Uploaded by Lito Jay Antopuesto

# Geology Multiple Choice Questions

```This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The
Crust”.
1. What is the thickness of the crust under the
mountainous areas and in particular the
Himalayas?
a) 50-55 km
b) 60-65 km
c) 70-75 km
d) 30-35 km
Explanation: It is believed that the thickness of
the crust under the Himalayas is 70 to 75 km
and under the Hindukush it is said to be 60 km
thick.
2. The discontinuity which marks the lower
boundary of the crust is
a) Crust-Mantle discontinuity
b) Oceanic discontinuity
c) SIAL layer
d) Mohorovicic discontinuity
Explanation: Mohorovicic discontinuity marks
the lower boundary of the crust which is the
first layer of the Earth.
3. The granite layer in the crust is also referred
to as
a) SIAL
b) SIMA
c) SLAM
d) SILA
Explanation: SIAL stands for Silicon and
Aluminium and as per the name it is made up of
the two elements and hence the name.
4. The density of the oceanic layer in the crust is
said to be
a) 3.00 g/cc
b) 2.50 g/cc
c) 1.90 g/cc
d) 2.00 g/cc
Explanation: The oceanic crust is estimated to
have a volume of 2.54*109 cc with an average
density of 3.00 g/cc.
5. The depth at which the Mohorovicic
discontinuity occurs is
a) 90-100 km
b) 50-60 km
c) 70-80 km
d) 30-40 km
Explanation: Mohorovicic discontinuity from
seismic evidence is determined that it is
approximately at a depth of 30-40 km.
6. What is the speed attained by the P-waves in
the C-layer under the Continental crust?
a) 6 to 7.6 km/sec
b) 3 to 4 km/sec
c) 5 to 6.3 km/sec
d) 1.8 to 2.5 km/sec
Explanation: The C-layer is the lowermost layer
of the continental crust and here the P-waves
attain velocity as high as 6 to 7.6 km/sec.
7. The layer under the continental crust with
the density of 2.4 to 2.6 g/cc
a) A-layer
b) B-layer
c) C-layer
d) D-layer
Explanation: The Middle layer or B-layer of the
continental crust is relatively dense compared
to A-layer and the density is said to be 2.4 to 2.6
g/cc.
8. The expansion of SIMA is
a) Silicon and Manganese
b) Silicon and Magnesium
c) Strontium and Manganese
d) Strontium and Magnesium
Explanation: The A or the upper layer is
between 2 to 10 km thick and is of low density,
2.00 g/cc.
11. The area not considered under the crust is
a) Mountainous area
b) Continental area
c) Oceanic area
d) Glacial area
Explanation: The first the options,
Mountainous, Continental and Oceanic areas
are studied separately whereas Glacial area is
not considered under study of the crust as such.
Explanation: Silicon and Magnesium. The Clayer under the continental crust is rich in
Silicon and Magnesium and hence the layer is
also sometimes called SIMA.
This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The
Mantle, The Core”.
9. The oceanic layer is the extension of C-layer
of the continental crust and A and B-layer are
mostly absent. State whether true or false.
a) True
b) False
1. The depth up to which the mantle is said to
exist is ________
a) 2000 km
b) 1500 km
c) 2900 km
d) 1800 km
Explanation: The oceanic crust is the extension
of C-layer of the continental crust that makes
the top layer of the oceans in most cases, A and
B layers being practically absent from there.
Explanation: The second layer, Mantle, lies
beneath the crust and this zone starting from
the lower boundary of the crust continues up to
a depth of 2,900 km.
10. The least dense layer among the layers
under the continental crust is
a) A-layer
b) B-layer
c) C-layer
d) D-layer
2. The thickness of the 2 layers of the upper
mantle is approximately said to be
a) 400 and 600 km
b) 300 and 500 km
c) 450 and 800 km
d) 300 and 400 km
Explanation: The upper mantle is further
divided into two layers of 400 and 600 km
thickness respectively.
3. The exact nature of the mantle is completely
understood. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: It is said that the exact nature of
the mantle is as yet incompletely understood.
4. Which of the following is not true about
Asthenosphere?
a) It is present in the upper mantle
b) It is in solid state
c) It is the source of volcanic activity
d) It is in plastic rather than solid state
Explanation: It is in solid state is not true and
the remaining options are true and they are
characteristics of the asthenosphere. In Greek,
“asthenes” means without strength and hence
the name.
5. Who was the first person to tell about the
Core?
a) Graham Bell
b) Albert Einstein
c) Isaac Newton
d) R.D. Oldham
Explanation: The existence of the core was
suggested by R.D. Oldham in 1906 and
subsequently confirmed by other seismologists.
6. The depth at which the core layer starts and
ends respectively is ____________
a) 2900 and 6371 km
b) 2000 and 5371 km
c) 2500 and 4771 km
d) 2000 and 5000 km
Explanation: The mantle extends up to the
depth of 2900 km and from that depth it is the
core that is said to be present and the radius of
the Earth is 6371 km and hence the core is said
to extend till 6371 km.
7. Which of the following is true about the inner
core?
a) It is believed to be a semi solid body
b) It is believed to be a solid body
c) It is believed to be a liquid body
d) It is believed to be a gaseous body.
Explanation: The inner core with a thickness of
around 1790 km is believed to be a solid body.
8. The density of the Earth in the core
immediately after the mantle is _______
a) 8 g/cc
b) 7.6 g/cc
c) 9.9 g/cc
d) 8.7 g/cc
Explanation: At the base of the mantle, density
is inferred as 5.7 g/cc that jumps to 9.9 g/cc at
the top of the core.
9. The layer which does not transmit the Swaves is _______
a) Outer core
b) Crust
c) Mantle
d) Inner core
Explanation: The outer core behaves more like a
liquid because the S-waves from the earthquake
shocks reaching this zone are not transmitted
through this zone at all.
10. There is a hypothesis that the inner core is
made up chiefly of iron and nickel. State true or
false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: As regards the chemical
composition of the inner core, the hypothesis
that it is made up chiefly of iron and nickel
elements has found support from many
accounts.
11. The density of the Earth at its centre is said
to be
a) 9.9 g/cc
b) 8.8 g/cc
c) 13 g/cc
d) 12.7 g/cc
Explanation: The value of density reaches 12.7
g/cc at the boundary of the inner core and
becomes 13 g/cc at the centre of the Earth.
12. The layer which is said to support the slow
moving tectonic plates is
a) Asthenosphere
b) Lithosphere
c) Mohorovic sphere
d) Core layer
Explanation: The Asthenosphere is believed to
be located entirely in the upper mantle and
supports the slowly moving tectonic plates.
13. What is the thickness of the inner core?
a) 790 km
b) 1790 km
c) 2790 km
d) 3790 km
Explanation: The inner core, is believed to be in
solid metallic state and is said have thickness of
14. The layer which is believed to be the source
of volcanic activity is
a) Inner core
b) Outer core
c) Asthenosphere
d) Mohorovicic layer
Explanation: The asthenosphere is believed to
be the source of much volcanic activity and
many other processes. It is is said be to located
completely in the upper mantle.
This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Geological Work of Atmosphere-01”.
1. Which of the following about weathering is
not true?
a) It is a natural process
b) Mechanical disintegration is involved
c) Chemical decomposition is involved
d) It is a rapid process
d) Irregular
Explanation: Weathering is defined as, a natural
process of in-situ mechanical disintegration and
or chemical decomposition of the rocks of the
crust of the Earth by certain physical and
chemical agencies of the atmosphere. It is a
very slow process.
Explanation: The frost formed fragments are
angular, sub angular, irregular in outline and
remain spread over the parent rock having flat
surface or flat slopes. Spherical form or outline
of rock doesn’t come into picture here.
2. The process that is not considered under
mechanical weathering is _______
a) Carbonation
b) Temperature variation
d) Insolation
Explanation: Carbonation is a chemical
weathering process whereas the rest viz.,
processes of mechanical weathering.
3. What is the change in volume when water
freezes?
a) 10% decrease
b) 20% increase
c) 20% decrease
d) 10% increase
Explanation: It is said that, water on freezing
undergoes an increase in its volume by about
ten per cent. This is expansion is accompanied
by exertion of pressure.
4. The form of rock not found by freezingthawing cycle is ________
a) Angular
b) Sub angular
c) Spherical
5. The processes by which Scree deposits are
formed are
a) Chemical attack
b) Exposure to sunlight
c) Water movement
d) Heaving and rolling
Explanation: If the original surface forms a
significant slope, as is commonly the case in the
hilly and mountainous regions, the frost
fragments get heaved up from the crevices and
cavities and then roll down the slope under the
influence of gravity. Finally, the fragments
accumulate at the base as heaps commonly
called as Scree deposits.
6. What are the slopes covered by Scree called?
a) Scree slope
b) Frost slope
c) Talus slope
d) Trist slope
Explanation: The slopes covered by frost formed
scree are often referred to as Talus slopes.
7. Where can one find the process of exudation
occur?
a) Plains
b) Seashore
c) Hills
d) Waterfalls
Explanation: Exudation is a process similar to
frost action but in this case disintegration takes
place due to the formation of sodium chloride
etc., within the cavities of rocks thereby causing
disintegration. This process is seen in good
measure in porous rocks near seashore.
8. The stress developed in the top layers of the
rocks which disintegrate due to repeated
variations in temperatures is________
a) Tensile stress
b) Compressive stress
c) Shear stress
d) Bending stress
Explanation: Repeated variations in
temperature experienced by a body of rock
gradually break it into smaller pieces, especially
in the top layers, by development of tensile
stresses developing from alternate expansion
and contraction.
9. Which of the following facts about Exfoliation
is false?
a) It is the phenomenon of peeling off of curved
shells from rocks
b) The change is accompanied by chemical
weathering
c) Internal structure of the rock is affected
d) It occurs in thick or layered rocks.
Explanation: The internal structure of the rock is
not affected due to the process of exfoliation.
The phenomenon of peeling off occurs only in
the layered or thick rocks and is accompanied
by chemical weathering, mostly near the
margins and develop curved surfaces. So
basically surface is affected and not the internal
structure.
10. The large-scale development of fracturing in
confined rock masses occurs under which
process?
a) Frost action
c) Unfolding
d) Insolation
Answer: The process of mechanical weathering
where large-scale development of fracturing in
confined rock masses is attributed to removal of
the overlying rock cover due to prolonged
erosional work of other agencies is called
11. The formation of sheets and subsequently
joints occurs in which of the following
processes?
a) Frost action
b) Insolation
c) Flow of water
Explanation: The rock masses under the effect
of unloading remain confined from sides but
due to relief of pressure from above, they
expand upwards; consequently joints develop in
them parallel to the uncovered surface dividing
them into sheets.
12. Scree deposits can occur in hilly regions
only. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: The above statement is true
because, for scree deposits to be formed, the
rock fragments have to heave up and also roll
down the slope under the influence of gravity.
13. Identify the part labelled as “A” in the below
diagram.
like Kara Qum, rocks are exposed to as high
temperatures as 70-80° C in summer and are
then cooled down to -10° C in winter. Such
repeated variations in temperature experienced
by a body of rock gradually break it into smaller
pieces.
This set of Engineering Geology Interview
Questions and Answers focuses on “Geological
Work of Atmosphere – 02”.
1. The main processes which does not come
under chemical weathering are
a) Solution
b) Hydration and hydrolysis
c) Insolation
d) Carbonation
a) Weathered rock
b) Parent rock
c) Rolled down rock
d) Powdered rock
Explanation: The part labelled is the parent rock
and is yet to undergo weathering. It is the solid
rock mass and the other parts above and beside
the parent rock are called the weathered rocks.
14. In Kara Qum desert, the rocks are exposed
to what temperatures in summer and winter
respectively?
a) 70-80° C and -10° C
b) 20-30° C and -1° C
c) 40-50° C and 0° C
d) 25-35° C and -3° C
Explanation: Studies have shown that in desert
Explanation: The processes, solution, hydration
and hydrolysis, carbonation are all chemical
processes and involve chemical reaction,
whereas, insolation is a process of mechanical
weathering.
2. The rock-mineral insoluble in water is
a) Rock salt
b) Gypsum
c) Calcite
d) Pyrite
Explanation: Pyrite is insoluble in water,
whereas, rock salt, gypsum and calcite are
examples of minerals that are soluble in water
to some extent.
3. Limestone is not easily soluble in pure water
but carbonated water dissolves the rock
effectively. State true or false.
a) False
b) True
Explanation: Pure water is not a good solvent of
minerals in most cases, but when the water is
carbonated, its solvent action for many
common minerals is enhanced. Thus, limestone
is not easily soluble in pure water but
carbonated water dissolves the rock effectively.
4. Minerals like Orthoclase and Felspar undergo
which method of chemical decomposition?
a) Hydration
b) Hydrolysis
c) Oxidation
d) Reduction
Explanation: Ions may be exchanged whereby
some ions from water may enter into the crystal
lattice of the mineral. This process of exchange
of ions is called hydrolysis. It is a very common
process of weathering of silicate minerals and is
best explained with reference to weathering of
mineral Orthoclase, Felspar.
5. Which of the following is reduction?
a) Removal of hydrogen
b) Removal of electron
c) Removal of oxygen
d) Addition of oxygen
Pot. Carbonate + Silica
Identify the mineral in the blank space of the
equation.
a) Illite
b) Kaolinite
c) Montmorillonite
d) Halloysite
Explanation: The reaction of orthoclase with
carbonic acid yields kaolinite {Al2Si2O5(OH)4 }
and Pot. Carbonate and silica.
7. Which of the following about Spheroidal
weathering is not true?
a) It is a complex type of weathering
b) Both mechanical and chemical weathering
are believed to happen
c) Formation of joints is involved
d) Formation of joints is not involved
Explanation: Spheroidal weathering is a
complex type of weathering observed in jointed
rocks and characterized with the breaking of
original rock mass into spheroidal blocks. Both
mechanical and chemical weathering are
believed to actively cooperate in causing
spheroidal weathering. The original solid rock
mass is split into small block masses by
development of parallel joints.
Explanation: Oxidation means of either removal
of electron or hydrogen or addition of oxygen
but, reduction may involve removal of oxygen
or addition of hydrogen or electron.
8. Factor not affecting weathering is
a) Colour of the rock
b) Nature of the rock
c) Climate
d) Physical environment
6. 2KaISi3O8 + 2H2O + CO2 → Al2Si2O5(OH)4 +
K2CO3 + 4SiO2
Orthoclase + Carbonic acid → ___________ +
Explanation: Weathering is affected by the
factors like nature of the rock, climate, physical
environment but is not affected by colour of the
rock. It has no influence over its weathering.
c) Olivine
d) Calcite
9. It is said that Sandstone is more resistant to
weathering compared to Granite. What is the
basic reason behind this phenomenon?
a) The external outline form of sandstone
b) Sandstone is harder than granite
c) Granite is mainly made of quartz
d) Sandstone is mainly made of quartz
Explanation: The resistance to weathering
increases in the following order for dark
coloured minerals- Olivine, Augite, Hornblende,
Biotite. Hence only Biotite is most resistant.
Calcite as it is very reactive among the rock
forming minerals.
Explanation: Among granite and sandstones
exposed to atmosphere simultaneously in the
same or adjoining areas having hot and humid
climate, the sandstone will resist weathering to
a great extent because they are made up mainly
of quartz(SiO2) which is highly weathering
resistant mineral.
10. Identify the pair mismatched
a) Cold and humid – Both mechanical and
chemical weathering
b) Dry and cold – Neither of them
c) Hot and humid – Mechanical weathering is
predominant
d) Hot and dry – Mechanical weathering is
predominant
Explanation: In the hot and humid conditions
chemical weathering is predominant and not
mechanical, since, there is presence of
moisture.
11. Which of the following rock forming
minerals is more resistant to weathering
compared to Hornblende?
a) Augite
b) Biotite
12. Which of the following is true about
Eluvium?
a) It is that category of end product of
weathering that has been moved to some
distance after its formation.
b) It is associated with weathering of slopes
c) It is the end product of weathering that
happens to lie over and above the parent rock
d) Regolith is not the other name for Eluvium
Explanation: The basic definition of Eluvium is
“It is the end product of weathering that
happens to lie over and above the parent rock”.
Regolith is another term for eluvium.
13. The zone consisting of mixed composition is
a) Zone A
b) Zone B
c) Zone C
d) Zone D
Explanation: Zone B is of mixed composition,
partly of soil and partly of weathered rock, the
latter becoming more dominating with depth.
14. Among the following the term which is not
effect of chemical weathering is
a) Scree formation
b) Disfiguring
c) Pitting
d) Honeycombing
Explanation: Disfiguring, pitting, honeycombing
and loss of surface appearance are quite
common effects chemical weathering on stones
used irrationally without due regard to the local
environment. Scree formation happens due to
mechanical weathering.
15. Formation of colloids is sometimes the end
product of weathering. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: The various process of chemical
weathering operating on the rocks and minerals
under different atmospheric conditions may not
always end up in the formation of stable end
products. Often they result in splitting of
particles into smaller particles –the colloidscharacterized by atoms with only partial
satisfied electrical charges.
This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Geological Work of Wind”.
1. The winds are formed basically due to which
reason?
a) Uniform heating
b) Non-uniform heating
c) Precipitation
d) Tectonic activity
Explanation: Winds are born mainly due to nonuniform heating of the surface of the earth at
different places causing differences in
atmospheric pressure. The pressure difference
so created makes the atmospheric gases (the
air) to move from areas of high pressure to
areas of low pressure in the form of winds.
2. The removal of particles of dust and sand by
strong winds is called
a) Abrasion
b) Depletion
c) Deflation
d) Aeration
Explanation: The process of removal of dust and
sand by strong winds is called deflation. In Latin,
‘deflare’ means ‘to blow away’. It is the main
process of wind erosion in desert regions.
3. The water in an oasis is obtained from which
source?
a) Rain
b) Erosion from other place
c) Water table
d) Water released from adsorption
Explanation: Sometimes due to deflation, huge
depressions are created in the deserts to such
an extent that the depression becomes so deep
that it intersects with the groundwater table.
And it gets partially filled up with water and this
is called an oasis.
4. The type of erosion which involves rubbing,
grinding is
a) Deflation
b) Attrition
c) Deflection
d) Wind abrasion
c) Duration
d) Sunlight
Explanation: The type of erosion involving
rubbing, grinding, abrading and polishing the
rock surfaces by any natural agent (wind, water
or ice) with the help of its lead while passing
over the rocks is termed as abrasion.
Explanation: Factors which affect attrition by
wind are nature of the region, velocity of wind
and duration. It is not affected by sunlight.
5. Which among the following is called
“Mushroom rocks” ?
a) Pedestal rocks
b) Yardangs
c) Ventifacts
d) Desert pavements
Explanation: Pedestal rocks are also often called
mushroom rocks because of their likeness to
mushrooms popping up closely in a level land.
6. The rock which is well polished by wind
abrasion is called
a) Yardangs
b) Pedestal rock
c) Ventifacts
d) Desert pavements
Explanation: Ventifacts are small sized rock
fragments showing one, two or three or even
more typically wind-polished surfaces called
faces. The polishing of different sides of
originally rough fragments is caused by
prolonged wind abrasion.
7. The factor which does not affect the attrition
by wind is
a) Nature of the region
b) Velocity of wind
8. Which of the following about saltation is not
true?
a) In this process the heavier and coarse
sediments are lifted up
b) They are lifted up periodically and for short
distances
c) In this process the light-density particles are
carried away
d) It is the process of sediment transport by
series of jump
Explanation: The heavier and coarse sediments
such as sand grains, pebbles and gravels etc. are
lifted up periodically during high velocity times
and only for short distances and that too for
smaller heights above the ground. The uplifting
of lighter particles is called suspension.
9. The transporting power of wind depends on
shape of the particle. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: The transporting power of wind
depends on its velocity as also on the size,
shape and density of the particles.
10. Which among the following has S-shaped
outline?
a) Crescentic dune
b) Barchans
c) Transverse dunes
d) Sigmoidal dunes
Explanation: A typical sigmoidal dune is
characterized with the absence of horns or
cusps and a curved outline. In its simplest form,
a sigmoidal dune is a steep sided ridge that
extends in a sinuous or S-shaped outline.
11. The type of dune which is short lived is
a) Barchans
b) Sigmoidal
c) Transverse dunes
d) Fixed dune
Explanation: Most of the dunes are migratory in
nature and among all, Barchans are especially
known to move ahead at the rate of 25 to 250
meters a month. Hence barchans are said to be
short-lived relative to other dunes.
12. The particle size in a Loess is around
_________
a) 2-3 mm in diameter
b) 1-2 mm in diameter
c) 0.01-0.05 mm in diameter
d) 0.1-1 mm in diameter
Explanation: A typical Loess is unconsolidated,
unstratified, and porous accumulation of
particles of the size range 0.01-0.05 mm in
diameter. This size fraction makes almost 40
percent of a particular loess deposit rest being
made up of still finer clay grade material.
13. What is the term used for wind blown
deposits of silt and clay grade particles?
a) Dunes
b) Loess
c) Hills
d) Ventifacts
Explanation: The term loess is used for wind
blown deposits of silt and clay grade particles.
Dune is used to refer to sand particles.
Ventifacts and hills are usually rocks.
14. Treating the sands locally with crude oil is
not a method of combating the advancing
sands. State true or false.
a) False
b) True
Explanation: Treating the sands locally with
crude oil whereby their susceptibility for
transport by wind is considerably reduced. It is
one of the effective methods to combat
This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Folds
& Folding Basic Terms”.
1. The branch of geology which deals with the
morphology, classification, mechanism and
causes of development of these rock structures
is called as
a) Rock geology
b) Structural geology
c) Basic geology
d) Lithology
Explanation: The basic definition of structural
geology is “the branch of geology which deals
with the morphology, classification, mechanism
and causes of development of these rock
structures”. Hence the answer Structural
Geology.
are superficially the most widespread rocks,
forming more than 75% of the exposed surface
of the earth.
2. Stratification can be seen widely in which of
the following rocks?
a) Igneous rocks
b) Metamorphic rocks
c) Sedimentary rocks
d) Fossil rocks
5. Which of the following about lamination is
not true?
a) It is closely related to stratification
b) It is literally paper thin
c) It is a layered structure developed in
extremely fine grained igneous rocks
d) It is a layered structure developed in
extremely fine grained sedimentary rocks
Explanation: Most sedimentary rocks are
deposited under conditions which favour
development of distinct layers piled up one
above another, from bottom to top. These
layers also called beds or strata.
Explanation: The term lamination is closely
related to stratification. It is a layered structure
developed in extremely fine grained
sedimentary rocks made up of clay and silt. The
layers are paper thin literally speaking.
3. Outcrop is seen on land everywhere on earth.
State true or false.
a) True
b) False
6. The maximum angle of inclination of a layer
of a rock with the horizontal is
a) Dip
b) Heave angle
c) Strike
d) Depth
Explanation: Solid rocks are not exposed
everywhere on the surface of the earth. These
are mostly covered with a thick or thin layer of
loose deposit called alluvium or in most
common language as soil. Hence rock or the
outcrop is not seen everywhere on earth.
4. Most widespread rock on earth is
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) All are in equal quantities
Explanation: It is said that sedimentary rocks
Explanation: The definition of dip is “The
maximum angle of inclination of a layer of a
rock with the horizontal”. It is expressed both in
terms of degree of inclination and direction of
inclination.
7. Angle of dip is measured using which
instrument?
a) Compass
b) Theodolite
c) Tacheometer
d) Clinometer
Explanation: The direction of dip is determined
with a simple compass whereas the angle of dip
is determined with an instrument called
clinometer, which comes built in with the
compass.
8. Which among the following is not a type of
dip?
b) Primary dip
c) Secondary dip
d) Local and regional dip
Explanation: The types of dips are primary,
secondary, local and regional. Widespread dip is
not considered as a dip.
d) No dip involves tectonic forces
Explanation: Secondary dip is the inclination
induced in the strata after its deposition due to
the tectonic forces to which such strata have
been subsequently subjected. Secondary dips
may range in value up to vertical.
11. A coal seam is exposed on a horizontal
ground. If it is 30° towards West. Its width of
outcrop on a level ground is 360 m. What is its
true thickness?
a) 120 m
b) 150 m
c) 160 m
d) 180 m
9. The term “intrusion” is basically associated
with which type of rock?
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) Not associated with any type of rock
Explanation: Igneous rocks are formed from
cooling and crystallization of hot molten
material called magma/lava depending on the
place of occurrence. The magma gets intruded
or injected into the pre-existing rocks of any
type- called the host rocks and takes variously
shaped forms on cooling. These forms are
commonly termed as Intrusion.
12. At a dam site, a bed of sandstone is exposed
on horizontal ground. If it is 25° towards East.
Its width of outcrop on a level ground is 240 m,
what is its vertical thickness?
a) 101.9 m
b) 99.9 m
c) 111.9 m
d) 121.9 m
10. The dip which involves tectonic forces is
a) Primary dip
b) Secondary dip
c) Local and Regional dip
Explanation: The equation to calculate True
thickness is given by
True thickness = Width of outcrop * Sin 30°
By substitution and calculation, we get 180 m.
True thickness = 360 * sin (30°) = 180 m
Explanation: Vertical thickness = Width of
outcrop * tan (angle of inclination)
Vertical thickness = 240 * tan (25°) = 111.91 m
13. The study of outcrop dimensions doesn’t
involve which of the following aspect?
a) Width
b) Thickness and depth
c) Dip and strike
d) Rock composition and type
at right angles to its strike direction, it is called
an apparent dip.
This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Parts
of a Fold”.
Explanation: The study of rock composition and
type of rock is not done under the outcrop
dimensions whereas the rest are thoroughly
studied under the topic.
1. What are the undulations or bends
developed in rocks called?
a) Faults
b) Joints
c) Folds
d) Uncomformity
14. Foliation is a primary structure of which
type of rock?
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) Not associated with any rock
Explanation: Folds may be defined as
undulations or bends or curvatures developed
in the rocks of the crust as a result of stresses to
which these rocks have been subjected from
time to time in the past history of the Earth.
Explanation: Stratification and lamination are
the most common primary structures of
sedimentary rocks; crystalline structure is
typical of igneous rocks and foliation is a typical
primary structure of metamorphic rocks.
2. Folds develop in which type of rock
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) Any type of rock
15. The dip of a layer measured in the direction
that is at right angle to strike is
a) True dip
b) Apparent dip
c) Straight dip
d) Normal dip
Explanation: The folds may develop in any type
of rock and may be of any shape and flexures.
Explanation: When the dip of a layer is
measured in a direction that is essentially at
right angles to the strike of that particular layer,
then it is called true dip. When the dip of a layer
is measured in any other direction, which is not
3. Which type of deformation is folding?
a) Brittle
b) Ductile
c) Tensile
d) Malleable
Explanation: In general, folding is a ductile type
of deformation experienced by the rocks
compared to the brittle deformation where the
rocks actually get broken and displaced when
stressed.
4. Folding is ________ process
a) Very slow
b) Rapid
c) Quick
d) Moderate rate
Explanation: Folding is a very slow geological
process and indicates an effort of the rocks in a
particular environment to adjust themselves to
the changing force fields operating on, within or
around them.
5. Which among the following is not a part of
fold?
a) Limbs
b) Hinge
c) Axis of fold
d) Height of fold
Explanation: Parts of a fold include, limbs,
hinge, axis of a fold, plunge of a fold and crest &
trough. Height of fold is not referred as its part.
6. The minimum number of limbs for a fold are
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Explanation: An individual fold will have a
minimum of two limbs but when the folds occur
in groups, as this is common, a middle limb will
be common to two adjacent folds.
7. The point where the curvature is maximum is
________
a) Hinge
b) Axial surface
c) Nucleus
d) Fold point
Explanation: In a folded layer, a point can be
found where curvature is maximum and one
limb ends and the other limb starts from that
point. This is the hinge point.
8. When the plunge said to be zero, then the
axis of the fold is said to be
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Inclined at 60° to the horizontal
d) Inclined at 60° to its normal.
Explanation: Axis is a line and plunge is the
angle which the line makes with a horizontal. A
fold having a horizontal axis will obviously have
a zero plunge.
9. The crest and trough may or may not
coincide with the axis. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: The line running through the
highest points in an uparched fold defines the
crest and similarly the line running through the
lowest point in a downarched fold makes its
trough. The crest and trough may or may not
coincide with the axis of the fold.
10. What is axis of a fold?
a) Line drawn normal to the hinge line
b) Line drawn at 60° to hinge line
c) Line drawn parallel to hinge line
d) Line which doesn’t pass through hinge line.
Explanation: Axis of fold is defined as a line
drawn parallel to the hinge line of a fold. In
other words, line representing the intersection
of the axial plane of a fold with any bed of the
fold.
11. How is the plunge of a fold measured?
a) Direction
b) Degree
c) Depth
d) Both direction and degree
Explanation: The plunge is measured like dip of
a bedding plane, both in terms of direction of
plunge and degree of plunge.
12. An axial plane can be vertical, inclined or
horizontal in nature. State true or false.
a) False
b) True
Explanation: An axial plane is that imaginary
plane that passes through all the points of
maximum curvature in a folded sequence. It
may be vertical, inclined or horizontal in nature.
13. Identify the part labelled “A” in the below
figure.
a) Limb
b) Hinge
c) Axis of fold
d) Plunge
Explanation: Limbs are the sides or flanks of a
fold. The part labelled “A” in the figure is a limb
of fold.
14. Which of the following about axial plane is
not true.
a) Axial plane is imaginary
b) Axial plane may be vertical, inclined or
horizontal
c) Axial plane may be planar or non-planar
d) Axial plane need not pass through all points
of maximum curvature in a folded sequence
Explanation: An axial plane is defined as
imaginary plane that passes through all the
points of maximum curvature in a folded
sequence. It may be vertical, inclined or
horizontal. Also it can be either planar or nonplanar.
This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Classification of Folds – 01”.
1. The type of fold in which the limbs dip away
from each other at the crest is
a) Anticline
b) Syncline
c) Countercline
d) Doesn’t exist
Explanation: Anticlines are defined as those
folds in which the limbs dip away from each
other at the crest in the simplest forms.
2. The fold which is convex downwards is
a) Anticline
b) Syncline
c) U-cline
d) Crestcline
Explanation: Synclines are the reverse of
anticlines in all details and the strata are
downarched, that is, these become convex
downwards.
3. Which of the following is not true about
Anticline?
a) The strata are uparched
b) Geologically older rocks occupy a position in
the interior of the fold
c) The limbs dip away from each other at the
crest
d) They are convex downwards
Explanation: Anticlines are said to convex
upwards and not downwards. Synclines are
convex downwards.
4. What is the other name for upright fold?
a) Symmetrical fold
b) Asymmetrical fold
c) Overturned fold
d) Isoclinal fold
Explanation: Symmetrical folds are also called
normal folds or upright folds. In such a fold, the
axial plane is essentially vertical.
5. Fold in which the limbs lie exactly one over
another
a) Isoclinal
b) Symmetrical
c) Recumbent
d) Asymmetrical
Explanation: In recumbent folds, one limb
comes to lie exactly under the other limb so
that a drill hole dug at the surface in the upper
limb passes through the lower limb also.
6. Which of the following is also an overturned
fold?
a) Isoclinal fold
b) Symmetrical fold
c) Asymmetrical fold
d) Recumbent fold
Explanation: Recumbent folds are described as
extreme types of overturned folds in which the
axial plane acquires an almost horizontal
attitude.
7. Fold with flattened top is
a) Square fold
b) Plateau fold
c) Box fold
d) Conjugate fold
Explanation: Box fold may be described as a
special type of fold with exceptionally flattened
top and steep inclined limbs almost forming
three sides of a rectangle.
8. The type of fold in which fold angle is
between 10° to 90°
a) Tight fold
b) Loose fold
c) Gentle fold
d) Acute fold
Explanation: When it comes to fold angle as the
basis of classification, the fold with fold angle
between 10° and 90° is called tight fold.
9. Which of among the following is not a type of
fold based on behaviour with depth?
a) Concentric fold
b) Similar fold
c) Supratenuous fold
d) Asymmetrical fold
Explanation: The first three options are the
types based on behaviour with depth where
asymmetric fold is based on position of axial
plane.
10. Isogans converge inwards in class 1 folds.
State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: In class 1 folds, isogans converge
inwards whereas in class 3, these converge
upwards.
This set of Engineering Geology Questions and
Answers for Freshers focuses on “Classification
of Folds – 02”.
1. Pick the wrong statement about recumbent
fold
a) It has the arch, which is zone of curvature
b) It has the shell, which is the inner zone, made
up of mostly igneous rocks
c) It has the shell, which is the outer zone, made
up of mostly sedimentary rocks
d) It has the core, which is the innermost zone,
maybe made up of igneous rocks and
metamorphic rocks
Explanation: The shell part of a recumbent,
which is the outer zone, is mostly made up of
sedimentary rocks. Hence the second statement
is wrong regarding it.
2. The type of fold which is actually a group of
folds is
a) Symmetrical folds
b) Asymmetrical folds
c) Isoclinal folds
d) Recumbent folds
Explanation: Isoclinal folds are group of folds in
which all the axial planes are essentially
parallel, meaning that all the component limbs
are at equal amounts.
3. There are three types of folds classified on
the basis of relative curvature of the outer and
the inner arcs of a fold. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Ramsay divides all types of folds in
three main classes on the basis of relative
curvature of the outer and the inner arcs of a
fold. They are Class 1, Class 2 and Class 3 folds.
4. In which class of folds, the Isogans converge
inwards?
a) Class 1
b) Class 2
c) Class 3
d) Class 4
Explanation: Determination of dips may be
made and then lines of equal dips are drawn.
These are called Isogans. In Class 1 folds, the
Isogans converge inwards.
5. Identify the class to which the fold below
belongs to
run parallel to each other and hence the fold
shown in the figure belongs class 2.
6. Which is the type of fold with similar degree
of folding for indefinite depths?
a) Concentric fold
b) Similar fold
c) Conjugate fold
d) Uniform fold
Explanation: Similar folds are the folds in which
degree of folding is observed to be similar for
indefinite depths.
7. A fold can have differences in thickness due
to erosional and depositional processes. State
true or false.
a) False
b) True
Explanation: Supratenuous folds show
differences in thickness at the crestal and the
trough regions, not induced by folding process
but essentially due to erosional and
depositional processes operating in the folded
regions.
a) Class 1
b) Class 2
c) Class 3
d) Class 4
Explanation: In class 2 folds, the isogans would
8. Gentle folds have fold angle between
a) 10° to 90°
b) 90° to 170°
c) 170° to 180°
d) They don’t belong to this type
Explanation: For the classification of folds on
the basis of fold angle, a fold is said to be gentle
fold if the fold angle is between 170° to 180°.
9. Which is the class of fold with the degree of
curvature greater on the outer arc compared to
the inner arc?
a) Class 1
b) Class 2
c) Class 3
d) Class 4
Explanation: Class 3 folds are just the reverse of
class 1 folds; in these folds, the degree of
curvature as measured on the outer arc is
greater than that of the inner arc.
10. The fold which is associated with the
formation of mountains is
a) Geanticline
b) Geosyncline
c) Homocline
d) Basin
Explanation: Great importance is attached to
the major depressions, the geosynclines, in the
process of mountain building.
11. The anticlines signifying larger bending are
called
a) Geranticlines
b) Geosynclines
c) Geanticlines
d) Geoantinclines
Explanation: The anticlines which signify larger
bending and uplifting of strata on subcontinental scales is expressed by the term
Geanticlines.
12. The folds caused due to the drag effect are
a) Monocline
b) Homocline
c) Basins
d) Drag folds
Explanation: Drag folds derive their name from
cause of origin; they develop due to drag effect
suffered by the soft and ductile type material of
the incompetent rock.
This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Classification of Folds – 03”.
1. How many types of folds are there with
plunge as basis?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 5
Explanation: Only two main types are
recognized as the types of folds on the basis
plunge.
2. What is a plunging fold?
a) Fold with fold axis horizontal
b) Fold with fold axis only vertical
c) Fold with fold axis not horizontal
d) This is not a type of fold
Explanation: Any fold in which fold axis is not
horizontal, that is, it makes an angle with the
horizontal, may be described as a plunging fold.
3. A fold in which the folding continues in the
direction of the axis of the fold is
a) Plunging fold
b) Non-plunging fold
c) Similar fold
d) Doesn’t exist
Explanation: Any fold in which the axis of the
fold is essentially horizontal, that is, the
plunging continues indefinitely in the direction
of the axis of the fold is specifically described as
non-plunging fold.
4. A fold which is not based on profile of the
folded strata is
a) Cheveron fold
b) Conjugate fold
c) Cuspate fold
d) Plunging fold
Explanation: Cheveron fold, conjugate fold,
cuspate fold are the types of fold based on
profile of the fold surface whereas, plunging
fold is based on plunge of the fold.
5. Folds with two hinges and three planar limbs
are called
a) Conjugate folds
b) Cheveron folds
c) Cuspate folds
d) Cylindrical folds
Explanation: Conjugate folds are composite
folds characterised with two hinges and three
planar limbs in which the central limb is
exceptionally flattened.
6. Folds characterized by well-defined, sharp
hinge points are called
a) Conjugate folds
b) Cheveron folds
c) Cuspate folds
d) Cylindrical folds
Explanation: Cheveron folds are the folds
characterised with well-defined, sharp hinge
points and straight planar limbs.
7. Pick the non-planar fold from the following.
a) Box fold
b) Cheveron fold
c) Conjugate fold
d) Cuspate fold
Explanation: The limbs of the cuspate fields are
not planar, they are quite clearly curved
becoming concave upwards in the case of
anticlines and concave downwards in the case
of synclines.
8. Which of the following is not true about
cylindrical folds?
a) They resemble sections of pipes
b) They have very well defined axes of folds
c) These well defined axes are repeated parallel
to each other
d) These well defined axes are not repeated
parallel to each other
Explanation: Folds in which repetition of axes
parallel to themselves is not possible , are
classified as non-cylindrical. The first three
statements are true about the cylindrical folds.
9. Identify the type of fold shown below
a) Conjugate fold
b) Cheveron fold
c) Cuspate fold
d) Cylindrical fold
Explanation: As we can observe, there are two
hinge points and three planar limbs. This is seen
in conjugate fold.
10. The hinge joints in cuspate folds are not
very sharp. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Cuspate folds are quite clearly
curved becoming concave upwards in the case
of anticlines and concave downwards in the
case of synclines. The hinge zones are,
therefore, not very sharp.
Explanation: Folds which are based on mode of
occurrence, rarely occur singularly; more often
they occur in groups.
12. Which of the following about drag fold is
not true?
a) The axes of the drag folds are parallel to
those of the major folds
b) The drag folds plunge in the same manner as
the major folds
c) The layers on the upper side of the drag folds
slide away from the synclinal axis
d) The axes of the drag folds are not parallel to
those of the major folds
Explanation: It has been established that the
drag folds are parallel to those of the major
folds. Hence the last option is wrong. The
second and the third also true about drag folds.
This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Classification of Folds and Miscellaneous
Types”.
1. What is Orogeny?
a) Flat land building activity
b) River forming activity
c) Rock breaking activity
d) Mountain building activity
11. Folds which mostly occur in groups are
based on
a) Profile of the fold surface
b) Mode of occurrence
c) Plunge
d) Relative curvature
Explanation: The geosynclines serve as
depositional fields to which sediments are
derived by the erosion of adjoining geanticlines
and the sediments get accumulated and
compacted. This material is then compressed
and uplifted in the second stage of orogeny,
which is the mountain building activity, to
gradually take the shape of mountain systems.
2. The fold associated with magmatic activity is
a) Anticlinorium
b) Synclinorium
c) Diapiric fold
d) Box fold
Explanation: Diapiric folds are anticlines or
domes in which uparching of strata is
attributed to the rising of viscous magma from
below.
3. A group of strata centrally centrally uplifted is
a) Dome
b) Basin
c) Valley
d) Cleavage
Explanation: Domes are a group of strata
centrally uplifted in such a way that seen from
the top, these dip away in all directions.
4. Pick the incorrect statement about basins.
a) Basins are the reverse of the domes
b) They are group of strata that are centrally
depressed
c) Group of strata that are centrally uplifted
d) Involved layers dip towards a common
central point from all sides
Explanation: Basins are a group of strata that
are centrally depressed in such a way that the
involved layers dip towards a common central
point from all the sides.
5. Which among the following is considered as
compound anticline?
a) Dome
b) Valley
c) Basin
d) Depression
Explanation: In any two cross sections drawn
mutually at right angles to each other in a
dome, a fold of anticlinal character will be seen
to emerge. As such, a dome may be considered
as a compound anticline.
6. Which is the fold depicting localized warping?
a) Homocline
b) Drag fold
c) Dome
d) Monocline
Explanation: A monocline is described as
essentially a localized warping in which case
otherwise horizontal strata show a single bend
for a limited length and attain the horizontal
attitude once again.
7. The fold which actually is just strata dipping
in some direction
a) Dome
b) Homocline
c) Monocline
d) Basin
Explanation: A homocline actually describes a
sequence of strata dipping in the same general
direction at a uniform angle, especially when
such structure is established to be a limb of
major fold.
8. All synclines and anticlines can be considered
to be homoclines. State true or false.
a) False
b) True
Explanation: An anticline or syncline of big
magnitude, for instance, will each show two
homoclines, one on either side of the hinge.
9. The folds which develop within body of
weaker rocks are
a) Viscous folds
b) Internal folds
c) Drag folds
d) Monocline
Explanation: Drag folds may be defined as
minor folds developed within the body of
incompetent or weaker rocks surrounded on
both sides by layers of competent or stronger
rocks.
10. Drag folds are folds within folds. State true
or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Drag folds are defined as the minor
folds which develop within the body of weaker
rocks which might have already been folded.
Hence it is possible to tell that drag folds are
the folds within folds.
11. Which fold is depicted by the figure below?
a) Drag fold
b) Homocline
c) Monocline
d) Dome
Explanation: The above figure can be observed
to be horizontal strata showing a single bend
for a limited length and attain the horizontal
attitude once again. This is nothing but
monocline.
12. What would the two cross sections drawn at
mutually right angle directions in a basin show?
a) Anticlinal characters
b) Synclinal characters
c) Both characters
d) Drag fold
Explanation: Unlike domes, two cross sections
drawn at mutually right angle directions in a
basin show clearly synclinal characters. Hence a
basin may be called a compound syncline.
This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Causes of Folding – 01”.
1. Pick the option which is not the cause of
folding.
a) Folding due to tangential tension
b) Folding due to tangential compression
c) Folding due to intrusions
d) Folding due to differential compression
Explanation: The various causes of folding that
are studied are, folding due to- tangential
compression, intrusions and differential
compression. Hence first option is not correct.
2. Bending or warping is studied under
a) Tectonic folding
b) Non-tectonic folding
c) Volcanic folding
d) Intrusional folding
Explanation: Folding may be either due to
tectonic causes or due to non-tectonic causes.
The tectonic folding of the rocks is bending or
warping of rocks due very conspicuously to
superficial processes.
3. The cause of folding which does not occur
due to the tangential stresses is
a) Flexural folding
b) Flexural creeping
c) Flowage folding
d) Shear folding
Explanation: Under the influence of tangential
stresses, folding may develop in either of the
three ways: flexural folding, flowage folding and
shear folding.
4. How does the thickness of the layer affect
flexural folding?
a) Thinner the layers, greater is the slip
b) Thicker the layers, lesser is the slip
c) Thicker the layers, greater is the slip
d) Has no effect
Explanation: Thickness of the layers and nature
of the contact are important factors on which
the amount of slip depends. Thicker the layer,
greater is the slip.
5. Which are the rocks more prone to flexural
slip?
a) Shale
b) Basalt
c) Soft clay
d) Limestone
Explanation: Types of the rocks involved:
siltstones, sandstones and limestones are more
prone to flexure slip folding compared to soft
clays and shales.
6. In which cause of folding, the thickness of
fold does not remain uniform?
a) Flexural folding
b) Shear folding
c) Flowage folding
d) Flexural tension
Explanation: During the compression due to
flowage folding, the material of the involved
layers behaves almost as a viscous or plastic
mass and gets buckled up and deformed at
varying rates suffering unequal distortion. In
such cases the thickness of the resulting fold
does not remain uniform.
7. Flowage folding occurs in which type of rocks
a) Competent rocks
b) Incompetent rocks
c) Any rock
d) Sedimentary rock
Explanation: Flowage folding is the principal
process of folding in incompetent or weaker,
plastic type of rocks such as clays, shales,
gypsum and rock salt etc.
8. How does the distance from hinge point
affect displacement due to folding?
a) Greater the distance, larger is the
displacement
b) Lesser the distance, larger is the
displacement
c) Doesn’t depend on the distance from hinge
point
d) Greater the distance, smaller is the
displacement
Explanation: Distance from hinge point is also
an important factor on which displacement of
folding depends. Greater the distance from the
hinge points, larger is the displacement.
9. Flexural folding is also called as “flexural-slipfolding”. State true or false.
a) False
b) True
Explanation: Flexural folding is also
distinguished as flexural-slip-folding in which
the slip or movement of the strata involved
takes place parallel to the bedding planes of the
layers.
10. The process of folding which causes fracture
in rocks initially is
a) Flexural folding
b) Flowage folding
c) Shear folding
d) Intrusion folding
Explanation: In many cases, folding is attributed
to shearing stresses rather than simple
compression. It is assumed that in such a
process, numerous closely spaced fractures
develop in the rock at the first stage of the
process.
11. Pick the wrong statement. The converging
plates may be
a) Two continental plates
b) A continental plate and an oceanic plate
c) A continental plate and an island plate
d) Two oceanic plates
Explanation: The converging plates may be- two
continental plates, a continental plate and an
oceanic plate or a continental plate and an
island plate but not two oceanic plate.
12. The displacement at the hinge point is
maximum. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Greater the distance from the
hinge points, larger is the displacement, so
much that it may be negligible at the hinge
point. Hence the statement above is not true.
This set of Engineering Geology Interview
Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on
“Causes of Folding – 02”.
1. Which rock is lifted up during the folding due
to intrusions?
a) Overlying metamorphic rocks
b) Overlying igneous rocks
c) Overlying sedimentary rocks
d) Overlying petroleum rocks
4. What is the reason for rock bursts?
a) Change in attitude of rocks
b) Shattering of rocks
c) Intense precipitation
d) Strained nature
Explanation: In magmatic intrusions, highly
viscous magma may be forced up gradually and
with considerable force so that sedimentary
host rocks overlying are lifted up to provide the
space for the rising magma.
Explanation: All the stresses that have acted on
the rocks during their folding are generally
absorbed by these rocks by undergoing strain.
Enough stored energy is released as soon as the
excavations are made and this leads to rock
bursts.
2. The process of folding which is considered to
be non-tectonic is
a) Differential compression
b) Tangential compression
c) Intrusions
d) Tangential tension
5. What is affected when the layers of
undesirable nature are encountered?
a) Project cost
b) Time schedule
c) Safety of the project
d) All the three are affected
Explanation: Folding due to differential
compression is totally dependent on the load
from above and are attributed to superficial
causes. These are, therefore, non-tectonic folds.
Explanation: Same layers may be repeated
along an alignment or one or more encountered
layers are of undesirable nature, the project
cost may be affected as also the time schedule
and safety of the project.
3. What is the indirect cause for warping or
folding?
a) Homogenous strata
b) Non-homogenous strata
c) Inclined strata
d) Curved strata
Explanation: If the strata in question is not
homogenous, the bending may not be uniform
in character and results in warping or folding of
different types.
6. Axial zones are the places of maximum
concentration of stresses. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Folding is the response of the rocks
to the stresses induced during the process.
These stresses are often strong enough to break
or shatter the rocks, especially in the axial
zones, which are the places of maximum
concentration of these forces.
7. Shattering makes the rocks
a) Non-porous
b) Impervious
c) Stronger
d) Pervious
Explanation: Shattering effect is of utmost
importance because shattered rocks become:
weak in strength parameters of all types;
porous and pervious in character.
8. The axial regions have to be avoided and
there is no alternative method to utilize the
place. State true or false.
a) False
b) True
Explanation: Axial regions should be thoroughly
studied and avoided if possible. If it is not
possible to avoid them, these areas must be
subjected to suitable processes of rock
treatment for developing in them desired
qualities of strength and imperviousness.
9. The process of folding which mainly causes
uparching is
a) Folding due to differential compression
b) Folding due to tangential shearing
c) Folding due to intrusions
d) Folding due to differential tension
Explanation: Intrusion of magma or even rock
salt bodies from beneath has been found to be
the cause of uparching of the overlying strata.
10. What is the cause for downward bending?
a) Differential compression
b) Differential shearing
c) Intrusions
d) Flowage folding
Explanation: Strata that are being compacted
under load in a basin of sedimentation develop,
with passage of time, downward bending
especially in the zones of maximum loading.
11. Which rock might undergo flowage folding?
a) Siltstone
b) Sandstone
c) Gypsum
d) Limestone
Explanation: Flowage folding is the principal
process of folding in incompetent or weaker,
plastic type of rocks such as clays, shales,
gypsum and rock salt etc.
12. At what angle is the primary lateral
compressive force said to act in tangential
compression?
a) 60° to the trend of the folds
b) 90° to the trend of the folds
c) 30° to the trend of the folds
d) 45° to the trend of the folds
Explanation: In general, the primary lateral
compressive force is believed to act at right
angles to the trend of the folds.
1. What are the fractures along which there has
been relative movement of blocks called?
a) Folds
b) Joints
c) Faults
d) Intrusions
Explanation: The definition of faults is “Those
fractures along which there has been relative
movement of the blocks past each other”. The
entire process of development of fractures and
displacement of the blocks against each other is
termed as faulting.
2. What is the key word in the definition of
fault?
a) Fracture
b) Movement
c) Both fracture and movement
d) Dip
Explanation: The key words in the definition are
fracture and movement. The exact significance
of these key words must be clearly understood.
3. For a rock structure to be called fault,
fracture has to happen but movement is not
necessary. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: There can be no fault if there is no
fracture surface or zone and also evidence of
some relative movement of the blocks against
each other is a must for qualifying that fracture
as a fault.
4. Faulting is a _________ process.
a) Tectonic
b) Non-tectonic
c) Both tectonic and non-tectonic
d) Precipitation
Explanation: Faulting is a major tectonic process
of great geological importance. The geological
history of the Earth bears innumerable events
recording in the script of folding, faulting and
jointing.
5. In which direction does displacement of
blocks happen?
a) Horizontal
b) Vertical
c) Inclined
d) Any direction
Explanation: The displacement of blocks created
in the rock due to faulting may take place in any
direction: parallel to the fault surface; in an
inclined manner or even rotational.
6. What is the angle that can be made by fault
plane with the horizontal?
a) Acute angle only
b) Obtuse angle only
c) Right angle
d) Any angle
Explanation: Fault planes may be vertical,
horizontal or inclined at any angle with the
horizontal.
7. What is the planar surface of fracture along
which relative displacement of bodies has taken
place called?
a) Fault plane
b) Fold plane
c) Stress plane
d) Strain plane
Explanation: Fault plane is the planar surface of
fracture along which relative displacement of
the blocks takes place during the process of
faulting. When it is not planar, the same surface
is simply described as fault surface.
8. What is the angle of fault plane with the
horizontal called?
b) Strike
c) Dip
d) Inclination
Explanation: The dip of the fault is its inclination
with the horizontal as measured in a vertical
plane at right angles to the strike of the fault.
9. Parameter(s) considered for dip is
a) Direction
b) Angle
c) Direction and angle
d) Neither direction nor angle
Explanation: The dip is measured both in terms
of direction of dip as well as angle of dip just as
in the bedding plane of strata.
10. What is hade?
a) Inclination of fault with horizontal
b) Inclination of fault with vertical
c) Inclination of fault with any strata
d) Bearing of the fault with ground
Explanation: The hade of the fault is the angle
which the fault makes with the vertical. In other
words it is the complimentary to the dip angle.
11. What is the bearing of a line of intersection
of fault plane and horizontal called?
a) Strike
b) Dip
d) Intersection line
Explanation: The strike of the fault is the
bearing or geographical direction of a line
obtained by intersection of a horizontal plane
with the fault plane.
This set of Engineering Geology Questions and
Answers for Experienced people focuses on
“Fault Terminology – 02”.
1. A fault has how many walls?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Explanation: In faults, the concept of walls is
very important and must be understood very
clearly. In a rock body, when a fracture takes
place, it divided the rock into two parts or two
blocks.
2. It is easy to locate older and major folds.
State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: It may be easy to locate fault
planes or fault surfaces in small scale and in
rather recent faults. In older and especially
major faults spreading over miles of area,
however, extensive field work including drilling
or subsurface investigations using geophysical
methods may be required to determine these
structures.
in fault plane, the wall under their feet would
be foot wall whereas the other block would
hang above their heads.
3. What is the block which suffer displacement
in faulting called?
a) Walls
b) Parts
c) Sections
d) Blocks
6. What is a small region with definite thickness
and distinct composition having numerous
closely placed parallel fractures called?
a) Shear zone
b) Fault zone
c) Fracture zone
d) Slikensides
Explanation: The blocks which suffer
displacement and stand on either sides of the
fracture are called as walls. Generally there
exist two types of walls, hanging wall and foot
wall.
4. The block which lies on the under surface of
fault plane or zone is called
a) Hanging wall
b) Sub-wall
c) Foot wall
d) Lower wall
Explanation: The term foot wall is used for that
faulted block which lies on the under surface of
the fault plane or zone.
5. Who coined the terms “hanging wall” and
“foot wall”?
a) Scientists
b) Geologists
c) Engineers
d) Miners
Explanation: Actually the terms “hanging wall”
and “foot wall” have been coined by the
miners: while traversing along a track excavated
Explanation: Fault zone is a small region with
definite thickness and distinct composition
having numerous closely placed parallel
fractures within itself along which there have
been clear displacements.
7. What is the nature of displacement in shear
zone?
a) Ductile
b) Brittle
c) Malleable
d) Sonorous
Explanation: The displacements in shear zones
are generally ductile in nature compared to
brittle fracturing in simple faults or fault zones.
8. Identify the part labelled as “A” in the figure
below.
d) Oblique slip
Explanation: The slip is further distinguished on
the basis of direction of displacement with
respect to the fault as dip-slip, strike-slip or
oblique slip. Hade slip is not one such.
a) Shear zones
b) Fracture zone
c) Fault zone
d) A-zone
Explanation: We can observe numerous parallel
placed fractured blocks in the shown region and
this is possible in a fault zone. The picture
depicts fault zone with distinct thickness and
closely placed parallel fractures.
9. Slip is expressed in terms of
a) Millimetres
b) Metres
c) Kilometres
d) All the three
Explanation: The slip is defined as a relative
displacement of any points that were formerly
contiguous to each other, as measured along
the fault plane. It may be expressed in
millimetres, metres or even kilometres.
10. The type of slip not considered for study is
a) Strike slip
b) Dip slip
11. What is the vertical component of dip
separation called?
a) Offset
b) Throw
c) Heave
d) Strike gap
Explanation: Throw is the vertical component of
the dip separation measured in the direction
perpendicular to the strike of the fault in a
vertical plane.
This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Fault
Terminology – 03”.
1. Heave is _______
a) Horizontal component of dip separation
b) Vertical component of dip separation
c) Normal horizontal displacement measured
d) Signifying separation between two beds
Explanation: Heave is the horizontal component
of dip separation measured in a direction
perpendicular to the strike of the fault in a
vertical plane.
2. What signifies actual separation between two
beds?
a) Throw
b) Offset
c) Heave
d) Stratigraphic throw
d) Shale
Explanation: Stratigraphic throw signifies actual
separation between two beds with known
stratigraphical position in a sequence of rocks
that are now brought into contact by faulting.
Explanation: Mylonite is also called as microbreccia and is similar to fault breccia but
contains very fine-grained broken particles from
the involved rocks that get thoroughly
cemented and compacted.
3. What is the term related to slickensides and
used to express angular relationship?
a) Rake
b) Tweak
c) Slick
d) Offset
6. The finely pulverized, clay-like powdered rock
material is
a) Gouge
b) Fault breccia
c) Mylonite
d) Illite
Explanation: Rake is a term related to
slickensides in faults. It is used to express the
angular relationship of slickensides or some
other line with the fault plane.
Explanation: Gouge is finely pulverized, clay-like
powdered rock material, which occurs at or
near the base of the faulted zones.
4. Pick the term which is not a crushed material.
a) Gouge
b) Fault breccia
c) Kaolynite
d) Mylonite
Explanation: Rubbing and mutual shearing of
blocks during faulting, especially in brittle rocks,
often produces typical crushed materials from
the involved blocks that are useful indicators of
faulting in that region. The most common and
important products are: Gouge, Fault breccia
and Mylonite.
5. What is also called as Micro breccia?
a) Gouge
b) Mylonite
c) Kaolynite
7. The evidence of slickensides is easily
observed in old faults. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: The evidence of slickensides may
be expected only on the recently faulted
surfaces because in the old faults such an
evidence is more likely to be removed by
subsequent weathering.
8. Identify the type of slip from the figure
below.
Explanation: The part “A” is clearly bearing the
evidence of frictional rubbing against each
other suffered by them during the process of
displacement due to faulting. Hence it is
showing slickensides.
a) Strike slip
b) Dip slip
c) Oblique slip
d) Throw slip
Explanation: The displacement has essentially
taken place along the dip of the fault. Hence the
figure represents dip slip.
9. Identify the part labelled as “A” in the figure
below.
10. Gouge and fault breccia are both in finely
powdered form. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Gouge is the finely powdered form
but faulted breccia is not. Faulted breccia is
crushed angular, fragmentary material
produced during faulting, especially when the
rocks are brittle and hard.
11. Identify the region marked as “OP2”.
a) Slip
b) Throw
c) Heave
d) Strike
Explanation: Heave is the horizontal component
of dip separation measured in a direction
perpendicular to the strike of the fault in a
vertical plane.
This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Classification of Faults – 01”.
a) Throw
b) Slickensides
c) Heave
d) Offset
1. Which type of classification emphasises on
appearance?
a) Based on direction of slip
b) Based on apparent movement
c) Based on mode of occurrence
d) Based on amount of dip of the fault
d) Strengthening of crust
Explanation: The emphasis in the case of faults
based on apparent movement as basis is only
on appearance because actually it may require
to be established which of the two parts,
hanging wall and the foot wall, has moved
during faulting and by how much.
Explanation: Due to the inclines nature of the
fault plane and downward displacement of a
part of the strata, normal faults cause an
extension in the crust wherever they occur.
2. Type of fault not considered under apparent
movement as basis is
a) Normal fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Hinge fault
d) Strike fault
Explanation: The various faults under apparent
movement as basis are, normal faults, reverse
faults, hinge faults and strike-slip faults. Strike
faults is not studied under this basis.
3. Fault in which hanging wall has apparently
moved down with respect to foot wall is
a) Normal fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Strike-slip fault
d) Hinge fault
Explanation: Normal fault is a fault in which
hanging wall has apparently moved down with
respect to foot wall.
4. What do the normal faults cause to the crust
of the Earth?
a) Shortening of crest
b) Cracking of crest
c) Extension in the crust
5. It can be with certainty whether it was the
hanging wall which moved down or the foot
wall which moved up. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Nothing can be said with certainty
whether it was the hanging wall which moved
down or the foot wall which moved up or both
the walls moved down, the hanging wall moving
more than the foot wall and hence the
appearance.
6. Most common angle of normal faults is
a) 30° to 45°
b) 45° to vertical
c) 60° to horizontal
d) 0° to 180°
Explanation: In normal faults, the fault plane
may be inclines at any angle between horizontal
and vertical, but most commonly, the fault
angles are between 45° and vertical.
7. What is the other name for normal faults?
a) Uniform faults
c) Similar faults
d) Gravity faults
Explanation: Normal faults are also often
termed as gravity faults especially when it is
established that the hanging wall has actually
moved down with respect to the foot wall.
appears raised high up with respect to the
sides, the outstanding structure is called a
horst.
8. Alps in an example of which type of fault?
a) Graben
b) Horst
c) Hinge fault
d) Vertical fault
11. Block mountains are caused by which type
of faults?
a) Horst
b) Graben
c) Thrust
d) Nappes
Explanation: Numerous small and big examples
of horsts are found in major mountain systems
such as Alps, Central Europe and East Africa.
9. Horst and graben are physiographic features
of which type of faults?
a) Normal faults
b) Reverse faults
c) Thrust faults
d) Strike-slip faults
Explanation: Horst and graben are the
physiographic features caused by normal faults
occurring in pairs.
10. The type of fault which appears in such a
way that the central wedge appears raised high
up with respect to the sides is
a) Graben
b) Horst
c) Nappe
d) Thrust
Explanation: When two normal faults appear on
either side of a central wedge shaped elongated
block in such a way that the central wedge
Explanation: Sometimes the horsts may be high
and extensive enough to be called a Block
mountain. In many horsts, the border faults are
almost parallel in strike and very high angled.
12. Which fault is the reverse of horst?
a) Reverse fault
c) Graben
d) Hinge fault
Explanation: Graben is almost the reverse of a
horst in structure and appearance. A graben
may be described as an elongated wedge
shaped central block, which appears to have
moved downward with respect to the side
blocks along two downward converging normal
faults.
This set of Engineering Geology Interview
Questions and Answers for Experienced people
focuses on “Classification of Faults – 02”.
1. Horsts and grabens are believed to occur due
to
a) Lateral compression
b) Shear compression
c) Lateral tension
d) Bending
Explanation: The origin of horsts and grabens is
believed to be due to lateral tension in the crust
in most cases.
2. Faults involving extensive blocks and
resulting in horsts and grabens are called
a) Extensive faults
b) Block faults
c) H-B faults
d) Vertical faults
Explanation: Reverse fault is such a type of fault
in which the hanging wall appears to have
moved up with respect to the foot wall.
5. The fault in which the fault plane is generally
inclined between 45° and horizontal is
a) Reverse fault
b) Normal fault
c) Strike-slip fault
d) Enechelon fault
Explanation: Faults involving extensive blocks
and resulting in horsts and grabens are often
called as block faults and the process as block
faulting.
Explanation: In reverse faults, the fault plane is
generally inclined between horizontal and 45
degrees although reverse faults with steeply
inclined fault surfaces have been also
encountered.
3. Faults in which the fault plane is vertical and
the resulting movement is vertical is
a) Vertical faults
b) Straight faults
c) Reverse faults
d) Enecholon faults
6. What does the reverse fault cause to the
crust of the Earth?
a) Extension of the crust
b) Strengthening of the crust
c) Weakening of the crust
d) Shortening of the crust
Explanation: Faults in which the fault plane is
vertical or nearly so and the resulting
movement of blocks is also in a vertical
direction are termed as vertical faults. It is
customary to group vertical faults along with
normal faults while discussing their origin.
Explanation: By virtue of their inclination and
direction of movement, reverse faulting
involves shortening of the crust of the crust of
the Earth (compared with normal faults).
4. In which fault the hanging wall appears to
have moved up with respect to the foot wall?
a) Normal fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Hinge fault
7. Thrust faults belong to which variety of
faults?
a) Normal faults
b) Reverse faults
c) Strike-slip faults
d) Hinge faults
Explanation: Thrust faults are, broadly speaking,
such varieties of reverse faults in which the
hanging wall has moved up relative to the foot
wall.
8. What is the fault angle of the thrust faults?
a) More than 45°
b) Less than 45°
c) Lesser than 60°
d) More than 90°
Explanation: Thrust faults are the types of
reverse faults in which the hanging wall has
moved up relative to the foot wall and the
faults dip at angles below 45 degrees. Faults
dipping above 45 degrees with hanging wall
having gone up are then called as reverse faults.
9. The type of thrust in which the hanging wall
seems to have been actively and actually
displaced with respect to a passive foot wall is
called
a) Under thrust
b) Over thrust
c) Upper thrust
d) Intermediate thrust
Explanation: Thrusts are further distinguished
into two sub-types: The over thrusts and the
under thrusts. In the over thrusts, the hanging
wall seems to have been actively and actually
displaced with respect to a passive foot wall.
10. Which mountain range presents example of
thrust faults?
a) The Alps
b) The Andes
c) The Rockies
d) The Himalaya
Explanation: The Himalayan Mountains in the
Indian sub-continent present numerous
examples of thrust faults developed all along its
extension from northwest to southeast.
11. What is the term used for blocks or rocks
that have been translated to great distances?
a) Thrusts
b) Imbricate structures
c) Nappes
d) Enecholon
Explanation: Nappes is the term used for
extensive blocks of rocks that have been
translated to great distances, often ranging to
several kilometres, along a thrust plane.
12. The term which studied under faults but
also is associated with folding is
a) Nappes
b) Thrusts
d) Graben
Explanation: The large-scale movement of
nappes may be attributed to a major thrusting
or a recumbent folding followed by thrust
faulting.
This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Classification of Faults – 03”.
1. The phenomenon not associated with
imbricate structures is
a) Series of thrust blocks occur in close
proximity
b) Thrust blocks are piled up one above another
c) All fault surfaces dip in the same direction
d) Thrust blocks aren’t piled up one above
another
Explanation: When a series of thrust faults
occur in close proximity, thrust blocks are piled
up one above another and all the fault surfaces
dip in same direction. The resulting interesting
structure is known as an imbricate structure.
2. In the Himalayan Mountains, many well
defined nappe zones have been recognized.
State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: In the Himalayan Mountains, many
well defined nappe zones have been recognized
among which may be mentioned the Kashmir
Nappe, the Nappe zone of Shimla Himalayas
and the Nappes of the Garhwal Himalayas.
3. Most common term used for strike-slip faults
is
a) Slip fault
b) Transform fault
c) Tranlational fault
d) Hinge fault
Explanation: There are some other terms used
for strike slip faults such as lateral faults,
transverse faults, wrench faults and transform
faults. Of these, the transform faults are very
common and denote strike slip faults specially
developed in oceanic ridges.
4. The type of fault where the faulted blocks
have been moved against each other in
horizontal direction is
a) Reverse fault
b) Hinge fault
c) Strike-slip fault
d) Vertical fault
Explanation: Strike-slip faults are defined as the
faults in which faulted blocks have been moved
against each other in an essentially horizontal
direction. The fault plane is almost vertical and
net slip may be measured in great distances.
5. Which fault is developed in oceanic ridges?
a) Wrench faults
b) Transform faults
b) Lateral faults
c) Transverse faults
Explanation: The transform faults are very
common and denote strike slip faults specially
developed in oceanic ridges.
6. San Andres fault is the best example of which
type of fault?
a) Strike-slip fault
b) Vertical fault
c) Normal fault
d) Reverse fault
Explanation: The best example of a strike-slip
fault is the great San Andres fault of California.
It extends for almost about 1000 km in a NW-SE
direction.
7. Identify the type of fault from the figure
below.
9. What are pivotal faults called as?
a) Reverse faults
c) Hinge faults
d) Normal faults
Explanation: Hinge faults are also called as
pivotal or rotational faults. A hinge fault is
characterised by a movement of the disrupted
blocks along a medial point called the hinge
point.
a) Vertical fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Strike-slip fault
d) Hinge fault
Explanation: From the figure it is clear that the
hanging wall has moved up with respect to the
foot wall and hence clearly it is a reverse fault.
8. If the left block appears to have moved
towards the observer, then which type of fault
does it belong to?
a) Left-handed fault
b) Right-handed fault
c) Enecholon fault
Explanation: Strike-slip faults are further
distinguished into right handed or left handed
depending on the direction of movement of the
block with respect to an observer: it is a lefthanded fault if the left block appears to have
moved towards the observer and a right
handed fault if the right block seems to have
moved towards the observer.
10. The movement of blocks in hinge faults is
a) Translational
b) Rotational
c) Lateral
d) Sliding
Explanation: The movement in hinge fault, is
rotational rather translational.
11. Which is the rare type of fault?
a) Vertical fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Thrust fault
d) Hinge fault
Explanation: In hinge faults, the amount of
displacement increases away from the hinge
point. These are rather rare type of faults.
12. What is the displacement range of strata in
San Andres fault?
a) 10 km to 100 km
b) 20 km to 80 km
c) 50 km to 200 km
d) 100 km to 500 km
Explanation: The strata is believed to have
suffered displacement varying between 50 km
to 200 km in the San Andres fault in California.
This set of Engineering Geology test focuses on
“Classification of Faults – 04”.
1. The fault not belonging to the classification of
fault with attitude of fault as basis
a) Heave fault
b) Strike fault
c) Dip fault
d) Oblique fault
Explanation: The mutual relationship of attitude
of fault and of the disrupted rock has also been
used in some cases for classifying faults into
three types: dip faults, strike faults and oblique
faults.
2. Faults that are developed along bedding
planes are
a) Strike faults
b) Dip faults
c) Bedding faults
Explanation: Sometimes he faults are developed
along the bedding planes; in such cases they are
aptly called bedding faults.
3. The fault where fault strike is parallel to the
dip of the layers broken and disrupted by the
fault
a) Dip faults
b) Strike faults
c) Oblique faults
Explanation: Dip faults are the faults which
develop parallel to the dip of the strata. In other
words, the fault strike is parallel to the dip of
the layers broken and disrupted by the fault.
4. The fault which is also called as diagonal fault
is
a) Wrench fault
b) Transform fault
c) Oblique fault
d) Dip fault
Explanation: Oblique faults are sometimes
called diagonal faults. In such a fault, the fault
strike makes an oblique angle with the strike of
the rocks in which it has caused the
displacement.
5. The type of fault which is observed in both
continental and oceanic environment is
a) Strike-slip fault
b) Dip fault
c) Oblique fault
d) Wrench fault
Explanation: Strike-slip faults are the most
important and widely developed faults in the
crust of the earth, which have been observed
both on the continental and oceanic
environments.
6. Which is the type of strike-slip fault in which
the fault plane has developed transverse to the
regional structure?
a) Transform fault
b) Wrench fault
c) Translational fault
d) Tear fault
Explanation: Wrench fault is a strike slip fault in
origin in which the fault plane has developed
transverse to the regional structure and even
the net slip has taken place in the same
manner.
7. Transverse fault is the other name for
__________ fault.
a) Transform fault
b) Tear fault
c) Wrench fault
d) Normal fault
Explanation: The dip of the wrench fault is very
steep nearly vertical. These are also sometimes
referred as transverse faults.
Explanation: Enechelon faults may be defined as
a group of small sized faults that overlap each
other in the region of their occurrence. A
second fault appears on the surface at a
distance before the first fault ends and so on.
10. Group of faults which appear emerging
outward from a common central region are
called
a) Enechelon faults
b) Parallel faults
c) Peripheral faults
Explanation: A group faults that appear
emerging outward from a common central
region are classified as radial faults. The area is
divided into blocks with inwardly tapering ends.
8. Where do the transform faults occur
extensively?
a) Continental blocks
b) Oceanic ridges
c) Island blocks
d) Volcanic ridges
Explanation: Transform faults are strike-slip
faults occurring in oceanic ridges on an
extensive scale.
Explanation: In some cases, the intervening
blocks are down thrown in the same general
direction so that viewed from one side, the
group gives a step-like appearance in the
structure. These are then called step faults.
9. Identify the group of small sized faults from
the following.
a) Parallel faults
b) Enechelon faults
c) Peripheral faults
11. Parallel can sometimes lead to step faults.
State true or false.
a) True
b) False
12. The type of fault not belonging to the
classification based on the mode of occurrence
is
a) Parallel fault
b) Peripheral fault
c) Enechelon fault
d) Wrench fault
developed parallel to the strike of the outcrops.
These faults produce, besides other changes,
two pronounced effects on the outcrops
repetition and omission of strata.
Explanation: Wrench fault is classification with
slip as basis whereas, parallel fault, peripheral
fault, enechelon fault are based on the mode of
occurrence.
3. When the downthrow is against direction of
the bed, it leads to
a) Omission
b) Repetition
c) Extension
d) Weakening
This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Effects of Faulting”.
1. What is the effect of faulting on outcrop?
a) Changes in the elevation of the ground
b) Omission of some strata where they are
normally expected
c) Repetition of some strata in a given direction
d) Changes in elevation, omission of some
strata, repetition of some strata
Explanation: Faulting is essentially a process of
rupturing and displacement along the plane of
rupture. Its effects may involve- changes in the
elevation of the ground, omission of some
strata where they are normally expected,
repetition of some strata in a given direction
and displacements and shifts in the continuity
of the same rocks in certain regions.
2. What is the effect of strike faults to the
strata?
a) Extension
b) Repetition
c) Omission
d) Repetition and repetition
Explanation: Strike faults are those, which are
Explanation: Repetition of the strata occurs,
when the downthrow is against the direction of
the dip of the bed in which faulting has taken
place.
4. When the downthrow is _____________
direction of the dip, it leads to omission.
a) Parallel to
b) Against
c) Inclined at certain angle
d) Doesn’t depend on downthrow
Explanation: Omission of the strata takes place
in a strike fault when the downthrow is parallel
to the direction of slip of the faulted bed.
5. What has to be studied at first to tell about
the effects with certainty?
a) Aerial photographs
b) Globe
c) Geological maps
d) Topographical photographs
Explanation: It is only after the study of
geological maps that existence of faults at the
first place and their effects on the rocks may get
established with some certainty.
6. Dip fault leads to
a) Horizontal shift
b) Vertical shift
c) Inclined shift
d) Outburst
Explanation: In dip faults which occur parallel to
the dip of the outcrop, the most prominent
effect observed after faulting and erosion of the
upthrown block is horizontal shift between the
two parts of the outcrop.
7. Which fault causes offset?
a) Normal fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Oblique fault
d) Dip fault
Explanation: Oblique faults cause an offset in
the sequence, which is associated with either a
gap or an overlap depending upon the
downthrow direction.
8. Gap or overlap depends upon
a) Upthrow direction
b) Downthrow direction
c) Heave
Explanation: Oblique faults cause an offset in
the sequence, which is associated with either a
gap or an overlap depending upon the
downthrow direction.
9. What will result in an offset with overlap?
a) Downthrow to left side
b) Upthrow to left side
c) Downthrow to right side
d) Upthrow to right side
Explanation: Oblique faults with downthrow to
the left side result in an offset with an overlap.
10. What will result in an offset with gap?
a) Downthrow to left side
b) Upthrow to left side
c) Downthrow to right side
d) Upthrow to right side
Explanation: Oblique faults with downthrow to
the right side result in an offset with a gap.
11. Effects of faults in different types of folded
strata is same as dipping strata. State true or
false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: The effects of faults on different
types of folded sequence is broadly the same as
in plainly dipping strata. But with changes in the
altitude of the faults or that of rocks, quite
complicated results may be seen.
12. What is the effect of faults on topography?
a) Fault gaps
b) Crust extension
c) Fault scarps
d) Crevices
Explanation: One of the main effects of the
faults on topography is that they very often
result in the development of distinct types of
steep slopes which are aptly called fault scarps.
Explanation: In the fault-line scarp, the relief is
produced due to process of unequal erosion
along the fault line with the passage of time.
13. The type of scarps not considered under
study is
a) Fault scarps
b) Dip scarps
c) Fault-line scarps
d) Composite-fault scarps
Explanation: Three types of fault associated
scarps are often recognized: fault scarps, faultline scarps and composite-fault scarps.
14. The fault which is result of both fault scarps
and fault-line scarps is
a) Compound-fault scarps
b) Composite-fault scarps
c) Dual-fault scarps
d) By-fault scarps
Explanation: When a given slope is believed is
believed to be the result of both of these
processes, fault scarp and fault-line scarp, the
scarp is of composite type, and is called
composite-fault scarp.
15. The type of scarp involving erosion is
a) Fault scarp
b) Fault-line scarp
c) Composite-fault scarp
d) Dip-fault scarp
This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Recognition of Faulting”.
1. What is the criteria for a covered surface to
be said a fault?
a) Polished surface
b) Grooves
c) Striations
d) Polished surface, grooves and striations
Explanation: An exposed or covered surface
may be suspected of being a faulted surface if it
polished, and carries grooves and striations.
2. What is the reason for abrupt termination?
a) Breaking of strata into blocks
b) Movement of the disrupted blocks away
from each other
c) Breaking of strata into blocks and movement
of disrupted blocks away from each other
d) Movement of the disrupted blocks towards
each other
Explanation: A group of beds or some veins or
dykes may abruptly terminate along a surface in
a given region. This may generally be due to
breaking of the strata into blocks and
movement of the disrupted blocks away from
each other.
3. What is indicative of faulting?
a) Repetition
b) Omission
c) Repetition and omission
d) Cracking
Explanation: When in the field the same layer or
rock is encountered more than once in a certain
section, that is, it is repeated in space, faulting
is indicated. Similarly, omission of certain of
beds in some directions as proved by thorough
study of stratigraphy of the region, is also
indicative of faulting.
4. Disruption of beds due to faulting results in
their
a) Displacement
b) Settling
c) Inclination
d) Change in their composition
Explanation: Disruption of the beds due to
faulting generally results in their displacement,
which may be determined in terms of slip,
separation, offset and gap etc.
5. What kind of evidence the physiographic
features provide?
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Certain
d) Uncertain
Explanation: Some physiographic features may
serve as indirect evidence of faults. Among
them, the most important are: aligned springs
and offset streams.
6. The important physiographic evidence
studied is
a) Aligned spring
b) Offset stream
c) Mountain range
d) Offset stream and aligned spring
Explanation: Some physiographic features may
serve as indirect evidence of faults. Among
them, the most important are: aligned springs
and offset streams.
7. The resistance to stresses of rocks depend
upon
a) Cohesive strength only
b) Internal friction only
c) Cohesive strength and internal friction
d) Hardness
Explanation: Any rock on or below the crust
may withstand all the operating stresses up to a
limit, which depends upon its cohesive strength
and internal friction.
8. When are the normal stresses formed?
a) Maximum stress is horizontal
b) Maximum stress is vertical
c) Maximum stress is inclined at certain angle
other than right angle
d) Intermediate stress is vertical
Explanation: In highly oversimplified situation,
the type of fault likely to form is related to
stress field operating in a given area. Thus,
talking in terms of the three principal stresses,
normal faults would form when, the maximum
stress is vertical.
9. What is the assumed nature of the rock for
the study?
a) Isotropic
b) Anisotropic
c) Uniform
d) Non-uniform
Explanation: a
Explanation: In all the idealized situations, it is
assumed that the rocks are isotropic in
character and the Mohr-Coulomb Law of rock
failure holds good in those cases.
10. What is the cause for compressive force?
a) Vertical tension
b) Horizontal tension
c) Vertical compression
d) Shear
Explanation: Gravity or normal faults are
believed to be causes under the influence of
horizontal tension whereas thrust faults are the
result of compressive forces that may throw the
rocks into severe type of folding before actual
development of faults.
11. A fracture is formed perpendicular to the
axis plane of a fold. State true or false.
a) False
b) True
Explanation: A fracture is formed parallel to the
axis plane of a fold where the shearing strength
of the beds is overcome by the shearing
stresses responsible for the development of the
fold.
This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Engineering Considerations of Faults”.
1. What kind of joints do the faulted rocks
form?
a) Strong
b) Weak
c) Doesn’t change
d) Extended
Explanation: The faulted rocks will form weak
foundations and abutments for dam, despite
the fact that originally they might have been
strong and impervious.
2. When do the faulted and shear zones
become potential areas of further slip and
slides?
a) Dry
b) Lubricated
c) Weathered
d) Heavy winds
Explanation: Once the fault zones, shear zones
or fault surfaces become lubricated with water,
they become potential areas for further slips
and slides. They may create critical conditions.
3. Where should a site for a civil engineering
project be located?
a) On faulted zone
b) On a folded strata
c) On a joint
d) Must be avoided to possible extent to be
built on all three.
Explanation: As far as possible the location of a
civil engineering project must be avoided on a
fault or a fold or a joint. But when there is no
other choice, the same location can be treated
with necessary methods and then the project
can be implemented.
Explanation: Faults of any significance are
always associated with earthquakes. The
tectonic history of the area under consideration
must be known thoroughly.
4. What is not considered about the shear
zones?
a) Number
b) Size
c) Inclination
d) Appearance
7. What is recommended to be introduced to
the structures even on safe land?
a) Proper dimensioning
b) Proper planning
c) Use high quality materials
d) Factor safety
Explanation: The number, size and inclination of
the shear zones should be given top
consideration.
Explanation: Some factor of safety has to be
introduced in the building even though the
tectonic history indicates not movement of the
surface or plate. It is always recommended to
introduce factor of safety for high raised
buildings or even buildings which are built on
active seismic zones.
5. Bhakra dam in India showed which
occurrence?
a) Fault zones
b) Slickensides
c) Shear zones
d) Folds
Explanation: The embankment of the Bhakra
dam in India showed occurrence of numerous
shear zones in them; the site could not be
changed because of other reasons; hence it was
decided to treat the shear zones by extensive
excavations of the shear zones and back filling
with cement grouting.
6. What are faults associated with?
a) Volcanic activity
b) Precipitation
c) Earthquake
d) Folds
8. Studying tectonic history is basically like
knowing
a) Frequency of earthquake
b) Effects
c) Frequency, effects and magnitude
d) Cost for recuperation
Explanation: Study of tectonic history would
virtually mean obtaining information about
frequency of the earthquakes as also their
magnitude and effects that they have left from
time to time on the rocks of the region.
9. Gouge and breccia don’t create any problems
during construction. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Faulting products like gouge and
breccia create additional problems; the site has
to be cleared of them or taken below to the
sound bedrock.
3. State true or false. Joint is always
accompanied by opening.
a) True
b) False
This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on ”
Joints Terminology”.
Explanation: Joints may be open or closed.
Open joints are those in which the blocks have
been separated or opened up for small
distances. In closed joints, there is no such
separation.
1. What is responsible for jointing of rocks?
a) Genesis
b) Forces acting on the rock
c) Genesis and various forces acting on the rock
d) Precipitation
4. The open joints are gradually enlarged due to
a) Rains
b) Winds
c) Weathering
d) Sunlight
Explanation: We may find quite a large
proportion of outcrop of any of these rocks
practically free from joints at some places, but
at other places the same type of rock may be
heavily jointed, showing cracks of greater
variety. Hence it is not only genesis of the rocks
which responsible for these structures but also
the forces acting on them.
Explanation: Open joints are those in which the
blocks have been separated or opened up for
small distances in a direction at right angles to
the fracture surface. These may be gradually
enlarged by weathering processes and develop
fissures in the rocks.
2. Fractures along which there has been no
relative displacement is called
a) Faults
b) Joints
c) Folds
d) Intrusions
Explanation: Joints are defined as divisional
planes or fractures along which there has been
no relative displacement.
5. The type of joint usually found is
a) Open joints
b) Close joints
c) Open and close joints
d) Faulted joints
Explanation: There may be or may not be an
opening up of blocks perpendicular to the joint
planes. Hence the joints may be of open or
close nature.
6. When the joints are prominent and extending
for considerable depth they are called
a) Continuous joints
b) Discontinuous joints
c) Deep joints
d) Prominent joints
Explanation: The joints which are quite
prominent and extending for considerable
depth and thickness are called as continuous
joints.
7. What are the continuous joints also called?
a) Uniform joints
b) Normal joints
c) Prime joints
d) Master joints
Explanation: The continuous joints are also
called often as master joints. Almost all joints
are discontinuous in the strict sense because
these disappear with depth in the crust of the
earth.
8. The streaks or bands filling material in the
rocks are called
a) Colour pigments
b) Resins
c) Veins
d) Pores
Explanation: In many cases, open joints get
filled up by solutions of secondary materials
which crystallize or precipitate there forming
thin or thick streaks or bands of the filling
material. These are simply called veins.
9. When the thickness is greater than 20 cm,
the veins area called
a) Thick veins
b) Fissure veins
c) Joint veins
Explanation: The thin or thick filling material in
the joints of the rocks are called as veins when
thin and when their thickness exceeds 20 cm
they are called fissure veins.
10. Joints do not have dip and strike. State true
or false.
a) False
b) True
Explanation: Joints have dip and strike, the dip
being their inclination with the horizontal and
the strike being the direction of intersection of
a joint plane with a horizontal plane.
11. Pick the wrong statement.
a) A joint set is a group of joint surfaces
b) The surfaces trend in same direction
c) The surfaces have almost same dip
d) The joint surfaces do no trend in same
direction
Explanation: A joint set is a group of two or
more joint surfaces trending in the same
direction with almost the same dip.
12. Group of joint sets are called
a) Joint system
b) Joint group
c) Joint class
d) Joint collection
Explanation: A joint system is a group of two or
more joint sets. A joint set is a group of two or
more joint surfaces trending in same direction
with almost same dip.
1. The classification which is not considered
under study is
a) Spatial relationship
b) Number of joints
c) Geometry
d) Genesis
Explanation: Joints have been classified on the
basis of spatial relationships, geometry and
genesis.
2. The type of joint which can be measured and
mapped easily is
a) Systematic joints
b) Non-systematic joints
c) Irregular joints
d) Homogenous joints
Explanation: Systematic joints show a distinct
regularity in their occurrence which can be
measured and mapped easily.
3. Example of systematic joints are
a) Columnar joints
b) Mural joints
c) Sheet joints
d) Columnar and mural joints
Explanation: Systematic joints occur in parallel
or sub-parallel joint sets that are represented in
the rocks at regular intervals. The columnar
joints and the mural joints are examples of
regular or systematic jointing.
4. How many groups are classified based on
presence of regularities?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 4
Explanation: All joints are divided into two main
groups on the basis of presence or otherwise of
some regularity in their occurrence.
5. Which type of rocks are classified based on
geometry?
a) Pseudo-stratified
b) Stratified
c) Non-stratified
d) Anisotropic
Explanation: In stratified rocks, joints are
generally classified on the basis of relationship
of their attitude with that of the rocks in which
they occur.
6. How many types are further classified based
on geometry?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
Explanation: Under the classification based on
geometry, three types are recognized: Strike
joints, dip joints, oblique joints.
7. The type of joint not studied under the
geometry as basis is
a) Strike joints
b) Dip joints
d) Oblique joints
Explanation: Only three types of joints are
studied under the classification of joints on the
basis of geometry; strike joints, dip joints and
oblique joints. Hade joint is not a type of joint.
8. What is the other name for diagonal joints?
a) Dip joints
b) Strike joints
c) Sheet joints
d) Oblique joints
Explanation: Oblique joints are those joints
where the strike of the joints is at any angle
between the dip and the strike of the layers.
These layers are also called diagonal joints
when they occur midway between the dip and
strike of the layers.
9. Joints parallel to bedding planes are called
a) Strike joints
b) Bedding joints
c) Dip joints
d) Oblique joints
Explanation: In stratified rocks, some joints ma
develop essentially parallel to the bedding
planes. These are simply referred as bedding
planes.
10. Non-systematic joints occur at random in
the rocks. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Non-systematic or irregular joints
appear at random in the rocks and may have
incompletely defined surfaces. In many cases
these are related to the systematic joints in that
these occur between them.
This set of Engineering Geology Quiz focuses on
“Classification of Joints – 02”.
1. Joints running parallel to hinge lines are
called
a) Hinge joints
c) Bedding joints
d) Oblique joints
Explanation: In the folded regions, joint
orientation is conveniently described with
reference to the hinge of the fold. Joints
running parallel to hinge line are called radial
joints.
2. In which rock, joints may be classified on the
basis of their lineation?
a) Sedimentary
b) Igneous
c) Metamorphic
d) Igneous and metamorphic
Explanation: In igneous and metamorphic rocks,
the joints may be classified on the basis of their
geometric relations with planar structures of
those rocks such as lineation or cleavage.
3. Joints traverse linear structure right angles in
which type?
a) Q joints
b) S joints
c) B joints
d) T joints
Explanation: Cross or Q joints are the joints
which are traversing the linear structures at
right angles.
4. Which are the joints parallel to linear
structure?
a) Cross joints
b) Longitudinal joints
c) Alternate joints
d) Q joints
Explanation: Longitudinal or S joints, are the
joints traversing parallel to the linear structure.
In these rocks all the joint systems traversing at
any other angular inclination with the linear
structures are described as diagonal joints.
5. The joints developed due to tensile forces are
a) Tensile joints
b) Compressive joints
c) Shear joints
d) No particular name
Explanation: Tension joints are those, which
have developed due to the tensile forces acting
on the rocks. The most common location of
such joints in folded sequence is on the outer
margins of crests and troughs.
6. The type of joint occurring in igneous rocks
during cooling is
a) Shear joints
b) Tensile joints
c) Compression joints
d) Bend joints
Explanation: Tension joints are also produced in
igneous rocks during their cooling. Joints
produced in many rocks during the weathering
of overlying strata and subsequent release of
stresses by expansion are also thought to be
due to the tensile forces.
7. Which joints are located in axial regions in
the folded rocks?
a) Tension joints
b) Compression joints
c) Shear joints
d) T joints
Explanation: Shear joints are commonly
observed in the vicinity of fault planes and
shear zone where the relationship with shearing
forces is clearly established. In folded rocks,
these are located in axial regions.
8. The joints that are caused due to
compressive forces are called as
a) T joints
b) C joints
c) Longitudinal joints
d) Compression joints
Explanation: Rocks may be compressed to
crushing and numerous joints may result due to
the compressive forces in this case.
9. Compression joints usually occur in which
part of fault?
a) Crust
b) Mantle
c) Core
d) Margins
2. The type of regular joint not belonging to
igneous rocks
a) Sheet jointing
b) Box jointing
c) Mural jointing
d) Columnar jointing
Explanation: In the core regions of folds where
compressive forces are dominant, joints may be
related to the compressive forces.
Explanation: The three regular or systematic
types of joints observed in igneous rocks are:
sheet joints, mural joints and columnar joints.
10. Joints are not common and are very easy
structures to study in rocks. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
3. Which jointing gives layered sedimentary
structure appearance?
a) Sheet jointing
b) Mural jointing
c) Box jointing
d) Columnar jointing
Explanation: Joints are very common and at the
same time very complex structures in rocks.
This set of Engineering Geology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Occurrence of Joints”.
1. Tensile stresses in igneous rocks are
developed during
a) Cooling
b) Crystallisation
c) Cooling and crystallisation
d) Molten state
Explanation: The igneous rocks are formed by
cooling and crystallisation of hot molten
material called magma or lava. As such, in most
cases they show joint systems related to the
tensile stresses developing during the process
of cooling and crystallisation.
Explanation: In granites and other related
igneous rocks, a horizontal set of joints often
divides the rock mass in such a way as to give it
an appearance of a layered sedimentary
structure, called in this case as a sheeting
structure.
4. Sheet joints are caused not due to
b) Weathering
c) Removal of overlying rock mass
Explanation: Sheet joints are sometimes caused
due to weathering and removal of overlying
rock masses, which cause expansion of the
underlying igneous and other rocks as a
5. The geometrical distribution where rock mass
is divided into cubes is
a) Sheet jointing
b) Mural jointing
c) Columnar jointing
Explanation: Mural jointing is a sort of
geometrical distribution of joints dividing the
rock mass into cubical blocks or murals and
hence the name.
6. Types of joint found in volcanic igneous rocks
a) Sheet joints
b) Mural joints
c) Columnar joints
Explanation: Columnar joints are typical of
volcanic igneous rocks although they may also
be observed in other rocks.
7. Columnar joints are also called
b) Pyramid joints
c) Prismatic joints
d) Box joints
Explanation: Columnar joints are also called as
prismatic joints. The joints divide the rock mass
into polygonal blocks each block being bounded
by three to eight sides.
8. How are the main joints aligned to cooling
surface?
a) Perpendicular
b) Parallel
c) At 45°
d) At 30°
Explanation: Normally, the main joints are
vertical or perpendicular to the cooling surface
and may extend to varying depths ranging a few
centimetres to many metres.
9. How and what are the polygonal cracks
related to?
a) Directly related to compressive forces
b) Directly related to tensile forces
c) Inversely related to tensile forces
d) Directly related to shearing forces
Explanation: The polygonal cracks are thought
to be directly related to the tensile forces
developed during cooling (accompanied by
contraction) of hot molten material (lava).
10. The contraction is equally developed in all
directions in which kind of mass?
a) Non-homogenous
b) Isotropic
c) Anisotropic
d) Homogenous
Explanation: In a homogenous mass undergoing
uniform cooling throughout the surface,
contraction is equally developed in all
directions.
11. At what angle do the fractures appear to the
lines of tensile stresses?
a) 180°
b) 90°
c) 45°
d) 60°
Explanation: When the strength of the rock is
overcome, fractures appear at right angles to
the lines of tensile forces.
12. In sedimentary rocks, joints are genetically
related to those forces that have caused the
major structural deformation. State true or
false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Since sedimentary rocks are often
folded and faulted, the joints in them are
genetically related to those forces that have
caused the major structural deformations.
13. Joints in metamorphic rocks are due to
a) Indirect stresses
b) Local stresses
c) Regional stresses
d) Local and regional stresses
Explanation: The metamorphic rocks types are
heavily jointed in many cases, the joints being
of irregular or non-systematic types. These
joints are often the result of local and regional
stresses acting on rocks as a source of
metamorphism.
14. In mural jointing, one set is horizontal and
two sets are vertical. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: In granitic and other rock masses,
there may occur three sets of joints in such a
way that one set is horizontal and the other two
sets are vertical, all the three sets being
mutually perpendicular to each other.
1. The nature of sedimentary rock that can
undergo some irregular jointing is
a) Plastic in nature
b) Non-plastic in nature
c) Rich in moisture
d) Plastic in nature and rich in moisture
Explanation: Sedimentary rocks especially those
of plastic nature and rich in moisture in the
initial stage (clays, shales, limestones, dolomites
etc.) undergo some contraction on drying up
which might have resulted into irregular
jointing.
2. Contraction or shrinkage is the cause of
which joints?
b) Vertical joints
c) Sheet joints
d) Mural joints
Explanation: During the formation of igneous
rocks, tensile forces are developed in them due
to cooling and the force is strong enough to
cause joints. Such contraction or shrinkage is
generally, accepted to be the cause of the
vertical type of joints in granites and the so well
-known columnar joints of basalts and other
effusive rocks.
3. A single theory is enough to explain origin of
all types of joints. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Joints are caused in different rocks
due to different reasons. No single theory can
explain origin of all types of joints.
Explanation: The sheet joints of sedimentary
rocks and other rocks are attributed by many to
geological ages.
4. The wide range of temperature which vary in
arid climate is
a) -10° to 100° C
b) 10° to 80° C
c) -50° to 60°C
d) 50° to 60° C
7. What kind of impact do the joints have on
activities of engineering?
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) No impact
d) Positive and negative
Explanation: Repeated expansion and
contraction is characteristic of regions with dry
hot (arid) climates where day and night
temperatures on the one hand and summer and
winter temperatures on the other hand vary
within a very wide range of -50° to 60° C.
Explanation: Joints affect the properties of rocks
both in a negative as well as positive manner
with respect to the activities of a professional
civil and mining engineer.
5. Removal of overburden causes
a) Expansion
b) Contraction
c) Shrinkage
d) Rise
Explanation: Removal of overburden due to
weathering or other processes of rock wasting
may also cause expansion of the underlying
rocks get relaxed with the release of the forces.
6. Sheet joints in sedimentary rocks are
attributed to
8. What is/are related to jointed rocks?
a) Earthquakes
b) Landslides
c) Slope failures
d) Landslides and slope failures
Explanation: Many landslides and slope failures
are directly related to the jointed nature of the
rocks. This is due to instability of rocks in hilly
regions and the jointed rocks get easily
lubricated in presence of moisture and start
sliding or falling from their places.
9. First step of treatment of joints is
a) Grouting
b) Filling with chemicals
c) Detailed investigation
d) Installing devices
Explanation: Treating the negative qualities of
rocks due to joints will differ in different
projects. The first requirement in all cases is,
however, detailed investigations to establish full
characteristics of the joints.
10. What has to be located during investigation
with great care?
a) Macro joints
b) Fissures
c) Micro joints
d) Macro joints and micro joints
Explanation: Great care has to be exercised in
locating the presence, distribution patterns and
magnitude of micro joints that are typical of
many rocks. Such joints, if left unnoticed and
untreated, may widen after the construction of
the project and endanger its stability.
11. What is a positive effect of joints?
a) Instability in slopes
b) Groundwater
c) Oil reserves
d) Groundwater and oil reserves
Explanation: As regards the positive effects of
joints in rocks, these are greatly sought after in
the exploration for groundwater and oil
reserves in a given area. Only a well-jointed and
porous rock can form a good aquifer or a good
oil and gas reservoir.
12. Mineralisation takes place in jointed rocks.
State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Mineralisation with economically
valuable minerals from hydrothermal solutions
takes place in jointed rocks and fissures, which
are formed due to widening of joints.
1. Which of the following is not true about a
mineral?
a) Naturally occurring
b) Inorganic substance
c) Organic substance
d) Definite chemical composition
Explanation: A mineral, is defined as, a naturally
occurring inorganic solid substance that is
characterized with a definite chemical
composition and very often with a definite
atomic structure.
2. Mineralogy deals with
a) Individual properties of minerals
b) Formation of minerals
c) More of occurrence
d) Properties, formation and occurrence
Explanation: Mineralogy is the branch of
geology dealing the wide range of aspects
related to minerals like, their individual
properties, mode of occurrence and mode of
formation.
3. A colour is produced due to
a) Reflection
b) Refraction
c) Absorption
d) Reflection and absorption
Explanation: A particular colour is produced by
reflection of some and absorption of other
components of white light.
4. Colour of a mineral depends upon its?
a) Atomic structure
b) Outer surface
c) Composition
d) Atomic structure and composition
Explanation: A mineral shows colour of that
wavelength of the white light which is not
absorbed by it by virtue of its composition and
atomic structure.
5. Metallic minerals belong to which category
with respect to colour?
a) Idiochromatic
b) Pseudochromatic
c) Allochromatic
d) Iridescence
Explanation: Idiochromatic having a
characteristic, fairly constant colour related
primarily to the composition of mineral.
Metallic minerals belong to this category.
6. The type of mineral showing variable colour
is
a) Idiochromatic
b) Allochromatic
c) Iridescence
d) Pseudochromatic
Explanation: Allochromatic minerals have a
variable colour; the variety in colour is generally
due to minute quantities of colouring impurities
thoroughly dispersed in the mineral
composition.
7. The type of mineral which shows set of
colours in succession
a) Idiochromatic
b) Pseudochromatic
c) Allochromatic
d) Iridescence
Explanation: Pseudochromatic minerals show
false colour. Such an effect generally happens
when a mineral is rotated in hand; it is then
seen to show a set colours in succession.
8. Allochromatic minerals may show more than
two colours. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Many non-metallic minerals like
quartz, calcite, fluorine, tourmaline etc. may
occur in more than two colours depending on
the nature of impurities.
9. Pseudochromatism occurs due to
a) Reflection
b) Transmittance
c) Refraction
d) Simultaneous reflection and refraction
Explanation: Psuodochromatism is attributed to
simultaneous reflection and refraction from the
mineral surface due to minute inclusions of
impurities in the mineral at different locations.
10. The phenomenon due to which a mineral
shows rainbow colours is
a) Idiochromatism
b) Allochromatism
c) Iridescence
d) Pseudochromatism
Explanation: Some minerals may show rainbow
colours either in their interior or on the exterior
surface. This is called iridescence.
This set of Engineering Geology MCQs focuses
on “Physical Properties – 02”.
1. Colour changing phenomenon which involves
oxidation is
a) Tarnish
b) Iridescence
c) Allochromatic
d) Idiochromatic
Explanation: Tarnish nay be described as a
phenomenon of change of original colours of
mineral to some secondary colours at its
surface due its oxidation at the surface.
2. Lustre doesn’t depend on
a) Refractive index mineral
b) Absorption of mineral
b) Transmittance of mineral
d) Nature of reflecting surface
Explanation: Lustre depends on: refractive index
of the mineral, absorption capacity of the
mineral and nature of reflecting surface.
3. State true or false. Lustre is dependent on
colour.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Lustre is entirely independent of
colour of the mineral. A deeply coloured
mineral may be lustreless and vice-versa.
4. High density, high refractive index is
characteristic of
a) Non-metallic minerals
b) Metallic minerals
c) Semi-metallic minerals
d) Metalloid minerals
Explanation: Metallic lustres are characteristics
of high density, high refractive index and
opaque minerals like galena, pyrite and
chalcopyrite.
5. Type of shine or lustre associated with lustre
of diamond is
b) Metallic
c) Pearly
d) Vitreous
Explanation: Adamantine is the other name for
shine of diamonds. Very brilliant; the best
example is diamond.
6. Streak is an important diagnostic property of
a) Non-coloured minerals
b) Coloured minerals
c) Metallic minerals
d) Non-metallic minerals
Explanation: Streak is an important diagnostic
property of many coloured minerals. Simply
defined as the colour of the finely powdered
mineral as obtained by scratching or rubbing
the mineral over rough unglazed porcelain
plate.
7. Which mineral gives streak?
a) Coloured and translucent
b) Colourless and opaque
c) Coloured and opaque
d) Coloured and transparent
Explanation: Colourless and transparent
minerals will always give a colourless streak that
has no significance. The coloured and opaque
minerals, especially of ore groups, give typically
characteristic streaks quite different from other
similarly looking minerals.
Explanation: Hardness may be defined as the
resistance, which a mineral offers to an external
deformation action such as scratching,
abrasion, rubbing or indentation. Hardness of a
mineral depends on its chemical composition
and atomic constitution.
10. The scale of hardness is
a) Ritcher
b) Mohs
c) Ohm
d) Mho
Explanation: It was in 1822 that Austrian
mineralogist F.Mohs proposed a relative,
broadly quantitative “scale of hardness” of
minerals assigning values between 1 and 10.
8. The mineral which is almost black but gives
brown streak is
a) Magnetite
b) Garnet
c) Hornblende
d) Chromite
Explanation: Chromite and magnetite resemble
closely in their other physical properties: both
are almost black. These may be at once
distinguished by their streaks: brown for
chromite and black for magnetite.
Explanation: It must be remembered that
minerals of equal hardness scratch each other.
The best example is that, diamond cuts
diamonds.
9. Hardness of a mineral depends upon
a) Chemical composition
b) Atomic constitution
c) Chemical composition and atomic
constitution
d) Physical makeup
11. Minerals of equal hardness do no scratch
each other. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
1. Hardness of human nail varies between
a) 0.5 to 1.5
b) 3 to 4
c) 1.5 to 2.5
d) 2.5 to 3.5
Explanation: Some common materials have
been assigned hardness values according to
Mohs scale and may prove useful in
determination of hardness of an unknown
mineral quickly. Hardness of human finger nail
varies between 1.5 and 2.5.
2. Hardness is which kind of property?
a) Isotropic
b) Anisotropic
c) Homogenous
d) Non-homogenous
Explanation: Hardness is an anisotropic
property; a mineral may show different values
in different directions.
5. The tendency of a crystallized mineral to
break along certain directions yielding more or
less smooth, plane surfaces is
a) Tenacity
b) Hardness
c) Cleavage
d) Fracture
Explanation: Cleavage is defined as the
tendency of a crystallized mineral to break
along certain directions yielding more or less
smooth, plane surfaces. In other words,
cleavage are the planes easiest fractures, and
are essentially indicative of directions of least
cohesion.
3. How does hardness vary with
decomposition?
a) Increases with decomposition
b) Decreases with decomposition
c) Does not change
d) Either decreases or increases
6. Cleavage is described in terms of
a) Number of direction
b) Degree of perfect splitting
c) Degree of cracking
d) Degree of perfect splitting and number of
direction
Explanation: Hardness decreases on
decomposition of a mineral due to atmospheric
attack on the surface. Hence, it must be
checked on unweathered and unaltered
surfaces.
Explanation: Cleavage is described both in
terms of number of directions in which it is
observed on a mineral and also in terms of
degree of perfect splitting.
4. Hardness is a relative property. State true or
false.
a) True
b) False
7. The type of cleavage due to the mineral can
be split very easily is
a) Eminent cleavage
b) Distinct cleavage
c) Basal cleavage
d) Cubic cleavage
Explanation: Hardness is a relative property. If
talc has H=1 and Quartz H=7, it does not
indicate quartz is seven times harder than talc.
Explanation: In terms of perfection, the
cleavage is described as: eminent, perfect,
good, distinct and indistinct in that order. In
eminent cleavage, the mineral can be split very
easily yielding extremely smooth surfaces, e.g.,
in mica.
8. Mineral which shows parting is
a) Orthoclase
b) Calcite
c) Mica
d) Corundum
Explanation: Parting is a property of minerals by
virtue of which it can be split easily along
certain secondary planes. Best example of
parting can be seen in corundum where
cleavage may be absent but parting may be
very prominent.
9. Pick the wrong statement about fracture.
a) It is the broken surface of a mineral along
direction of cleavage
b) It is the broken surface of a mineral in a
direction other than that of cleavage
c) In some cases it becomes a characteristic
property of a mineral
d) Even and uneven are examples of fractures
Explanation: The appearance of the broken
surface of a mineral in a direction other than
that of cleavage is generally expressed by the
term fracture. In some cases fracture becomes
a characteristic property of a mineral.
10. The term which means, rough woody
fracture is
a) Uneven
b) Conchoidal
c) Splintry
d) Hackly
Explanation: When the mineral breaks with a
rough woody fracture resulting in rough
projection at the surface it is known as sprintly
fracture. Example, Kyanite.
11. The behaviour of a mineral towards the
forces that tend to destroy it is called
a) Hardness
b) Resistance
c) Tenacity
d) Crystal degree
Explanation: The behaviour of a mineral
towards the forces that tend to break, bend, cut
or crush it is described by the term tenacity.
1. The property of a mineral by virtue of which
it can be cut with a knife is
a) Parting
b) Sectile
c) Malleable
d) Ductile
Explanation: The behaviour of a mineral
towards the forces that tend to break, bend, cut
or crush it is described by the term tenacity.
Thus, when a mineral can be cut with a knife, it
is described as sectile.
2. Mica is
a) Flexible
b) Rigid
c) Flexible and elastic
d) Elastic
Explanation: Some minerals are not only flexible
but elastic, that is, they regain their shape when
the force applied on them is removed. Micas
are best example. Hence they are both flexible
and elastic.
3. When the mineral occurs in flattened or
square form, it is called
a) Tabular
b) Elongated
c) Batroidal
d) Box
Explanation: The mineral occurs in the form of a
flattened, square, rectangular or rhombohedral
shape if it is said to be tabular. In other words,
flattening is conspicuous compared to
lengthwise elongation.
4. Example for elongated structure is
a) Calcite
b) Beryl
c) Orthoclase
d) Barite
Explanation: When the mineral is in the form of
a thin or thick elongated, column-like crystals, it
is said to be elongated. Example, Beryl.
5. Kyanite shows which form?
a) Columnar
b) Elongated
d) Tabular
Explanation: The mineral appears as if
composed of thin, flat, blade-like overlapping or
juxtaposed parts, if it said to be bladed.
Example: Kyanite.
6. Structure or form which depicts leaf-like
sheets is
a) Foliated
b) Lamellar
d) Granular
Explanation: The mineral is made up of
relatively thick, flexible, leaf-like sheets, if it is
said to be lamellar. Example: Vermiculite.
7. Muscovite mica shows which structure?
a) Lamellar
b) Foliated
c) Fibrous
Explanation: The foliated structure is similar to
lamellar in broader sense but in this case the
individual sheets are paper thin, even thinner
and can be easily separated. Example:
Muscovite mica.
8. Identify the type of structure shown below.
a) Lamellar
b) Foliated
d) Granular
Explanation: The mineral is made up of needle
like or fibrous crystals which appear originating
from a common point thereby giving a radiating
appearance, if it is said to be radiating.
Example: Iron pyrites.
9. Chromite shows which type of structure?
a) Granular
b) Globular
c) Reniform
d) Mammillary
Explanation: The mineral occurs in the form of
densely packed mass of small garin-like crystals,
in the case of globular structure. Example:
Chromite.
10. Which form resembles human kidney?
a) Globular
b) Reniform
c) Granular
d) Mammillary
Explanation: Reniform is similar to globular but
the shape of the bulbs or projections resembles
to human kidneys. Example: Hematite.
11. Malachite shows which type of structure?
a) Reniform
b) Globular
c) Mammillary
d) Granular
Explanation: Mammillary is similar to globular
but the projections are conspicuous in size,
overlapping in arrangement and rounded in
shape, best example is malachite.
12. The SI unit of specific gravity is
a) Ohm
b) g/cc
d) N/cc
d) No unit
Specific gravity is the ratio between density of a
mineral and that of water at 4° Celsius. Since is
a ratio, it has no units.
1. The density range lies between 2.5 and 4.5
g/cc for
a) Metallic minerals
b) Non-metallic minerals
c) Metalloid minerals
d) Ore minerals
Explanation: The non-metallic minerals have
low values of density, ranging between 2.5 and
4.5 g/cc, whereas metallic minerals and ores
have densities as high as 20 g/cc.
2. Atoms of greater atomic radii show
a) Less density
b) Greater density
c) No difference
d) Doesn’t depend on atomic radii
Explanation: Minerals with atoms of greater
atomic radii show less density values compared
with those made of atoms of smaller atomic
3. Form in which neither a crystal face nor a
cleavage is seen is
a) Crystalline
b) Crystallized
c) Amorphous
d) Crystalline and crystallized
Explanation: Amorphous form is a form in which
neither a crystal face nor a cleavage is seen.
There is no evidence of orderly arrangement of
atoms in this form.
4. The minerals which develop electric charge
upon heating are called
a) Pyro-electric minerals
b) Piezo-electric minerals
c) Paramagnetic minerals
d) Diamagnetic minerals
Explanation: In some minerals an electric charge
may be developed by heating. These are called
pyroelectric minerals. Examples: Tourmaline,
boracite, quartz etc.
5. The Phenomenon where, electric charge
develops due to application of pressure is
a) Pyro-electric minerals
b) Piezo-electric minerals
c) Paramagnetic minerals
d) Diamagnetic minerals
Answer: In some minerals an electric charge is
developed by applying pressure. This group is
termed as piezo-electric. Examples: Tourmaline
and quartz.
6. How many minerals are present in the scale
of fusibility given by Von Kobell?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Explanation: A scale of fusibility has been
suggested by Von Kobell. It consists of six
minerals arranged according to temperature of
fusion. Stibnite, Natrolite, Alamandine,
Actinolite, Orthoclase and Bronzite.
7. Specific gravity of mineral changes with
temperature. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Since temperature and pressure
are both known to change volume of substance,
it follows that density will also show a change
when a mineral is subjected to elevated
temperature or high pressures.
8. Which of the following minerals can scratch
Topaz?
a) Corundum
b) Apatite
c) Gypsum
d) Quartz
Explanation: Only corundum can scratch topaz
because, all the other minerals given have
lesser Mohs number compared to topaz,
whereas topaz as hardness number 8 and
corundum has 9.
9. Streak colour and colour of the mineral are
always same. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: It follows that the colour of a
mineral may not be the same as its streak. For
identification, streak is relied upon more than
the colour of the mineral.
10. Which of the following mineral shows
phosphorescence?
a) Orthoclase
b) Calcite
c) Quartz
d) Galena
Explanation: Phosphorescence is similar to
fluorescence in essential character but in this
case light is emitted by mineral not during the
act of exposure but after the substance is
transferred rapidly to a dark place. Fluorite,
quartz, willemite and diamond show this
phenomenon.
11. Quartz shows which lustre?
a) Metallic
b) Vitreous
c) Pearly
d) Resinous
Explanation: Silky lustre is like the shine of pure
silk. Example: Gypsum.
1. Which mineral group is abundantly found in
the earth’s crust?
a) Mica group
b) Felspar group
c) Oxide group
d) Silicate group
Explanation: The felspars (The feldspars in
American technology) are the most prominent
group of minerals making more than fifty
percent, by weight, crust of the Earth up to a
depth of 30 km.
2. Felspar is found abundantly or in majority in
which kind of rock?
a) Igneous rocks
b) Sedimentary rocks
c) Metamorphic rocks
d) Fossil rocks
Explanation: Vitreous lustre is a type of lustre
which is typical of glass, ice etc. Example:
Quartz.
Explanation: Felspars occur chiefly, in the
igneous rocks (more than 60 percent) but also
occur in good proportion in the metamorphic
rocks. Felspars are also found in some
sedimentary rocks like arkose and greywacks.
12. Which among the following shows silky
lustre?
a) Quartz
b) Galena
c) Gypsum
d) Diamond
3. The chemical composition of the feldspar
group is
a) Oxide
b) Aluminates
c) Silicates
d) Aluminosilicates
Explanation: In chemical composition, felspars
are chiefly aluminosilicates (also referred as
alumosilicates) of Na, K and Ca with the
following general formula, WZ4O8, in which
W=Na, K, Ca and Ba and Z= Si and Al.
4. In the atomic structure, each oxygen atom is
shared by how many tetrahedra?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Explanation: At atomic level, the felspars show
a continuous three-dimensional network type
of structure in which the SiO4 tetrahedra are
linked at all the corners, each oxygen ion begin
shared by two adjacent tetrahedral.
5. The crystallographic system shown by felspar
group is
a) Monoclinic
b) Triclinic
c) Rhomboclinic
d) Monoclinic and triclinic
Explanation: The felspar group of minerals
crystallise only in two crystallographic systems:
Monoclinic and triclinic. Infact, the plagioclase
division of felspars crystallizes only in triclinic
system.
6. How many groups are the felspar minerals
classified into, on the basis of chemical
composition?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Explanation: Felspars are classified both on
basis of their chemical composition and also on
their mode of crystallization, Chemically,
felspars fall into two main groups: the potash
felspars and the soda lime felspars.
7. The felspar minerals are free from
a) Iron
b) Iron and manganese
c) Magnesium
d) Iron and magnesium
Explanation: The felspar group minerals are
generally light in colour, because of the absence
of Fe and Mg. The minerals have lower specific
gravity (generally around 2.6), have doubly
cleavage and a hardness varying between 6-6.5.
8. What is the chemical composition of
Orthoclase?
a) K Al O8
b) Ca Al Si3O8
c) K Al Si3 O8
d) Ca Al O8
Explanation: Orthoclase mineral has the specific
gravity around 2.56 to 2.58. Its chemical
composition is K Al Si3 O8 . It is the most
common and essential constituent of many
igneous rocks, especially granite.
9. What is the distinguishing characteristic of
microcline and orthoclase?
a) Colour
b) Streak
c) Chemical composition
d) Hardness
Explanation: Both orthoclase and microcline
have same colour but microcline gives white
streak whereas, orthoclase does not give any
streak. Chemical composition and hardness are
almost same for both the minerals.
10. Which of the following is not true about
plagioclase?
a) It is composed of K mainly
b) It is composed of either Na, Ca, or Al
c) It is of massive or crystalline structure
d) It gives 2 sets of cleavages
Explanation: Plagioclase is usually composed of
either Na or Ca or Al or combination of them. K
is present in orthoclase and not in plagioclase.
11. State true or false. Microcline can be easily
distinguished from orthoclase.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: The microcline mineral is not easily
distinguished in hand specimens from
orthoclase except when perfectly crystallized.
1. The mica group minerals show which
structure in the microscopic level?
a) Box structure
b) Sheet structure
c) Hexagonal structure
d) Columnar structure
Explanation: The micaceous cleavage is
explained by their atomic structure: they
constitute of SiO4 tetrahedra linked at three of
their corners and extending in two dimensions.
This is called sheet structure.
2. There is presence of eminent cleavage in
micas. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: The sheets are held together in
pairs by metallic ions. But the bond so resulting
due to the metallic ions is the weakest and
hence there is an eminent cleavage present in
the micas.
3. What percent of crust do the micas form
approximately?
a) 20%
b) More than 60%
c) 4%
d) 40%
Explanation: Micas are, besides felspars,
pyroxenes and amphiboles, very common rock
forming minerals forming approximately 4
percent of the crust of the Earth.
4. Which is the less important and more
important and less important minerals
crystallize respectively?
a) Triclinic and monoclinic
b) Monoclinic and triclinic
c) Monoclinic and rhombohedral
d) Rhombohedral and triclinic
Explanation: Most important members of the
Mica group crystallize in one system only:
Monoclinic system. Some less important
members crystallize in triclinic system.
5. What type of cleavage is shown by mica
group?
a) Perfect cubic cleavage
b) Perfect octahedral cleavage
c) Perfect basal cleavage
d) Prismatic cleavage
d) Any form
Explanation: The crystals of the mica group
show prism angles of 60° and 120°. Because of
atomic constitution, micas show excellent basal
cleavage.
9. What is the streak given by muscovite mica?
a) White
b) Black
c) Yellow
d) Colourless
6. Which mineral is flaky and black in
appearance?
a) Biotite mica
b) Muscovite mica
c) Diamond
d) Jaspar
Explanation: Biotite mica is flaky and black in
appearance and appears in the form of thin
sheets. They are usually translucent.
Explanation: Muscovite mica usually occurs in
the form of thin colourless sheets, as a mass
may appear pale yellow and is transparent.
Explanation: The colour of muscovite mica is
usually colourless to pale yellow but gives no
streak.
10. Pick the wrong statement about mica.
a) They have high hardness
b) They have low hardness
c) They are usually transparent to translucent
d) They are used as good electrical insulators
7. What is the other name of muscovite mica?
a) Black mica
b) Potash mica
c) Vitreous mica
d) Glossy mica
Explanation: The micas have low hardness of
about 2.5 to 3. Hence the first statement is
wrong. The rest of the statements about mica
hold good.
Explanation: The other name of muscovite mica
is potash mica and biotite mica is also called as
black mica due its appearance.
11. What is the distinguishing property between
biotite mica and muscovite mica?
a) Streak
b) Lustre
c) Colour
d) Hardness
8. What is the diaphaneity of muscovite mica?
a) Opaque
b) Transparent
c) Translucent
Explanation: The colour of the minerals is the
most distinguishing property between the two.
The biotite mica shows black colour, whereas,
the muscovite mica is almost colourless.
1. What is the chemical composition of Quartz?
a) SiO4
b) Si2O3
c) SiO2
d) Al2O3
Explanation: The chemical composition of the
quartz minerals is SiO2. In other words, silicon
dioxide is the basic chemical composition of the
quartz minerals.
2. Which quartz mineral shows blue colour?
a) Rose quartz
b) Blue quartz
c) Smoky quartz
d) Rock crystal
Explanation: The blue quartz shows a distinct
blue colour compared to the other quartz
minerals.
3. Rock crystal belongs to which mineral group?
a) Quartz group
b) Feldspar group
c) Carbonate group
d) Ferro-magnesium group
Explanation: The basic chemical composition of
the rock crystal is almost the same as other
quartz minerals and also rock crystal is an
important mineral of the quartz group.
4. Pick the quartz mineral which is translucent
among the following.
a) Rose quartz
b) Agate
c) Amethyst quartz
d) Milky quartz
Explanation: Amethyst quartz is usually
translucent, i.e., it allows light partially to pass
through it. Rest of the minerals are opaque.
5. The streak given by the quartz group is
a) White
b) Colourless
c) Blue
d) Pale yellow
Explanation: One of the main trait of the quartz
group is that the minerals do not give any
streak though are present in many colours in
appearance.
6. Pick the quartz which is colourless among the
following.
a) Rose quartz
b) Smoky quartz
c) Milky quartz
d) Rock crystal
Explanation: Among the minerals given above
only rock crystal is colourless. The rest are
coloured or either white in colour.
7. What is the hardness of the quartz minerals?
a) 7
b) 6
c) 2
d) 4
Explanation: The hardness is almost the same
for all the quartz minerals and is about 7. This is
one of the advantages of the quartz as they
have high hardness.
8. What is the colour of rose quartz attributed
to?
a) Iron
b) Titanium
c) Aluminium
d) Sandstone
Explanation: Rose quartz is a special type of
quartz and is known for its distinct rose red
colour. The colour is attributed to presence of
titanium.
9. The mineral not belonging to the quartz
group is
a) Amethyst
b) Agate
c) Jasper
d) Calcite
Explanation: Amethyst quartz, agate and jasper
belong to the quartz group, whereas, calcite
belongs to the carbonate group whose chemical
composition is completely different compared
to the quartz group.
10. Agate is not found banded. State true or
false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Agate is also found in banded form
and is known as banded agate. Agate is known
to have massive structure which is also the
same for banded agate.
1. Carbonate minerals are found usually in
a) Igneous rocks
b) Sedimentary rocks
c) Sedimentary and metamorphic rocks
d) Metamorphic and igneous rocks
Explanation: The carbonate minerals are
generally and most widely found in the
sedimentary and metamorphic rocks.
2. Name the carbonate mineral which is found
in ultrabasic igneous rocks.
a) Dolomite
b) Calcite
c) Magnesite
d) Jasper
Explanation: Magnesite is found in the
ultrabasic igneous rocks which is not common
among the other minerals and also among the
other groups.
3. What is the structure or form of dolomite?
a) Rhombohedral
b) Columnar
c) Tabular
d) Flaky
Explanation: Dolomite mineral is usually found
in rhombohedral structure. In most cases it is
not found in any other form or structure.
4. What is the colour of the magnesite when
pure?
a) Yellow
b) Bone white
c) Blue
d) Black
Explanation: Magnesite mineral is found is
colours like white, shades of grey and also
sometimes brown. But when it is in the pure
form, it is found in bone white colour.
5. What is the colour and diaphaneity of a
calcite mineral respectively?
a) Yellow and opaque
b) Blue and transparent
c) White and transparent
d) Grey and translucent
Explanation: The calcite mineral is white in
colour and its diaphaneity is transparent. The
chemical composition of calcite is calcium
carbonate.
6. State true or false. The carbonate minerals
have high hardness.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: The hardness of the carbonate
minerals usually varies between 2.5 and 3.
Hence they are said to have low hardness.
7. What is the streak given by calcite minerals?
a) Colourless
b) White
c) Black
d) Yellow
Explanation: Unlike the quartz minerals, the
carbonate minerals give white streak which is
an important distinguishing property of the
minerals from other groups.
8. Dolomite is formed by the action of
magnesian rich sea water on which deposit?
a) Limestone
b) Sandstone
c) Granite
d) Basalt
Explanation: As a rock constituent, dolomite is
believed to have been formed by action of
magnesian rich sea water on original limestone
deposit. This process is called in petrology
dolomitization.
9. Which carbonate mineral has this chemical
composition- CaCO3 Mg(CO3)2?
a) Magnesite
b) Calcite
c) Dolomite
d) Jasper
Explanation: Dolomite has the chemical
composition CaCO3 Mg(CO3)2. Whereas calcite
doesn’t have Mg in its composition and
magnesite lacks Ca in its composition.
10. Which lustre cannot occur to the calcite?
b) Waxy
c) Vitreous
d) Silky
Explanation: Calcite minerals show few lustres,
vitreous, waxy, silky but they do not show
adamantine lustre which is exclusively shown by
diamond.
11. How many sets of cleavage is shown by
calcite minerals usually?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Explanation: The calcite minerals are known to
show three sets of cleavage which is pretty
distinctive compared to other mineral groups.
12. Which mineral is used as refractory
material?
a) Calcite
b) Rock crystal
c) Talc
d) Magnesite
Explanation: The major uses of magnesite
mineral is that it used as refractory materials in
the refracrtory bricks installed in the lining of
the furnaces and also used for chemical
compounds of magnesium.
d) CaCO3
Explanation: Baryte is found in massive and
crystalline structures or forms and their basic
chemical composition is barium sulphate
(BaSO4).
2. What is the use of corundum?
a) Used as an abrasive
b) Used as precious gemstones
c) Used as Construction materials
d) Used as abrasive and precious gemstones
Explanation: Corundum is used as both abrasive
and also as precious gemstones. The former is
due its high hardness of about 9 and the latter
is due its appearance, and the names of some
common semi-precious gemstones are ruby,
emerald, sapphire etc.
3. The semi-precious gemstone not belonging to
corundum is
a) Ruby
b) Sapphire
c) Diamond
d) Oriental emerald
This set of Engineering Geology Question Bank
focuses on “Formation and Descriptive Study of
Minerals – 05”.
Explanation: Some common forms of corundum
used as precious or semi-precious gemstones
are ruby, sapphire, oriental emerald and
oriental topaz. Diamond is a completely
different mineral and is not considered to be a
form of corundum.
1. What is the chemical composition of Baryte?
a) BaSO4
b) CaSO4
c) BaCO3
4. Pick the correct statement about talc.
a) It has very high hardness
b) It is not used in the manufacture of talcum
powders
c) It is has lowest hardness
d) It is found in igneous rocks
Explanation: Talc mineral which is basically
made of magnesium has the lowest hardness
among the minerals which is equal to 1.
5. The ferro-magnesium mineral which occurs in
ultra-basic igneous rocks is
a) Magnesite
b) Olivine
c) Baryte
d) Corundum
Explanation: Olivine is a type of ferromagnesium mineral which is found in the ultrabasic igneous rocks. Magnesite is also found in
the ultra-basic igneous rocks but do not belong
to the ferro-magnesium group.
6. What is the diaphaneity of pure gypsum?
a) Opaque
b) Transparent
c) Translucent
d) Opaque or transparent
Explanation: Gypsum is found usually in
translucent and sometimes in opaque forms. In
its pure form it is found in translucent form.
7. Pick the wrong statement about talc.
a) It is a very soft mineral
b) It is used in talcum powders
c) It is usually white or green in colour
d) It is also used as precious gemstones
Explanation: Talc has hardness number of about
1, used in talcum powders and is usually found
in white or green colour. But it is not considered
as a precious gemstone.
8. Augite mainly consists of
a) Fe
b) Fe and Mn
c) Fe and Ca
d) Fe and Mg
Explanation: Augite is a ferro-magnesium
mineral and hence its basic and main
composition is Fe and Mg. It is usually found in
black colour.
9. What is the form or structure of asbestose?
a) Massive
b) Flaky
c) Tabular
d) Globular
Explanation: Asbestose is always found in the
flaky or sometimes rarely in columnar form.
Else it is not found in any other form or
structure.
10. What is the colour and streak of olivine
respectively?
a) White and green
b) Olive green and white
c) Yellow and green
d) Green and no streak
Explanation: The olivine mineral is found in
olive green colour and hence its name. The
streak given by olivine is white.
11. What is the streak given by garnet?
a) White
b) Black
c) Grey
d) No colour
Explanation: Garnet is one of the very few ferromagnetic minerals which do not give any streak.
They are usually dark grey in colour.
12. What is the form or structure of corundum?
a) Tabular, flaky
b) Schistose, columnar
c) Hexagonal, columnar
d) Globular, tabular
Explanation: The corundum is always found in
the hexagonal, columnar crystals. The columnar
crystals are of appreciable size of about 8 to 10
mm and are not uncommon.
1. The branch of geology which deals with
various aspects of rocks is
a) Petrology
b) Mineralogy
c) Lithology
d) Rockology
Explanation: The branch of geology dealing with
various aspects of rocks such as their formation,
classification and occurrence is called petrology.
2. What are the two conditions believed to be
required for the formation of igneous rocks?
a) Low temperature and molten state
b) Molten state and very high temperature
c) Molten state and moderate temperature
d) Crystallized state and moderate temperature
Explanation: A very high temperature and a
molten state are, two very important conditions
for the original material from which the igneous
rocks are believed to have been formed.
3. What is the state of lava or magma?
a) Liquid always
b) Solid
c) Gaseous
d) Mixture of liquid, crystals and gases
Explanation: Magma or lava from which igneous
rocks are formed may not be entirely a pure
melt: it may have a crystalline or solid fraction
and also a gaseous fraction thoroughly mixed
with it.
4. Where are the volcanic rocks formed?
a) Under the surface of earth
b) On the surface of earth
c) Inside the core
d) Between mantle
Explanation: Volcanic rocks are the igneous
rocks formed on the surface of the Earth by
cooling and crystallization of lava erupted from
volcanoes.
5. What is the grain size of volcanic rocks?
a) Very coarse
b) Coarse
c) Intermediate
d) Very fine
Explanation: Since the lava cools down at very
fast rate (compared to magma), the grain size of
the crystals formed in the volcanic rocks is very
fine, often microscope.
6. Magma is hypothetical melt. State true or
false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Igneous rocks are formed both
from magma and lava. It may be mentioned
that magma is actually a hypothetical melt. It
has not been possible to see it at its place of
occurrence.
7. The plutonic rocks are formed at depths
below the earth’s surface ranging
a) 10 to 100 km
b) 100 to 200 km
c) 7 to 10 km
d) 1 to 5 km
Explanation: Plutonic rocks are the igneous
rocks formed at considerable depths, generally
between 7-10 km below the surface of the
earth.
8. The rock is coarse grained in
a) Volcanic rocks
b) Plutonic rocks
c) Hypabyssal rocks always
Explanation: Because of a very slow rate of
cooling at the depths, the rocks resulting from
magma are coarse grained. These rocks get
exposed on the surface of the earth as a
consequence of erosion of the overlying strata.
9. Pick the plutonic igneous rock.
a) Granite
b) Granite porphyry
c) Syenite porphyry
d) Marble
Explanation: Granites, Syenites and Gabbros are
a few examples of Plutonic rocks. They occur in
good abundance in both the Peninsular and
extra-Peninsular India.
10. The rocks which exhibit mixed
characteristics of volcanic and plutonic rocks
are
a) Intermediate rocks
b) Mixed rocks
c) Hypabyssal rocks
d) Secondary rocks
Explanation: The hypabyssal rocks are the
igneous rocks which are formed at intermediate
depths, generally up to 2 km below the surface
of the earth and exhibit mixed characteristics of
volcanic and plutonic rocks.
11. Porphyries are examples of which type of
rocks?
a) Volcanic
b) Plutonic
c) Hypabyssal
d) Sedimentary rocks
Explanation: Porphyries of various composition
are examples of hypabyssal rocks.
12. Which is the most dominant constituent of
igneous rock?
a) Al2O3
b) SiO2
c) CaCO3
d) CaO
Explanation: In terms of chemical composition,
Silica is the dominant constituent of the igneous
rocks. Second comes the Alumina.
13. The mineral most abundantly present in the
igneous rocks is
a) Micas
b) Titanium
c) Iron
d) Felspars
Explanation: In terms of the mineralogical
composition, Felspars are the most common
minerals of igneous rocks. Even amphiboles,
pyroxenes and quartz are present to some
extent. Others are present only in subordinate
amounts.
is about 15%. This was given by the data of
Clark and Washington.
1. Pick the option which does not determine the
texture of igneous rocks.
a) Colour
b) Size
c) Shape
d) Arrangement of the constituents within the
body of the rock
Explanation: The term texture is defined as the
mutual relationship of different mineralogical
constituents in a rock. It is determined by the
size, shape and arrangement of these
constituents within the body of the rock.
2. Which of the following is not a factor
explaining texture?
a) Wind conditions
b) Degree of crystallization
c) Granularity
d) Fabric
Explanation: The following three factors will
primarily define the type of texture in a given
igneous rock: Degree of crystallization,
Granularity and Fabric.
14. What is the approximate percentage of
silica present in the igneous rocks?
a) 10%
b) 26%
c) 59%
d) 15%
3. The degree of crystallization where the
constituents are very fine or glassy are
a) Holocrystalline
b) Holohyalline
c) Homohyalline
d) Homocrystalline
Explanation: The approximate percent of silica
present in the igneous rocks is 59% and alumina
Explanation: Holohyaline is the term used,
when, all the constituents are very fine in size
and glassy or non-crystalline in nature.
4. What is the term used when constituents are
crystallized completely?
a) Holocrystalline
b) Holohyalline
c) Homohyalline
d) Homocrystalline
Explanation: Holocrystalline is the term used
when all the constituent minerals are distinctly
crystallized.
5. What is the range of grain size for coarse
grained igneous rock?
a) Above 2 mm
b) Below 2 mm
c) Above 5 mm
d) Below 5 mm
Explanation: When the average grain size is
above 5 mm; the constituent minerals are then
easily identified with naked eye. These rocks are
termed as coarse-grained rock.
6. Grain size 5mm to 1mm is termed as
a) Coarse grained
b) Intermediate grained
c) Fine grained
d) Medium grained
Explanation: When the average grain size lies
between 5 mm to 1 mm it is termed as medium
grained. Use of magnifying lens often becomes
necessary for identifying all the constituent
mineral components.
7. The grain size involving use of microscope is
a) Coarse grain
b) Medium grain
c) Fine grain
d) Very coarse grain
Explanation: When the average grain size is less
than 1 mm it is termed as fine grain. In such
rocks, identification of the constituent mineral
grains is possible only with the help of
microscope for which very thin rock sections
have to be prepared.
8. What is the term given when some granules
are exceptionally large and few are small?
a) Mixed granular
b) Equigranular
c) Inequigranular
d) Unequigranular
Explanation: The texture is termed as
equigranular when all the component minerals
are of approximately equal dimensions and as
inequigranular when some minerals in the rock
are exceptionally larger or smaller than the
other.
9. Pick the wrong statement about granitic
texture.
a) The constituents are coarse grained
b) The constituents are medium grained
c) The crystals show euhedral to subhedral
outlines
d) The rock is microgranular
Explanation: In the granitic texture, the
constituents are either all coarse grained or all
medium grained and the crystals show euhedral
to subhedral outlines.
conspicuously large sized crystals (the
phenocrysts) which are embedded in a finegrained ground mass or matrix.
10. The number of equigranular textures are
a) 1
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
3. The cause which is not influencing the
porphyritic texture is
a) Difference in molecular concentration
b) Change in physic-chemical conditions
c) Relative insolubility
d) Change in temperature
Explanation: All those textures in which
majority of constituent crystals of a rock are
broadly equal in size are described as
equigranular textures. There are 3 typesGranitic, Felsitic and Orthophyric.
1. The texture which the characteristics in
between granitic and felsitic is
a) Secondary
b) Intermediate
c) Orthophyric
d) Transitional
Explanation: Orthophyric texture is another
type of equigranular texture, which is in
between the granitic and felsitic textures. The
individual grains are fine in size but not
microgranular.
Explanation: Porphyritic texture may be caused
by any one or more of the following factors:
Difference in molecular concentration, change
in physic-chemical conditions and relative
insolubility.
4. What is the absolute reverse of porphyritic
texture?
a) Poiklitic
b) Granitic
c) Felsitic
d) Ophitic
Explanation: Poikilitic texture is characterized
with the presence of fine-grained crystals within
the body of large sized crystals. In other words,
it is just the reverse of the porphyritic textures.
2. What is the texture called when large-sized
crystals are embedded in fine grained matrix?
a) Granitic texture
b) Poiklitic texture
c) Porphyritic texture
d) Directive texture
5. What is the term when augite has inclusions
of plagioclase felspar?
a) Poiklitic
b) Granitic
c) Felsitic
d) Ophitic
Explanation: The porphyritic texture is
characterized by the presence of a few
Explanation: When the host mineral is identified
as augite and the inclusions are of plagioclase
felspars, the poiklitic texture is further
distinguished as ophitic.
6. State true or false. The development of
ophitic texture is completely understood.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: The development of ophitic
texture in rocks is yet incompletely understood.
It may be due to operation of factors for
porphyritic texture but in a different manner.
7. Which texture indicates flow of magma
during its formation?
a) Equigranular
b) Directive
c) Intergrowth
d) Intergranular
Explanation: Those textures that indicate the
result of flow of magma during the formation of
rocks are known as directive textures.
8. Example for directive texture is
a) Tracheod
b) Granitic
c) Trachytic
d) Porphyritic
Explanation: Trachytic and Trachytoid textures
are common examples of directive textures. The
former is characteristic of certain felspar lavas
and is recognised by a parallel arrangement of
felspar; the latter is found in some syenites.
9. The texture which involves polygonal or
trigonal spaces in rocks is
a) Directive texture
b) Intergrowth texture
c) Interstitial texture
d) Intergranular texture
Explanation: In certain igneous rocks crystals
formed at earlier stages may get so arranged
that polygonal or trigonal spaces are left in
between them. These spaces get filled
subsequently during the process of rock
formation by crystalline or glassy masses of
other minerals.
10. What is it called when two or more minerals
crystallize simultaneously in a limited space?
a) Directive texture
b) Intergrowth texture
c) Interstitial texture
d) Intergranular texture
Explanation: During the formation of the
igneous rocks, sometimes two or more minerals
may crystallize out simultaneously in a limited
space so that the resulting crystals are mixed up
or intergrown. This type of mutual arrangement
is expressed by the term intergrowth texture.
1. Form of igneous rock where magma is
injected and cooled along planes of host rocks is
a) Discordant bodies
b) Concordant bodies
c) Parallel bodies
d) Synchronous bodies
Explanation: All those intrusions in which the
magma has been injected and cooled along or
parallel to the structural planes of the host
rocks are called concordant bodies.
2. Pick the type of concordant body among the
following.
a) Batholith
b) Extrusion
c) Dykes
d) Phacolith
Explanation: The various types of concordant
bodies are sills, phacoliths, laccoliths and
lopoliths.
3. The type of concordant body whose thickness
is much smaller than its length and width is
a) Sill
b) Phacolith
c) Dyke
d) Laccolith
Explanation: It is typical of sills that their
thickness is much small than their width and
length. Moreover, this body commonly thins
out or tapers along its outer margins.
4. The upper and lower margins of sills are
relatively
a) Coarser grain size
b) Medium grain size
c) Finer grain size
d) Can be of any size
Explanation: The upper and lower margins of
sills commonly show a comparatively finer grain
size than their interior portions.
5. Sills in length are restricted to hundreds of
metres. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: In length, sills may vary from a few
centimetres to hundreds of meters. Minor and
local projections from big sills may rise above
into the overlying strata.
6. Most common rocks composing the sills are
a) Marbles
b) Shales
c) Gabbros
d) Granites
Explanation: The most common rocks
composing the sills are intermediate and basic
igneous rocks like syenites and gabbros. They
may show aphinitic and porphyritic textures.
7. The small sized intrusives that occupy bends
in the folds are called
a) Sills
b) Lopolith
c) Laccolith
d) Phacolith
Explanation: Phacoliths are concordant, small
sized intrusions that occupy positions in the
troughs and crests of bends called folds.
8. The concordant bodies associated with
structural basins is
a) Sills
b) Lopolith
c) Laccolith
d) Phacolith
Explanation: Those igneous intrusions, which
are associated with structural basins, that are
sedimentary beds inclined towards a common
centre, are termed as lopoliths. They may form
huge bodies of consolidated magma.
9. The shape arch or dome is shown by which
type of concordant body?
a) Sills
b) Lopolith
c) Laccolith
d) Phacolith
Explanation: Laccoliths are concordant
intrusions due to which the invaded strata have
been arched up or deformed into a dome. The
igneous mass itself has a flat or concave base
and a dome-shaped top.
10. What is the type of lava which leads to
formation of laccolith?
a) Viscous
b) Non-viscous
c) Partially crystallized
d) Gaseous lava
Explanation: Laccoliths are formed when the
magma being injected is considerably viscous so
that it is unable to flow and spread for greater
distances. Instead, it gets collected in the form
of a heap about the orifice of eruption.
a) Dyke
b) Batholith
c) Bysmalith
d) Volcanic neck
Explanation: Extreme types of laccoliths are
called bysmaliths and in these the overlying
strata get ultimately fractured at the top of the
dome because of continuous injections from
below.
12. A sill is not considered to be a sill when two
or more injections of different types of magma
are involved. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Composite sills are the sills which
result from two or more injections of different
types of magma. Hence it cannot be told that it
is not a sill, instead, it is a type of sill.
1. The intrusive bodies in which injection of lava
occurs without any influence of dip and strike is
a) Concordant bodies
b) Discordant bodies
c) Non-cordant bodies
d) Uncomformities
Explanation: All those intrusive bodies that have
been injected into the strata without being
influenced by their structural disposition (dip
and strike) and thus traverse across or oblique
to the bedding planes etc. are grouped as
discordant bodies.
11. What is the type of laccolith in which
fracture is formed?
2. The example not belonging to discordant
body is
a) Dykes
b) Volcanic necks
c) Bysmaliths
d) Batholiths
Explanation: Bysmalith is a type of laccolith
which is again a type of concordant body and
not a discordant body. The dykes, volcanic
necks and batholiths are usually the widely
studied types of discordant bodies.
3. Which discordant body is columnar or
column shaped?
a) Dykes
b) Volcanic necks
c) Bysmaliths
d) Batholiths
Explanation: Dykes may be defined as columnar
bodies of igneous rocks that cut across the
bedding plane or uncoformities or cleavage
planes and similar structures.
4. Texture shown by dykes is
a) Equigranular
b) Directive
c) Intergrowth
d) All types of textures
Explanation: In composition, dykes are generally
made up of hypabyssal rocks like dolerites,
porphyrites and lamprophyres, showing all
textures between glassy and phaneritic types.
5. Dykes tend to occur individually. State true or
false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Dykes generally tend to occur in
groups or sets. Thus, the term dyke-set is used
for a couple of parallel and closely spaced
dykes.
6. When the vents of quiet volcanoes become
sealed with intrusions it leads to
a) Dyke
b) Batholith
c) Extrusion
d) Volcanic necks
Explanation: In some cases vents of quiet
volcanoes have become sealed with the
intrusions. Such congealed intrusions are
termed volcanic necks or volcanic plugs.
7. The bodies which show both concordant and
discordant relations are
a) Dykes
b) Sills
c) Batholiths
d) Phacoliths
Explanation: Batholiths are huge bodies of
igneous masses that show both concordant and
discordant relations with the country rocks.
8. What should be the area and depth
respectively, for an igneous body to be called a
batholith?
a) 100 square km and depth not traceable
b) 10 square km and depth up to 100km
c) Not traceable and depth 10 km
d) 50 km and depth 10 km
Explanation: The dimensions of batholiths vary
considerably but is generally agreed that to
qualify as a batholith the igneous mass should
be greater than 100 square kilometres in area
and its depth should not be traceable.
9. What is the term used for a batholith when
surface area is less than 100 km?
a) Dykes
b) Stock
c) Sock
d) Sillets
Explanation: When the surface area of
batholith-like igneous mass is less than 100 km,
it is commonly termed as stock. When such a
stock has roughly circular outline, it is further
distinguished as a boss.
10. Majority of batholiths show which
composition?
a) Felsitic
b) Granitic
c) Ophitic
d) Directive
Explanation: In composition, batholiths may be
made of any type of igneous rock. They also
exhibit many types of textures and structures.
But as a matter of observation, majority of
batholiths shows predominantly granitic
composition, texture and structure.
11. Pick the wrong statement about
granitization.
a) It is a set of processes rather than a single
step
b) It involves already existing sedimentary and
other rocks
c) It involves magmatic stage
d) It doesn’t actually require magmatic stage
Explanation: Granitization may be broadly
described as a set of processes by which already
existing sedimentary and other rocks are
changed into granit-like without actually
passing through a magmatic stage.
12. The volcanic sheets may vertical. State true
or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: The volcanic sheets may be
horizontal or slightly inclined depending upon
the original topography and subsequent
geological history of the area.
1. Granite belongs to which mode of occurrence
of igneous rock?
a) Volcanic rocks
b) Plutonic
c) Hypabyssal
d) Volcanic and hypabyssal
Explanation: Granites may be defined as
plutonic light coloured igneous rocks. These are
among the most common igneous rocks.
2. The two most common mineral found in
granites are
a) Diamond and mica
b) Mica and orthoclase
c) Quartz and felspar
d) Felspar and corundum
plutonic, even-grained rocks in which alkalifelspars are the chief constituent minerals.
Explanation: Two most common and essential
mineral constituents of granite are: Quartz and
Felspar.
6. State true or false. Syenites show similar
textures of granites.
a) True
b) False
3. Which is the most important accessory
mineral in granite?
a) Felspar
b) Quartz
c) Topaz
d) Mica
Explanation: Among the accessory minerals in
granites, micas deserve the first mention. Both
varieties are present in small proportions in
most granites.
4. The texture of granite is
a) Equigranular
b) Directive
c) Inequigranular
d) Intergrowth
Explanation: Granites are generally coarse to
medium grained, holocrystalline and
equigranular rocks.
5. Syenites belong to which mode of
occurrence?
a) Volcanic rocks
b) Plutonic
c) Hypabyssal
d) Concordant
Explanation: Syenites are defined as igneous,
Explanation: Syenites show textures broadly
similar to those of granites, that is, they are
coarse to medium-grained, holocrystalline in
nature and exhibiting graphic, inter-growth or
porphyiritic relationship among its constituents.
7. What is the usual colour of gabbro?
a) White
b) Yellow
c) Black
d) Blue
Explanation: Gabbros are usually found in black
colour. Sometimes they are also found in other
shades of dark grey and dark brown.
8. What is the mode of formation of gabbro?
a) Volcanic
b) Plutonic
c) Hypabyssal
d) Dykes
Explanation: Gabbros are coarse-grained
plutonic rocks of basic character. Plagioclase
felspars of lime-soda composition are the chief
constituents of gabbros.
9. Pick the igneous rock whose mode of
occurrence is volcanic.
a) Basalt
b) Granite
c) Gabbro
d) Syenite
Explanation: Basalts are volcanic igneous rocks
formed by rapid cooling from lava flows from
volcanoes either over the surface or under
water on oceanic floors.
10. What can be said about the grain size of
pegmatite?
a) Fine grained
b) Medium grained
c) Fine to medium grained
d) Coarse grained
Explanation: Pegmatites are exceptionally
coarse-grained igneous rocks formed from
hydrothermal solutions emanating from
magmas that get cooled and crystallized in
cavities and cracks around magmatic intrusions.
11. Pick the rock which is not volcanic in terms
of mode of occurrence.
a) Granite
b) Basalt
c) Obsidian
d) Pumice
Explanation: Granite is of plutonic occurrence
whereas the rest, viz., Basalt, Obsidian. Pumice
are volcanic in occurrence.
12. The igneous rock with glassy texture is
a) Gabbro
b) Pumice
c) Obsidian
d) Pegmatite
Explanation: Obsidian is of glassy texture and it
is distinct property of the igneous rock which
makes it easier for its identification.
13. The igneous rock with very low specific
gravity is
a) Granite
b) Pumice
c) Gabbro
d) Basalt
Explanation: Pumice has a low specific gravity
whereas all the other igneous rocks have
medium specific gravity. This property makes
the igneous rock “pumice” very light. The main
reason behind this is, pumice has many pores.
14. The igneous rock with flow texture is
a) Gabbro
b) Pumice
c) Rhyolite
d) Basalt
Explanation: Rhyolite is an igneous rock which
exhibits the flow type of texture which is not
found in other igneous rocks.
15. Pegmatites are formed due to displacement
reactions. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Pegmatites have formed due to
replacement reactions between the
hydrothermal solutions and the country rock
through which these liquids happen to pass.
1. Which rock is also called secondary rock?
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) No class of rock is termed so
Explanation: Sedimentary rocks are also called
secondary rocks. This group includes a wide
variety of rocks formed by accumulation,
compaction and consolidation of sediments.
2. Which is the rock present in majority on the
surface of earth?
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) No class of rock in particular
Explanation: Sedimentary rocks are known to
cover as much as 75 percent of the surface of
the earth the rest being covered by the igneous
rocks and the metamorphic rocks.
3. What are the mechanically formed
sedimentary rocks also called?
a) Clastic rocks
b) Non-clastic rocks
c) Elite rocks
d) Mech rocks
Explanation: Sedimentary rocks are broadly
grouped into three classes on the basis of their
mode of formation: Mechanically formed or
Clastic rocks: Organically formed rocks and
chemically rocks which are called as Non-clastic
rocks.
4. Detrital rocks refer to which type of
sedimentary rocks?
a) Mechanically formed
b) Organically formed
c) Chemically formed
d) Residual
Explanation: During the formation of the
sedimentary rocks by mechanical method,
original hard and coherent rock bodies are
gradually broken down into smaller fragments.
This disintegrated, loosened material is called
detritus. Hence, clastic rocks are often also
called as detrital rocks.
5. The important phenomenon that happens
during deposition is
a) Settling
b) Erosion
c) Sorting
d) Blowing
Explanation: The most important phenomenon
that happens to the sediments during their
transport and deposition is sorting or grading
according to their size, shape and density.
6. Deposition takes place in which conditions?
a) Ordinary pressure and temperature
b) High temperature and low pressure
c) High pressure and low temperature
d) High pressure and high temperature
Explanation: The sorting or grading occurs
during the deposition stage of the formation of
sedimentary rocks and the deposition happens
in layers in most cases. Deposition generally
takes place under ordinary pressure and
temperature conditions.
7. The process not associated with diagenesis is
a) Sediments get gradually converted to
cohesive material
b) Sediments get gradually converted to hard
material
c) Decaying occurs basically
d) Might occur due to pressure or cementing
material
c) Pressurising
Explanation: Diagenesis is achieved by two
methods. They are, welding and cementation.
Cementation is the process by which loose
grains or sediments in a settlement basin get
held together by a binding material.
10. Rock salt may be formed by
a) Erosion
b) Winds
c) Continued evaporation
d) Continued precipitation
Explanation: The process of transformation of
loose sediments deposited in the settlement
basins to solid cohesive rock masses either
under pressure or because of cementation is
collectively known as diagenesis.
Explanation: Limestone may be formed by
precipitation from carbonated water due to loss
of carbon dioxide. Rock salt may be formed
from sodium-chloride rich seawater merely by
the process of continued evaporation.
8. The process which involves pressure exerted
by the load is
b) Welding
c) Cementation
Explanation: Welding is the process of
compaction of the sediments accumulated in
lower layers of a basin due to the pressure
exerted by the load of the overlying sediments.
9. The process other than welding which is
studied under diagenesis is
a) Co-welding
b) Cementation
11. Example of chemically formed sedimentary
rocks is
a) Gypsum
b) Sandstone
c) Shale
d) Breccia
Explanation: Chemically formed rocks are of
two types: precipitates and evaporites.
Examples are limestones, rock salt, gypsum and
anhydrite.
12. Pick the organically formed sedimentary
rock.
a) Shale
b) Sandstone
c) Breccia
d) Limestone
Explanation: Limestones are the best examples
of organically formed sedimentary rocks.
Generally, the evidence of the source material
gets obliterated from these rocks with the
passage of time.
13. How is the degree of packing in welding
related to load of overlying sediments?
a) Directly related
b) Inversely related
c) Not related at all
d) Totally independent
Explanation: Welding initially involves squeezing
out of all or most of the water from in between
the sediments, thus bringing them closer and
closer and hence resulting in compaction. In
fact the degree of packing of sediments in a
sedimentary rock is directly proportional to the
load of the overlying sediments.
14. Animal and vegetable life don’t contribute
to the formation of sedimentary rocks. State
true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Animal and vegetable life,
including microorganisms also contribute a
fairly large supply of organic residues, which on
gradual accumulation after the death of the
source get compacted and turn into hard
massive bodies of sedimentary rocks.
1. The layered arrangement in sedimentary
rocks is called
a) Mud cracks
b) Stratification
c) Rain prints
d) Ripple marks
Explanation: By stratification is understood a
layered arrangement in a sedimentary rock.
This may be developed very prominently and
can be seen from a distance of miles or in other
cases may have to be ascertained after close
examination of the rock.
2. The structure most prevalent to clastic rocks
is
a) Nodular structure
b) Geode structure
c) Concretionary structure
d) Lamination
Explanation: The most prevalent structures of
clastic group of sedimentary rocks are the ones
belonging to mechanical structure which are,
stratification, lamination, cross beddings, rain
prints etc.
3. Lamination is structure formed in which type
of sedimentary rocks?
a) Fine grained
b) Medium grained
c) Coarse grained
d) Nothing in particular
Explanation: Lamination is a characteristic
structure of fine-grained sedimentary rocks like
clays and shales.
4. Each layer of a laminated structure of
sedimentary rock is called
a) Strata
b) Leaf
c) Lamina
d) Layer
is
a) Columnar
b) Tabular
c) Lenticular
d) Wedge shaped
Explanation: The individual layers of laminated
structure are called lamiae and are
distinguished commonly on the basis of
difference in colour.
Explanation: In the case of wedge shaped cross
bedding, the cross-bedding structure is highly
complex: the individual layers exist in welldefined sets of parallel layers but these sets
bear angular relationship to each other.
5. Which among the following is not a type of
false bedding?
a) Columnar
b) Tabular
c) Lenticular
d) Wedge shaped
8. Type of bedding where sorting and
arrangement has occurred based on grain size is
a) Cross bedding
b) Lamination
d) Mud cracks
Explanation: The common types of false
bedding are, tabular, lenticular, wedge shaped.
Columnar is not a type of false bedding.
Explanation: In some stratified rocks the
component sediments in each layer appear to
be characteristically sorted and arranged
according to their grain size, the coarsest being
placed at the bottom and the finest at the top.
6. The type of false bedding where top and
bottom surfaces are parallel is
a) Columnar
b) Tabular
c) Lenticular
d) Wedge shaped
Explanation: Tabular false bedding is a type of
cross bedding in which the top and bottom
surfaces of the deposit are essentially parallel,
indicating its deposition in the same main
channel.
7. Type of false bedding where the individual
layers exist in well-defined sets of parallel layers
9. Graded bedding occurs due to which
phenomenon?
a) Wind settling
b) Sunlight
c) Gravitational settling
Explanation: Normally, perfectly graded beds
are the result of sedimentation in bodies of
standing water where factor of gravitative
settling from a mixed load is predominant
process.
10. Mud cracks are common in which type of
sedimentary rocks?
a) Fine grained
b) Medium grained
c) Coarse grained
d) Not particular
Explanation: Mud cracks are common structural
features of many fine-grained sedimentary
rocks. The structure consists of polygonal or
irregular cracks spread along the surface of an
exposed sedimentary layer.
11. The bedding involving crater shaped
depressions is
a) Mud cracks
b) Rain prints
c) Ripple marks
d) Sun cracks
Explanation: Rain prints are irregular, small
crater-shaped depressions seen on fine-grained
dried sediments.
12. Which of the following does not provide
evidence of shallow water environment?
a) Lamination
b) Rain prints
c) Ripple marks
d) Mud cracks
Explanation: The mud cracks, rain prints and
ripple marks when encountered in sedimentary
formations are taken as confirmatory evidence
of the formation having been deposited in a
shallow water environment.
13. Which structure resembles fish eggs?
a) Pisolitic
b) Felsitic
c) Oolitic
d) Granitic
Explanation: The Oolitic structure is the
structure where, the concretions are of the size
of fish eggs; the rock appears as an assemblage
of fish eggs.
14. Peanut structure is shown by
a) Sandstone
b) Limestone
c) Shale
d) Breccia
Explanation: The pisolitic structure is another
type of concretionary structure where, the
individual size of a concretion is like that of a
peanut. Limestones and bauxite show both
these structures.
1. The process not contributing to clastic rocks
is
a) Weathering
b) Oxidation
c) Erosion
d) Deposition
Explanation: The mechanically formed
sedimentary rocks undergo the processes likeweathering, erosion, transport, deposition and
diagenesis. Oxidation is considered under to be
a non-clastic cause.
2. What is the size required for a particle to be
called gravel?
a) Greater than 1 mm
b) Lesser 1 mm
c) Greater than 2 mm
d) Lesser than 1 mm
Explanation: All sediments and clastic fragments
of rocks above the size of 2 mm irrespective of
their composition and shape are broadly
termed as gravels.
3. What is not true about silts?
a) They are coarser than sand
b) They are finer than sand
c) They are further divided into fine, medium
and fine silts
d) They are major constituents of shale
Explanation: Silts are very fine-sized particles of
varying composition lying in the range 1/16 mm
and 1/256 mm. they are further divided into
three categories, fine, medium and coarse. The
silts are the major constituents of rocks known
as shales.
4. What is the average grain size of rudaceous
rocks?
a) Greater than 1 mm
b) Lesser 1 mm
c) Greater than 2 mm
d) Lesser than 1 mm
Explanation: Rudites or rudaceous rocks include
all coarse-grained rocks of heterogeneous
composition. The average grain size of the
constituents in rudites is greater than 2 mm.
5. Give an example for rudaceous rock.
a) Breccia
b) Shale
c) Limestone
d) Sandstone
Explanation: In rudaceous rocks gravels are held
together in the form of a rock by a natural
cementing material. Breccias and
conglomerates are important examples of
rudites.
6. Rudites are also called as
a) Arenites
b) Psamites
c) Lutites
d) Psephites
Explanation: Rudites or rudaceous rocks are
also called as psephites. Rudites are made up of
boulders, cobbles and pebbles collectively
known as gravels.
7. The arenaceous rocks have the grain size
equal to
a) Gravel
b) Sand
c) Silt
d) Clay
Explanation: The arenites are also called as
arenaceous rocks. These are made up of
sediments of sand grade (2mm-1/16 mm).
8. An example for arenite would be
a) Breccia
b) Shale
c) Limestone
d) Sandstone
Explanation: In a particular rock, the sand grains
of particular size range may be predominating
giving rise to coarse, medium and fine arenites.
Sandstones, greywackes and arkoses are
common types of arenites.
9. Which of the following are finest grain sized?
a) Rudaceous rocks
b) Arenaceous rocks
c) Argillaceous rocks
d) Psephites
Explanation: Argillaceous rocks are also called
as lutites. Lutites may be defined as
sedimentary rocks of the finest grain-size. They
are made up of silt and clay grades.
10. A clastic rock might not have more than one
grade. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Many a times a clastic rock may be
made of sediments of more than one grade. It is
the dominant grade that is taken into
consideration while classifying the rock.
11. Non-detrital rocks refer to
a) Clastic rock
b) Non-clastic rock
c) Residual rock
d) None of the types
Explanation:The non-clastic rocks are also called
non-detrital rocks. They are generally
homogeneous in character, fine-grained in
particle size and varying in chemical
composition.
12. Pick the type of sedimentary not belonging
to chemically formed rocks.
a) Oxide rocks
b) Carbonaceous rocks
c) Ferruginous deposits
d) Siliceous deposits
Explanation: The sedimentary rocks under the
chemically formed deposits are Siliceous
deposits, carbonate deposits, ferruginous,
phosphatic and evaporites.
1. Breccia is formed by which process?
a) Mechanical
b) Chemical
c) Organic
d) Residual
Explanation: Breccia is a mechanically formed
sedimentary rock classed as rudite. It consists of
angular fragments of heterogeneous
composition.
2. The type of Breccia which is also called crushbreccia is
a) Basal Breccia
b) Faulted Breccia
c) Agglomeratic Breccia
d) Rudite Breccia
Explanation: Faults Breccia is also called crushbreccia. Such rocks are so named because they
are made up of angular fragments that have
been produced during the process of faulting.
3. The type of Breccia formed by sea water is
called
a) Basal Breccia
b) Faulted Breccia
c) Agglomeratic Breccia
d) Rudite Breccia
Explanation: This rock is formed by the sea
waters advancing over a coastal region covered
with fragments of chert and other similar rocks.
4. Conglomerates belong to which group of
sedimentary rocks?
a) Rudaceous rocks
b) Argillaceous rocks
c) Arenaceous rocks
d) Any group
Explanation: Conglomerates are sedimentary
rocks of clastic nature and also belong to
rudaceous group.
5. Conglomerates consist of which shaped
fragments mostly?
a) Angular
b) Sub-angular
c) Rounded
d) Edged
Explanation: The conglomerates consist mostly
of rounded fragments of various sizes but
generally above 2 mm, cemented together in
clayey or ferruginous or mixed matrix.
6. Which among the following is not a type of
conglomerate?
a) Basal
b) Glacial
c) Volcanic
d) Faulted
Explanation: Sometimes the conglomerates are
distinguished on the basis of source of the
gravels, as: Basal, glacial and volcanic
conglomerates.
7. The sedimentary rock which is arenaceous in
nature is
a) Conglomerate
b) Sandstone
c) Breccia
d) Shale
Explanation: Sandstones are mechanically
formed sedimentary rocks of arenaceous group.
These are mostly composed of sand grade
particles that have been compacted and
consolidated together in the form of beds in
basins sedimentation.
8. Which is dominant mineral in sandstone?
a) Mica
b) Diamond
c) Quartz
d) Felspar
Explanation: Quartz is the most common
mineral making the sandstones. In fact some
varieties of sandstones are made entirely of
quartz.
9. The texture of sandstone is
a) Fine-medium
b) Medium-coarse
c) Coarse
d) Fine-coarse
c) Argillaceous sandstone
d) Ferruginous sandstone
Explanation: Sandstones are, in general,
medium to fine-medium grained in texture. The
component grains show a great variation in
their size, shape and arrangement in different
varieties.
Explanation: When silica is the cementing
material in the sandstones it is called siliceous
sandstone. Sometimes the quality of the
siliceous cement is so dense and uniform that a
massive compact and homogeneous rock is
formed. This is called quartzite.
10. The colour of sandstone not found
commonly is
a) Blue
b) Red
c) Brown
d) White
Explanation: Sandstones naturally occur in a
variety of colours: red, brown, grey and white
being the most common colours. The colour of
sandstone depends on its composition,
especially nature of the cementing material.
1. The type of sandstone where cementing
material is clay is
a) Siliceous sandstone
b) Calcareous sandstone
c) Argillaceous sandstone
d) Ferruginous sandstone
Explanation: Argillaceous sandstones are among
the soft varieties of sandstone because the
cementing material is clay that has not much
inherent strength.
2. The term quartzite is associated with which
type of sandstone?
a) Siliceous sandstone
b) Calcareous sandstone
3. Red Fort in India is built using which
sedimentary rock?
a) Shale
b) White Sandstone
c) Red sandstone
d) Breccia
Explanation: The sandstones are most
commonly used as materials of construction:
building stones, pavement stones, road stones
and also as a source material for concrete. The
Red Fort of India is made up of red sandstones.
4. Shales are generally characterized with
distinct
a) Cleavage
b) Fracture
c) Specific gravity
d) Parting
Explanation: Shale is a finely-grained
sedimentary rock of argillaceous composition.
Shales are generally characterized with a
distinct fissility (parting) parallel to the bedding
planes.
5. The mineralogical composition of shale is
clearly understood. State true or false.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: The exact mineralogical
composition of shales is often difficult to
ascertain because of the very fine size of the
constituents.
6. The tendency of a rock to split into flat, shelllike fragments parallel to bedding is called
a) Cleavage
b) Fracture
c) Specific gravity
d) Fissility
Explanation: Shales are characterized with a
distinct property of fissility, which may be
defined as “the tendency of a rock to split into
flat, shell-like fragments parallel to bedding”.
The fissility of shales is partly primary and partly
secondary in nature.
7. Which type of shale involves both clastic and
non-clastic sources?
a) Residual shales
b) Transported shales
c) Hybrid shales
d) Quartz shales
Explanation: In hybrid shales, materials derived
both from clastic sources and non-clastic
sources especially those from organic sources
make up the rock.
a) Residual shales
b) Transported shales
c) Hybrid shales
d) Quartz shales
Explanation: Residual shales are formed from
decay and decomposition of pre-existing rocks
followed by compaction and consolidation of
the particles in adjoining basins without much
mixing.
9. Which sedimentary rock is present in
majority on earth?
a) Shale
b) Sandstone
c) Breccia
d) Conglomerate
Explanation: Of all the sedimentary rocks
occurring on the surface of the earth, shales are
the most predominant forming 70-80 percent of
this group. These rocks occur in massive
formations and beds extending over several
hundred kilometres in many cases.
10. Which among the following is not a use of
shale?
a) Used in manufacture of bricks and tiles
b) Used as source of alumina
c) Used as paraffin
d) Used as precious gemstone
Explanation: Shales are variously used for
manufacture of bricks and tiles. These are at
place source of alumina, paraffin and oil.
8. Name the type of shale involving decay and
decomposition.
1. The non-clastic sedimentary rock chiefly
made of carbonate of calcium is
a) Limestone
b) Sandstone
c) Shale
d) Breccia
Portland cement
b) Used in metallurgical industries as flux
c) Used as building stone
d) Used as a source of magnesium
Explanation: Limestones are the most common
sedimentary rocks from the non-clastic group
and are composed chiefly of carbonate of
calcium with subordinate proportions of
carbonate of magnesium.
Explanation: Limestones and dolomites find
important applications in many industries and
engineering practice. Thus, limestone is a
primary source material for manufacture of
Portland cement and for a variety of limes.
2. Distinct texture shown by limestone is
a) Sheeting
b) Lamination
c) Fossiliferous nature
d) Mud cracks
5. What is a metamorphosed sedimentary
rocks?
a) Shale
b) Limestone
c) Coal
d) Dolomite
Explanation: In view of the diverse ways in
which the limestones are formed, these rocks
show a variety of textures. The most important
texture feature of limestones is their
fossiliferous nature.
3. Which type of limestone is non-marine is
origin among the following?
a) Chalk
b) Kankar
c) Shelly-limestone
d) Argillaceous limestone
Explanation: Kankar is a common nodular or
concretionary form of carbonate material
formed by evaporation of subsoil water rich in
calcium carbonate just near the soil surface. It is
non-marine in origin.
4. The major use of limestone is
a) Primary source material for manufacture of
Explanation: Coal may broadly be defined as
metamorphosed sedimentary rocks of
carbonaceous character in which the raw
material has mostly been supplied by plants of
various groups.
6. The grade of coal with very low calorific value
is
a) Peat
b) Lignite
c) Bituminous
d) Anthracite
Explanation: Peat is the lowest grade coal that
constitutes of only slightly altered vegetable
matter. It may not be even considered as a coal.
It has very low calorific value, high percentage
of moisture and is rich in volatile matter.
7. The other name for brown coal is
a) Peat
b) Lignite
c) Bituminous
d) Anthracite
Explanation: Lignite is also known as brown coal
and forms the poorest grade of coal with
calorific value ranging between 6.00-8300
B.th.U.
8. What is the hardness of lignite grade of coal?
a) 0.5
b) 2.5
c) 5.5
d) 9
Explanation: Lignite is compact and massive in
structure with an upper specific gravity of 1.5
and hardness of 2.5 on Mohs’ scale of hardness.
Some varieties of lignite may still show to a
good extent the traces of original vegetable
structure.
9. The highest grade of coal is
a) Peat
b) Lignite
c) Bituminous
d) Anthracite
Explanation: Anthracite is considered the
highest grade coal with fixed carbon ranging
between 92-98 percent. It has highest calorific
value in coals and burns without any smoke, as
the volume matter is negligible.
10. A civil engineer has to deal with which rock
in majority of cases?
a) Igneous rocks
b) Sedimentary rocks
c) Metamorphic rocks
d) Ultra-basic igneous rocks