«Обсуждено»__________________
На заседании кафедры
Протокол № ___от «___»____2017
зав.кафедрой д.м.н., проф. Белов Г.В.
1. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Pharmacological effects of drugs
b) Unwanted effects of drugs
c) Chemical structure of a medicinal agent
d) Distribution of drugs in the organism
2. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Localization of drug action
b) Mechanisms of drug action
c) Excretion of substances
3. Route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized:
a) Oral
b) Transdermal
c) Rectal
d) Intraduodenal
4. Route of drug administration is mostlikely to lead to the first-pass effect?
a) Sublingual
b) Oral
c) Intravenous
d) Intramuscular
5. Route of medicinal agent administration:
a) Rectal
b) Oral
c) Sublingual
d) Inhalation
6. Biotransformation of the drugs is to render them:
a) Less ionized
b) More pharmacologically active
c) More lipid soluble
d) Less lipid soluble
7. Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the most prominent:
a) Lipid soluble
b) Water soluble
c) Low molecular weight
d) High molecular weight
8. Biotransformation of a medicinal substance results in:
a) Faster urinary excretion
b) Slower urinary excretion
c) Easier distribution in organism
d) Higher binding to membranes
9. Which of the following processes proceeds in the second phase of biotransformation?
a) Acetylation
b) Reduction
c) Oxidation
d) Hydrolysis
10. Half life (t ½) doesn’t depend on:
a) Biotransformation
b) Time of drug absorption
c) Concentration of a drug in plasma
d) Rate of drug elimination
11. Elimination rate constant (Kelim) is defined by the following parameter:
a) Rate of absorption
b) Maximal concentration ofa substance in plasma
c) Highest single dose
d) Half life (t ½)
12. Stimulation of liver microsomal enzymes can:
a) Require the dose increase of some drugs
b) Require the dose decrease of some drugs
c) Prolong the duration ofthe action of a drug
d) Intensify the unwanted reaction of a drug
13. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?
a) Mechanisms of drug action
b) Biotransformation of drugs in the organism
c) Distribution of drugs in the organism
d) Excretion of drug from the organism
14. Pharmacodynamics involves the following?
a) Information about main mechanisms of drug absorption
b) Information about unwanted effects
c) Information about biological barriers
d) Information about excretion of a drug from the organism
15. If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high efficacy it’s called:
a) Partial agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Full agonist
16. If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:
a) Partial agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Full agonist
17. Tolerance and drug resistance can be a consequence of:
a) Drug dependence
b) Increased metabolic degradation
c) Depressed renal drug excretion
d) Activation of a drug after hepatic first-pass
18. The types of antagonism are:
a) Summarized
b) Potentiated
c) Additive
d) Competitive
19. Which isn’t related to a dose or to a pharmacodynamic property of a drug is called:
a) Idiosyncrasy
b) Hypersensitivity
c) Tolerance
d) Teratogenic action
20. Idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is:
a) A type of hypersensitivity reaction
b) A type of drug antagonism
c) Unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively abnormal reaction to a drug
d) Quantitatively exaggerated response
21. Tick the second messenger of G-protein-coupled (metabotropic) receptor:
a) Adenylyl cyclase
b) Sodium ions
c) Phospholipase C
d) cAMP
22. Tick the substance which change s the activity of an effector element but doesn’t belong to
second messengers:
a) cAMP
b) cGMP
c) G–protein
d) Calcium ions
23. When a drug is taken continuously or repeatedly?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
24. What term is used to describe a decrease in responsiveness to a drug which develops in a few
minutes?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
25. Serotonin reuptake inhibitors is:
a-Imitryptaline
b-Sertindole.
c-Sertraline
d-Buspirone
26. COMT inhibitor is:
a-Enticapon
b-Phenelizine
c-Benzricide
d-Acetazolamide
27. Non sedating antianxiety drug is:
a-Propranolol
b-Buspirone
c-Oxizepam
d-Primedone
28. Which of the following is side effect of carbamazipine except:
a-Weight loss.
b-Ototoxicity.
c-Hypotermia
d-Ataxia.
29. Which of the following drugs is not used in treatment of petit mal epilepsy:
a-Ethosuxamide.
b-Clonazipam
c-Acetazolamide.
d-Primidone
30. Which of the following is sigma receptor agonist:
a-Bupropion
b-Levalorphin
c-Ketamine
d-Nalbufin.
31. Addictive ,CNS depressant drug with profound psychological dependence and mild physical
dependence is:
a-Morphine
b-Amphetamine
c-Diazepam
d-Cannabis
32. Long acting benzodiazepine is :
a-Diazepam
b-Oxizepam
c-Medazolam
d-Thiopental
33. Anoxiolytic , antiepileptic , addictive drug contraindicated in patients with porphyria is:
a-Clonazepam.
b-Phenobarbitone
c-Carbamazepam.
d-Valproic acid.
34. Non sedating, non addictive , hepatotoxic broad spectrum antiepileptic drug is:
a-Ethintoin
b-Carbamazipine
c-Diazepam
d- Valproic acid
35. Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of which of the following drugs;
a-Mepyridine
b-Nortryptaline
c-Isocarboxizide
d-Droperidole
36. Pentazocin is used as analgesic in the treatment of:
a-Headache
b-Postoperative pain
c-Gastritis pain
d-Pain of myocardial infarction.
37. Hepatotoxic inhalation anesthetic with inadequate skeletal muscle relaxant effect is :
a-Halothane
b-Enflurane
c-Sevoflurane
d-Nitrous oxide
38. Which of the following anesthetic agents has the shortest recovery time:
a-Thiopental sodium
b-Ketamine
c-Sufentanyl
d-Propofol
39. Which one of the following has the least gastic irritant effect:
a-Pyroxicam
b-Meloxicam
c-Ibuprofin
d-Diclofenac sodium
40. Which of the followings is side effects of l-dopa:
a-Abnormal movement
b-Hypertension
c-Constriction of muscles
d-Gynecomastia.
41. To treat toxicity of acidic drugs, you must give
a-Acidic substance.
b-Basic substance
c-Neutral substance
d-Lipid soluble substance.
42. Effective dose 50 is
a-The dose of the drug that produces the required response in half of the tested individuals.
b-The dose of the drug that produces half maximal effect.
c-The dose of the drug that produces half maximal plasma concentration.
d- The dose of the drug that produces half minimal effect.
43. The drug which has rapid association and rapid dissociation with the receptors is called:
a-Agonist.
b-Antagonist
c-Chelating agent
d-Blocker
44. Drug toxicity of most drugs is exaggerated in :
a-Renal patient
b-Hepatic patient
c-Tolerance
d-Tachyphylaxis.
45. Placebo is a chemical substance which has
a-Affinity and efficacy
B-Affinity And no efficacy
C-Efficacy and no affinity
d-Neither affinity nor efficacy
46. Partial agonist has
a-Partial affinity and efficacy
B-Affinity And partial efficacy.
C-Efficacy and partial affinity
d-Neither affinity nor efficacy
47. A drug undergoing glomerular filtration:
a- Highly bound to plasma proteins.
b free and not bound to plasma protein.
c-Has positively charged quaternary ammonium ion.
d-Has low volume of distribution.
48. Using the Fick Law of Diffusion, how will flux change if membrane thickness is
doubled?
a) It will double
b) It will quadruple
c) It will halve
d) It will quarter
49. To treat overdose toxicity of acidic drug ,you may perform gastric lavage with:
a-Sodium bicarbonate.
b-Ascorbic acid
c-Saline
d-Sodium chloride.
50. Drug disposition is :
a-Absorption and distribution
b-Distribution and metabolism
c-Metabolsim and excretion
d-Distribution + metabolism + excretion.
51. A decrease in renal and liver function, as seen in the elderly, would prolong drug half-life,
____ plasma protein binding, and ____ volume of distribution.
a) Increase; Increase
b) Decrease; Decrease
c) Increase; Decrease
d) Decrease; Increase
52. The lipid-soluble form of a base is ____ and the lipid-soluble form of an acid is
____.
a) Protonated; Protonated
b) Protonated; Unprotonated
c) Unprotonated; Unprotonated
d) Unprotonated; Protonated
53. The non ionized lipid soluble drug with low molecular weight is usually absorbed by:
a-Pinocytosis.
b-Passive diffusion
c-Acitive transport
d-Filtration
54. Which of the following describes an agonist?
a) Any substance that brings about a change in biologic function through its
chemical action
b) A specific regulatory molecule in the biologic system where a drug interacts
c) A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity
d) A drug that binds to a receptor and inhibits or opposes cellular activity
e) A drug directed at parasites infecting the patient
55. Half life of distribution is:
a-The time required for the drug to increase its concentration to 50% of steady state
concentration.
b-Time required for the drug to decrease its concentration to 50% of steady state concentration.
c-Time required for the drug to decrease its biological effect by 50%.
d-Non of above
56. Subacute toxicity study is performed over:
a-1-4 weeks.
b-1-6 months.
c-6-12 months
d-1-2 years
57. Which of the following brain areas is outside blood brain barrier
a-Choroid plexus.
b-Vomiting center.
c-Limbic system.
c-Supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus.
58. What percentage of the steady-state drug concentration is achieved at 3.3 * t(1/2)?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 90%.
59. Damage at which of the following locations would most affect the goals of phase II
biotransformation?
a) Skin
b) Kidneys
c) Lungs
d) Liver.
60. Acidic drugs, such bind primarily to which of the following plasma
proteins?
a) 1-fetoprotein .
b) gamma Globulin
c) Albumin.
d) 1-acid glycoprotein .
61. What organ is responsible for metabolism in the “first pass effect”?
a) Brain
b) Heart
c) Kidney
d) Liver
62. Weak acids are excreted faster in ____ urine and weak bases are excreted faster in____ urine.
a) Acidic; Alkaline
b) Alkaline; Acidic
c) Acidic; Neutral
d) Neutral; Alkaline
e) Alkaline; Neutral
63. To maintain a drug concentration at steady state, the dosing rate should equal the
elimination rate. Which of the following is true? (CL = Drug Clearance)
a) Dosing rate = CL + target concentration
b) Dosing rate = CL - target concentration
c) Dosing rate = CL * target concentration.
d) Dosing rate = CL / target concentration
64. Which of the following metabolically active tissues is the principle organ for drug
metabolism?
a) Skin
b) Kidneys
c) Lungs
d) Liver.
e) GI Tract
65. What type of drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB)?
a) Large and lipid-soluble
b) Large and lipid-insoluble
c) Small and lipid-soluble.
d) Small and lipid-insoluble
66. Bioavailability is the fraction or percentage of administered drug that reaches the systemic
circulation via a given route as compared to what route?
a) Oral
b) IV (intravenous)
c) IO (intraosseous)
d) CSF (cerebrospinal fluid)
67. When an inactive form of the drug is being activated in the body ,it is called
a-Toxic metabolite.
b-Pro-drug.
c-Cleared part.
d-Up regulation.
68. The cause of death in organophosphrus poisoning is:
a-GIT bleeding
b-Hypertension
c-Respiratory failure
b-Congestie heart failure
69. Psudocholinesterase inactivates:
a-Succenylcholine.
b-Methacholine
c-Carbachol
c-Curare.
70. A drug producing mydriasis without cycloplegia is:
a-Homatropine.
b-Pilocarpine.
c-Isoprenaline
d-Phenylephrine.
71. The central effect of anticholinesterase can be prevented by:
a-Acetylcholine.
b-Atropine.
c-Methacholine
d-Dopamine
72. Which of the following drugs is most likely to produce tachycardia
a-Proparanolol
b-Carbachol
c-Neostigmine
d-Trimetaphan.
73. Which of the following drugs is more likely to produce postural hypotension:
a-Tolazoline.
b-Metoprolol
c-Ibobamine
d-Bethanechol
74. Which of the following drugs stimulates nicotinic receptors
a-Trimetaphane
b-Carbachole.
c-Phenoxybenzamine
d-Atenolol.
75. Diastolic blood pressure is likely to be reduced by :
a-Adrenaline
b-Ibobmine
c-Isoprenaline.
d-Non of above
76. Which drug of the following can be used as a nasal decongestant
a-Adrenaline
b-Isoprnaline
c-Dopamine
d-Tetrahydrozoline.
77. Which of the following drugs blocks autonomic ganglia;
a-Nicotine
b-Hyosine
c-Atropine
d-D-tubocurarine.
78. which of the following does not cause bradycardia:
a-Clonidine
b-Reserpine
c-Noradrenaline
d-Prazocin.
79. Urinary retention in an elderly man is most likely to result from:
a-Trimetaphan.
b-Reserpine.
c-Hyosine
d-Atropine
80. Which of the following drugs inhibits uptake of norepinephrine by adrenergic neurons
a-Tyramine .
b-Amitryptayline
c-Amphetamine .
d-Yohimbine.
General Pharmacology
81. Which of the following crosses the blood-brain barrier?
A. GABA
B. Propranolol
C. Suxamethonium
D. Edrophonium
E. Dopamine
82. With regard to drug-receptor binding:
A. A competitive antagonist has no intrinsic activity
B. A partial agonist has less receptor affinity than a full agonist
C. KD is maximal intrinsic efficacy
D. KD is maximal intrinsic efficacy
83. A partial agonist:
A. Always antagonises a full agonist
B: Can never be used to antagonise a full agonist
C: Has a dose response curve similar to that of a full agonist in the presence of a noncompetitive
antagonist.
D. Doesn’t have a dose response curve similar to that of a full agonist in the presence of a noncompetitive
antagonist.
84. Placental transfer of drugs:
A. Increases in late pregnancy
B. Increases late because of decreased albumin
C. Do not cross because > 600 daltons
D. Decreases late because of decreased albumin
85. Therapeutic index:
A. Easy to determine in humans
B. Derived from HD50/ED50
C. Derived from LD50/HD50
D. Derived from LD50/ED50
General Anaesthetics - Inhalational
86. Regarding nitrous oxide at 70%:
A. Synthetised from ? & N2 at 273C
B. Decreases muscle blood flow by 30%
C. Decreases cerebral autoregulation 24%
D. Decreases muscle blood flow by 50%
87. The following drugs are (potent) triggers for malignant hyperthermia:
A. Vitamin B6
B. Suxamethonium
C. Bethanecol
D. Pilocarpine
E. Calcium
F. NSAIDs
88. IPPV with Isoflurane at 1 MAC results in:
A. Depresses cardiovascular reflexes more than halothane
B. Causes decreased conduction velocity
C. Maintains cerebral autoregulation
D. Increased vasodilatation
89. The effect of increased cardiac output on Pa versus time for volatile agents is:
A. Increase slope
B. Decrease slope
C. Decrease then increase slope
D. Increase then decrease slope
90. Nitrous oxide:
A. Supports combustion
B. Is flammable
C. Causes muscle rigidity
D. In tissues is slower to reabsorb than oxygen
91. Nitrous oxide:
A. Has MW of 42
B. Critical temperature 32 C
C. Formed by using iron as a catalyst
D. Does not support combustion
92. Sevoflurane:
A. Is a methylethyl ether
B. Is odourless
C. Is stable in soda lime at 37 degrees
D. Has a boiling point higher than enflurane
93. Sevoflurane:
A. Molecular weight greater then enflurane
B. MAC less than enflurane
C. Contains Cl & F
D. SVP > enflurane
94. Desflurane:
A. Is non-irritant to the airways
B. Is less potent than Sevoflurane
C. Has a higher molecular weight than isoflurane
D. Is a chlorinated methyl ethyl ether
95. Systemic vascular resistance is LEAST changed with:
A. Isoflurane
B. Sevoflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Halothane
96. Isoflurane & enflurane are:
A. Structural isomers
B. Enantiomers
C. Diastereomer
D. Optical isomers
97. Isoflurane:
A. Is a halogenated methyl ethyl ether
B. Higher boiling point than Sevoflurane
C. No odour
D. Enantiomer of enflurane
98. The washout of inhalational anaesthetics
A. Increases with elimination by the liver
B. Related considerably with the duration of anaesthesia
C. Increases in the neonates compared to an adult
D. Decreases in the neonates compared to an adult
Anaesthetics - Intravenous
99. Thiopentone causes a decrease in BP by:
A. Direct decrease in myocardial contractility
B. Fall in systemic vascular resistance
C. Decrease in venous tone
D. Increase in venous tone
Ketamine:
A. Is a direct inotrope
B. Causes bronchodilatation
C. Less likely to see emergence delirium
D. Reduces pharyngeal secretions
100. Benzodiazepine binding site on GABA receptor is:
A. Near Cl- channel
B. Inside the channel
C. Outside the channel
D. On the alpha subunit
101. The drug with the largest volume of distribution at steady state is:
A. Propofol
B. Midazolam
C. Etomidate
D. Thiopentone
102. Midazolam:
A. Water soluble at physiological pH
B. Undergoes oxidative metabolism
C. More lipophilic than lorazepam
D. Causes hypotension
103. Propofol clearance is significantly increased in:
A. Elderly
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Pregnancy
D. Peptic ulcer
104. Ketamine:
A. Direct acting negative isotope
B. Indirectly acts on sympathetic nervous system peripherally
C. Directly on the sympathetic ganglia
D. Is a competitive antagonist at NMDA receptors
105. Propofol
A. Causes decreased hepatic blood flow to influence its own clearance
B. Relatively low clearance in Children
C. Has a high rate of transfer from the peripheral to the central compartment on ceasing an
infulsion
D. Has clinically significant metabolites
106. Cocaine:
A. Blocks reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline
B. Central effects are due to noradrenaline
C. Crosses lipid soluble membranes because its pKa is 2.8
D. Is not metabolised by plasma pseudocholinesterase
107. Lignocaine works by:
A. Altering Na+ permeability
B. Altering membrane structure
C. Reduced Ca++ permeability
D. Increased K+ permeability
108. Regarding local anaesthetic plasma protein binding
A. Is predominantly by albumin
B. Is predominantly by alpha-1 acid glycoprotein
C. Is greater for tetracaine than for bupivacaine
D. Neonates have a greater number of binding sites
109. Hyperkalaemia with suxamethonium is associated with:
A. Myotonic dystrophy
B. Parkinson's disease
C. Meningomyelocoele
D. Cerebral palsy
110. The action of nondepolarising neuromuscular blocking agents is PROLONGED by:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Increased temperature
C. Increased calcium
D. Increased potassium
E. Decreased magnesium
111. Which drugs (competitively) inhibit acetylcholinesterase?
A. Neostigmine
B. Pyridostigmine
C. Physostigmine
D. Edrophonium
112. Regarding vecuronium
A. It accumulates in renal failure
B. Is a benzylisoquinolinium
C. Is a bisquaternary amine
D. Is predominantly renally excreted
113. Succinylcholine can cause:
A. Bradycardia
B. Peptic ulcer
C. ToothacheD. Hallucination)
114. Neostigmine's mechanism of action:
A. Binds covalently to esteric site on AChEsterase
B. Binds electrostatically to esteric site on AChEsterase
C. Binds to anionic site
D. Forms complex with AChEsterase with a shorter halflife than acetylcholine
115. Which of the following drugs is used for acute toxic effects of organophosphate
cholinesterase inhibitors?
a) Atropine
b) Pilocarpine
c) Pralidoxime
d) Edrophonium
116. Acetylcholine is not a specific neurotransmitter at:
a) Sympathetic ganglia
b) Sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings
c) Parasympathetic ganglia
d) Parasympathetic postganglionic nerve endings
117. The mechanism of action of indirect-acting cholinomimetic agents is:
a) Binding to and activation of muscarinic or nicotinic receptors
b) Inhibition of the hydrolysis of endogenous acetylcholine
c) Stimulation of the action of acetylcholinesterase
d) Releasing acetylcholine from storage sites
118. Cholinomimetics is a drug of choice for reversing the effects of nondepolarizing
neuromuscular relaxants?
a) Echothiophate
b) Physostigmine
c) Edrophonium
d) Pilocarpine
119. Stimulation of muscarinic receptors by pilocarpine and choline esters is blocked
competitively by:
a) Edrophonium
b) Atropine
c) Pralidoxime
d) Echothiophate
120. Drugs is both a muscarinic and nicotinic blocker?
a) Atropine
b) Benztropine
c) Hexamethonium
d) Succinylcholine
121. Indicate a muscarinic receptor-blocking drug:
a) Scopolamine
b) Pipecuronium
c) Trimethaphan
d) Pilocarpine
122. Which of the following agents is a ganglion-blocking drug?
a) Homatropine
b) Hexamethonium
c) Rapacuronium
d) Edrophonium
123. Indicate the skeletal muscle relaxant, which is a depolarizing agent:
a) Vencuronium
b) Scopolamine
c) Succinylcholine
d) Hexamethonium
124. Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant?
a) Pancuronium
b) Succinylcholine
c) Hexamethonium
d) Scopolamine
125. Which is rapidly and fully distributed into CNS and has a greater effect than most other
antimuscarinic agents?
a) Atropine
b) Scopolamine
c) Homatropine
d) Ipratropium
126.
The mechanism of atropine action is:
a) Competitive ganglion blockade
b) Competitive muscarinic blockade
c) Competitive neuromuscular blockade
d) Noncompetitive neuromuscular blockade
127. Indicate the alfa1-selective antagonist:
a) Phentolamine
b) Dihydroergotamine
c) Prazosin
d) Labetalol
128. Indicate the irreversible alfa receptor antagonist:
a) Tolazoline
b) Labetalol
c) Prazosin
d) Phenoxybenzamine
129. Which of the following drugs is an nonselective beta receptor antagonist?
a) Metoprolol
b) Atenolol
c) Propranolol
d) Acebutolol
130. Indicate the beta 1-selective antagonist:
a) Propranolol
b) Metoprolol
c) Carvedilol
d) Sotalol
131. Which of the following agents is a beta2–selective antagonist?
a) Tolazolin
b) Pindolol
c) Ergotamin
d) Butoxamine
132. Indicate the beta adrenoreceptor antagonist, which has partial beta–agonist activity:
a) Propranolol
b) Metoprolol
c) Pindolol
d) Betaxolol
133. Which of the following drugs is a reversible nonselective alfa, beta antagonist?
a) Labetalol
b) Phentolamine
c) Metoprolol
d) Propranolol
134. Indicate the indirect-acting adrenoreceptor blocking drug:
a) Tolazoline
b) Reserpine
c) Carvedilol
d) Prazosin
135. Nonselective alfa-receptor antagonists are most useful in the treatment of:
a) Asthma
b) Cardiac arrhythmias
c) Pheochromocytoma
d) Chronic hypertension
136. Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of pheochromocytoma?
a) Phenylephrine
b) Propranolol
c) Phentolamine
d) Epinephrine
137. Indicate adrenoreceptor antagonist agents, which are used for the management of
pheochromocytoma:
a) Selective beta2-receptor antagonists
b) Nonselective beta-receptor antagonists
c) Indirect-acting adrenoreceptor antagonist drugs
d) Αlfa-receptor antagonists
138. Nonselective alfa-receptor antagonist, which is an ergot derivative:
a) Ergotamine
b) Prazosin
c) Phenoxybenzamine
d) Carvedilol
139. Which has great selectivity for alfa1a subtype:
a) Prazosin
b) Tamsulosin
c) Phenoxybenzamine
d) Phentolamine
140. Metoprolol and atenolol:
a) Are members of the beta 1-selective group
b) Are nonselective beta antagonists
c) Have intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
d) Have an anesthetic action
141. Indicate a beta receptor antagonist, which has very long duration of action:
a) Metoprolol
b) Propranolol
c) Nadolol
d) Pindolol
142. Indicate a beta receptor antagonist with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity:
a) Propranolol
b) Oxprenolol
c) Metoprolol
d) Carvedilol
143. Indicate the adrenoreceptor antagonist drug, which is a rauwolfia alkaloid:
a) Prazosin
b) Propranolol
c) Reserpine
d) Phentolamine
144. A beta-blocker, which is particularly efficacious in thyroid storm:
a) Pindolol
b) Sotalol
c) Phentolamine
d) Propranolol
145. Which of the following sympathomimetics acts indirectly?
a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Ephedrine
d) Methoxamine
146. Epinephrine decreases intracellular camp levels by acting on:
a) α1 receptor
b) α2 receptor
c) beta1 receptor
d) beta2 receptor
147. Direct effects on the heart are determined largely by:
a) Alfa1 receptor
b) Alfa2 receptor
c) Beta1 receptor
d) Beta2 receptor
148. Which of the following effects is related to direct beta1-adrenoreceptor stimulation?
a) Bronchodilation
b) Vasodilatation
c) Tachycardia
d) Bradycardia
149. Alfa and beta1 adrenergic stimulation produces the same effect?
a) Blood vessels
b) Intestine
c) Uterus
d) Bronchial muscles
150. A bronchial smooth muscle contains:
a) Αlfa1 receptor
b) Αlfa2 receptor
c) Beta 1 receptor
d) Beta 2 receptor
151. Which is a direct-acting both alfa- and beta-receptor agonist:
a) Norepinephrine
b) Methoxamine
c) Isoproterenol
d) Ephedrine
152. Which of the following agents is an alfa1 alfa2 beta1 beta2 receptor agonist?
a) Methoxamine
b) Albuterol
c) Epinephrine
d) Norepinephrine
153. Indicate the direct-acting sympathomimetic, which is an alfa1 alfa2 beta1 receptor
agonist:
a) Isoproterenol
b) Ephedrine
c) Dobutamine
d) Norepinephrine
154. Which of the following agents is an alfa1-selective agonist?
a) Norepinephrine
b) Methoxamine
c) Ritodrine
d) Ephedrine
155. Indicate the alfa 2-selective agonist:
a) Xylometazoline
b) Epinephrine
c) Dobutamine
d) Methoxamine
156. Nonselective beta receptor agonist?
a) Norepinephrine
b) Terbutaline
c) Isoproterenol
d) Dobutamine
157. Indicate the beta1-selective agonist:
a) Isoproterenol
b) Dobutamine
c) Metaproterenol
d) Epinephrine
158. Sympathomimetics is a beta2-selective agonist?
a) Terbutaline
b) Xylometazoline
c) Isoproterenol
d) Dobutamine
159. Indicate the indirect-acting sympathomimetic agent:
a) Epinephrine
b) Phenylephrine
c) Ephedrine
d) Isoproterenol
160. Norepinephrine produces:
a) Vasoconstriction
b) Vasodilatation
c) Bronchodilation
d) Decresed potassium concentration in the plasma
161. Isoproterenol is:
a) Both an alfa- and beta-receptor agonist
b) beta1-selective agonist
c) beta2-selective agonist
d) Nonselective beta receptor agonist
162. Ephedrine causes:
a) Miosis
b) Bronchodilation
c) Hypotension
d) Bradycardia
163. Treatment of chronic orthostatic hypotension?
a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Ephedrine
d) Salmeterol
164. Which is used in a hypotensive emergency:
a) Xylometazoline
b) Ephedrine
c) Terbutaline
d) Phenylephrine
165. Sympathomimetics is preferable for the emergency therapy of cardiogenic shock?
a) Epinephrine
b) Dobutamine
c) Isoproterenol
d) Methoxamine
166. Sympathomimetics is used in the therapy of bronchial asthma?
a) Formoterol
b) Norepinephrine
c) Methoxamine
d) Dobutamine
167. The pathophysiologic basis for antiparkinsonism therapy is:
a) A selective loss of dopaminergic neurons
b) The loss of some cholinergic neurons
c) The loss of the GABAergic cells
d) The loss of glutamatergic neurons
168. Indicate the drug that induces parkinsonian syndromes:
a) Chlorpromazine
b) Diazepam
c) Triazolam
d) Carbamazepine
169. Drugs is used in the treatment of Parkinsonian disorders?
a) Phenytoin
b) Selegiline
c) Haloperidol
d) Fluoxetine
170. The treatment of the drug-induced form of parkinsonism:
a) Levodopa
b) Bromocriptine
c) Benztropine
d) Dopamine
171. Agents is the precursor of dopamine?
a) Bromocriptine
b) Levodopa
c) Selegiline
d) Amantadine
172. Indicate a peripheral dopa decarboxylase inhibitor:
a) Tolcapone
b) Clozapine
c) Carbidopa
d) Selegiline
173. The mechanism of carbidopa′s action is:
a) Stimulating the synthesis, release
b) Inhibition of dopa decarboxilase
c) Stimulating dopamine receptors
d) Selective inhibition of catecol-O-methyltransferase
174. Agents is the most helpful in counteracting the behavioral complications of levodopa?
a) Tolkapone
b) Clozapine
c) Carbidopa
d) Pergolide
175. Vitamins reduces the beneficial effects of levodopa by enhancing its extracerebral
metabolism?
a) Pyridoxine
b) Thiamine
c) Tocopherol
d) Riboflavin
176. Indicate D2 receptor agonist with antiparkinsonian activity:
a) Sinemet
b) Levodopa
c) Bromocriptine
d) Selegiline
177. Antiparkinsonian drugs is an antiviral agent used in the prophylaxis of influenza
A2(Antiviral) ?
a) Selegiline
b) Sinemet
c) Pergolide
d) Amantadine
178. Indicate a selective inhibitor of monoamine oxidase B:
a) Levodopa
b) Amantadine
c) Tolcapone
d) Selegiline
179. The mechanism of amantadine action is:
a) Stimulating the glutamatergic neurotransmission
b) Blocking the excitatory cholinergic system
c) Inhibition of dopa decarboxilase
d) Selective inhibition of catechol-O-methyltransferase
180. Which of the following antiparkinsonism drugs is an anticholinergic agent?
a) Amantadine
b) Selegilin
c) Trihexyphenidyl
d) Bromocriptine
181.
Hypnotic drugs are used to treat:
a) Psychosis
b) Sleep disorders
c) Narcolepsy
d) Parkinsonian disorders
182. Select a hypnotic drug, which is a benzodiazepine derivative:
a) Zolpidem
b) Flurazepam
c) Secobarbital
d) Phenobarbitone
183. Tick a hypnotic agent – a barbituric acid derivative:
a) Flurazepam
b) Zaleplon
c) Thyopental
d) Triazolam
184. Select a hypnotic drug, which is an imidazopyridine derivative:
a) Pentobarbital
b) Temazepam
c) Zolpidem
d) Chloral hydrate
185. Which of the following hypnotic agents is absorbed slowly?
a) Phenobarbital
b) Flurazepam
c) Triazolam
d) Temazepam
186. Which of the following barbiturates is an ultra-short-acting drug?
a) Secobarbital
b) Amobarbital
c) Thiopental
d) Phenobarbital
187. Indicate the barbituric acid derivative, which has 4-5 days elimination half-life:
a) Secobarbital
b) Thiopental
c) Phenobarbital
d) Amobarbital
188. Hepatic microsomal drug-metabolizing enzyme induction leads to:
a) Barbiturate tolerance
b) Cumulative effects
c) Development of physical dependence
d) “hangover” effects
189.
Hypnotics is preferred for elderly patients?
a) Phenobarbital
b) Flurozepam
c) Temazepam
d) Secobarbital
190. Indicate the competitive antagonist of BZ (Benzodiazepines) receptors:
a) Flumazenil
b) Picrotoxin
c) Zolpidem
d) Temazepam
191. Flumazenil blocks the actions of:
a) Phenobarbital
b) Morphine
c) Zolpidem
d) Ethanol
192. Which is an inhibitor of NMDA glutamate receptors:
a) Thiopental
b) Halothane
c) Ketamine
d) Sevoflurane
193. Which of the following general anesthetics belongs to inhalants?
a) Thiopental
b) Desfluran
c) Ketamine
d) Propofol
194. Indicate the anesthetic, which is used intravenously:
a) Propofol
b) Halothane
c) Desflurane
d) Nitrous oxide
195. Which of the following inhalants is a gas anesthetic?
a) Halothane
b) Isoflurane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Desflurane
196. Which reduces arterial pressure and heart rate:
a) Isoflurane
b) Halothane
c) Desflurane
d) Nitrous oxide
197. Inhaled anesthetics causes centrally mediated sympathetic activation leading to a rise in
blood pressure and heart rate?
a) Desflurane
b) Sevoflurane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Isofurane
198. Which decreases the ventilatory response to hypoxia:
a) Sevoflurane
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Desflurane
d) Halothane
199. Which is an ultra-short-acting barbiturate:
a) Fentanyl
b) Thiopental
c) Midazolam
d) Ketamine
200. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which is a benzodiazepine derivative:
a) Midazolam
b) Thiopental
c) Ketamin
d) Propofol
201. Which of the following agents is used to accelerate recovery from the sedative actions of
intravenous benzodiazepines?
a) Naloxone
b) Flumazenil
c) Ketamine
d) Fomepizole
202. Neuroleptics are used to treat:
a) Neurosis
b) Psychosis
c) Narcolepsy
d) Parkinsonian disorders
203. Most antipsychotic drugs:
a) Strongly block postsynaptic d2receptor
b) Stimulate postsynaptic D2 receptor
c) Block NMDA receptor
d) Stimulate 5-HT2 receptor
204. Hyperprolactinemia is caused by blockade of dopamine in:
a) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
b) The pituitary
c) The extrapiramidal system
d) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems
205. Parkinsonian symptoms and tarditive dyskinesia are caused by blockade dopamine in:
a) The nigrostriatal system
b) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems
c) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
d) The tuberoinfundibular system
206. Extrapyramidal reactions can be treated by:
a) Levodopa
b) Benztropine mesylate
c) Bromocriptine
d) Dopamine
207. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs is typical?
a) Clozapine
b) Quetiapine
c) Haloperidol
d) Olanzapine
208. Indicate the a typical antipsychotic drug:
a) Haloperidol
b) Clozapine
c) Thioridazine
d) Thiothixene
209. Antipsychotic drugs has high affinity for D4 and 5-HT2 receptors?
a) Clozapine
b) Fluphenazine
c) Thioridazine
d) Haloperidole
210. Which is a phenothiazine aliphatic derivative:
a) Thiothixene
b) Risperidone
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Clozapine
211. Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a butyrophenone derivative:
a) Droperidol
b) Thioridazine
c) Sertindole
d) Fluphenazine
212.
Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a thioxanthene derivative:
a) Haloperidol
b) Clozapine
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Thiothixene
213. Drug having significant peripheral alpha-adrenergic blocking activity:
a) Haloperidol
b) Chlorpromazine
c) Clozapine
d) Risperidone
214. Indicate the antipsychotic drug having a muscarinic-cholinergic blocking activity:
a) Chlorpromazine
b) Clorprothixene
c) Risperidone
d) Haloperidol
215. Most antipsychotic drugs:
a) Strongly block postsynaptic d2receptor
b) Stimulate postsynaptic D2 receptor
c) Block NMDA receptor
d) Stimulate 5-HT2 receptor
216. Which of the following dopaminergic systems is most closely related to behavior?
a) The hypothalamic-pituitary system
b) The extrapyramidal system
c) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems
d) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
217. Hyperprolactinemia is caused by blockade of dopamine in:
a) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
b) The pituitary
c) The extrapiramidal system
d) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems
218. Parkinsonian symptoms and tarditive dyskinesia are caused by blockade dopamine in:
a) The nigrostriatal system
b) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems
c) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
d) The tuberoinfundibular system
219. Extrapyramidal reactions can be treated by:
a) Levodopa
b) Benztropine mesylate
c) Bromocriptine
d) Dopamine
220. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs is typical?
a) Clozapine
b) Quetiapine
c) Haloperidol
d) Olanzapine
221. Indicate the atypical antipsychotic drug:
a) Haloperidol
b) Clozapine
c) Thioridazine
d) Thiothixene
222. Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a phenothiazine aliphatic derivative:
a) Thiothixene
b) Risperidone
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Clozapine
Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a butyrophenone derivative:
a) Droperidol
b) Thioridazine
c) Sertindole
d) Fluphenazine
223. Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a thioxanthene derivative:
a) Haloperidol
b) Clozapine
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Thiothixene
224. Indicate the antipsychotic agent – a dibenzodiazepine derivative:
a) Fluphenazine
b) Clozapine
c) Risperidone
d) Droperidol
225. Antipsychotic drug having a muscarinic-cholinergic blocking activity:
a) Chlorpromazine
b) Clorprothixene
c) Risperidone
d) Haloperidol
226. Which of the following antipsychotic agents is preferable in patients with coronary and
cerebrovascular disease?
a) Chlorpromazine
b) Fluphenazine
c) Haloperidol
d) Perphenazine
227. Which of the following antipsychotic agents is used in combination with an opioid drug
fentanyl in neuroleptanalgesia?
a) Haloperidol
b) Droperidol
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Clozapine
228. Narcotics analgesics should:
a) Relieve severe pain
b) Induce loss of sensation
c) Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect
d) Induce a stupor or somnolent state
229. Second-order pain is:
a) Sharp, well-localized pain
b) Dull, burning pain
c) Associated with fine myelinated A-delta fibers
d) Effectively reduced by non-narcotic analgesics
230. Which of the following mediators is found mainly in long descending pathways from the
midbrain to the dorsal horn?
a) Prostaglandin E
b) Dynorphin
c) Enkephalin
d) Glutamate
231. Opioid receptor types is responsible for euphoria and respiratory depression?
a) Kappa-receptors
b) Delta-receptors
c) Mu-receptors
d) Beta receptops
232. Opioid receptor type, which is responsible for dysphoria and vasomotor stimulation:
a) Kappa-receptors
b) Delta-receptors
c) Mu-receptors
d) Beta receptors
233. which are located in the locus ceruleus or the lateral tegmental area of the reticular
formation:
a) Dopaminergic
b) Serotoninergic
c) Nonadrenergic
d) Gabaergic
234.
Which of the following analgesics is a phenanthrene derivative?
a) Fentanyl
b) Morphine
c) Methadone
d) Pentazocine
235. Tick narcotic analgesic, which is a phenylpiperidine derivative:
a) Codeine
b) Dezocine
c) Fentanyl
d) Buprenorphine
236. Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?
a) Naloxone
b) Morphine
c) Pentazocine
d) Buprenorphine
237. Indicate the narcotic analgesic, which is a natural agonist:
a) Meperidine
b) Fentanyl
c) Morphine
d) Naloxone
238. Which of the following opioid analgesics is a partial mu receptor agonist?
a) Morphine
b) Methadone
c) Buprenorphine
d) Sufentanyl
239. Partial agonists opioids are
a. buprenorphine
b. morphine
c. fentanyl
d. nalexene
240. Moderate agonists opioids are
a. codeine
b. morphine
c. naloxone
d. fentanyl
241. Strong agonists opioids are
a.morphine
b. codeine
c. naloxone
d. naltrexone
242. Naloxene has a half-life of
a. 15-30mins
b. 30-50mins
c. 30-81.mins
d. 30-95mins
243. Time to peak effect of morphine is
a. 10 min
b. 15 min
c. 20 min
d. 25 min
244. Morphine is conjugated with glucoronic acid in the…
a. kidney
b. brain
c. liver
d. stomach
245. Which of the following CNS stimulants are the agents of selective effect?
a) Analeptics
b) General tonics
c) Psychostimulants
d) Actoprotectors
246. Indicate CNC stimulating drugs, which are the agents of general action:
a) Nootropic agents
b) Analeptics
c) Psychostimulants
d) Antidepressants
247. Which of the following agents belongs to psychostimulants?
a) Meridil
b) Camphor
c) Piracetam
d) Pantocrin
248. Indicate the nootropic agent:
a) Sydnocarb
b) Eleuterococci extract
c) Fluoxetine
d) Piracetam
249. Which of the following agents is a respiratory analeptic?
a) Piracetam
b) Sydnocarb
c) Bemegride
d) Pantocrin
250. Indicate the CNC stimulating drug, which belongs to adaptogens:
a) Amphetamine
b) Eleuterococci extract
c) Caffeine
d) Sydnocarb
251. Actoprotectors are:
a) Stimulators, improving physical efficiency
b) Cognition enhancers, improving the highest integrative brain function
c) Stimulants, raising non-specific resistance towards stresses
d) Agents, stimulating the bulbar respiratory and vasomotor centers
252. Adaptogens cause:
a) Improvment of efficiency using physical loads and acceleration of recovery after the load
b) Stimulation of respiratory and vasomotor centers
c) Temporary relief of the feeling of tiredness, facilitating the professional work and fighting
somnolence
d) Increased resistance towards stress situations and adaptation to extreme conditions
253. Indicate the CNS stimulants, which mitigate conditions of weakness or lack of tone
within the entire organism or in
particular organs?
a) Psychostimulants
b) Analeptics
c) General tonics
d) Antidepressants
254. Which of the following agents is a general tone-increasing drug of plant origin?
a) Meridil
b) Eleuterococci′s extract
c) Pantocrin
d) Caffeine
255. Indicate a general tone-increasing drug, which is an agent of animal origin?
a) Pantocrin
b) Amphetamine
c) Sydnocarb
d) Camphor
256. Indicate the CNS stimulant, which is a piperidine derivative:
a) Meridil
b) Amphetamine
c) Caffeine
d) Sydnophen
257. Which of the following CNS psychostimulants is a sydnonymine derivative?
a) Caffeine
b) Sydnocarb
c) Meridil (methylphenidate hydrochloride)
d) Amphetamine
258. Sydnocarb causes:
a) Decreased sense of fatigue, it facilitates the professional work and fights somnolence
b) The feeling of prosperity, relaxation and euphoria
c) Influx of physical and mental forces, locomotive and speech excitation
d) Peripheral sympathomimetic action
259. Indicate the psychostimulant, which is a methylxantine derivative:
a) Caffeine
b) Sydnocarb
c) Amphetamine
d) Meridil
260. Which of the following psychostimulants acts centrally mainly by blocking adenosine
receptors?
a) Meridil
b) Caffeine
c) Amphetamine
d) Sydnophen
261. Bemegride:
a) Stimulates the medullar respiratory center (central effect)
b) Stimulates hemoreceptors of carotid sinus zone (reflector action)
c) Is a mixed agent (both central and reflector effects)
d) Is a spinal analeptic
262. Which of the following CNS stimulants belongs to nootropics?
a) Camphor
b) Pantocrin
c) Sydnocarb
d) Piracetam
263. Indicate the CNS stimulant, which is used in pediatric medicine, as it improves the
communication with the child,
increases the ability to study and communication with peers, improves school-performance?
a) Meridil
b) Piracetam
c) Bemegride
d) Amphetamine
264. Which of the following CNS stimulants is used for the cerebral stroke treatment?
a) Pantocrin
b) Sydnocarb
c) Piracetam
d) Caffeine
265. contrast to morphine, heroin is:
a) Used clinically
b) More addictive and fast-acting
c) More effective orally
d) Less potent and long-acting