 0,1% - 60 min E) 0,5% 90 min
70. Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina sputum of patients with tuberculosis: A)
2% - 30 min B) 2,5% - 60 min C) 2,5% - 360 min D) 1% - 60 min E) 0,5% - 90 min
71. The emergency prophylaxis of a hepatitis B at the medical worker (if the titer anti-HbsAg in
his blood 500 ILJ/ML): A) it is not carried out B) normal human immunoglobulin C) the
hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg, D)only a vaccine E) a vaccine against
a hepatitis B plus the hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg.
72. The minimum protective titer of antibodies for HBV is: A) 0.03 IU / ml B) 0.5 IU / ml C) 1
IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml.
73. Before the introduction of a heterogeneous serum to a patient it is necessary to: A) specify
anamnesis morbi B) study the sensitivity to foreign protein C) study blood about biochemical
parameters D) study a general analysis of blood E) study the immune status.
74. The dose of antirabic immunoglobulin is used for emergency prophylaxis of rabies: A)
5lU/kg B) 10 lU/kg C) 20 lU/kg D) 30 lU/kg E) 50 lU/kg.
75. Indications for emergency prevention of tetanus, all except: A) Unsafe abortion B) gave birth
at home with C) burn 1 grade D) animal bites E) frostbite Grade 4
76. The main clinical manifestations anaphylactic shock: A) dyspnea B) nausea, vomiting C) a
sharp decline in blood pressure, tachycardia D) loss of consciousness E) all right
77. Drug of choice for specific prevention of influenza is: A) penicillin B) ascorbic acid C)
inactivated influenza vaccines D) interferon E) everything is right.
78. The minimum protective antibody level against tetanus is: A) 0.1 IU / ml B) 0.01 IU / ml C)
1 IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml E) 100 IU / ml
79. In the emergency station asked the patient P. 25 years with frostbite of hands 3-4 degrees. In
a matter of urgency should be vaccinated against: A) diphtheria B) sepsis C) rabies D)
tetanus E) hepatitis B
80. In burn units are patient K. 40 years with a burn 2-3 degrees. From history we know that he
had received a full course of vaccinations against tetanus. Last booster was held 6 years ago.
Your tactics are: A) Introduce 0.5 ml of tetanus toxoid B) enter antitetanic Ig 250 IU C)
tetanus toxoid 3000 IU D) all of the above is true E) did not enter.
81. In the surgical ward is located, 48 years old, homeless people with a diagnosis of frostbite 4
degrees. Data of vaccination against tetanus is not. The concentration of protective antibody
titer 0.01 IU / ml. Your choices: A) introduce 1.0 ml of tetanus toxoid B) 3000 IU tetanus
toxoid C) enter antitetanic Ig 250 IU D) is true and C E) is true and B
82. B. 26 years old was bitten by a fox with damage to the skin, mucous membranes covered
with saliva. Your actions are correct, except: A) Undertake an absolute rate of vaccination
against rabies B) additionally introduce rabies Ig C) locally treat the wound with an alkaline
solution D) was excised edges and sew up the wound E) immunized conduct strictly in
medical facility
83. Patient L. went to a doctor complaining of the presence of multiple scratches on the skin of
the hands and face, caused by unknown cat. What events have priority? A) Treatment of
wounds mile solution B) Actively passive immunization C) Veterinary event D) Emergency
hospitalization E) Antibiotics
84. For the prevention of influenza A everything can be used except: A) vaccination B)
immunoglobulin C) tetracycline D) remantadin E) there is no correct answer.
85. For emergency prophylaxis of a influenza A and the bird's flu (H5N1) is used: A)
Rimantadinum, B) vaccine VAXIGRIP, C) Oseltamivir, D) only live vaccine, E) all is true.
86. The emergency prophylaxis of a hepatitis B at the medical worker (if the titer anti-HbsAg in
his blood 1 IU/ML): A) it is not carried out B) normal human immunoglobulin C) the
hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg D)only a vaccine E) a vaccine against
a hepatitis B plus the hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg.
87. The dose antitetanic serum at carrying out of emergency specific prophylaxis of tetanus
makes: A) 100 1U B) 250 IU C) 3000 1U D) 10000 1U E) 1 million IU.
88. The dose of an antitetanic human immunoglobulin at carrying out of emergency specific
prophylaxis of a tetanus is: A) 100 IU; B) 250 1U; C) 3000 1U; D)0000 IU ;E)1 million IU.
89. The minimum protective antibody level against diphtheria is: A) 0.1 IU / ml B) 0.01 IU / ml
C) 1 IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml E) 100 IU / ml
90. In the reception area has given birth at home received Y. 25 years after the birth occurred at
home, the minimum protective titer of anti-tetanus serum 2,5 IU / ml. Your tactics are: A)
appoint 3 ml of tetanus toxoid B) to introduce 0.5 ml of tetanus toxoid C) tetanus toxoid
3000 IU D) antitetanic Ig 250 IU E) do nothing
91. The minimum protective titer of antibodies for HBV is: A) 0.03 IU / ml B) 0.5 IU / ml C) 1
IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml.
92. Before the introduction of a heterogeneous serum to a patient it is necessary to: A) specify
anamnesis morbi B) study the sensitivity to foreign protein C) study blood about biochemical
parameters D) study a general analysis of blood E) study the immune status.
93. The emergency prophylaxis of a hepatitis B at the medical worker (if the titer anti-HbsAg in
his blood 500 ILJ/ML): A) it is not carried out B) normal human immunoglobulin C) the
hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg, D)only a vaccine E) a vaccine against
a hepatitis B plus the hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg.
94. The dose of antirabic immunoglobulin is used for emergency prophylaxis of rabies: A)
5lU/kg B) 10 lU/kg C) 20 lU/kg D) 30 lU/kg E) 50 lU/kg.
95. Drug of choice for specific prevention of influenza is: A) penicillin B) ascorbic acid C)
inactivated influenza vaccines D) interferon E) everything is right.
96. For the prevention of influenza A everything can be used except: A) vaccination B)
immunoglobulin C) tetracycline D) remantadin E) there is no correct answer.
97. For emergency prophylaxis of a influenza A and the bird's flu (H5N1) is used: A)
Rimantadinum, B) vaccine VAXIGRIP, C) Oseltamivir, D) only live vaccine, E) all is true.
98. The emergency prophylaxis of a hepatitis B at the medical worker (if the titer anti-HbsAg in
his blood 1 IU/ML): A) it is not carried out B) normal human immunoglobulin C) the
hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg D)only a vaccine E) a vaccine against
a hepatitis B plus the hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg.
99. The dose antitetanic serum at carrying out of emergency specific prophylaxis of tetanus
makes: A) 100 1U B) 250 IU C) 3000 1U D) 10000 1U E) 1 million IU.
100. The dose of an antitetanic human immunoglobulin at carrying out of emergency specific
prophylaxis of a tetanus is: A) 100 IU; B) 250 1U; C) 3000 1U; D)0000 IU ;E)1 million IU.
101. The minimum protective antibody level against tetanus is: A) 0.1 IU / ml B) 0.01 IU / ml
C) 1 IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml E) 100 IU / ml
102. In the emergency station asked the patient P. 25 years with frostbite of hands 3-4
degrees. In a matter of urgency should be vaccinated against: A) diphtheria B) sepsis C)
rabies D) tetanus E) hepatitis B
103. In burn units are patient K. 40 years with a burn 2-3 degrees. From history we know that
he had received a full course of vaccinations against tetanus. Last booster was held 6 years
ago. Your tactics are: A) Introduce 0.5 ml of tetanus toxoid B) enter antitetanic Ig 250 IU C)
tetanus toxoid 3000 IU D) all of the above is true E) did not enter.
104. In the surgical ward is located, 48 years old, homeless people with a diagnosis of
frostbite 4 degrees. Data of vaccination against tetanus is not. The concentration of protective
antibody titer 0.01 IU / ml. Your choices: A) introduce 1.0 ml of tetanus toxoid B) 3000 IU
tetanus toxoid C) enter antitetanic Ig 250 IU D) is true and C E) is true and B
105. B. 26 years old was bitten by a fox with damage to the skin, mucous membranes covered
with saliva. Your actions are correct, except: A) Undertake an absolute rate of vaccination
against rabies B) additionally introduce rabies Ig C) locally treat the wound with an alkaline
solution D) was excised edges and sew up the wound E) immunized conduct strictly in
medical facility
106. Patient L. went to a doctor complaining of the presence of multiple scratches on the skin
of the hands and face, caused by unknown cat. What events have priority? A) Treatment of
wounds mile solution B) Actively passive immunization C) Veterinary event D) Emergency
hospitalization E) Antibiotics
107. The minimum protective antibody level against diphtheria is: A) 0.1 IU / ml B) 0.01 IU /
ml C) 1 IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml E) 100 IU / ml
108. In the reception area has given birth at home received Y. 25 years after the birth occurred
at home, the minimum protective titer of anti-tetanus serum 2,5 IU / ml. Your tactics are: A)
appoint 3 ml of tetanus toxoid B) to introduce 0.5 ml of tetanus toxoid C) tetanus toxoid
3000 IU D) antitetanic Ig 250 IU E) do nothing
109. Indications for emergency prevention of tetanus, all except: A) Unsafe abortion B) gave
birth at home with C) burn 1 grade D) animal bites E) frostbite Grade 4
110. The main clinical manifestations anaphylactic shock: A) dyspnea B) nausea, vomiting C)
a sharp decline in blood pressure, tachycardia D) loss of consciousness E) all right
111. Meningococcal vaccine: A) anatoxin B) dead C) live D) chemical E) recombinant
112. Recombinant vaccine is: A) hepatitis B B) yellow fever C) plague D) typhus E)
tuberculosis
113. For polyvalent vaccines include: A) tuberculosis B) influenza C) pertussis D) tetanus E)
diphtheria
114. The prevention of hepatitis B following judgments are true, except: A) using recombinant
vaccine B) all newborns vaccinated C) vaccinated medical workers, surgeons D) children
born to HBsAg positive mothers vaccine is given 4 - multiply E) vaccine is given 3 - fold
with interval in 1,5 months, booster every 10 years.
115. The active immunization is introduction: A) live vaccine; B) heterogeneous serum; C)
immunoglobulin; D) heterogeneous immunoglobulin; E) all is true.
116. Types of vaccines include all except: A) toxoids B) exotoxin C) chemical D)
Recombinant E) adsorbed
117. By the vaccine preparations are: A) live vaccines B) killed C) chemical D) Recombinant
E) all correct
118. Live vaccines: A) attenuated B) high immunogens C) are unstable to a breach of storage
mode D) is highly resistant to the violation of the storage E) all true, except for D.
119. To live vaccines include: A) tuberculosis B) pertussis C) cholera D) the Salk polio E)
rabies
120. By the killed vaccine are: A) measles B) the Salk polio C) mumps D) polio SEBINA E)
brucellosis
121. The structure of the ADT include: A) pertussis antigen B) tetanus toxoid C) diphtheria
toxoid D) all true, except A E) all true
122. Vaccine composition comprises: A) antigens B) stabilizers C) preservatives D)
antibiotics E) all true
123. Antibiotics included in the vaccine everything except: A) kanamycin B) tetracycline C)
streptomycin D) neomycin E) the correct answer absent
124. Intradermally injected: A) measles vaccine B) tuberculosis C) rubella D) APDT E) Polio
125. Patient N. 6 years received hormone therapy at the glomerulonephritis. Following
immunizations you will allow: A) 1 month B) 2 months C) 3 months D) after 6 months E)
after 1 year
126. After vaccination by BCG on a place of introduction of a vaccine the infiltrate in
diameter of 5 mm has appeared: A) normal postvaccinal reaction; B) the unsterile instrument;
C) a wrong method of introduction of a vaccine; D) the vaccine is entered at a negative test
with tuberculin; E) the vaccine is entered at a positive test with tuberculin.
127. Antitoxic serums include serum against: A) botulinum B) tick-borne encephalitis; C)
influenza D)– l eptospirosis, E) Hepatitis B.
128. The passive immunization provides introduction: A) heterogeneous immunoglobulins; B)
heterogeneous serums; C) homologous and heterogeneous immunoglobulins; D) homologous
serums; E) all is right.
129. Patient K., 35 years suffered a viral hepatitis B in September 2009, ADT vaccination you
will spend: A) in March 2010 and B) in September 2010. C) in December 2010. D)
immediately after discharge from hospital E) vaccination contraindicated
130. A child with primary immunodeficiency contraindicated Introduction: A) BCG B)
against pertussis C) polio Salk D) cholera E) rabies
131. Types of vaccines include all except: A) toxoids B) exotoxin C) chemical D)
Recombinant E) adsorbed
132. By the vaccine preparations are: A) live vaccines B) killed C) chemical D) Recombinant
E) all correct
133. Live vaccines: A) attenuated B) high immunogens C) are unstable to a breach of storage
mode D) is highly resistant to the violation of the storage E) all true, except for D.
134. To live vaccines include: A) tuberculosis B) pertussis C) cholera D) the Salk polio E)
rabies
135. By the killed vaccine are: A) measles B) the Salk polio C) mumps D) polio SEBINA E)
brucellosis
136. Meningococcal vaccine: A) anatoxin B) dead C) live D) chemical E) recombinant
137. Recombinant vaccine is: A) hepatitis B B) yellow fever C) plague D) typhus E)
tuberculosis
138. For polyvalent vaccines include: A) tuberculosis B) influenza C) pertussis D) tetanus E)
diphtheria
139. The structure of the ADT include: A) pertussis antigen B) tetanus toxoid C) diphtheria
toxoid D) all true, except A E) all true
140. Vaccine composition comprises: A) antigens B) stabilizers C) preservatives D)
antibiotics E) all true
141. Antibiotics included in the vaccine everything except: A) kanamycin B) tetracycline C)
streptomycin D) neomycin E) the correct answer absent
142. Intradermally injected: A) measles vaccine B) tuberculosis C) rubella D) APDT E) Polio
143. Patient N. 6 years received hormone therapy at the glomerulonephritis. Following
immunizations you will allow: A) 1 month B) 2 months C) 3 months D) after 6 months E)
after 1 year
144. Patient K., 35 years suffered a viral hepatitis B in September 2009, ADT vaccination you
will spend: A) in March 2010 and B) in September 2010. C) in December 2010. D)
immediately after discharge from hospital E) vaccination contraindicated
145. A child with primary immunodeficiency contraindicated Introduction: A) BCG B)
against pertussis C) polio Salk D) cholera E) rabies
146. The prevention of hepatitis B following judgments are true, except: A) using
recombinant vaccine B) all newborns vaccinated C) vaccinated medical workers, surgeons
D) children born to HBsAg positive mothers vaccine is given 4 - multiply E) vaccine is given
3 - fold with interval in 1,5 months, booster every 10 years.
147. After vaccination by BCG on a place of introduction of a vaccine the infiltrate in
diameter of 5 mm has appeared: A) normal postvaccinal reaction; B) the unsterile instrument;
C) a wrong method of introduction of a vaccine; D) the vaccine is entered at a negative test
with tuberculin; E) the vaccine is entered at a positive test with tuberculin.
148. Antitoxic serums include serum against: A) botulinum B) tick-borne encephalitis; C)
influenza D)– l eptospirosis, E) Hepatitis B.
149. The passive immunization provides introduction: A) heterogeneous immunoglobulins; B)
heterogeneous serums; C) homologous and heterogeneous immunoglobulins; D) homologous
serums; E) all is right.
150. The active immunization is introduction: A) live vaccine; B) heterogeneous serum; C)
immunoglobulin; D) heterogeneous immunoglobulin; E) all is true.
151. The primary mechanism of transmission in cholera: a) contact-home B) airborne C) fecaloral D) transmissive E) parenterally.
152. Leading the way for cholera transmission: A) water B) food C) contact-home D) dust E)
air - drop
153. Observation of contact persons with cholera established for the term: A) 1 month B) 21
days C) 5 days D) 6 days E) 10 days
154. Clinical supervision for the ill with cholera established for the term: A) 1 month B) 3
months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
155. To isolate V. cholerae from stool using the following culture medium: A) 10 \% bile
broth B) broth with sugar C) 1 \% semisolid agar D) liquid media Sabur E) 1% alkaline
peptone water.
156. The main counter-measures to localize and eliminate the source of cholera: A)
quarantined B) identification, isolation and preventive treatment of contacts C) treatment of
patients with cholera and D) the current and final disinfection E) all true.
157. Criteria for discharge of patients with cholera: A) clinical improvement B) 3 negative
bacteriological studies of feces C) 3 negative bacteriological study of bile D) 3 negative
bacteriological studies of feces, a single dose of bile, clinical recovery E) 5 negative
bacteriological studies of feces.
158. Persons, who were in contact with people with cholera, are subject to: A) placing in
prison with a mandatory preventative treatment B) insulation of the house C) hospitalization
in an infectious diseases hospital D) medical surveillance for 5 days E) hospitalization not
subject.
159. For laboratory confirmation of cholera use: A) bacteriological examination of feces B)
blood culture C) serological examination of blood D) scatological study E) determination of
electrolytes in the blood.
160. The causative agent of plague: A) Enterobacteria. B) Yersinia. C) Clostridium. D)
Spirochetes. E) Fungi
161. The causative agent of plague: A) Borellia reccurens. B) Yersenia pestis. C) Salmonella
typhi. D) Leptospira interrorgans. E) Yersenia pseudotuberculosis.
162. Plague is: A) zoonosis. B) anthroponosis. C) sapronosis. D) anthropozoonosis E) all right
163. Emergency prevention of contact persons in plague is carried out: A) erythromycin B)
penicillin C) gentamicin D) streptomycin E) cefazolin
164. What are the rules for discharge from hospital patients who underwent skin-bubonic form
of plague: A) 2 weeks after complete clinical recovery, B) after normalization of temperature
and peripheral blood, C) after a resorption of bubonic, D) to resolve an epidemiologist, E) 4
weeks after complete clinical recovery and 2-negative results of bacteriological seeding
content buboes.
165. The greatest epidemiological risk patients with pneumonic plague in the present period:
A) incubating B) initial C) height D) convalescence E) in all periods
166. Refers to the plague infection: A) Special - dangerous B) quarantine C) of natural focal
D) zooantroponotic E) all right
167. Carrier of the plague are: A) flea B) argasovye tongs C) mosquitoes D) Houseflies E) lice
168. The main route of transmission in plague: A) infusion B) fecal-oral C) transmissive D)
vertical E) parenteral
169. A vaccine against plague: A) live B) killed C) Recombinant D) chemical E) does not
exist
170. Clinical supervision for convalescents plague established for the term: A) 1 month B) 3
months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
171. Observation of contact persons with plague established for the term: A) 1 month B) 21
days C) 5 days D) 6 days E) 10 days
172. Warm-blooded host agent of Lassa fever in nature: A) rodents B) birds C) Pets D) green
monkey E) African monkey
173. Vectors of yellow fever are: A) flea B) clamp C) mosquitoes D) Houseflies E) lice
174. The originator Marseilles fever rickettsia: A) Prowazeki B) Burnet C) Akari D) Kennel
E) all right
175. The main warm-blooded host of the causative agent of yellow fever in nature are: A)
rodents B) birds C) person D) multimammate African rat E) monkeys.
176. Observation of contact persons with cholera established for the term: A) 1 month B) 21
days C) 5 days D) 6 days E) 10 days
177. Criteria for discharge of patients with cholera: A) clinical improvement B) 3 negative
bacteriological studies of feces C) 3 negative bacteriological study of bile D) 3 negative
bacteriological studies of feces, a single dose of bile, clinical recovery E) 5 negative
bacteriological studies of feces.
178. Vectors of yellow fever are: A) flea B) clamp C) mosquitoes D) Houseflies E) lice
179. The originator Marseilles fever rickettsia: A) Prowazeki B) Burnet C) Akari D) Kennel
E) all right
180. The main warm-blooded host of the causative agent of yellow fever in nature are: A)
rodents B) birds C) person D) multimammate African rat E) monkeys.
181. The primary mechanism of transmission in cholera: a) contact-home B) airborne C) fecaloral D) transmissive E) parenterally.
182. Leading the way for cholera transmission: A) water B) food C) contact-home D) dust E)
air - drop
183. Persons, who were in contact with people with cholera, are subject to: A) placing in
prison with a mandatory preventative treatment B) insulation of the house C) hospitalization
in an infectious diseases hospital D) medical surveillance for 5 days E) hospitalization not
subject.
184. For laboratory confirmation of cholera use: A) bacteriological examination of feces B)
blood culture C) serological examination of blood D) scatological study E) determination of
electrolytes in the blood.
185. The causative agent of plague: A) Enterobacteria. B) Yersinia. C) Clostridium. D)
Spirochetes. E) Fungi
186. The causative agent of plague: A) Borellia reccurens. B) Yersenia pestis. C) Salmonella
typhi. D) Leptospira interrorgans. E) Yersenia pseudotuberculosis.
187. Plague is: A) zoonosis. B) anthroponosis. C) sapronosis. D) anthropozoonosis E) all right
188. Clinical supervision for the ill with cholera established for the term: A) 1 month B) 3
months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
189. To isolate V. cholerae from stool using the following culture medium: A) 10 \% bile
broth B) broth with sugar C) 1 \% semisolid agar D) liquid media Sabur E) 1% alkaline
peptone water.
190. The main counter-measures to localize and eliminate the source of cholera: A)
quarantined B) identification, isolation and preventive treatment of contacts C) treatment of
patients with cholera and D) the current and final disinfection E) all true.
191. Emergency prevention of contact persons in plague is carried out: A) erythromycin B)
penicillin C) gentamicin D) streptomycin E) cefazolin
192. The greatest epidemiological risk patients with pneumonic plague in the present period:
A) incubating B) initial C) height D) convalescence E) in all periods
193. Refers to the plague infection: A) Special - dangerous B) quarantine C) of natural focal
D) zooantroponotic E) all right
194. Carrier of the plague are: A) flea B) argasovye tongs C) mosquitoes D) Houseflies E) lice
195. The main route of transmission in plague: A) infusion B) fecal-oral C) transmissive D)
vertical E) parenteral
196. A vaccine against plague: A) live B) killed C) Recombinant D) chemical E) does not
exist
197. What are the rules for discharge from hospital patients who underwent skin-bubonic form
of plague: A) 2 weeks after complete clinical recovery, B) after normalization of temperature
and peripheral blood, C) after a resorption of bubonic, D) to resolve an epidemiologist, E) 4
weeks after complete clinical recovery and 2-negative results of bacteriological seeding
content buboes.
198. Clinical supervision for convalescents plague established for the term: A) 1 month B) 3
months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
199. Observation of contact persons with plague established for the term: A) 1 month B) 21
days C) 5 days D) 6 days E) 10 days
200. Warm-blooded host agent of Lassa fever in nature: A) rodents B) birds C) Pets D) green
monkey E) African monkey
201.
The main route of transmission for malaria: A) drop B) fecal-oral C) transmissive D)
vertical E) parenteral
202.
The causative agent of tropical malaria: A) Pl.ovale B) Pl.falciparum C) Pl.malariae D)
Pl.vivax E) all true.
203.
The drug for preventing recurrences of malaria in remote: A) delagil B) primaquine C)
quinine sulfate D) amodiaquine E) chloroquine.
204.
Malaria belongs to a group: A) viral infections B) bacterial infections C) helmintns D)
protozoan diseases E) miazam.
205.
The leading method of laboratory diagnosis of malaria: A) serum B) parazitoskopiya C)
bacteriological D) immunologic E) biological.
206.
Clinical supervision for malaria had been ill for a period established: A) 1 month B) 3
months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
207.
Which group of viruses is HBV: A) picornaviruses B) arboviruses C) gepadnavirus D)
Reovirus E) ortomiksovirus.
208.
The main source of viral hepatitis 'B': A) patients with icteric forms of acute viral
hepatitis B) individuals with subclinical C) patients with chronic D) patients with fulminant
form E) all true.
209.
The main mechanism of transmission by HCV: A) contact-household B) airborne C)
sexual D) transmissive E) parenteral.
210.
The main mechanism of transmission of infection with HDV-infection: A) contact-
household B) airborne C) sexual D) transmissive E) parenteral.
211.
The frozen blood products or their derivatives HbsAg persists: A) 1 week B) 1 month C)
6 months D) 2 years E) 15-20 years
212.
The main route of transmission in the HBV: A) transfusionB) inoculating C) sexual D)
Vertical E) all correct
213.
Clinical supervision for convalescents HBV is established for a period of: A) 1 month B)
3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
214.
The minimum protective antibody titer to hepatitis B: A) 0,03 IU / ml, B) 0,5 IU / ml, C),
1 IU / ml, D) 10 IU / ml E) 0.1 IU / ml
215.
Hepatitis B vaccine: A) live B) killed C) recombinant D) Chemical E) toxoid
216.
Observation of contact persons with HBV infection is established for a period of: A) 1
month B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
217.
The main route of transmission for Lyme disease: A) drop B) fecal-oral C) transmissive
D) Vertical E) all true
218.
The source of infection with Lyme - borreliosis is: A) ixodes ticks B) argasid ticks C)
mosquitoes D) Houseflies E) all true
219.
Which of the following apply to zoonotic infections: A) flu B) malaria C) Lyme disease
D) shigellosis E) cholera
220.
For the specific prevention of Lyme - borreliosis is used: A)specific immunoglobulin
B)specific serum C) vaccine D) Penicillin E) there is no specific prevention
221. The main route of transmission for Lyme disease: A) drop B) fecal-oral C) transmissive
D) Vertical E) all true
222. Which group of viruses is HBV: A) picornaviruses B) arboviruses C) gepadnavirus D)
Reovirus E) ortomiksovirus.
223.
The main source of viral hepatitis 'B': A) patients with icteric forms of acute viral
hepatitis B) individuals with subclinical C) patients with chronic D) patients with fulminant
form E) all true.
224.
The main mechanism of transmission by HCV: A) contact-household B) airborne C)
sexual D) transmissive E) parenteral.
225.
The main mechanism of transmission of infection with HDV-infection: A) contact-
household B) airborne C) sexual D) transmissive E) parenteral.
226.
The frozen blood products or their derivatives HbsAg persists: A) 1 week B) 1 month C)
6 months D) 2 years E) 15-20 years
227.
The main route of transmission in the HBV: A) transfusionB) inoculating C) sexual D)
Vertical E) all correct
228.
Clinical supervision for convalescents HBV is established for a period of: A) 1 month B)
3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
229. The source of infection with Lyme - borreliosis is: A) ixodes ticks B) argasid ticks C)
mosquitoes D) Houseflies E) all true
230. Which of the following apply to zoonotic infections: A) flu B) malaria C) Lyme disease
D) shigellosis E) cholera
231. For the specific prevention of Lyme - borreliosis is used: A)specific immunoglobulin
B)specific serum C) vaccine D) Penicillin E) there is no specific prevention
232. The main route of transmission for malaria: A) drop B) fecal-oral C) transmissive D)
vertical E) parenteral
233.
The causative agent of tropical malaria: A) Pl.ovale B) Pl.falciparum C) Pl.malariae D)
Pl.vivax E) all true.
234.
The drug for preventing recurrences of malaria in remote: A) delagil B) primaquine C)
quinine sulfate D) amodiaquine E) chloroquine.
235.
Malaria belongs to a group: A) viral infections B) bacterial infections C) helmintns D)
protozoan diseases E) miazam.
236.
The leading method of laboratory diagnosis of malaria: A) serum B) parazitoskopiya C)
bacteriological D) immunologic E) biological.
237.
Clinical supervision for malaria had been ill for a period established: A) 1 month B) 3
months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
238.
The minimum protective antibody titer to hepatitis B: A) 0,03 IU / ml, B) 0,5 IU / ml, C),
1 IU / ml, D) 10 IU / ml E) 0.1 IU / ml
239.
Hepatitis B vaccine: A) live B) killed C) recombinant D) Chemical E) toxoid
240.
Observation of contact persons with HBV infection is established for a period of: A) 1
month B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
241. At a patient 30 years, resident in a separate apartment, are diagnosed eas y
flow of t yphoid. What is it ne cessary to undertake? A – to hospitalize a
patient in infectious permanent establishment; B – to insulate a patient on to
the home and appoint treatment; C – to send urgent notification in SES; D –
to organize conducting of current disinfection; E – to conduct final
disinfection.
242. At a patient 30 years t yphoid is diagnosed, he is hospitalized. Among
contact there is a wife, works as a cook. What is it necessary to undertake? A
– to the wife to conduct bacteriological research of blood; B – to look after a
wife 21 day; C – to the wife to conduct bacteriological research of
excrement; D – vaccinated a wife; E – to hospitalize a wife to the receipt of
negative results of bacteriological research of blood.
243. At a patient 30 years t yphoid is diagnosed, he is hospita lized. Among
contact there is a son 5 years, visits nursery school. What is it necessary to
undertake? A – to the child to appoint bacteriophage; B – to look after a
child 7 days; C – to hospitalize a child to the receipt of negative results of
bacteriological
research of excrement;
D
– to the child to conduct
bacteriological research of blood; E – to remove a child from the visit of
nursery school to the receipt of negative results of bacteriological research
of excrement.
244. At a patient 30 years, resident i n a separate three-room apartment, are
diagnosed easy flow of dysentery. Among contact is wife, works on milk
plant. What is it necessary to undertake? A – to insulate a patient on to the
home and appoint treatment; B – to hospitalize a patient on epidemic
testimonies; C – to the wife to conduct bacteriological research of
excrement; D – after a wife to look 7 days; E – in an apartment to organize
current disinfection.
245. A patient 20 years, resident in a separate apartment, became ill by the
eas y form of dyse ntery, left to treat oneself on to the home. What is it
necessary to undertake? A – to send urgent notification in SES; B – it is
enough to fill a statistical coupon; C – to organize current disinfection by
forces of disinfectors; D – to organize current d isinfection by forces of
seeing to the patient; E – necessaril y to hospitalize a patient.
246. The patient VHA is exposed in the group of nursery school, he is
hospitalized. What is it necessary to undertake? A – contact to look after 21
day; B – contact to enter antibody; C – on a group to impose a quarantine for
a term of 35 days; D – to organize final disinfection with the use of
disinfectant solutions; E – after hospitalization of patient there is the enough
moist cleaning up and ventilation of apartment.
247. At a student resident in a dormitory, VHA is diagnosed. What is it
necessary to undertake? A – to insulate in a separate room and appoint
treatment; B – to hospitalize in infectious permanent establishment; C – to
send urgent notification in SES; D – it is enough to fill a statistical coupon;
E – to organize current disinfection in a dormitory.
248. A student resident in a dormitory became ill by the easy form of chicken pox. What is it necessary to undertake? A – to insulate a patient in a separate
room and appoint treatment; B – to hospitalize on epidemic testimonies; C –
to send urgent notification in SES; D – to organize current disinfection; E –
after hospitalization of patient there is the enough moist cleaning up and
ventilation of apartment.
249. Child 3th years , not before being ill a chicken -pox, visitant nursery
school, contacted with a patient with a chicken -pox. What is it necessary to
undertake, if is the date of contact exactly known? A – after a child to set the
medical supervision for a term of 21 day; B – after a child to set the medical
supervision for a term of 7 days; C – to disjoin a child with a collective for a
term of 21 day; D – to disjoin a child with a collective from the contact 11th
for a 21th day; E – with a collective not to disjoin a child .
250. At a child 5 years, visitant nursery school, a chicken -pox is diagnosed, he
is hospitalized. What is it necessary to undertake? A – on a group to impose
a quarantine on 7 days; B – on a group to impose a quarantine on 21 day; C –
all contact to enter ant ibody; D – children not before being ill a chicken -pox,
to enter antibody; E – after contact to set the medical supervision 7 days.
251. Child 2th years, not before being ill to measles and not vaccinated by
reason of medical contra -indications, contacted with a patient with a
measles. A child visits mangers. What is it necessary to undertake, if is the
date of contact exactly known? A – to set the medical supervision for a term
of 21 day; B – to set the medical supervision for a term of 17 days; C – to
disjoin with a collective for a term of 17 days; D – to the child to enter
antibody; E – with a collective to disjoin a child from the contact 8th for a
21th day.
252. At a child 5 years on the 4th day of stay the easy flow of measles is
diagnosed in somatic permanent establishment. What is it necessary to
undertake? A – to insulate a patient in a separate chamber; B – to hospitalize
a patient in the infectious boxing separation; C – in the separation to
organize current disinfection; D – after hospitalization of patient there is the
enough moist cleaning up and ventilation of apartment; E – to send urgent
notification in SES.
253. Child 5 years, visitant nursery school not before being ill epidemic
parotitis and not vaccinated by reason of medical contra -indications,
contacted with sick epidemic parotitis. What is it necessary to undertake, if
is the date of contact exactl y known? A – after a child to set the medical
supervision for a term of 21 day; B – quickl y vaccinate a child on epidemic
testimonies; C is a child is subjec t to disjoining with a collective from the
contact 11th for a 21th day; D – to disjoin a child with a collective on 21
day; E – with a collective not to disjoin a child.
254. Child 10 years contacted with a patient with a meningococcosis infection.
What is it n ecessary to undertake? A – after a child to set the medical
supervision for a term of 10 days; B – after a child to set the medical
supervision for a term of 21 day; C – to inspect a child bacteriologicall y
(sowing from nasopharynx); D – vaccinate a child on epidemic testimonies; E
– to disjoin a child with a collective on 21 day.
255. In the group of nursery school exposed by a sick meningococcosis
infection, he is hospitalized. What is it necessary to undertake? A – on a
group to impose a quarantine for a term of 10 days; B – on a group to impose
a quarantine for a term of 21 day; C – to the contact children to enter
antibody; D – all contact vaccinate; E – after hospitalization of patient there
is the enough moist cleaning up and ventilation of apartment.
256. At
a
patient,
during
hospitalization
in
psyhoneurologic
permanent
establishment, as a result of sowing from a pharynx and nose on diphtheria
the toxigenic culture of corynebacteries diphtheria is selected. What is it
necessary to undertake? A – to insulate in a separate chamber and appoint
treatment; B – to hospitalize in infectious permanent establishment; C – to
fill a statistical coupon; D – to conduct final disinfection; E – to send urgent
notification in SES.
257. In the group of nursery school exposed by sick diphtheria, he is
hospitalized. What is it necessary to undertake? A – on a group to impose a
quarantine 21 day; B – on a group to impose a quarantine 7 days; C – all
contact to conduct sowing on diphtheria; D – on diphtheria to do sowing onl y
to the child ren; E – to all children to enter a antidiphtherial whey.
258. What amount of dry chloric lime is needed for preparation 20 litres 20%
of basic solution, if percent of active chlorine in the present chloric lime
35% ? A – 20 gr. B – 380 gr. C – 2850 gr. D – 500 gr. E – 4000 gr.
259. What amount 10% of basic solution are 100 litres needed for preparation
0,5% of working solution? A – 10 litres; B – 5 litres; C – 0,5 litres; D – 50
litres; E is a 1 litre.
260. What amount of dry chloram yne is needed for preparation 100 litr es 3% of
solution? A – 3000 gr. B – 300 gr. C – 30 gr. D – 150 gr. E – 1500 gr.
261. 1. The interaction of pathogen and host organism under certain environmental conditions
- is: A) infection B) infectious diseases C) Immunity D) all of the above is true
1) 262. Particular manifestations of infection, reflecting the degree of its development and
has specific nosologic features - it is: A) infection B) infectious disease
C)
Infection
D)
Immunity
E)
all
of
the
above
is
true
263. For infectious disease characterized by: a) the specificity of the etiological agent B) cyclic
flow C) the formation of immunity D) infectivity E) all of the above is true
264. Ability to develop and allocate different toxins: A) pathogenicity B) virulence C)
toxigenicity
D)
invasiveness
E)
all
of
the
above
is
true
265. Species trait of the microorganism, genetically fixed and characterizing their ability to cause
disease: A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all right
266. A measure of pathogenicity, individually specific to a particular strain of pathogen: A)
Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all of the above is true
267. For infectious disease is not characterized by: a) the specificity of the etiological agent B) is
acyclic flow C) the formation of immunity D) infectivity E) mono - and mixed infection
268. The ability to penetrate into the tissues and organs in the host organism and spread them is:
A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all of the above is true
269. By the properties of the pathogen does not apply: A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C)
Toxigenicity
D)
Invasive
E)
infectivity
270. Nonspecific protective factors of the organism all except: A) lysozyme B) skin and mucous
membranes C) interferons D) complement system E) genes of HLA system
271. Indicate the period from the time of infection to the onset of illness: A) Primary B) middle
C)
ncubation
D)
recovery
E)
the
correct
answer
is
no
272. Periods of the infectious diseases all, except: A) initial B) middle C) incubation D) recovery
E)
during
the
precursor
273. Relapse, developed as a result of new infection by the same agent, called: A) reinfection B)
mono infection C) to infection D) super infection E) becomes chronic
274.By zoonotic infections include: A) rabies B) brucellosis C) leptospirosis D) anthrax E) all of
the
above
is
true
275. The forms of infectious diseases, no symptoms, but with immunologic, functional,
morphological changes: A) in the demonstrative B) inapparent C) slow D) latent E) Chronic
276. To slow human infections are currently in diseases caused by: A) spirochete B) prions C)
bacteria
D)
helminth
E)
protozoa
277. Diagnosis of infectious diseases is based on: a) collection of history of illness B) the
epidemiological history C) objective examination D) laboratory and instrumental methods E) all
of
the
above
is
true
18. To the specific methods of diagnosis include everything except: A) in the bacteriological)
hemogram
C)
virological
D)
serological
E)
biological
278. Material for specific methods of diagnosis may be: A) blood B) CSF C) sputum D) swabs
from
mucous
E)
all
of
the
above
are
true
279. The basic principles of antibacterial therapy include all except: a) account for the sensitivity
of selected flora B) choice of the optimal doses and methods of introducing C) the timely
commencement and duration of course D) selection of the most active drug is not given the
degree of toxicity E) a combination of drugs to enhance the antibacterial effect .
280. Particular manifestations of infection, reflecting the degree of its development and has
specific nosologic features - it is: A) infection B) infectious disease C) Infection D) Immunity E)
all
of
the
above
is
true
281. Species trait of the microorganism, genetically fixed and characterizing their ability to cause
disease: A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all of the above is true
282. The ability to penetrate into the tissues and organs in the host organism and spread them is:
A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all of the above is true
283. By the properties of the pathogen does not apply: A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C)
Toxigenicity
D)
Invasive
E)
infectivity
284. The interaction of pathogen and host organism under certain environmental conditions - is:
A) infection B) infectious diseases C) infection D) Immunity E) all of the above is true
285. Nonspecific protective factors of the body: A) lysozyme C) microflora C) interferons D)
complement
system
E)
all
of
the
above
is
true
286. Indicate the period from the time of infection to the onset of illness: A) Primary B) middle
C)
incubation
D)
recovery
E)
the
correct
answer
is
no
287. To slow human infections are currently in diseases caused by: A) spirochete B) prions C)
bacteria
D)
Helminth
E)
protozoa
288. Diagnosis of infectious diseases is based on: a) collection of sickness in history B)
epidemiological history C) objective examination D) laboratory and instrumental methods E) all
of
the
above
is
true
289. To the specific methods of diagnosis include everything except: A) In the bacteriological)
hemogram
C)
virological
D)
serological
E)
biological
11. Material for specific methods of diagnosis may be: A) blood B) CSF C) sputum D) swabs
from
mucous
E)
all
of
the
above
is
true
290. Reliable results of serological diagnosis are obtained by studying paired sera and an
increase in antibody titer of at least: A) 2 times B) 4 times C) 10 times D) of 100 E) increase in
titer
of
no
diagnostic
value
291. The basic principles of antibacterial therapy include all except: A) account for the
sensitivity of selected flora B) choice of the optimal doses and methods of introducing C) the
timely commencement and duration of course D) selection of the most active drug is not given
the degree of toxicity E) a co2mbination of drugs to enhance the antibacterial effect .
292. For infectious disease characterized by: a) the specificity of the etiological agent B) cyclic
flow C) the formation of immunity D) infectivity E) all of the above is true
293. Ability to develop and allocate different toxins: A) pathogenicity B) virulence C)
toxigenicity
D)
invasiveness
E)
all
of
the
above
is
true
294. A measure of pathogenicity, individually specific to a particular strain of pathogen: A)
Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all of the above is true
295. For infectious disease is not characterized by: a) the specificity of the etiological agent B) is
acyclic flow C) the formation of immunity D) infectivity E) mono - and mixed infection
296. Relapse, developed as a result of new infection by the same agent, called: A) reinfection B)
mono infection C ) infection D) super infection E) becomes chronic
297.By zoonotic infections include: a) rabies) brucellosis C) leptospirosis D) anthrax E) all of the
above
is
true
298. The forms of infectious diseases, no symptoms, but with immunologic, functional,
morphological changes: A) in the demonstrative) inapparent C) slow D) latent E) Chronic
299.
Specify the number of dry matter in grams required to prepare 1 liter of 1% solution
dezaktina: A) 1, 0 B) 10.0 C) 100.0 D) 0, 1
300.
Specify the number of dry matter in grams required to prepare 10 liters of 0.5%
solution dezaktina: A) 50.0 B) 10.0 C) 500.0 D) 0,5 E) 5,0
301.
Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes without food residue, in
intestinal infections of bacterial etiology:А) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30 min
D) 0,1% - 60 min E) 0,5% - 90 min
302.
Indicate disinfection method, involving the use of ultra-high frequency currents,
radiant energy, ultrasound, cold, heat: A) physical B) chemical C) Mechanical D) Sterilization
303.
Excreta patient (feces, urine, sputum, etc.), dishes for food and excreta, things
take care of the sick, the premises shall be: A) deratisection B) disinfestation C) disinfection D)
sterilization E) all true
304.
Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes, with leftovers, with the
air - droplet infection: A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30 min D) 0,1% - 60 min
E) 0,5% - 90 min
305.
Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes without food residue in
tuberuleze: A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30 min D) 1% - 60 min E) 0 5% - 90
min
306.
Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina objects of care, tolerate
parenteral viral hepatitis: A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,5% - 120 min D) 0,1% - 60
min E) 0,5% - 90 min
307.
Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina sputum of patients with
tuberculosis: A) 2% - 30 min B) 2,5% - 60 min C) 2,5% - 360 min D) 1% - 60 min E) 0,5% - 90
min
308.
The concentration of active chlorine in the «Dezactine» should be: A) not more
than 14% B) At least 10% C) at least 12% D) not less than 50% E) not less than 14%
309.
Disinfection is carried out to destroy: А) infectious agents B) opportunistic
pathogens C) transmissible pathogens D) staphylococci E) viral hepatitis B and C.
310.
Sterilization is carried out in order to destroy pathogens: A) intestinal B)
transmissible infections C) all microorganisms D) of hepatitis E
311.
What type of disinfection is carried out in endemic foci: A) focal B) preventive
C) current D) final E) all true except B.
312.
For disinfected using the following ways: A) mechanical B) physical C) chemical
D) a combination of E) are correct
313.
For monitor the effectiveness before sterilization processing for the detection of
blood sample is used: A) azopiramovaya B) amidopirinovaya C) sample with sudan III D) with
phenolphthalein E) is true A and B
314.
The concentration of active chlorine in the «Dezactine» should be: A) not more
than 14% B) At least 10% C) at least 12% D) not less than 50% E) not less than 14%
315.
Disinfection is carried out to destroy: А) infectious agents B) opportunistic
pathogens C) transmissible pathogens D) staphylococci E) viral hepatitis B and C.
316.
Sterilization is carried out in order to destroy pathogens: A) intestinal B)
transmissible infections C) all microorganisms D) of hepatitis E
317.
What type of disinfection is carried out in endemic foci: A) focal B) preventive
C) current D) final E) all true except B.
318.
For disinfected using the following ways: A) mechanical B) physical C) chemical
D) a combination of E) are correct
319.
Indicate disinfection method, involving the use of ultra-high frequency currents,
radiant energy, ultrasound, cold, heat: A) physical B) chemical C) Mechanical D) Sterilization
320.
Excreta patient (feces, urine, sputum, etc.), dishes for food and excreta, things
take care of the sick, the premises shall be: A) deratisection B) disinfestation C) disinfection D)
sterilization E) all true
321.
For monitor the effectiveness before sterilization processing for the detection of
blood sample is used: A) azopiramovaya B) amidopirinovaya C) sample with sudan III D) with
phenolphthalein E) is true A and B
322.
Specify the number of dry matter in grams required to prepare 1 liter of 1%
solution dezaktina: A) 1, 0 B) 10.0 C) 100.0 D) 0, 1
323.
Specify the number of dry matter in grams required to prepare 10 liters of 0.5%
solution dezaktina: A) 50.0 B) 10.0 C) 500.0 D) 0,5 E) 5,0
324.
Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes without food residue, in
intestinal infections of bacterial etiology:А) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30 min
D) 0,1% - 60 min E) 0,5% - 90 min
325.
Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes, with leftovers, with the
air - droplet infection: A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30 min D) 0,1% - 60 min
E) 0,5% - 90 min
326.
Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes without food residue in
tuberuleze: A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30 min D) 1% - 60 min E) 0 5% - 90
min
327.
Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina objects of care, tolerate
parenteral viral hepatitis: A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,5% - 120 min D) 0,1% - 60
min E) 0,5% - 90 min
328.
Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina sputum of patients with
tuberculosis: A) 2% - 30 min B) 2,5% - 60 min C) 2,5% - 360 min D) 1% - 60 min E) 0,5% - 90
min
329.
The emergency prophylaxis of a hepatitis B at the medical worker (if the titer antiHbsAg in his blood 500 ILJ/ML): A) it is not carried out B) normal human immunoglobulin C)
the hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg, D)only a vaccine E) a vaccine against
a hepatitis B plus the hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg.
330.
The minimum protective titer of antibodies for HBV is: A) 0.03 IU / ml B) 0.5 IU /
ml C) 1 IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml.
331.
Before the introduction of a heterogeneous serum to a patient it is necessary to: A)
specify anamnesis morbi B) study the sensitivity to foreign protein C) study blood about
biochemical parameters D) study a general analysis of blood E) study the immune status.
332.
The dose of antirabic immunoglobulin is used for emergency prophylaxis of rabies:
A) 5lU/kg B) 10 lU/kg C) 20 lU/kg D) 30 lU/kg E) 50 lU/kg.
333.
Indications for emergency prevention of tetanus, all except: A) Unsafe abortion B)
gave birth at home with C) burn 1 grade D) animal bites E) frostbite Grade 4
334.
The main clinical manifestations anaphylactic shock: A) dyspnea B) nausea,
vomiting C) a sharp decline in blood pressure, tachycardia D) loss of consciousness E) all
right
335.
Drug of choice for specific prevention of influenza is: A) penicillin B) ascorbic acid
C) inactivated influenza vaccines D) interferon E) everything is right.
336.
The minimum protective antibody level against tetanus is: A) 0.1 IU / ml B) 0.01 IU /
ml C) 1 IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml E) 100 IU / ml
337.
In the emergency station asked the patient P. 25 years with frostbite of hands 3-4
degrees. In a matter of urgency should be vaccinated against: A) diphtheria B) sepsis C) rabies
D) tetanus E) hepatitis B
338.
In burn units are patient K. 40 years with a burn 2-3 degrees. From history we know
that he had received a full course of vaccinations against tetanus. Last booster was held 6 years
ago. Your tactics are: A) Introduce 0.5 ml of tetanus toxoid B) enter antitetanic Ig 250 IU C)
tetanus toxoid 3000 IU D) all of the above is true E) did not enter.
339.
In the surgical ward is located, 48 years old, homeless people with a diagnosis of
frostbite 4 degrees. Data of vaccination against tetanus is not. The concentration of protective
antibody titer 0.01 IU / ml. Your choices: A) introduce 1.0 ml of tetanus toxoid B) 3000 IU
tetanus toxoid C) enter antitetanic Ig 250 IU D) is true and C E) is true and B
340.
B. 26 years old was bitten by a fox with damage to the skin, mucous membranes
covered with saliva. Your actions are correct, except: A) Undertake an absolute rate of
vaccination against rabies B) additionally introduce rabies Ig C) locally treat the wound with an
alkaline solution D) was excised edges and sew up the wound E) immunized conduct strictly in
medical facility
341.
Patient L. went to a doctor complaining of the presence of multiple scratches on the
skin of the hands and face, caused by unknown cat. What events have priority? A) Treatment of
wounds mile solution B) Actively passive immunization C) Veterinary event D) Emergency
hospitalization E) Antibiotics
342.
For the prevention of influenza A everything can be used except: A) vaccination B)
immunoglobulin C) tetracycline D) remantadin E) there is no correct answer.
343.
For emergency prophylaxis of a influenza A and the bird's flu (H5N1) is used: A)
Rimantadinum, B) vaccine VAXIGRIP, C) Oseltamivir, D) only live vaccine, E) all is true.
344.
The emergency prophylaxis of a hepatitis B at the medical worker (if the titer antiHbsAg in his blood 1 IU/ML): A) it is not carried out B) normal human immunoglobulin C) the
hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg D)only a vaccine E) a vaccine against a
hepatitis B plus the hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg.
345.
The dose antitetanic serum at carrying out of emergency specific prophylaxis of
tetanus makes: A) 100 1U B) 250 IU C) 3000 1U D) 10000 1U E) 1 million IU.
346.
The dose of an antitetanic human immunoglobulin at carrying out of emergency
specific prophylaxis of a tetanus is: A) 100 IU; B) 250 1U; C) 3000 1U; D)0000 IU ;E)1 million
IU.
347.
The minimum protective antibody level against diphtheria is: A) 0.1 IU / ml B) 0.01
IU / ml C) 1 IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml E) 100 IU / ml
348.
In the reception area has given birth at home received Y. 25 years after the birth
occurred at home, the minimum protective titer of anti-tetanus serum 2,5 IU / ml. Your tactics
are: A) appoint 3 ml of tetanus toxoid B) to introduce 0.5 ml of tetanus toxoid C) tetanus toxoid
3000 IU D) antitetanic Ig 250 IU E) do nothing
349.
The minimum protective titer of antibodies for HBV is: A) 0.03 IU / ml B) 0.5 IU /
ml C) 1 IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml.
350.
Before the introduction of a heterogeneous serum to a patient it is necessary to: A)
specify anamnesis morbi B) study the sensitivity to foreign protein C) study blood about
biochemical parameters D) study a general analysis of blood E) study the immune status.
351.
The emergency prophylaxis of a hepatitis B at the medical worker (if the titer antiHbsAg in his blood 500 ILJ/ML): A) it is not carried out B) normal human immunoglobulin C)
the hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg, D)only a vaccine E) a vaccine against
a hepatitis B plus the hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg.
352.
The dose of antirabic immunoglobulin is used for emergency prophylaxis of rabies:
A) 5lU/kg B) 10 lU/kg C) 20 lU/kg D) 30 lU/kg E) 50 lU/kg.
353.
Drug of choice for specific prevention of influenza is: A) penicillin B) ascorbic acid
C) inactivated influenza vaccines D) interferon E) everything is right.
354.
For the prevention of influenza A everything can be used except: A) vaccination B)
immunoglobulin C) tetracycline D) remantadin E) there is no correct answer.
355.
For emergency prophylaxis of a influenza A and the bird's flu (H5N1) is used: A)
Rimantadinum, B) vaccine VAXIGRIP, C) Oseltamivir, D) only live vaccine, E) all is true.
356.
The emergency prophylaxis of a hepatitis B at the medical worker (if the titer antiHbsAg in his blood 1 IU/ML): A) it is not carried out B) normal human immunoglobulin C) the
hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg D)only a vaccine E) a vaccine against a
hepatitis B plus the hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg.
357.
The dose antitetanic serum at carrying out of emergency specific prophylaxis of
tetanus makes: A) 100 1U B) 250 IU C) 3000 1U D) 10000 1U E) 1 million IU.
358.
The dose of an antitetanic human immunoglobulin at carrying out of emergency
specific prophylaxis of a tetanus is: A) 100 IU; B) 250 1U; C) 3000 1U; D)0000 IU ;E)1 million
IU.
359.
The minimum protective antibody level against tetanus is: A) 0.1 IU / ml B) 0.01 IU /
ml C) 1 IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml E) 100 IU / ml
360.
In the emergency station asked the patient P. 25 years with frostbite of hands 3-4
degrees. In a matter of urgency should be vaccinated against: A) diphtheria B) sepsis C) rabies
D) tetanus E) hepatitis B
361.
In burn units are patient K. 40 years with a burn 2-3 degrees. From history we know
that he had received a full course of vaccinations against tetanus. Last booster was held 6 years
ago. Your tactics are: A) Introduce 0.5 ml of tetanus toxoid B) enter antitetanic Ig 250 IU C)
tetanus toxoid 3000 IU D) all of the above is true E) did not enter.
362.
In the surgical ward is located, 48 years old, homeless people with a diagnosis of
frostbite 4 degrees. Data of vaccination against tetanus is not. The concentration of protective
antibody titer 0.01 IU / ml. Your choices: A) introduce 1.0 ml of tetanus toxoid B) 3000 IU
tetanus toxoid C) enter antitetanic Ig 250 IU D) is true and C E) is true and B
363.
B. 26 years old was bitten by a fox with damage to the skin, mucous membranes
covered with saliva. Your actions are correct, except: A) Undertake an absolute rate of
vaccination against rabies B) additionally introduce rabies Ig C) locally treat the wound with an
alkaline solution D) was excised edges and sew up the wound E) immunized conduct strictly in
medical facility
364.
Patient L. went to a doctor complaining of the presence of multiple scratches on the
skin of the hands and face, caused by unknown cat. What events have priority? A) Treatment of
wounds mile solution B) Actively passive immunization C) Veterinary event D) Emergency
hospitalization E) Antibiotics
365.
The minimum protective antibody level against diphtheria is: A) 0.1 IU / ml B) 0.01
IU / ml C) 1 IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml E) 100 IU / ml
366.
In the reception area has given birth at home received Y. 25 years after the birth
occurred at home, the minimum protective titer of anti-tetanus serum 2,5 IU / ml. Your tactics
are: A) appoint 3 ml of tetanus toxoid B) to introduce 0.5 ml of tetanus toxoid C) tetanus toxoid
3000 IU D) antitetanic Ig 250 IU E) do nothing
367.
Indications for emergency prevention of tetanus, all except: A) Unsafe abortion B)
gave birth at home with C) burn 1 grade D) animal bites E) frostbite Grade 4
368.
The main clinical manifestations anaphylactic shock: A) dyspnea B) nausea, vomiting
C) a sharp decline in blood pressure, tachycardia D) loss of consciousness E) all right
369.
Meningococcal vaccine: A) anatoxin B) dead C) live D) chemical E) recombinant
370.
Recombinant vaccine is: A) hepatitis B B) yellow fever C) plague D) typhus E)
tuberculosis
371.
For polyvalent vaccines include: A) tuberculosis B) influenza C) pertussis D)
tetanus E) diphtheria
372.
The prevention of hepatitis B following judgments are true, except: A) using
recombinant vaccine B) all newborns vaccinated C) vaccinated medical workers, surgeons D)
children born to HBsAg positive mothers vaccine is given 4 - multiply E) vaccine is given 3 fold with interval in 1,5 months, booster every 10 years.
373.
The active immunization is introduction: A) live vaccine; B) heterogeneous
serum; C) immunoglobulin; D) heterogeneous immunoglobulin; E) all is true.
374.
Types of vaccines include all except: A) toxoids B) exotoxin C) chemical D)
Recombinant E) adsorbed
375.
By the vaccine preparations are: A) live vaccines B) killed C) chemical D)
Recombinant E) all correct
376.
Live vaccines: A) attenuated B) high immunogens C) are unstable to a breach of
storage mode D) is highly resistant to the violation of the storage E) all true, except for D.
377.
To live vaccines include: A) tuberculosis B) pertussis C) cholera D) the Salk polio
E) rabies
378.
By the killed vaccine are: A) measles B) the Salk polio C) mumps D) polio
SEBINA E) brucellosis
379.
The structure of the ADT include: A) pertussis antigen B) tetanus toxoid C)
diphtheria toxoid D) all true, except A E) all true
380.
Vaccine composition comprises: A) antigens B) stabilizers C) preservatives D)
antibiotics E) all true
381.
Antibiotics included in the vaccine everything except: A) kanamycin B)
tetracycline C) streptomycin D) neomycin E) the correct answer absent
382.
Intradermally injected: A) measles vaccine B) tuberculosis C) rubella D) APDT
E) Polio
383.
Patient N. 6 years received hormone therapy at the glomerulonephritis. Following
immunizations you will allow: A) 1 month B) 2 months C) 3 months D) after 6 months E) after 1
year
384.
After vaccination by BCG on a place of introduction of a vaccine the infiltrate in
diameter of 5 mm has appeared: A) normal postvaccinal reaction; B) the unsterile instrument; C)
a wrong method of introduction of a vaccine; D) the vaccine is entered at a negative test with
tuberculin; E) the vaccine is entered at a positive test with tuberculin.
385.
Antitoxic serums include serum against: A) botulinum B) tick-borne encephalitis;
C) influenza D)– l eptospirosis, E) Hepatitis B.
386.
The passive immunization provides introduction: A) heterogeneous
immunoglobulins; B) heterogeneous serums; C) homologous and heterogeneous
immunoglobulins; D) homologous serums; E) all is right.
387.
Patient K., 35 years suffered a viral hepatitis B in September 2009, ADT
vaccination you will spend: A) in March 2010 and B) in September 2010. C) in December 2010.
D) immediately after discharge from hospital E) vaccination contraindicated
388.
A child with primary immunodeficiency contraindicated Introduction: A) BCG
B) against pertussis C) polio Salk D) cholera E) rabies
389.
Types of vaccines include all except: A) toxoids B) exotoxin C) chemical D)
Recombinant E) adsorbed
390.
By the vaccine preparations are: A) live vaccines B) killed C) chemical D)
Recombinant E) all correct
391.
Live vaccines: A) attenuated B) high immunogens C) are unstable to a breach of
storage mode D) is highly resistant to the violation of the storage E) all true, except for D.
392.
To live vaccines include: A) tuberculosis B) pertussis C) cholera D) the Salk polio
E) rabies
393.
By the killed vaccine are: A) measles B) the Salk polio C) mumps D) polio
SEBINA E) brucellosis
394.
Meningococcal vaccine: A) anatoxin B) dead C) live D) chemical E) recombinant
395.
Recombinant vaccine is: A) hepatitis B B) yellow fever C) plague D) typhus E)
tuberculosis
396.
For polyvalent vaccines include: A) tuberculosis B) influenza C) pertussis D)
tetanus E) diphtheria
397.
The structure of the ADT include: A) pertussis antigen B) tetanus toxoid C)
diphtheria toxoid D) all true, except A E) all true
398.
Vaccine composition comprises: A) antigens B) stabilizers C) preservatives D)
antibiotics E) all true
399.
Antibiotics included in the vaccine everything except: A) kanamycin B)
tetracycline C) streptomycin D) neomycin E) the correct answer absent
400.
Intradermally injected: A) measles vaccine B) tuberculosis C) rubella D) APDT
E) Polio
401.
Patient N. 6 years received hormone therapy at the glomerulonephritis. Following
immunizations you will allow: A) 1 month B) 2 months C) 3 months D) after 6 months E) after 1
year
402.
Patient K., 35 years suffered a viral hepatitis B in September 2009, ADT
vaccination you will spend: A) in March 2010 and B) in September 2010. C) in December 2010.
D) immediately after discharge from hospital E) vaccination contraindicated
403.
A child with primary immunodeficiency contraindicated Introduction: A) BCG
B) against pertussis C) polio Salk D) cholera E) rabies
404.
The prevention of hepatitis B following judgments are true, except: A) using
recombinant vaccine B) all newborns vaccinated C) vaccinated medical workers, surgeons D)
children born to HBsAg positive mothers vaccine is given 4 - multiply E) vaccine is given 3 fold with interval in 1,5 months, booster every 10 years.
405.
After vaccination by BCG on a place of introduction of a vaccine the infiltrate in
diameter of 5 mm has appeared: A) normal postvaccinal reaction; B) the unsterile instrument; C)
a wrong method of introduction of a vaccine; D) the vaccine is entered at a negative test with
tuberculin; E) the vaccine is entered at a positive test with tuberculin.
406.
Antitoxic serums include serum against: A) botulinum B) tick-borne encephalitis;
C) influenza D)– l eptospirosis, E) Hepatitis B.
407.
The passive immunization provides introduction: A) heterogeneous
immunoglobulins; B) heterogeneous serums; C) homologous and heterogeneous
immunoglobulins; D) homologous serums; E) all is right.
408.
The active immunization is introduction: A) live vaccine; B) heterogeneous
serum; C) immunoglobulin; D) heterogeneous immunoglobulin; E) all is true.
409.
The primary mechanism of transmission in cholera: a) contact-home B) airborne
C) fecal-oral D) transmissive E) parenterally.
410.
Leading the way for cholera transmission: A) water B) food C) contact-home D)
dust E) air - drop
411.
Observation of contact persons with cholera established for the term: A) 1 month
B) 21 days C) 5 days D) 6 days E) 10 days
412.
Clinical supervision for the ill with cholera established for the term: A) 1 month
B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
413.
To isolate V. cholerae from stool using the following culture medium: A) 10 \%
bile broth B) broth with sugar C) 1 \% semisolid agar D) liquid media Sabur E) 1% alkaline
peptone water.
414.
The main counter-measures to localize and eliminate the source of cholera: A)
quarantined B) identification, isolation and preventive treatment of contacts C) treatment of
patients with cholera and D) the current and final disinfection E) all true.
415.
Criteria for discharge of patients with cholera: A) clinical improvement B) 3
negative bacteriological studies of feces C) 3 negative bacteriological study of bile D) 3 negative
bacteriological studies of feces, a single dose of bile, clinical recovery E) 5 negative
bacteriological studies of feces.
416.
Persons, who were in contact with people with cholera, are subject to: A) placing
in prison with a mandatory preventative treatment B) insulation of the house C) hospitalization
in an infectious diseases hospital D) medical surveillance for 5 days E) hospitalization not
subject.
417.
For laboratory confirmation of cholera use: A) bacteriological examination of
feces B) blood culture C) serological examination of blood D) scatological study E)
determination of electrolytes in the blood.
418.
The causative agent of plague: A) Enterobacteria. B) Yersinia. C) Clostridium. D)
Spirochetes. E) Fungi
419.
The causative agent of plague: A) Borellia reccurens. B) Yersenia pestis. C)
Salmonella typhi. D) Leptospira interrorgans. E) Yersenia pseudotuberculosis.
420.
Plague is: A) zoonosis. B) anthroponosis. C) sapronosis. D) anthropozoonosis E)
all right
421.
Emergency prevention of contact persons in plague is carried out: A)
erythromycin B) penicillin C) gentamicin D) streptomycin E) cefazolin
422.
What are the rules for discharge from hospital patients who underwent skinbubonic form of plague: A) 2 weeks after complete clinical recovery, B) after normalization of
temperature and peripheral blood, C) after a resorption of bubonic, D) to resolve an
epidemiologist, E) 4 weeks after complete clinical recovery and 2-negative results of
bacteriological seeding content buboes.
423.
The greatest epidemiological risk patients with pneumonic plague in the present
period: A) incubating B) initial C) height D) convalescence E) in all periods
424.
Refers to the plague infection: A) Special - dangerous B) quarantine C) of natural
focal D) zooantroponotic E) all right
425.
Carrier of the plague are: A) flea B) argasovye tongs C) mosquitoes D) Houseflies
E) lice
426.
The main route of transmission in plague: A) infusion B) fecal-oral C)
transmissive D) vertical E) parenteral
427.
A vaccine against plague: A) live B) killed C) Recombinant D) chemical E) does
not exist
428.
Clinical supervision for convalescents plague established for the term: A) 1 month
B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
429.
Observation of contact persons with plague established for the term: A) 1 month
B) 21 days C) 5 days D) 6 days E) 10 days
430.
Warm-blooded host agent of Lassa fever in nature: A) rodents B) birds C) Pets D)
green monkey E) African monkey
431.
Vectors of yellow fever are: A) flea B) clamp C) mosquitoes D) Houseflies E)
lice
432.
The originator Marseilles fever rickettsia: A) Prowazeki B) Burnet C) Akari D)
Kennel E) all right
433.
The main warm-blooded host of the causative agent of yellow fever in nature are:
A) rodents B) birds C) person D) multimammate African rat E) monkeys.
434.
Observation of contact persons with cholera established for the term: A) 1 month
B) 21 days C) 5 days D) 6 days E) 10 days
435.
Criteria for discharge of patients with cholera: A) clinical improvement B) 3
negative bacteriological studies of feces C) 3 negative bacteriological study of bile D) 3 negative
bacteriological studies of feces, a single dose of bile, clinical recovery E) 5 negative
bacteriological studies of feces.
436.
Vectors of yellow fever are: A) flea B) clamp C) mosquitoes D) Houseflies E)
lice
437.
The originator Marseilles fever rickettsia: A) Prowazeki B) Burnet C) Akari D)
Kennel E) all right
438.
The main warm-blooded host of the causative agent of yellow fever in nature are:
A) rodents B) birds C) person D) multimammate African rat E) monkeys.
439.
The primary mechanism of transmission in cholera: a) contact-home B) airborne
C) fecal-oral D) transmissive E) parenterally.
440.
Leading the way for cholera transmission: A) water B) food C) contact-home D)
dust E) air - drop
441.
Persons, who were in contact with people with cholera, are subject to: A) placing
in prison with a mandatory preventative treatment B) insulation of the house C) hospitalization
in an infectious diseases hospital D) medical surveillance for 5 days E) hospitalization not
subject.
442.
For laboratory confirmation of cholera use: A) bacteriological examination of
feces B) blood culture C) serological examination of blood D) scatological study E)
determination of electrolytes in the blood.
443.
The causative agent of plague: A) Enterobacteria. B) Yersinia. C) Clostridium. D)
Spirochetes. E) Fungi
444.
The causative agent of plague: A) Borellia reccurens. B) Yersenia pestis. C)
Salmonella typhi. D) Leptospira interrorgans. E) Yersenia pseudotuberculosis.
445.
Plague is: A) zoonosis. B) anthroponosis. C) sapronosis. D) anthropozoonosis E)
all right
446.
Clinical supervision for the ill with cholera established for the term: A) 1 month
B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
447.
To isolate V. cholerae from stool using the following culture medium: A) 10 \%
bile broth B) broth with sugar C) 1 \% semisolid agar D) liquid media Sabur E) 1% alkaline
peptone water.
448.
The main counter-measures to localize and eliminate the source of cholera: A)
quarantined B) identification, isolation and preventive treatment of contacts C) treatment of
patients with cholera and D) the current and final disinfection E) all true.
449.
Emergency prevention of contact persons in plague is carried out: A)
erythromycin B) penicillin C) gentamicin D) streptomycin E) cefazolin
450.
The greatest epidemiological risk patients with pneumonic plague in the present
period: A) incubating B) initial C) height D) convalescence E) in all periods
451.
Refers to the plague infection: A) Special - dangerous B) quarantine C) of natural
focal D) zooantroponotic E) all right
452.
Carrier of the plague are: A) flea B) argasovye tongs C) mosquitoes D) Houseflies
E) lice
453.
The main route of transmission in plague: A) infusion B) fecal-oral C)
transmissive D) vertical E) parenteral
454.
A vaccine against plague: A) live B) killed C) Recombinant D) chemical E) does
not exist
455.
What are the rules for discharge from hospital patients who underwent skinbubonic form of plague: A) 2 weeks after complete clinical recovery, B) after normalization of
temperature and peripheral blood, C) after a resorption of bubonic, D) to resolve an
epidemiologist, E) 4 weeks after complete clinical recovery and 2-negative results of
bacteriological seeding content buboes.
456.
Clinical supervision for convalescents plague established for the term: A) 1 month
B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
457.
Observation of contact persons with plague established for the term: A) 1 month
B) 21 days C) 5 days D) 6 days E) 10 days
458.
Warm-blooded host agent of Lassa fever in nature: A) rodents B) birds C) Pets D)
green monkey E) African monkey
459.
The main route of transmission for malaria: A) drop B) fecal-oral C) transmissive
D) vertical E) parenteral
460.
The causative agent of tropical malaria: A) Pl.ovale B) Pl.falciparum C)
Pl.malariae D) Pl.vivax E) all true.
461.
The drug for preventing recurrences of malaria in remote: A) delagil B)
primaquine C) quinine sulfate D) amodiaquine E) chloroquine.
462.
Malaria belongs to a group: A) viral infections B) bacterial infections C)
helmintns D) protozoan diseases E) miazam.
463.
The leading method of laboratory diagnosis of malaria: A) serum B)
parazitoskopiya C) bacteriological D) immunologic E) biological.
464.
Clinical supervision for malaria had been ill for a period established: A) 1 month
B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
465.
Which group of viruses is HBV: A) picornaviruses B) arboviruses C)
gepadnavirus D) Reovirus E) ortomiksovirus.
466.
The main source of viral hepatitis 'B': A) patients with icteric forms of acute viral
hepatitis B) individuals with subclinical C) patients with chronic D) patients with fulminant form
E) all true.
467.
The main mechanism of transmission by HCV: A) contact-household B) airborne
C) sexual D) transmissive E) parenteral.
468.
The main mechanism of transmission of infection with HDV-infection: A)
contact-household B) airborne C) sexual D) transmissive E) parenteral.
469.
The frozen blood products or their derivatives HbsAg persists: A) 1 week B) 1
month C) 6 months D) 2 years E) 15-20 years
470.
The main route of transmission in the HBV: A) transfusionB) inoculating C)
sexual D) Vertical E) all correct
471.
Clinical supervision for convalescents HBV is established for a period of: A) 1
month B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
472.
The minimum protective antibody titer to hepatitis B: A) 0,03 IU / ml, B) 0,5 IU /
ml, C), 1 IU / ml, D) 10 IU / ml E) 0.1 IU / ml
473.
Hepatitis B vaccine: A) live B) killed C) recombinant D) Chemical E) toxoid
474.
Observation of contact persons with HBV infection is established for a period of:
A) 1 month B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
475.
The main route of transmission for Lyme disease: A) drop B) fecal-oral C)
transmissive D) Vertical E) all true
476.
The source of infection with Lyme - borreliosis is: A) ixodes ticks B) argasid
ticks C) mosquitoes D) Houseflies E) all true
477.
Which of the following apply to zoonotic infections: A) flu B) malaria C) Lyme
disease D) shigellosis E) cholera
478.
For the specific prevention of Lyme - borreliosis is used: A)specific
immunoglobulin B)specific serum C) vaccine D) Penicillin E) there is no specific prevention
479.
The main route of transmission for Lyme disease: A) drop B) fecal-oral C)
transmissive D) Vertical E) all true
480.
Which group of viruses is HBV: A) picornaviruses B) arboviruses C)
gepadnavirus D) Reovirus E) ortomiksovirus.
481.
The main source of viral hepatitis 'B': A) patients with icteric forms of acute viral
hepatitis B) individuals with subclinical C) patients with chronic D) patients with fulminant form
E) all true.
482.
The main mechanism of transmission by HCV: A) contact-household B) airborne
C) sexual D) transmissive E) parenteral.
483.
The main mechanism of transmission of infection with HDV-infection: A)
contact-household B) airborne C) sexual D) transmissive E) parenteral.
484.
The frozen blood products or their derivatives HbsAg persists: A) 1 week B) 1
month C) 6 months D) 2 years E) 15-20 years
485.
The main route of transmission in the HBV: A) transfusionB) inoculating C)
sexual D) Vertical E) all correct
486.
Clinical supervision for convalescents HBV is established for a period of: A) 1
month B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
487.
The source of infection with Lyme - borreliosis is: A) ixodes ticks B) argasid
ticks C) mosquitoes D) Houseflies E) all true
488.
Which of the following apply to zoonotic infections: A) flu B) malaria C) Lyme
disease D) shigellosis E) cholera
489.
For the specific prevention of Lyme - borreliosis is used: A)specific
immunoglobulin B)specific serum C) vaccine D) Penicillin E) there is no specific prevention
490.
The main route of transmission for malaria: A) drop B) fecal-oral C) transmissive
D) vertical E) parenteral
491.
The causative agent of tropical malaria: A) Pl.ovale B) Pl.falciparum C)
Pl.malariae D) Pl.vivax E) all true.
492.
The drug for preventing recurrences of malaria in remote: A) delagil B)
primaquine C) quinine sulfate D) amodiaquine E) chloroquine.
493.
Malaria belongs to a group: A) viral infections B) bacterial infections C)
helmintns D) protozoan diseases E) miazam.
494.
The leading method of laboratory diagnosis of malaria: A) serum B)
parazitoskopiya C) bacteriological D) immunologic E) biological.
495.
Clinical supervision for malaria had been ill for a period established: A) 1 month
B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
496.
The minimum protective antibody titer to hepatitis B: A) 0,03 IU / ml, B) 0,5 IU /
ml, C), 1 IU / ml, D) 10 IU / ml E) 0.1 IU / ml
497.
Hepatitis B vaccine: A) live B) killed C) recombinant D) Chemical E) toxoid
498.
Observation of contact persons with HBV infection is established for a period of:
A) 1 month B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
499)
Species trait of the microorganism, genetically fixed and characterizing their ability to
cause disease: A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all true
500) A measure of pathogenicity, individually specific to a particular strain of pathogen: A)
Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all true
501) The interaction of pathogen and host organism under certain environmental conditions is: A) infection B) infectious diseases C) Immunity D) all true
502) Particular manifestations of infection, reflecting the degree of its development and has
specific nosologic features - it is: A) infection B) infectious disease
C) Infection D) Immunity E) all true
503) For infectious disease characterized by: А) the specificity of the etiological agent B)
cyclic flow C) the formation of immunity D) infectivity E) all true
504) Ability to develop and allocate different toxins: A) pathogenicity B) virulence C)
toxigenicity D) invasiveness E) all true
505) For infectious disease is not characterized by: А) the specificity of the etiological agent
B) is acyclic flow C) the formation of immunity D) infectivity E) mono - and mixed infection
506) The ability to penetrate into the tissues and organs in the host organism and spread them
- is:A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all true
507) By the properties of the pathogen does not apply: A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C)
Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) infectivity
508) Nonspecific protective factors of the organism all except: A) lysozyme B) skin and
mucous membranes C) interferons D) complement system E) genes of HLA system
509) Indicate the period from the time of infection to the onset of illness: A) Primary B)
middle C) ncubation D) recovery E) the correct answer is absent
510) Diagnosis of infectious diseases is based on: A) collection of history of illness B) the
epidemiological history C) objective examination D) laboratory and instrumental methods E)
all true
511) To the specific methods of diagnosis include everything except: A) in the bacteriological
B) hemogram C) virological D) serological E) biological
512) Periods of the infectious diseases all, except: A) initial B) middle C) incubation D)
recovery E) during the precursor
513) Relapse, developed as a result of new infection by the same agent, called: A) reinfection
B) mono infection C) to infection D) super infection E) becomes chronic
514) By zoonotic infections include: A) rabies B) brucellosis C) leptospirosis D) anthrax E) all
true
515) The forms of infectious diseases, no symptoms, but with immunologic, functional,
morphological changes: A) in the demonstrative B) inapparent C) slow D) latent E) Chronic
516) Material for specific methods of diagnosis may be: A) blood B) CSF C) sputum D) swabs
from mucous E) all true
517) To slow human infections are currently in diseases caused by: A) spirochete B) prions C)
bacteria D) helminth E) protozoa
518) The basic principles of antibacterial therapy include all except: a) account for the
sensitivity of selected flora B) choice of the optimal doses and methods of introducing C) the
timely commencement and duration of course D) selection of the most active drug is not
given the degree of toxicity E) a combination of drugs to enhance the antibacterial effect .
519) The interaction of pathogen and host organism under certain environmental conditions is: A) infection B) infectious diseases C) Immunity D) all true
520) Particular manifestations of infection, reflecting the degree of its development and has
specific nosologic features - it is: A) infection B) infectious disease
C) Infection D) Immunity E) all true
521) For infectious disease characterized by: А) the specificity of the etiological agent B)
cyclic flow C) the formation of immunity D) infectivity E) all true
522) Ability to develop and allocate different toxins: A) pathogenicity B) virulence C)
toxigenicity D) invasiveness E) all true
523) Species trait of the microorganism, genetically fixed and characterizing their ability to
cause disease: A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all true
524) A measure of pathogenicity, individually specific to a particular strain of pathogen: A)
Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all true
525) For infectious disease is not characterized by: А) the specificity of the etiological agent
B) is acyclic flow C) the formation of immunity D) infectivity E) mono - and mixed infection
526) The ability to penetrate into the tissues and organs in the host organism and spread them
- is:A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) all true
527) By the properties of the pathogen does not apply: A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C)
Toxigenicity D) Invasive E) infectivity
528) Nonspecific protective factors of the organism all except: A) lysozyme B) skin and
mucous membranes C) interferons D) complement system E) genes of HLA system
529) Indicate the period from the time of infection to the onset of illness: A) Primary B)
middle C) ncubation D) recovery E) the correct answer is absent
530) Periods of the infectious diseases all, except: A) initial B) middle C) incubation D)
recovery E) during the precursor
531) Relapse, developed as a result of new infection by the same agent, called: A) reinfection
B) mono infection C) to infection D) super infection E) becomes chronic
532) By zoonotic infections include: A) rabies B) brucellosis C) leptospirosis D) anthrax E) all
true
533) The forms of infectious diseases, no symptoms, but with immunologic, functional,
morphological changes: A) in the demonstrative B) inapparent C) slow D) latent E) Chronic
534) To slow human infections are currently in diseases caused by: A) spirochete B) prions C)
bacteria D) helminth E) protozoa
535) Diagnosis of infectious diseases is based on: A) collection of history of illness B) the
epidemiological history C) objective examination D) laboratory and instrumental methods E)
all true
536) Material for specific methods of diagnosis may be: A) blood B) CSF C) sputum D) swabs
from mucous E) all true
537) The basic principles of antibacterial therapy include all except: a) account for the
sensitivity of selected flora B) choice of the optimal doses and methods of introducing C) the
timely commencement and duration of course D) selection of the most active drug is not
given the degree of toxicity E) a combination of drugs to enhance the antibacterial effect .
538) To the specific methods of diagnosis include everything except: A) in the bacteriological
B) hemogram C) virological D) serological E) biological
539) Specify the number of dry matter in grams required to prepare 1 liter of 1% solution
dezaktina: A) 1, 0 B) 10.0 C) 100.0 D) 0, 1
540) Specify the number of dry matter in grams required to prepare 10 liters of 0.5% solution
dezaktina: A) 50.0 B) 10.0 C) 500.0 D) 0,5 E) 5,0
541) Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes without food residue, in
intestinal infections of bacterial etiology:А) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30
min D) 0,1% - 60 min E) 0,5% - 90 min
542) Indicate disinfection method, involving the use of ultra-high frequency currents, radiant
energy, ultrasound, cold, heat: A) physical B) chemical C) Mechanical D) Sterilization
543) Excreta patient (feces, urine, sputum, etc.), dishes for food and excreta, things take care
of the sick, the premises shall be: A) deratisection B) disinfestation C) disinfection D)
sterilization E) all true
544) Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes, with leftovers, with the air droplet infection: A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30 min D) 0,1% - 60 min E)
0,5% - 90 min
545) Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes without food residue in
tuberuleze: A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30 min D) 1% - 60 min E) 0 5% 90 min
546) Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina objects of care, tolerate parenteral viral
hepatitis: A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,5% - 120 min D) 0,1% - 60 min E) 0,5% 90 min
547) Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina sputum of patients with tuberculosis:
A) 2% - 30 min B) 2,5% - 60 min C) 2,5% - 360 min D) 1% - 60 min E) 0,5% - 90 min
548) The concentration of active chlorine in the «Dezactine» should be: A) not more than 14%
B) At least 10% C) at least 12% D) not less than 50% E) not less than 14%
549) Disinfection is carried out to destroy: А) infectious agents B) opportunistic pathogens C)
transmissible pathogens D) staphylococci E) viral hepatitis B and C.
550) Sterilization is carried out in order to destroy pathogens: A) intestinal B) transmissible
infections C) all microorganisms D) of hepatitis E
551) What type of disinfection is carried out in endemic foci: A) focal B) preventive C)
current D) final E) all true except B.
552) For disinfected using the following ways: A) mechanical B) physical C) chemical D) a
combination of E) are correct
553) For monitor the effectiveness before sterilization processing for the detection of blood
sample is used: A) azopiramovaya B) amidopirinovaya C) sample with sudan III D) with
phenolphthalein E) is true A and B
554) The concentration of active chlorine in the «Dezactine» should be: A) not more than 14%
B) At least 10% C) at least 12% D) not less than 50% E) not less than 14%
555) Disinfection is carried out to destroy: А) infectious agents B) opportunistic pathogens C)
transmissible pathogens D) staphylococci E) viral hepatitis B and C.
556) Sterilization is carried out in order to destroy pathogens: A) intestinal B) transmissible
infections C) all microorganisms D) of hepatitis E
557) What type of disinfection is carried out in endemic foci: A) focal B) preventive C)
current D) final E) all true except B.
558) For disinfected using the following ways: A) mechanical B) physical C) chemical D) a
combination of E) are correct
559) Indicate disinfection method, involving the use of ultra-high frequency currents, radiant
energy, ultrasound, cold, heat: A) physical B) chemical C) Mechanical D) Sterilization
560) Excreta patient (feces, urine, sputum, etc.), dishes for food and excreta, things take care
of the sick, the premises shall be: A) deratisection B) disinfestation C) disinfection D)
sterilization E) all true
561) For monitor the effectiveness before sterilization processing for the detection of blood
sample is used: A) azopiramovaya B) amidopirinovaya C) sample with sudan III D) with
phenolphthalein E) is true A and B
562) Specify the number of dry matter in grams required to prepare 1 liter of 1% solution
dezaktina: A) 1, 0 B) 10.0 C) 100.0 D) 0, 1
563) Specify the number of dry matter in grams required to prepare 10 liters of 0.5% solution
dezaktina: A) 50.0 B) 10.0 C) 500.0 D) 0,5 E) 5,0
564) Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes without food residue, in
intestinal infections of bacterial etiology:А) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30
min D) 0,1% - 60 min E) 0,5% - 90 min
565) Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes, with leftovers, with the air droplet infection: A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30 min D) 0,1% - 60 min E)
0,5% - 90 min
566) Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina dishes without food residue in
tuberuleze: A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,1% - 30 min D) 1% - 60 min E) 0 5% 90 min
567) Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina objects of care, tolerate parenteral viral
hepatitis: A) 0,2% - 30 min B) 0,2% - 60 min C) 0,5% - 120 min D) 0,1% - 60 min E) 0,5% 90 min
568) Enter the mode of disinfection solution dezaktina sputum of patients with tuberculosis:
A) 2% - 30 min B) 2,5% - 60 min C) 2,5% - 360 min D) 1% - 60 min E) 0,5% - 90 min
569) The emergency prophylaxis of a hepatitis B at the medical worker (if the titer anti-HbsAg
in his blood 500 ILJ/ML): A) it is not carried out B) normal human immunoglobulin C) the
hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg, D)only a vaccine E) a vaccine against
a hepatitis B plus the hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg.
570) The minimum protective titer of antibodies for HBV is: A) 0.03 IU / ml B) 0.5 IU / ml C)
1 IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml.
571) Before the introduction of a heterogeneous serum to a patient it is necessary to: A)
specify anamnesis morbi B) study the sensitivity to foreign protein C) study blood about
biochemical parameters D) study a general analysis of blood E) study the immune status.
572) The dose of antirabic immunoglobulin is used for emergency prophylaxis of rabies: A)
5lU/kg B) 10 lU/kg C) 20 lU/kg D) 30 lU/kg E) 50 lU/kg.
573) Indications for emergency prevention of tetanus, all except: A) Unsafe abortion B) gave
birth at home with C) burn 1 grade D) animal bites E) frostbite Grade 4
574) The main clinical manifestations anaphylactic shock: A) dyspnea B) nausea, vomiting C)
a sharp decline in blood pressure, tachycardia D) loss of consciousness E) all right
575) Drug of choice for specific prevention of influenza is: A) penicillin B) ascorbic acid C)
inactivated influenza vaccines D) interferon E) everything is right.
576) The minimum protective antibody level against tetanus is: A) 0.1 IU / ml B) 0.01 IU / ml
C) 1 IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml E) 100 IU / ml
577) In the emergency station asked the patient P. 25 years with frostbite of hands 3-4
degrees. In a matter of urgency should be vaccinated against: A) diphtheria B) sepsis C)
rabies D) tetanus E) hepatitis B
578) In burn units are patient K. 40 years with a burn 2-3 degrees. From history we know that
he had received a full course of vaccinations against tetanus. Last booster was held 6 years
ago. Your tactics are: A) Introduce 0.5 ml of tetanus toxoid B) enter antitetanic Ig 250 IU C)
tetanus toxoid 3000 IU D) all of the above is true E) did not enter.
579) In the surgical ward is located, 48 years old, homeless people with a diagnosis of
frostbite 4 degrees. Data of vaccination against tetanus is not. The concentration of protective
antibody titer 0.01 IU / ml. Your choices: A) introduce 1.0 ml of tetanus toxoid B) 3000 IU
tetanus toxoid C) enter antitetanic Ig 250 IU D) is true and C E) is true and B
580) B. 26 years old was bitten by a fox with damage to the skin, mucous membranes covered
with saliva. Your actions are correct, except: A) Undertake an absolute rate of vaccination
against rabies B) additionally introduce rabies Ig C) locally treat the wound with an alkaline
solution D) was excised edges and sew up the wound E) immunized conduct strictly in
medical facility
581) Patient L. went to a doctor complaining of the presence of multiple scratches on the skin
of the hands and face, caused by unknown cat. What events have priority? A) Treatment of
wounds mile solution B) Actively passive immunization C) Veterinary event D) Emergency
hospitalization E) Antibiotics
582) For the prevention of influenza A everything can be used except: A) vaccination B)
immunoglobulin C) tetracycline D) remantadin E) there is no correct answer.
583) For emergency prophylaxis of a influenza A and the bird's flu (H5N1) is used: A)
Rimantadinum, B) vaccine VAXIGRIP, C) Oseltamivir, D) only live vaccine, E) all is true.
584) The emergency prophylaxis of a hepatitis B at the medical worker (if the titer anti-HbsAg
in his blood 1 IU/ML): A) it is not carried out B) normal human immunoglobulin C) the
hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg D)only a vaccine E) a vaccine against
a hepatitis B plus the hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg.
585) The dose antitetanic serum at carrying out of emergency specific prophylaxis of tetanus
makes: A) 100 1U B) 250 IU C) 3000 1U D) 10000 1U E) 1 million IU.
586) The dose of an antitetanic human immunoglobulin at carrying out of emergency specific
prophylaxis of a tetanus is: A) 100 IU; B) 250 1U; C) 3000 1U; D)0000 IU ;E)1 million IU.
587) The minimum protective antibody level against diphtheria is: A) 0.1 IU / ml B) 0.01 IU /
ml C) 1 IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml E) 100 IU / ml
588) In the reception area has given birth at home received Y. 25 years after the birth occurred
at home, the minimum protective titer of anti-tetanus serum 2,5 IU / ml. Your tactics are: A)
appoint 3 ml of tetanus toxoid B) to introduce 0.5 ml of tetanus toxoid C) tetanus toxoid
3000 IU D) antitetanic Ig 250 IU E) do nothing
589) The minimum protective titer of antibodies for HBV is: A) 0.03 IU / ml B) 0.5 IU / ml C)
1 IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml.
590) Before the introduction of a heterogeneous serum to a patient it is necessary to: A)
specify anamnesis morbi B) study the sensitivity to foreign protein C) study blood about
biochemical parameters D) study a general analysis of blood E) study the immune status.
591) The emergency prophylaxis of a hepatitis B at the medical worker (if the titer anti-HbsAg
in his blood 500 ILJ/ML): A) it is not carried out B) normal human immunoglobulin C) the
hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg, D)only a vaccine E) a vaccine against
a hepatitis B plus the hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg.
592) The dose of antirabic immunoglobulin is used for emergency prophylaxis of rabies: A)
5lU/kg B) 10 lU/kg C) 20 lU/kg D) 30 lU/kg E) 50 lU/kg.
593) Drug of choice for specific prevention of influenza is: A) penicillin B) ascorbic acid C)
inactivated influenza vaccines D) interferon E) everything is right.
594) For the prevention of influenza A everything can be used except: A) vaccination B)
immunoglobulin C) tetracycline D) remantadin E) there is no correct answer.
595) For emergency prophylaxis of a influenza A and the bird's flu (H5N1) is used: A)
Rimantadinum, B) vaccine VAXIGRIP, C) Oseltamivir, D) only live vaccine, E) all is true.
596) The emergency prophylaxis of a hepatitis B at the medical worker (if the titer anti-HbsAg
in his blood 1 IU/ML): A) it is not carried out B) normal human immunoglobulin C) the
hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg D)only a vaccine E) a vaccine against
a hepatitis B plus the hyperimmune immunoglobulin containing anti-HbsAg.
597) The dose antitetanic serum at carrying out of emergency specific prophylaxis of tetanus
makes: A) 100 1U B) 250 IU C) 3000 1U D) 10000 1U E) 1 million IU.
598) The dose of an antitetanic human immunoglobulin at carrying out of emergency specific
prophylaxis of a tetanus is: A) 100 IU; B) 250 1U; C) 3000 1U; D)0000 IU ;E)1 million IU.
599) The minimum protective antibody level against tetanus is: A) 0.1 IU / ml B) 0.01 IU / ml
C) 1 IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml E) 100 IU / ml
600) In the emergency station asked the patient P. 25 years with frostbite of hands 3-4
degrees. In a matter of urgency should be vaccinated against: A) diphtheria B) sepsis C)
rabies D) tetanus E) hepatitis B
601) In burn units are patient K. 40 years with a burn 2-3 degrees. From history we know that
he had received a full course of vaccinations against tetanus. Last booster was held 6 years
ago. Your tactics are: A) Introduce 0.5 ml of tetanus toxoid B) enter antitetanic Ig 250 IU C)
tetanus toxoid 3000 IU D) all of the above is true E) did not enter.
602) In the surgical ward is located, 48 years old, homeless people with a diagnosis of
frostbite 4 degrees. Data of vaccination against tetanus is not. The concentration of protective
antibody titer 0.01 IU / ml. Your choices: A) introduce 1.0 ml of tetanus toxoid B) 3000 IU
tetanus toxoid C) enter antitetanic Ig 250 IU D) is true and C E) is true and B
603) B. 26 years old was bitten by a fox with damage to the skin, mucous membranes covered
with saliva. Your actions are correct, except: A) Undertake an absolute rate of vaccination
against rabies B) additionally introduce rabies Ig C) locally treat the wound with an alkaline
solution D) was excised edges and sew up the wound E) immunized conduct strictly in
medical facility
604) Patient L. went to a doctor complaining of the presence of multiple scratches on the skin
of the hands and face, caused by unknown cat. What events have priority? A) Treatment of
wounds mile solution B) Actively passive immunization C) Veterinary event D) Emergency
hospitalization E) Antibiotics
605) The minimum protective antibody level against diphtheria is: A) 0.1 IU / ml B) 0.01 IU /
ml C) 1 IU / ml D) 10 IU / ml E) 100 IU / ml
606) In the reception area has given birth at home received Y. 25 years after the birth occurred
at home, the minimum protective titer of anti-tetanus serum 2,5 IU / ml. Your tactics are: A)
appoint 3 ml of tetanus toxoid B) to introduce 0.5 ml of tetanus toxoid C) tetanus toxoid
3000 IU D) antitetanic Ig 250 IU E) do nothing
607) Indications for emergency prevention of tetanus, all except: A) Unsafe abortion B) gave
birth at home with C) burn 1 grade D) animal bites E) frostbite Grade 4
608) The main clinical manifestations anaphylactic shock: A) dyspnea B) nausea, vomiting C)
a sharp decline in blood pressure, tachycardia D) loss of consciousness E) all right
609) Meningococcal vaccine: A) anatoxin B) dead C) live D) chemical E) recombinant
610) Recombinant vaccine is: A) hepatitis B B) yellow fever C) plague D) typhus E)
tuberculosis
611) For polyvalent vaccines include: A) tuberculosis B) influenza C) pertussis D) tetanus E)
diphtheria
612) The prevention of hepatitis B following judgments are true, except: A) using recombinant
vaccine B) all newborns vaccinated C) vaccinated medical workers, surgeons D) children
born to HBsAg positive mothers vaccine is given 4 - multiply E) vaccine is given 3 - fold
with interval in 1,5 months, booster every 10 years.
613) The active immunization is introduction: A) live vaccine; B) heterogeneous serum; C)
immunoglobulin; D) heterogeneous immunoglobulin; E) all is true.
614) Types of vaccines include all except: A) toxoids B) exotoxin C) chemical D)
Recombinant E) adsorbed
615) By the vaccine preparations are: A) live vaccines B) killed C) chemical D) Recombinant
E) all correct
616) Live vaccines: A) attenuated B) high immunogens C) are unstable to a breach of storage
mode D) is highly resistant to the violation of the storage E) all true, except for D.
617) To live vaccines include: A) tuberculosis B) pertussis C) cholera D) the Salk polio E)
rabies
618) By the killed vaccine are: A) measles B) the Salk polio C) mumps D) polio SEBINA E)
brucellosis
619) The structure of the ADT include: A) pertussis antigen B) tetanus toxoid C) diphtheria
toxoid D) all true, except A E) all true
620) Vaccine composition comprises: A) antigens B) stabilizers C) preservatives D)
antibiotics E) all true
621) Antibiotics included in the vaccine everything except: A) kanamycin B) tetracycline C)
streptomycin D) neomycin E) the correct answer absent
622) Intradermally injected: A) measles vaccine B) tuberculosis C) rubella D) APDT E) Polio
623) Patient N. 6 years received hormone therapy at the glomerulonephritis. Following
immunizations you will allow: A) 1 month B) 2 months C) 3 months D) after 6 months E)
after 1 year
624) After vaccination by BCG on a place of introduction of a vaccine the infiltrate in
diameter of 5 mm has appeared: A) normal postvaccinal reaction; B) the unsterile instrument;
C) a wrong method of introduction of a vaccine; D) the vaccine is entered at a negative test
with tuberculin; E) the vaccine is entered at a positive test with tuberculin.
625) Antitoxic serums include serum against: A) botulinum B) tick-borne encephalitis; C)
influenza D)– l eptospirosis, E) Hepatitis B.
626) The passive immunization provides introduction: A) heterogeneous immunoglobulins; B)
heterogeneous serums; C) homologous and heterogeneous immunoglobulins; D) homologous
serums; E) all is right.
627) Patient K., 35 years suffered a viral hepatitis B in September 2009, ADT vaccination you
will spend: A) in March 2010 and B) in September 2010. C) in December 2010. D)
immediately after discharge from hospital E) vaccination contraindicated
628) A child with primary immunodeficiency contraindicated Introduction: A) BCG B)
against pertussis C) polio Salk D) cholera E) rabies
629) Types of vaccines include all except: A) toxoids B) exotoxin C) chemical D)
Recombinant E) adsorbed
630) By the vaccine preparations are: A) live vaccines B) killed C) chemical D) Recombinant
E) all correct
631) Live vaccines: A) attenuated B) high immunogens C) are unstable to a breach of storage
mode D) is highly resistant to the violation of the storage E) all true, except for D.
632) To live vaccines include: A) tuberculosis B) pertussis C) cholera D) the Salk polio E)
rabies
633) By the killed vaccine are: A) measles B) the Salk polio C) mumps D) polio SEBINA E)
brucellosis
634) Meningococcal vaccine: A) anatoxin B) dead C) live D) chemical E) recombinant
635) Recombinant vaccine is: A) hepatitis B B) yellow fever C) plague D) typhus E)
tuberculosis
636) For polyvalent vaccines include: A) tuberculosis B) influenza C) pertussis D) tetanus E)
diphtheria
637) The structure of the ADT include: A) pertussis antigen B) tetanus toxoid C) diphtheria
toxoid D) all true, except A E) all true
638) Vaccine composition comprises: A) antigens B) stabilizers C) preservatives D)
antibiotics E) all true
639) Antibiotics included in the vaccine everything except: A) kanamycin B) tetracycline C)
streptomycin D) neomycin E) the correct answer absent
640) Intradermally injected: A) measles vaccine B) tuberculosis C) rubella D) APDT E) Polio
641) Patient N. 6 years received hormone therapy at the glomerulonephritis. Following
immunizations you will allow: A) 1 month B) 2 months C) 3 months D) after 6 months E)
after 1 year
642) Patient K., 35 years suffered a viral hepatitis B in September 2009, ADT vaccination you
will spend: A) in March 2010 and B) in September 2010. C) in December 2010. D)
immediately after discharge from hospital E) vaccination contraindicated
643) A child with primary immunodeficiency contraindicated Introduction: A) BCG B)
against pertussis C) polio Salk D) cholera E) rabies
644) The prevention of hepatitis B following judgments are true, except: A) using
recombinant vaccine B) all newborns vaccinated C) vaccinated medical workers, surgeons
D) children born to HBsAg positive mothers vaccine is given 4 - multiply E) vaccine is given
3 - fold with interval in 1,5 months, booster every 10 years.
645) After vaccination by BCG on a place of introduction of a vaccine the infiltrate in
diameter of 5 mm has appeared: A) normal postvaccinal reaction; B) the unsterile instrument;
C) a wrong method of introduction of a vaccine; D) the vaccine is entered at a negative test
with tuberculin; E) the vaccine is entered at a positive test with tuberculin.
646) Antitoxic serums include serum against: A) botulinum B) tick-borne encephalitis; C)
influenza D)– l eptospirosis, E) Hepatitis B.
647) The passive immunization provides introduction: A) heterogeneous immunoglobulins; B)
heterogeneous serums; C) homologous and heterogeneous immunoglobulins; D) homologous
serums; E) all is right.
648) The active immunization is introduction: A) live vaccine; B) heterogeneous serum; C)
immunoglobulin; D) heterogeneous immunoglobulin; E) all is true.
649) The primary mechanism of transmission in cholera: a) contact-home B) airborne C) fecaloral D) transmissive E) parenterally.
650) Leading the way for cholera transmission: A) water B) food C) contact-home D) dust E)
air - drop
651) Observation of contact persons with cholera established for the term: A) 1 month B) 21
days C) 5 days D) 6 days E) 10 days
652) Clinical supervision for the ill with cholera established for the term: A) 1 month B) 3
months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
653) To isolate V. cholerae from stool using the following culture medium: A) 10 \% bile
broth B) broth with sugar C) 1 \% semisolid agar D) liquid media Sabur E) 1% alkaline
peptone water.
654) The main counter-measures to localize and eliminate the source of cholera: A)
quarantined B) identification, isolation and preventive treatment of contacts C) treatment of
patients with cholera and D) the current and final disinfection E) all true.
655) Criteria for discharge of patients with cholera: A) clinical improvement B) 3 negative
bacteriological studies of feces C) 3 negative bacteriological study of bile D) 3 negative
bacteriological studies of feces, a single dose of bile, clinical recovery E) 5 negative
bacteriological studies of feces.
656) Persons, who were in contact with people with cholera, are subject to: A) placing in
prison with a mandatory preventative treatment B) insulation of the house C) hospitalization
in an infectious diseases hospital D) medical surveillance for 5 days E) hospitalization not
subject.
657) For laboratory confirmation of cholera use: A) bacteriological examination of feces B)
blood culture C) serological examination of blood D) scatological study E) determination of
electrolytes in the blood.
658) The causative agent of plague: A) Enterobacteria. B) Yersinia. C) Clostridium. D)
Spirochetes. E) Fungi
659) The causative agent of plague: A) Borellia reccurens. B) Yersenia pestis. C) Salmonella
typhi. D) Leptospira interrorgans. E) Yersenia pseudotuberculosis.
660) Plague is: A) zoonosis. B) anthroponosis. C) sapronosis. D) anthropozoonosis E) all right
661) Emergency prevention of contact persons in plague is carried out: A) erythromycin B)
penicillin C) gentamicin D) streptomycin E) cefazolin
662) What are the rules for discharge from hospital patients who underwent skin-bubonic form
of plague: A) 2 weeks after complete clinical recovery, B) after normalization of temperature
and peripheral blood, C) after a resorption of bubonic, D) to resolve an epidemiologist, E) 4
weeks after complete clinical recovery and 2-negative results of bacteriological seeding
content buboes.
663) The greatest epidemiological risk patients with pneumonic plague in the present period:
A) incubating B) initial C) height D) convalescence E) in all periods
664) Refers to the plague infection: A) Special - dangerous B) quarantine C) of natural focal
D) zooantroponotic E) all right
665) Carrier of the plague are: A) flea B) argasovye tongs C) mosquitoes D) Houseflies E) lice
666) The main route of transmission in plague: A) infusion B) fecal-oral C) transmissive D)
vertical E) parenteral
667) A vaccine against plague: A) live B) killed C) Recombinant D) chemical E) does not
exist
668) Clinical supervision for convalescents plague established for the term: A) 1 month B) 3
months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
669) Observation of contact persons with plague established for the term: A) 1 month B) 21
days C) 5 days D) 6 days E) 10 days
670) Warm-blooded host agent of Lassa fever in nature: A) rodents B) birds C) Pets D) green
monkey E) African monkey
671) Vectors of yellow fever are: A) flea B) clamp C) mosquitoes D) Houseflies E) lice
672) The originator Marseilles fever rickettsia: A) Prowazeki B) Burnet C) Akari D) Kennel
E) all right
673) The main warm-blooded host of the causative agent of yellow fever in nature are: A)
rodents B) birds C) person D) multimammate African rat E) monkeys.
674) Observation of contact persons with cholera established for the term: A) 1 month B) 21
days C) 5 days D) 6 days E) 10 days
675) Criteria for discharge of patients with cholera: A) clinical improvement B) 3 negative
bacteriological studies of feces C) 3 negative bacteriological study of bile D) 3 negative
bacteriological studies of feces, a single dose of bile, clinical recovery E) 5 negative
bacteriological studies of feces.
676) Vectors of yellow fever are: A) flea B) clamp C) mosquitoes D) Houseflies E) lice
677) The originator Marseilles fever rickettsia: A) Prowazeki B) Burnet C) Akari D) Kennel
E) all right
678) The main warm-blooded host of the causative agent of yellow fever in nature are: A)
rodents B) birds C) person D) multimammate African rat E) monkeys.
679) The primary mechanism of transmission in cholera: a) contact-home B) airborne C) fecaloral D) transmissive E) parenterally.
680) Leading the way for cholera transmission: A) water B) food C) contact-home D) dust E)
air - drop
681) Persons, who were in contact with people with cholera, are subject to: A) placing in
prison with a mandatory preventative treatment B) insulation of the house C) hospitalization
in an infectious diseases hospital D) medical surveillance for 5 days E) hospitalization not
subject.
682) For laboratory confirmation of cholera use: A) bacteriological examination of feces B)
blood culture C) serological examination of blood D) scatological study E) determination of
electrolytes in the blood.
683) The causative agent of plague: A) Enterobacteria. B) Yersinia. C) Clostridium. D)
Spirochetes. E) Fungi
684) The causative agent of plague: A) Borellia reccurens. B) Yersenia pestis. C) Salmonella
typhi. D) Leptospira interrorgans. E) Yersenia pseudotuberculosis.
685) Plague is: A) zoonosis. B) anthroponosis. C) sapronosis. D) anthropozoonosis E) all right
686) Clinical supervision for the ill with cholera established for the term: A) 1 month B) 3
months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
687) To isolate V. cholerae from stool using the following culture medium: A) 10 \% bile
broth B) broth with sugar C) 1 \% semisolid agar D) liquid media Sabur E) 1% alkaline
peptone water.
688) The main counter-measures to localize and eliminate the source of cholera: A)
quarantined B) identification, isolation and preventive treatment of contacts C) treatment of
patients with cholera and D) the current and final disinfection E) all true.
689) Emergency prevention of contact persons in plague is carried out: A) erythromycin B)
penicillin C) gentamicin D) streptomycin E) cefazolin
690) The greatest epidemiological risk patients with pneumonic plague in the present period:
A) incubating B) initial C) height D) convalescence E) in all periods
691) Refers to the plague infection: A) Special - dangerous B) quarantine C) of natural focal
D) zooantroponotic E) all right
692) Carrier of the plague are: A) flea B) argasovye tongs C) mosquitoes D) Houseflies E) lice
693) The main route of transmission in plague: A) infusion B) fecal-oral C) transmissive D)
vertical E) parenteral
694) A vaccine against plague: A) live B) killed C) Recombinant D) chemical E) does not
exist
695) What are the rules for discharge from hospital patients who underwent skin-bubonic form
of plague: A) 2 weeks after complete clinical recovery, B) after normalization of temperature
and peripheral blood, C) after a resorption of bubonic, D) to resolve an epidemiologist, E) 4
weeks after complete clinical recovery and 2-negative results of bacteriological seeding
content buboes.
696) Clinical supervision for convalescents plague established for the term: A) 1 month B) 3
months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
697) Observation of contact persons with plague established for the term: A) 1 month B) 21
days C) 5 days D) 6 days E) 10 days
698) Warm-blooded host agent of Lassa fever in nature: A) rodents B) birds C) Pets D) green
monkey E) African monkey
699)
The main route of transmission for malaria: A) drop B) fecal-oral C) transmissive D)
vertical E) parenteral
700)
The causative agent of tropical malaria: A) Pl.ovale B) Pl.falciparum C) Pl.malariae D)
Pl.vivax E) all true.
701)
The drug for preventing recurrences of malaria in remote: A) delagil B) primaquine C)
quinine sulfate D) amodiaquine E) chloroquine.
702)
Malaria belongs to a group: A) viral infections B) bacterial infections C) helmintns D)
protozoan diseases E) miazam.
703)
The leading method of laboratory diagnosis of malaria: A) serum B) parazitoskopiya C)
bacteriological D) immunologic E) biological.
704)
Clinical supervision for malaria had been ill for a period established: A) 1 month B) 3
months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
705)
Which group of viruses is HBV: A) picornaviruses B) arboviruses C) gepadnavirus D)
Reovirus E) ortomiksovirus.
706)
The main source of viral hepatitis 'B': A) patients with icteric forms of acute viral
hepatitis B) individuals with subclinical C) patients with chronic D) patients with fulminant
form E) all true.
707)
The main mechanism of transmission by HCV: A) contact-household B) airborne C)
sexual D) transmissive E) parenteral.
708)
The main mechanism of transmission of infection with HDV-infection: A) contact-
household B) airborne C) sexual D) transmissive E) parenteral.
709)
The frozen blood products or their derivatives HbsAg persists: A) 1 week B) 1 month C)
6 months D) 2 years E) 15-20 years
710)
The main route of transmission in the HBV: A) transfusionB) inoculating C) sexual D)
Vertical E) all correct
711)
Clinical supervision for convalescents HBV is established for a period of: A) 1 month B)
3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
712)
The minimum protective antibody titer to hepatitis B: A) 0,03 IU / ml, B) 0,5 IU / ml, C),
1 IU / ml, D) 10 IU / ml E) 0.1 IU / ml
713)
Hepatitis B vaccine: A) live B) killed C) recombinant D) Chemical E) toxoid
714)
Observation of contact persons with HBV infection is established for a period of: A) 1
month B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
715)
The main route of transmission for Lyme disease: A) drop B) fecal-oral C) transmissive
D) Vertical E) all true
716)
The source of infection with Lyme - borreliosis is: A) ixodes ticks B) argasid ticks C)
mosquitoes D) Houseflies E) all true
717)
Which of the following apply to zoonotic infections: A) flu B) malaria C) Lyme disease
D) shigellosis E) cholera
718)
For the specific prevention of Lyme - borreliosis is used: A)specific immunoglobulin
B)specific serum C) vaccine D) Penicillin E) there is no specific prevention
719) The main route of transmission for Lyme disease: A) drop B) fecal-oral C) transmissive
D) Vertical E) all true
720) Which group of viruses is HBV: A) picornaviruses B) arboviruses C) gepadnavirus D)
Reovirus E) ortomiksovirus.
721)
The main source of viral hepatitis 'B': A) patients with icteric forms of acute viral
hepatitis B) individuals with subclinical C) patients with chronic D) patients with fulminant
form E) all true.
722)
The main mechanism of transmission by HCV: A) contact-household B) airborne C)
sexual D) transmissive E) parenteral.
723)
The main mechanism of transmission of infection with HDV-infection: A) contact-
household B) airborne C) sexual D) transmissive E) parenteral.
724)
The frozen blood products or their derivatives HbsAg persists: A) 1 week B) 1 month C)
6 months D) 2 years E) 15-20 years
725)
The main route of transmission in the HBV: A) transfusionB) inoculating C) sexual D)
Vertical E) all correct
726)
Clinical supervision for convalescents HBV is established for a period of: A) 1 month B)
3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
727) The source of infection with Lyme - borreliosis is: A) ixodes ticks B) argasid ticks C)
mosquitoes D) Houseflies E) all true
728) Which of the following apply to zoonotic infections: A) flu B) malaria C) Lyme disease
D) shigellosis E) cholera
729) For the specific prevention of Lyme - borreliosis is used: A)specific immunoglobulin
B)specific serum C) vaccine D) Penicillin E) there is no specific prevention
730) The main route of transmission for malaria: A) drop B) fecal-oral C) transmissive D)
vertical E) parenteral
731)
The causative agent of tropical malaria: A) Pl.ovale B) Pl.falciparum C) Pl.malariae D)
Pl.vivax E) all true.
732)
The drug for preventing recurrences of malaria in remote: A) delagil B) primaquine C)
quinine sulfate D) amodiaquine E) chloroquine.
733)
Malaria belongs to a group: A) viral infections B) bacterial infections C) helmintns D)
protozoan diseases E) miazam.
734)
The leading method of laboratory diagnosis of malaria: A) serum B) parazitoskopiya C)
bacteriological D) immunologic E) biological.
735)
Clinical supervision for malaria had been ill for a period established: A) 1 month B) 3
months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
736)
The minimum protective antibody titer to hepatitis B: A) 0,03 IU / ml, B) 0,5 IU / ml, C),
1 IU / ml, D) 10 IU / ml E) 0.1 IU / ml
737)
Hepatitis B vaccine: A) live B) killed C) recombinant D) Chemical E) toxoid
738)
Observation of contact persons with HBV infection is established for a period of: A) 1
month B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 2 years
739) At a patient 30 years, resident in a separate apartment, are diagnosed eas y
flow of t yphoid. What is it ne cessary to undertake? A – to hospitalize a
patient in infectious permanent establishment; B – to insulate a patient on to
the home and appoint treatment; C – to send urgent notification in SES; D –
to organize conducting of current disinfection; E – to conduct final
disinfection.
740) At a patient 30 years t yphoid is diagnosed, he is hospitalized. Among
contact there is a wife, works as a cook. What is it necessary to undertake? A
– to the wife to conduct bacteriological research of blood; B – to look after a
wife 21 day; C – to the wife to conduct bacteriological research of
excrement; D – vaccinated a wife; E – to hospitalize a wife to the receipt of
negative results of bacteriological research of blood.
741) At a patient 30 years t yphoid is diagnosed, he is hospita lized. Among
contact there is a son 5 years, visits nursery school. What is it necessary to
undertake? A – to the child to appoint bacteriophage; B – to look after a
child 7 days; C – to hospitalize a child to the receipt of negative results of
bacteriological
research of excrement;
D
– to the child to conduct
bacteriological research of blood; E – to remove a child from the visit of
nursery school to the receipt of negative results of bacteriological research
of excrement.
742) At a patient 30 years, resident i n a separate three-room apartment, are
diagnosed easy flow of dysentery. Among contact is wife, works on milk
plant. What is it necessary to undertake? A – to insulate a patient on to the
home and appoint treatment; B – to hospitalize a patient on epidemic
testimonies; C – to the wife to conduct bacteriological research of
excrement; D – after a wife to look 7 days; E – in an apartment to organize
current disinfection.
743) A patient 20 years, resident in a separate apartment, became ill by the
eas y form of dyse ntery, left to treat oneself on to the home. What is it
necessary to undertake? A – to send urgent notification in SES; B – it is
enough to fill a statistical coupon; C – to organize current disinfection by
forces of disinfectors; D – to organize current d isinfection by forces of
seeing to the patient; E – necessaril y to hospitalize a patient.
744) The patient VHA is exposed in the group of nursery school, he is
hospitalized. What is it necessary to undertake? A – contact to look after 21
day; B – contact to enter antibody; C – on a group to impose a quarantine for
a term of 35 days; D – to organize final disinfection with the use of
disinfectant solutions; E – after hospitalization of patient there is the enough
moist cleaning up and ventilation of apartment.
745) At a student resident in a dormitory, VHA is diagnosed. What is it
necessary to undertake? A – to insulate in a separate room and appoint
treatment; B – to hospitalize in infectious permanent establishment; C – to
send urgent notification in SES; D – it is enough to fill a statistical coupon;
E – to organize current disinfection in a dormitory.
746) A student resident in a dormitory became ill by the easy form of chicken pox. What is it necessary to undertake? A – to insulate a patient in a separate
room and appoint treatment; B – to hospitalize on epidemic testimonies; C –
to send urgent notification in SES; D – to organize current disinfection; E –
after hospitalization of patient there is the enough moist cleaning up and
ventilation of apartment.
747) Child 3th years , not before being ill a chicken -pox, visitant nursery
school, contacted with a patient with a chicken -pox. What is it necessary to
undertake, if is the date of contact exactly known? A – after a child to set the
medical supervision for a term of 21 day; B – after a child to set the medical
supervision for a term of 7 days; C – to disjoin a child with a collective for a
term of 21 day; D – to disjoin a child with a collective from the contact 11th
for a 21th day; E – with a collective not to disjoin a child .
748) At a child 5 years, visitant nursery school, a chicken -pox is diagnosed, he
is hospitalized. What is it necessary to undertake? A – on a group to impose
a quarantine on 7 days; B – on a group to impose a quarantine on 21 day; C –
all contact to enter ant ibody; D – children not before being ill a chicken -pox,
to enter antibody; E – after contact to set the medical supervision 7 days.
749) Child 2th years, not before being ill to measles and not vaccinated by
reason of medical contra -indications, contacted with a patient with a
measles. A child visits mangers. What is it necessary to undertake, if is the
date of contact exactly known? A – to set the medical supervision for a term
of 21 day; B – to set the medical supervision for a term of 17 days; C – to
disjoin with a collective for a term of 17 days; D – to the child to enter
antibody; E – with a collective to disjoin a child from the contact 8th for a
21th day.
750) At a child 5 years on the 4th day of stay the easy flow of measles is
diagnosed in somatic permanent establishment. What is it necessary to
undertake? A – to insulate a patient in a separate chamber; B – to hospitalize
a patient in the infectious boxing separation; C – in the separation to
organize current disinfection; D – after hospitalization of patient there is the
enough moist cleaning up and ventilation of apartment; E – to send urgent
notification in SES.