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«Обсуждено»__________________
На заседании кафедры
Протокол № ___от «___»____2017
зав.кафедрой д.м.н., проф. Белов
Г.В.
1. What does “pharmacokinetics”
include?
a) Pharmacological effects of drugs
b) Unwanted effects of drugs
c) Chemical structure of a medicinal
agent
d) Distribution of drugs in the
organism
2. What does “pharmacokinetics”
include?
a) Localization of drug action
b) Mechanisms of drug action
c) Excretion of substances
3. Route of administration when
passage of drugs through liver is
minimized:
a) Oral
b) Transdermal
c) Rectal
d) Intraduodenal
4. Route of drug administration is
mostlikely to lead to the first-pass
effect?
a) Sublingual
b) Oral
c) Intravenous
d) Intramuscular
5. Route of medicinal agent
administration:
a) Rectal
b) Oral
c) Sublingual
d) Inhalation
6. Biotransformation of the drugs is
to render them:
a) Less ionized
b) More pharmacologically active
c) More lipid soluble
d) Less lipid soluble
7. Tick the drug type for which
microsomal oxidation is the most
prominent:
a) Lipid soluble
b) Water soluble
c) Low molecular weight
d) High molecular weight
8. Biotransformation of a medicinal
substance results in:
a) Faster urinary excretion
b) Slower urinary excretion
c) Easier distribution in organism
d) Higher binding to membranes
9. Which of the following processes
proceeds in the second phase of
biotransformation?
a) Acetylation
b) Reduction
c) Oxidation
d) Hydrolysis
10.Half life (t ½) doesn’t depend on:
a) Biotransformation
b) Time of drug absorption
c) Concentration of a drug in plasma
d) Rate of drug elimination
11.Elimination rate constant (Kelim)
is defined by the following
parameter:
a) Rate of absorption
b) Maximal concentration ofa
substance in plasma
c) Highest single dose
d) Half life (t ½)
12.Stimulation of liver microsomal
enzymes can:
a) Require the dose increase of
some drugs
b) Require the dose decrease of some
drugs
c) Prolong the duration ofthe action of
a drug
d) Intensify the unwanted reaction of
a drug
13.Pharmacodynamics involves the
study of following?
a) Mechanisms of drug action
b) Biotransformation of drugs in the
organism
c) Distribution of drugs in the
organism
d) Excretion of drug from the
organism
14.Pharmacodynamics involves the
following?
a) Information about main
mechanisms of drug absorption
b) Information about unwanted
effects
c) Information about biological
barriers
d) Information about excretion of a
drug from the organism
15.If an agonist can produce maximal
effects and has high efficacy it’s
called:
a) Partial agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Full agonist
16.If an agonist can produce
submaximal effects and has
moderate efficacy it’s called:
a) Partial agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Full agonist
17.Tolerance and drug resistance can
be a consequence of:
a) Drug dependence
b) Increased metabolic degradation
c) Depressed renal drug excretion
d) Activation of a drug after hepatic
first-pass
18.The types of antagonism are:
a) Summarized
b) Potentiated
c) Additive
d) Competitive
19.Which isn’t related to a dose or to
a pharmacodynamic property of a
drug is called:
a) Idiosyncrasy
b) Hypersensitivity
c) Tolerance
d) Teratogenic action
20.Idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is:
a) A type of hypersensitivity reaction
b) A type of drug antagonism
c) Unpredictable, inherent,
qualitatively abnormal reaction to a
drug
d) Quantitatively exaggerated
response
21.Tick the second messenger of Gprotein-coupled (metabotropic)
receptor:
a) Adenylyl cyclase
b) Sodium ions
c) Phospholipase C
d) cAMP
22.Tick the substance which change
s the activity of an effector
element but doesn’t belong to
second messengers:
a) cAMP
b) cGMP
c) G–protein
d) Calcium ions
23.When a drug is taken continuously
or repeatedly?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
24.What term is used to describe a
decrease in responsiveness to a
drug which develops in a few
minutes?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
25.Serotonin reuptake inhibitors is:
a-Imitryptaline
b-Sertindole.
c-Sertraline
d-Buspirone
26.COMT inhibitor is:
a-Enticapon
b-Phenelizine
c-Benzricide
d-Acetazolamide
27.Non sedating antianxiety drug is:
a-Propranolol
b-Buspirone
c-Oxizepam
d-Primedone
28.Which of the following is side
effect of carbamazipine except:
a-Weight loss.
b-Ototoxicity.
c-Hypotermia
d-Ataxia.
29.Which of the following drugs is
not used in treatment of petit mal
epilepsy:
a-Ethosuxamide.
b-Clonazipam
c-Acetazolamide.
d-Primidone
30.Which of the following is sigma
receptor agonist:
a-Bupropion
b-Levalorphin
c-Ketamine
d-Nalbufin.
31.Addictive ,CNS depressant drug
with profound psychological
dependence and mild physical
dependence is:
a-Morphine
b-Amphetamine
c-Diazepam
d-Cannabis
32.Long acting benzodiazepine is :
a-Diazepam
b-Oxizepam
c-Medazolam
d-Thiopental
33.Anoxiolytic , antiepileptic ,
addictive drug contraindicated in
patients with porphyria is:
a-Clonazepam.
b-Phenobarbitone
c-Carbamazepam.
d-Valproic acid.
34.Non sedating, non addictive ,
hepatotoxic broad spectrum
antiepileptic drug is:
a-Ethintoin
b-Carbamazipine
c-Diazepam
d- Valproic acid
35.Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect
of which of the following drugs;
a-Mepyridine
b-Nortryptaline
c-Isocarboxizide
d-Droperidole
36.Pentazocin is used as analgesic in
the treatment of:
a-Headache
b-Postoperative pain
c-Gastritis pain
d-Pain of myocardial infarction.
37.Hepatotoxic inhalation anesthetic
with inadequate skeletal muscle
relaxant effect is :
a-Halothane
b-Enflurane
c-Sevoflurane
d-Nitrous oxide
38.Which of the following anesthetic
agents has the shortest recovery
time:
a-Thiopental sodium
b-Ketamine
c-Sufentanyl
d-Propofol
39.Which one of the following has the
least gastic irritant effect:
a-Pyroxicam
b-Meloxicam
c-Ibuprofin
d-Diclofenac sodium
40.Which of the followings is side
effects of l-dopa:
a-Abnormal movement
b-Hypertension
c-Constriction of muscles
d-Gynecomastia.
41.To treat toxicity of acidic drugs,
you must give
a-Acidic substance.
b-Basic substance
c-Neutral substance
d-Lipid soluble substance.
42.Effective dose 50 is
a-The dose of the drug that produces
the required response in half of the
tested individuals.
b-The dose of the drug that
produces half maximal effect.
c-The dose of the drug that produces
half maximal plasma concentration.
d- The dose of the drug that produces
half minimal effect.
43.The drug which has rapid
association and rapid dissociation
with the receptors is called:
a-Agonist.
b-Antagonist
c-Chelating agent
d-Blocker
44.Drug toxicity of most drugs is
exaggerated in :
a-Renal patient
b-Hepatic patient
c-Tolerance
d-Tachyphylaxis.
45.Placebo is a chemical substance
which has
a-Affinity and efficacy
B-Affinity And no efficacy
C-Efficacy and no affinity
d-Neither affinity nor efficacy
46.Partial agonist has
a-Partial affinity and efficacy
B-Affinity And partial efficacy.
C-Efficacy and partial affinity
d-Neither affinity nor efficacy
47.A drug undergoing glomerular
filtration:
a- Highly bound to plasma proteins.
b free and not bound to plasma
protein.
c-Has positively charged quaternary
ammonium ion.
d-Has low volume of distribution.
48.Using the Fick Law of Diffusion,
how will flux change if membrane
thickness is
doubled?
a) It will double
b) It will quadruple
c) It will halve
d) It will quarter
49.To treat overdose toxicity of acidic
drug ,you may perform gastric
lavage with:
a-Sodium bicarbonate.
b-Ascorbic acid
c-Saline
d-Sodium chloride.
50.Drug disposition is :
a-Absorption and distribution
b-Distribution and metabolism
c-Metabolsim and excretion
d-Distribution + metabolism +
excretion.
51.A decrease in renal and liver
function, as seen in the elderly,
would prolong drug half-life, ____
plasma protein binding, and ____
volume of distribution.
a) Increase; Increase
b) Decrease; Decrease
c) Increase; Decrease
d) Decrease; Increase
52.The lipid-soluble form of a base is
____ and the lipid-soluble form of
an acid is
____.
a) Protonated; Protonated
b) Protonated; Unprotonated
c) Unprotonated; Unprotonated
d) Unprotonated; Protonated
53.The non ionized lipid soluble drug
with low molecular weight is
usually absorbed by:
a-Pinocytosis.
b-Passive diffusion
c-Acitive transport
d-Filtration
54.Which of the following describes
an agonist?
a) Any substance that brings about a
change in biologic function through
its
chemical action
b) A specific regulatory molecule in
the biologic system where a drug
interacts
c) A drug that binds to a receptor
and stimulates cellular activity
d) A drug that binds to a receptor and
inhibits or opposes cellular activity
e) A drug directed at parasites
infecting the patient
55.Half life of distribution is:
a-The time required for the drug to
increase its concentration to 50% of
steady state concentration.
b-Time required for the drug to
decrease its concentration to 50% of
steady state concentration.
c-Time required for the drug to
decrease its biological effect by 50%.
d-Non of above
56.Subacute toxicity study is
performed over:
a-1-4 weeks.
b-1-6 months.
c-6-12 months
d-1-2 years
57.Which of the following brain areas
is outside blood brain barrier
a-Choroid plexus.
b-Vomiting center.
c-Limbic system.
c-Supraoptic nucleus of the
hypothalamus.
58.What percentage of the steadystate drug concentration is
achieved at 3.3 * t(1/2)?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 90%.
59.Damage at which of the following
locations would most affect the
goals of phase II
biotransformation?
a) Skin
b) Kidneys
c) Lungs
d) Liver.
60.Acidic drugs, such bind primarily
to which of the following plasma
proteins?
a) 1-fetoprotein .
b) gamma Globulin
c) Albumin.
d) 1-acid glycoprotein .
61.What organ is responsible for
metabolism in the “first pass
effect”?
a) Brain
b) Heart
c) Kidney
d) Liver
62.Weak acids are excreted faster in
____ urine and weak bases are
excreted faster in____ urine.
a) Acidic; Alkaline
b) Alkaline; Acidic
c) Acidic; Neutral
d) Neutral; Alkaline
e) Alkaline; Neutral
63.To maintain a drug concentration
at steady state, the dosing rate
should equal the
elimination rate. Which of the
following is true? (CL = Drug
Clearance)
a) Dosing rate = CL + target
concentration
b) Dosing rate = CL - target
concentration
c) Dosing rate = CL * target
concentration.
d) Dosing rate = CL / target
concentration
64.Which of the following
metabolically active tissues is the
principle organ for drug
metabolism?
a) Skin
b) Kidneys
c) Lungs
d) Liver.
e) GI Tract
65.What type of drugs can cross the
blood-brain barrier (BBB)?
a) Large and lipid-soluble
b) Large and lipid-insoluble
c) Small and lipid-soluble.
d) Small and lipid-insoluble
66.Bioavailability is the fraction or
percentage of administered drug
that reaches the systemic
circulation via a given route as
compared to what route?
a) Oral
b) IV (intravenous)
c) IO (intraosseous)
d) CSF (cerebrospinal fluid)
67.When an inactive form of the drug
is being activated in the body ,it is
called
a-Toxic metabolite.
b-Pro-drug.
c-Cleared part.
d-Up regulation.
68.The cause of death in
organophosphrus poisoning is:
a-GIT bleeding
b-Hypertension
c-Respiratory failure
b-Congestie heart failure
69.Psudocholinesterase inactivates:
a-Succenylcholine.
b-Methacholine
c-Carbachol
c-Curare.
70.A drug producing mydriasis
without cycloplegia is:
a-Homatropine.
b-Pilocarpine.
c-Isoprenaline
d-Phenylephrine.
71.The central effect of
anticholinesterase can be
prevented by:
a-Acetylcholine.
b-Atropine.
c-Methacholine
d-Dopamine
72.Which of the following drugs is
most likely to produce tachycardia
a-Proparanolol
b-Carbachol
c-Neostigmine
d-Trimetaphan.
73.Which of the following drugs is
more likely to produce postural
hypotension:
a-Tolazoline.
b-Metoprolol
c-Ibobamine
d-Bethanechol
74.Which of the following drugs
stimulates nicotinic receptors
a-Trimetaphane
b-Carbachole.
c-Phenoxybenzamine
d-Atenolol.
75.Diastolic blood pressure is likely
to be reduced by :
a-Adrenaline
b-Ibobmine
c-Isoprenaline.
d-Non of above
76.Which drug of the following can
be used as a nasal decongestant
a-Adrenaline
b-Isoprnaline
c-Dopamine
d-Tetrahydrozoline.
77.Which of the following drugs
blocks autonomic ganglia;
a-Nicotine
b-Hyosine
c-Atropine
d-D-tubocurarine.
78.which of the following does not
cause bradycardia:
a-Clonidine
b-Reserpine
c-Noradrenaline
d-Prazocin.
79.Urinary retention in an elderly man
is most likely to result from:
a-Trimetaphan.
b-Reserpine.
c-Hyosine
d-Atropine
80.Which of the following drugs
inhibits uptake of norepinephrine
by adrenergic neurons
a-Tyramine .
b-Amitryptayline
c-Amphetamine .
d-Yohimbine.
General Pharmacology
81.Which of the following crosses the
blood-brain barrier?
A. GABA
B. Propranolol
C. Suxamethonium
D. Edrophonium
E. Dopamine
82.With regard to drug-receptor
binding:
A. A competitive antagonist has no
intrinsic activity
B. A partial agonist has less receptor
affinity than a full agonist
C. KD is maximal intrinsic efficacy
D. KD is maximal intrinsic efficacy
83.A partial agonist:
A. Always antagonises a full agonist
B: Can never be used to antagonise a
full agonist
C: Has a dose response curve
similar to that of a full agonist in
the presence of a non-competitive
antagonist.
D. Doesn’t have a dose response
curve similar to that of a full agonist
in the presence of a non-competitive
antagonist.
84.Placental transfer of drugs:
A. Increases in late pregnancy
B. Increases late because of decreased
albumin
C. Do not cross because > 600 daltons
D. Decreases late because of
decreased albumin
85.Therapeutic index:
A. Easy to determine in humans
B. Derived from HD50/ED50
C. Derived from LD50/HD50
D. Derived from LD50/ED50
General Anaesthetics - Inhalational
86.Regarding nitrous oxide at 70%:
A. Synthetised from ? & N2 at 273C
B. Decreases muscle blood flow by
30%
C. Decreases cerebral
autoregulation 24%
D. Decreases muscle blood flow by
50%
87.The following drugs are (potent)
triggers for malignant
hyperthermia:
A. Vitamin B6
B. Suxamethonium
C. Bethanecol
D. Pilocarpine
E. Calcium
F. NSAIDs
88.IPPV with Isoflurane at 1 MAC
results in:
A. Depresses cardiovascular reflexes
more than halothane
B. Causes decreased conduction
velocity
C. Maintains cerebral autoregulation
D. Increased vasodilatation
89.The effect of increased cardiac
output on Pa versus time for
volatile agents is:
A. Increase slope
B. Decrease slope
C. Decrease then increase slope
D. Increase then decrease slope
90.Nitrous oxide:
A. Supports combustion
B. Is flammable
C. Causes muscle rigidity
D. In tissues is slower to reabsorb
than oxygen
91.Nitrous oxide:
A. Has MW of 42
B. Critical temperature 32 C
C. Formed by using iron as a
catalyst
D. Does not support combustion
92.Sevoflurane:
A. Is a methylethyl ether
B. Is odourless
C. Is stable in soda lime at 37 degrees
D. Has a boiling point higher than
enflurane
93.Sevoflurane:
A. Molecular weight greater then
enflurane
B. MAC less than enflurane
C. Contains Cl & F
D. SVP > enflurane
94.Desflurane:
A. Is non-irritant to the airways
B. Is less potent than Sevoflurane
C. Has a higher molecular weight than
isoflurane
D. Is a chlorinated methyl ethyl ether
95.Systemic vascular resistance is
LEAST changed with:
A. Isoflurane
B. Sevoflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Halothane
96.Isoflurane & enflurane are:
A. Structural isomers
B. Enantiomers
C. Diastereomer
D. Optical isomers
97.Isoflurane:
A. Is a halogenated methyl ethyl
ether
B. Higher boiling point than
Sevoflurane
C. No odour
D. Enantiomer of enflurane
98.The washout of inhalational
anaesthetics
A. Increases with elimination by the
liver
B. Related considerably with the
duration of anaesthesia
C. Increases in the neonates compared
to an adult
D. Decreases in the neonates
compared to an adult
Anaesthetics - Intravenous
99.Thiopentone causes a decrease in
BP by:
A. Direct decrease in myocardial
contractility
B. Fall in systemic vascular resistance
C. Decrease in venous tone
D. Increase in venous tone
Ketamine:
A. Is a direct inotrope
B. Causes bronchodilatation
C. Less likely to see emergence
delirium
D. Reduces pharyngeal secretions
100. Benzodiazepine binding site on
GABA receptor is:
A. Near Cl- channel
B. Inside the channel
C. Outside the channel
D. On the alpha subunit
101. The drug with the largest
volume of distribution at steady
state is:
A. Propofol
B. Midazolam
C. Etomidate
D. Thiopentone
102. Midazolam:
A. Water soluble at physiological pH
B. Undergoes oxidative metabolism
C. More lipophilic than lorazepam
D. Causes hypotension
103. Propofol clearance is
significantly increased in:
A. Elderly
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Pregnancy
D. Peptic ulcer
104. Ketamine:
A. Direct acting negative isotope
B. Indirectly acts on sympathetic
nervous system peripherally
C. Directly on the sympathetic
ganglia
D. Is a competitive antagonist at
NMDA receptors
105. Propofol
A. Causes decreased hepatic blood
flow to influence its own clearance
B. Relatively low clearance in
Children
C. Has a high rate of transfer from the
peripheral to the central compartment
on ceasing an infulsion
D. Has clinically significant
metabolites
106. Cocaine:
A. Blocks reuptake of dopamine
and noradrenaline
B. Central effects are due to
noradrenaline
C. Crosses lipid soluble membranes
because its pKa is 2.8
D. Is not metabolised by plasma
pseudocholinesterase
107. Lignocaine works by:
A. Altering Na+ permeability
B. Altering membrane structure
C. Reduced Ca++ permeability
D. Increased K+ permeability
108. Regarding local anaesthetic
plasma protein binding
A. Is predominantly by albumin
B. Is predominantly by alpha-1 acid
glycoprotein
C. Is greater for tetracaine than for
bupivacaine
D. Neonates have a greater number of
binding sites
109. Hyperkalaemia with
suxamethonium is associated with:
A. Myotonic dystrophy
B. Parkinson's disease
C. Meningomyelocoele
D. Cerebral palsy
110. The action of nondepolarising
neuromuscular blocking agents is
PROLONGED by:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Increased temperature
C. Increased calcium
D. Increased potassium
E. Decreased magnesium
111. Which drugs (competitively)
inhibit acetylcholinesterase?
A. Neostigmine
B. Pyridostigmine
C. Physostigmine
D. Edrophonium
112. Regarding vecuronium
A. It accumulates in renal failure
B. Is a benzylisoquinolinium
C. Is a bisquaternary amine
D. Is predominantly renally excreted
113. Succinylcholine can cause:
A. Bradycardia
B. Peptic ulcer
C. ToothacheD. Hallucination)
114. Neostigmine's mechanism of
action:
A. Binds covalently to esteric site on
AChEsterase
B. Binds electrostatically to esteric
site on AChEsterase
C. Binds to anionic site
D. Forms complex with AChEsterase
with a shorter halflife than
acetylcholine
115. Which of the following drugs is
used for acute toxic effects of
organophosphate cholinesterase
inhibitors?
a) Atropine
b) Pilocarpine
c) Pralidoxime
d) Edrophonium
116. Acetylcholine is not a specific
neurotransmitter at:
a) Sympathetic ganglia
b) Sympathetic postganglionic
nerve endings
c) Parasympathetic ganglia
d) Parasympathetic postganglionic
nerve endings
117. The mechanism of action of
indirect-acting cholinomimetic
agents is:
a) Binding to and activation of
muscarinic or nicotinic receptors
b) Inhibition of the hydrolysis of
endogenous acetylcholine
c) Stimulation of the action of
acetylcholinesterase
d) Releasing acetylcholine from
storage sites
118. Cholinomimetics is a drug of
choice for reversing the effects of
nondepolarizing neuromuscular
relaxants?
a) Echothiophate
b) Physostigmine
c) Edrophonium
d) Pilocarpine
119. Stimulation of muscarinic
receptors by pilocarpine and
choline esters is blocked
competitively by:
a) Edrophonium
b) Atropine
c) Pralidoxime
d) Echothiophate
120. Drugs is both a muscarinic and
nicotinic blocker?
a) Atropine
b) Benztropine
c) Hexamethonium
d) Succinylcholine
121. Indicate a muscarinic receptorblocking drug:
a) Scopolamine
b) Pipecuronium
c) Trimethaphan
d) Pilocarpine
122. Which of the following agents
is a ganglion-blocking drug?
a) Homatropine
b) Hexamethonium
c) Rapacuronium
d) Edrophonium
123. Indicate the skeletal muscle
relaxant, which is a depolarizing
agent:
a) Vencuronium
b) Scopolamine
c) Succinylcholine
d) Hexamethonium
124. Which of the following drugs is
a nondepolarizing muscle
relaxant?
a) Pancuronium
b) Succinylcholine
c) Hexamethonium
d) Scopolamine
125. Which is rapidly and fully
distributed into CNS and has a
greater effect than most other
antimuscarinic agents?
a) Atropine
b) Scopolamine
c) Homatropine
d) Ipratropium
126. The mechanism of atropine
action is:
a) Competitive ganglion blockade
b) Competitive muscarinic blockade
c) Competitive neuromuscular
blockade
d) Noncompetitive neuromuscular
blockade
127. Indicate the alfa1-selective
antagonist:
a) Phentolamine
b) Dihydroergotamine
c) Prazosin
d) Labetalol
128. Indicate the irreversible alfa
receptor antagonist:
a) Tolazoline
b) Labetalol
c) Prazosin
d) Phenoxybenzamine
129. Which of the following drugs is
an nonselective beta receptor
antagonist?
a) Metoprolol
b) Atenolol
c) Propranolol
d) Acebutolol
130. Indicate the beta1-selective
antagonist:
a) Propranolol
b) Metoprolol
c) Carvedilol
d) Sotalol
131. Which of the following agents
is a beta2–selective antagonist?
a) Tolazolin
b) Pindolol
c) Ergotamin
d) Butoxamine
132. Indicate the beta adrenoreceptor
antagonist, which has partial beta–
agonist activity:
a) Propranolol
b) Metoprolol
c) Pindolol
d) Betaxolol
133. Which of the following drugs is
a reversible nonselective alfa, beta
antagonist?
a) Labetalol
b) Phentolamine
c) Metoprolol
d) Propranolol
134. Indicate the indirect-acting
adrenoreceptor blocking drug:
a) Tolazoline
b) Reserpine
c) Carvedilol
d) Prazosin
135. Nonselective alfa-receptor
antagonists are most useful in the
treatment of:
a) Asthma
b) Cardiac arrhythmias
c) Pheochromocytoma
d) Chronic hypertension
136. Which of the following drugs is
useful in the treatment of
pheochromocytoma?
a) Phenylephrine
b) Propranolol
c) Phentolamine
d) Epinephrine
137. Indicate adrenoreceptor
antagonist agents, which are used
for the management of
pheochromocytoma:
a) Selective beta2-receptor
antagonists
b) Nonselective beta-receptor
antagonists
c) Indirect-acting adrenoreceptor
antagonist drugs
d) Αlfa-receptor antagonists
138. Nonselective alfa-receptor
antagonist, which is an ergot
derivative:
a) Ergotamine
b) Prazosin
c) Phenoxybenzamine
d) Carvedilol
139. Which has great selectivity for
alfa1a subtype:
a) Prazosin
b) Tamsulosin
c) Phenoxybenzamine
d) Phentolamine
140. Metoprolol and atenolol:
a) Are members of the beta 1selective group
b) Are nonselective beta antagonists
c) Have intrinsic sympathomimetic
activity
d) Have an anesthetic action
141. Indicate a beta receptor
antagonist, which has very long
duration of action:
a) Metoprolol
b) Propranolol
c) Nadolol
d) Pindolol
142. Indicate a beta receptor
antagonist with intrinsic
sympathomimetic activity:
a) Propranolol
b) Oxprenolol
c) Metoprolol
d) Carvedilol
143. Indicate the adrenoreceptor
antagonist drug, which is a
rauwolfia alkaloid:
a) Prazosin
b) Propranolol
c) Reserpine
d) Phentolamine
144. A beta-blocker, which is
particularly efficacious in thyroid
storm:
a) Pindolol
b) Sotalol
c) Phentolamine
d) Propranolol
145. Which of the following
sympathomimetics acts indirectly?
a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Ephedrine
d) Methoxamine
146. Epinephrine decreases
intracellular camp levels by acting
on:
a) α1 receptor
b) α2 receptor
c) beta1 receptor
d) beta2 receptor
147. Direct effects on the heart are
determined largely by:
a) Alfa1 receptor
b) Alfa2 receptor
c) Beta1 receptor
d) Beta2 receptor
148. Which of the following effects
is related to direct beta1adrenoreceptor stimulation?
a) Bronchodilation
b) Vasodilatation
c) Tachycardia
d) Bradycardia
149. Alfa and beta1 adrenergic
stimulation produces the same
effect?
a) Blood vessels
b) Intestine
c) Uterus
d) Bronchial muscles
150. A bronchial smooth muscle
contains:
a) Αlfa1 receptor
b) Αlfa2 receptor
c) Beta 1 receptor
d) Beta 2 receptor
151. Which is a direct-acting both
alfa- and beta-receptor agonist:
a) Norepinephrine
b) Methoxamine
c) Isoproterenol
d) Ephedrine
152. Which of the following agents
is an alfa1 alfa2 beta1 beta2
receptor agonist?
a) Methoxamine
b) Albuterol
c) Epinephrine
d) Norepinephrine
153. Indicate the direct-acting
sympathomimetic, which is an
alfa1 alfa2 beta1 receptor agonist:
a) Isoproterenol
b) Ephedrine
c) Dobutamine
d) Norepinephrine
154. Which of the following agents
is an alfa1-selective agonist?
a) Norepinephrine
b) Methoxamine
c) Ritodrine
d) Ephedrine
155. Indicate the alfa 2-selective
agonist:
a) Xylometazoline
b) Epinephrine
c) Dobutamine
d) Methoxamine
156. Nonselective beta receptor
agonist?
a) Norepinephrine
b) Terbutaline
c) Isoproterenol
d) Dobutamine
157. Indicate the beta1-selective
agonist:
a) Isoproterenol
b) Dobutamine
c) Metaproterenol
d) Epinephrine
158. Sympathomimetics is a beta2selective agonist?
a) Terbutaline
b) Xylometazoline
c) Isoproterenol
d) Dobutamine
159. Indicate the indirect-acting
sympathomimetic agent:
a) Epinephrine
b) Phenylephrine
c) Ephedrine
d) Isoproterenol
160. Norepinephrine produces:
a) Vasoconstriction
b) Vasodilatation
c) Bronchodilation
d) Decresed potassium concentration
in the plasma
161. Isoproterenol is:
a) Both an alfa- and beta-receptor
agonist
b) beta1-selective agonist
c) beta2-selective agonist
d) Nonselective beta receptor
agonist
162. Ephedrine causes:
a) Miosis
b) Bronchodilation
c) Hypotension
d) Bradycardia
163. Treatment of chronic
orthostatic hypotension?
a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Ephedrine
d) Salmeterol
164. Which is used in a hypotensive
emergency:
a) Xylometazoline
b) Ephedrine
c) Terbutaline
d) Phenylephrine
165. Sympathomimetics is
preferable for the emergency
therapy of cardiogenic shock?
a) Epinephrine
b) Dobutamine
c) Isoproterenol
d) Methoxamine
166. Sympathomimetics is used in
the therapy of bronchial asthma?
a) Formoterol
b) Norepinephrine
c) Methoxamine
d) Dobutamine
167. The pathophysiologic basis for
antiparkinsonism therapy is:
a) A selective loss of dopaminergic
neurons
b) The loss of some cholinergic
neurons
c) The loss of the GABAergic cells
d) The loss of glutamatergic neurons
168. Indicate the drug that induces
parkinsonian syndromes:
a) Chlorpromazine
b) Diazepam
c) Triazolam
d) Carbamazepine
169. Drugs is used in the treatment
of Parkinsonian disorders?
a) Phenytoin
b) Selegiline
c) Haloperidol
d) Fluoxetine
170. The treatment of the druginduced form of parkinsonism:
a) Levodopa
b) Bromocriptine
c) Benztropine
d) Dopamine
171. Agents is the precursor of
dopamine?
a) Bromocriptine
b) Levodopa
c) Selegiline
d) Amantadine
172. Indicate a peripheral dopa
decarboxylase inhibitor:
a) Tolcapone
b) Clozapine
c) Carbidopa
d) Selegiline
173. The mechanism of carbidopa′s
action is:
a) Stimulating the synthesis, release
b) Inhibition of dopa decarboxilase
c) Stimulating dopamine receptors
d) Selective inhibition of catecol-Omethyltransferase
174. Agents is the most helpful in
counteracting the behavioral
complications of levodopa?
a) Tolkapone
b) Clozapine
c) Carbidopa
d) Pergolide
175. Vitamins reduces the beneficial
effects of levodopa by enhancing
its extracerebral metabolism?
a) Pyridoxine
b) Thiamine
c) Tocopherol
d) Riboflavin
176. Indicate D2 receptor agonist
with antiparkinsonian activity:
a) Sinemet
b) Levodopa
c) Bromocriptine
d) Selegiline
177. Antiparkinsonian drugs is an
antiviral agent used in the
prophylaxis of influenza
A2(Antiviral) ?
a) Selegiline
b) Sinemet
c) Pergolide
d) Amantadine
178. Indicate a selective inhibitor of
monoamine oxidase B:
a) Levodopa
b) Amantadine
c) Tolcapone
d) Selegiline
179. The mechanism of amantadine
action is:
a) Stimulating the glutamatergic
neurotransmission
b) Blocking the excitatory cholinergic
system
c) Inhibition of dopa decarboxilase
d) Selective inhibition of catechol-Omethyltransferase
180. Which of the following
antiparkinsonism drugs is an
anticholinergic agent?
a) Amantadine
b) Selegilin
c) Trihexyphenidyl
d) Bromocriptine
181. Hypnotic drugs are used to
treat:
a) Psychosis
b) Sleep disorders
c) Narcolepsy
d) Parkinsonian disorders
182. Select a hypnotic drug, which is
a benzodiazepine derivative:
a) Zolpidem
b) Flurazepam
c) Secobarbital
d) Phenobarbitone
183. Tick a hypnotic agent – a
barbituric acid derivative:
a) Flurazepam
b) Zaleplon
c) Thyopental
d) Triazolam
184. Select a hypnotic drug, which is
an imidazopyridine derivative:
a) Pentobarbital
b) Temazepam
c) Zolpidem
d) Chloral hydrate
185. Which of the following
hypnotic agents is absorbed
slowly?
a) Phenobarbital
b) Flurazepam
c) Triazolam
d) Temazepam
186. Which of the following
barbiturates is an ultra-short-acting
drug?
a) Secobarbital
b) Amobarbital
c) Thiopental
d) Phenobarbital
187. Indicate the barbituric acid
derivative, which has 4-5 days
elimination half-life:
a) Secobarbital
b) Thiopental
c) Phenobarbital
d) Amobarbital
188. Hepatic microsomal drugmetabolizing enzyme induction
leads to:
a) Barbiturate tolerance
b) Cumulative effects
c) Development of physical
dependence
d) “hangover” effects
189. Hypnotics is preferred for
elderly patients?
a) Phenobarbital
b) Flurozepam
c) Temazepam
d) Secobarbital
190. Indicate the competitive
antagonist of BZ
(Benzodiazepines) receptors:
a) Flumazenil
b) Picrotoxin
c) Zolpidem
d) Temazepam
191. Flumazenil blocks the actions
of:
a) Phenobarbital
b) Morphine
c) Zolpidem
d) Ethanol
192. Which is an inhibitor of NMDA
glutamate receptors:
a) Thiopental
b) Halothane
c) Ketamine
d) Sevoflurane
193. Which of the following general
anesthetics belongs to inhalants?
a) Thiopental
b) Desfluran
c) Ketamine
d) Propofol
194. Indicate the anesthetic, which is
used intravenously:
a) Propofol
b) Halothane
c) Desflurane
d) Nitrous oxide
195. Which of the following
inhalants is a gas anesthetic?
a) Halothane
b) Isoflurane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Desflurane
196. Which reduces arterial pressure
and heart rate:
a) Isoflurane
b) Halothane
c) Desflurane
d) Nitrous oxide
197. Inhaled anesthetics causes
centrally mediated sympathetic
activation leading to a rise in blood
pressure and heart rate?
a) Desflurane
b) Sevoflurane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Isofurane
198. Which decreases the ventilatory
response to hypoxia:
a) Sevoflurane
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Desflurane
d) Halothane
199. Which is an ultra-short-acting
barbiturate:
a) Fentanyl
b) Thiopental
c) Midazolam
d) Ketamine
200. Indicate the intravenous
anesthetic, which is a
benzodiazepine derivative:
a) Midazolam
b) Thiopental
c) Ketamin
d) Propofol
201. Which of the following agents
is used to accelerate recovery from
the sedative actions of intravenous
benzodiazepines?
a) Naloxone
b) Flumazenil
c) Ketamine
d) Fomepizole
202. Neuroleptics are used to treat:
a) Neurosis
b) Psychosis
c) Narcolepsy
d) Parkinsonian disorders
203. Most antipsychotic drugs:
a) Strongly block postsynaptic
d2receptor
b) Stimulate postsynaptic D2 receptor
c) Block NMDA receptor
d) Stimulate 5-HT2 receptor
204. Hyperprolactinemia is caused
by blockade of dopamine in:
a) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of
the medulla
b) The pituitary
c) The extrapiramidal system
d) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal
systems
205. Parkinsonian symptoms and
tarditive dyskinesia are caused by
blockade dopamine in:
a) The nigrostriatal system
b) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal
systems
c) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of
the medulla
d) The tuberoinfundibular system
206. Extrapyramidal reactions can be
treated by:
a) Levodopa
b) Benztropine mesylate
c) Bromocriptine
d) Dopamine
207. Which of the following
antipsychotic drugs is typical?
a) Clozapine
b) Quetiapine
c) Haloperidol
d) Olanzapine
208. Indicate the atypical
antipsychotic drug:
a) Haloperidol
b) Clozapine
c) Thioridazine
d) Thiothixene
209. Antipsychotic drugs has high
affinity for D4 and 5-HT2
receptors?
a) Clozapine
b) Fluphenazine
c) Thioridazine
d) Haloperidole
210. Which is a phenothiazine
aliphatic derivative:
a) Thiothixene
b) Risperidone
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Clozapine
211. Indicate the antipsychotic drug,
which is a butyrophenone
derivative:
a) Droperidol
b) Thioridazine
c) Sertindole
d) Fluphenazine
212. Indicate the antipsychotic drug,
which is a thioxanthene derivative:
a) Haloperidol
b) Clozapine
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Thiothixene
213. Drug having significant
peripheral alpha-adrenergic
blocking activity:
a) Haloperidol
b) Chlorpromazine
c) Clozapine
d) Risperidone
214. Indicate the antipsychotic drug
having a muscarinic-cholinergic
blocking activity:
a) Chlorpromazine
b) Clorprothixene
c) Risperidone
d) Haloperidol
215. Most antipsychotic drugs:
a) Strongly block postsynaptic
d2receptor
b) Stimulate postsynaptic D2 receptor
c) Block NMDA receptor
d) Stimulate 5-HT2 receptor
216. Which of the following
dopaminergic systems is most
closely related to behavior?
a) The hypothalamic-pituitary system
b) The extrapyramidal system
c) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal
systems
d) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of
the medulla
217. Hyperprolactinemia is caused
by blockade of dopamine in:
a) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of
the medulla
b) The pituitary
c) The extrapiramidal system
d) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal
systems
218. Parkinsonian symptoms and
tarditive dyskinesia are caused by
blockade dopamine in:
a) The nigrostriatal system
b) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal
systems
c) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of
the medulla
d) The tuberoinfundibular system
219. Extrapyramidal reactions can be
treated by:
a) Levodopa
b) Benztropine mesylate
c) Bromocriptine
d) Dopamine
220. Which of the following
antipsychotic drugs is typical?
a) Clozapine
b) Quetiapine
c) Haloperidol
d) Olanzapine
221. Indicate the atypical
antipsychotic drug:
a) Haloperidol
b) Clozapine
c) Thioridazine
d) Thiothixene
222. Indicate the antipsychotic drug,
which is a phenothiazine aliphatic
derivative:
a) Thiothixene
b) Risperidone
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Clozapine
Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which
is a butyrophenone derivative:
a) Droperidol
b) Thioridazine
c) Sertindole
d) Fluphenazine
223. Indicate the antipsychotic drug,
which is a thioxanthene derivative:
a) Haloperidol
b) Clozapine
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Thiothixene
224. Indicate the antipsychotic agent
– a dibenzodiazepine derivative:
a) Fluphenazine
b) Clozapine
c) Risperidone
d) Droperidol
225. Antipsychotic drug having a
muscarinic-cholinergic blocking
activity:
a) Chlorpromazine
b) Clorprothixene
c) Risperidone
d) Haloperidol
226. Which of the following
antipsychotic agents is preferable
in patients with coronary and
cerebrovascular disease?
a) Chlorpromazine
b) Fluphenazine
c) Haloperidol
d) Perphenazine
227. Which of the following
antipsychotic agents is used in
combination with an opioid drug
fentanyl in neuroleptanalgesia?
a) Haloperidol
b) Droperidol
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Clozapine
228. Narcotics analgesics should:
a) Relieve severe pain
b) Induce loss of sensation
c) Reduce anxiety and exert a calming
effect
d) Induce a stupor or somnolent state
229. Second-order pain is:
a) Sharp, well-localized pain
b) Dull, burning pain
c) Associated with fine myelinated Adelta fibers
d) Effectively reduced by nonnarcotic analgesics
230. Which of the following
mediators is found mainly in long
descending pathways from the
midbrain to the dorsal horn?
a) Prostaglandin E
b) Dynorphin
c) Enkephalin
d) Glutamate
231. Opioid receptor types is
responsible for euphoria and
respiratory depression?
a) Kappa-receptors
b) Delta-receptors
c) Mu-receptors
d) Beta receptops
232. Opioid receptor type, which is
responsible for dysphoria and
vasomotor stimulation:
a) Kappa-receptors
b) Delta-receptors
c) Mu-receptors
d) Beta receptors
233. which are located in the locus
ceruleus or the lateral tegmental
area of the reticular formation:
a) Dopaminergic
b) Serotoninergic
c) Nonadrenergic
d) Gabaergic
234. Which of the following
analgesics is a phenanthrene
derivative?
a) Fentanyl
b) Morphine
c) Methadone
d) Pentazocine
235. Tick narcotic analgesic, which
is a phenylpiperidine derivative:
a) Codeine
b) Dezocine
c) Fentanyl
d) Buprenorphine
236. Which of the following opioid
analgesics is a strong mu receptor
agonist?
a) Naloxone
b) Morphine
c) Pentazocine
d) Buprenorphine
237. Indicate the narcotic analgesic,
which is a natural agonist:
a) Meperidine
b) Fentanyl
c) Morphine
d) Naloxone
238. Which of the following opioid
analgesics is a partial mu receptor
agonist?
a) Morphine
b) Methadone
c) Buprenorphine
d) Sufentanyl
239. Partial agonists opioids are
a. buprenorphine
b. morphine
c. fentanyl
d. nalexene
240. Moderate agonists opioids are
a. codeine
b. morphine
c. naloxone
d. fentanyl
241. Strong agonists opioids are
a.morphine
b. codeine
c. naloxone
d. naltrexone
242. Naloxene has a half-life of
a. 15-30mins
b. 30-50mins
c. 30-81.mins
d. 30-95mins
243. Time to peak effect of
morphine is
a. 10 min
b. 15 min
c. 20 min
d. 25 min
244. Morphine is conjugated with
glucoronic acid in the…
a. kidney
b. brain
c. liver
d. stomach
245. Which of the following CNS
stimulants are the agents of
selective effect?
a) Analeptics
b) General tonics
c) Psychostimulants
d) Actoprotectors
246. Indicate CNC stimulating
drugs, which are the agents of
general action:
a) Nootropic agents
b) Analeptics
c) Psychostimulants
d) Antidepressants
247. Which of the following agents
belongs to psychostimulants?
a) Meridil
b) Camphor
c) Piracetam
d) Pantocrin
248. Indicate the nootropic agent:
a) Sydnocarb
b) Eleuterococci extract
c) Fluoxetine
d) Piracetam
249. Which of the following agents
is a respiratory analeptic?
a) Piracetam
b) Sydnocarb
c) Bemegride
d) Pantocrin
250. Indicate the CNC stimulating
drug, which belongs to
adaptogens:
a) Amphetamine
b) Eleuterococci extract
c) Caffeine
d) Sydnocarb
251. Actoprotectors are:
a) Stimulators, improving physical
efficiency
b) Cognition enhancers, improving
the highest integrative brain function
c) Stimulants, raising non-specific
resistance towards stresses
d) Agents, stimulating the bulbar
respiratory and vasomotor centers
252. Adaptogens cause:
a) Improvment of efficiency using
physical loads and acceleration of
recovery after the load
b) Stimulation of respiratory and
vasomotor centers
c) Temporary relief of the feeling of
tiredness, facilitating the professional
work and fighting somnolence
d) Increased resistance towards
stress situations and adaptation to
extreme conditions
253. Indicate the CNS stimulants,
which mitigate conditions of
weakness or lack of tone within
the entire organism or in
particular organs?
a) Psychostimulants
b) Analeptics
c) General tonics
d) Antidepressants
254. Which of the following agents
is a general tone-increasing drug of
plant origin?
a) Meridil
b) Eleuterococci′s extract
c) Pantocrin
d) Caffeine
255. Indicate a general toneincreasing drug, which is an agent
of animal origin?
a) Pantocrin
b) Amphetamine
c) Sydnocarb
d) Camphor
256. Indicate the CNS stimulant,
which is a piperidine derivative:
a) Meridil
b) Amphetamine
c) Caffeine
d) Sydnophen
257. Which of the following CNS
psychostimulants is a
sydnonymine derivative?
a) Caffeine
b) Sydnocarb
c) Meridil (methylphenidate
hydrochloride)
d) Amphetamine
258. Sydnocarb causes:
a) Decreased sense of fatigue, it
facilitates the professional work
and fights somnolence
b) The feeling of prosperity,
relaxation and euphoria
c) Influx of physical and mental
forces, locomotive and speech
excitation
d) Peripheral sympathomimetic action
259. Indicate the psychostimulant,
which is a methylxantine
derivative:
a) Caffeine
b) Sydnocarb
c) Amphetamine
d) Meridil
260. Which of the following
psychostimulants acts centrally
mainly by blocking adenosine
receptors?
a) Meridil
b) Caffeine
c) Amphetamine
d) Sydnophen
261. Bemegride:
a) Stimulates the medullar
respiratory center (central effect)
b) Stimulates hemoreceptors of
carotid sinus zone (reflector action)
c) Is a mixed agent (both central and
reflector effects)
d) Is a spinal analeptic
262. Which of the following CNS
stimulants belongs to nootropics?
a) Camphor
b) Pantocrin
c) Sydnocarb
d) Piracetam
263. Indicate the CNS stimulant,
which is used in pediatric
medicine, as it improves the
communication with the child,
increases the ability to study and
communication with peers, improves
school-performance?
a) Meridil
b) Piracetam
c) Bemegride
d) Amphetamine
264. Which of the following CNS
stimulants is used for the cerebral
stroke treatment?
a) Pantocrin
b) Sydnocarb
c) Piracetam
d) Caffeine
265. contrast to morphine, heroin is:
a) Used clinically
b) More addictive and fast-acting
c) More effective orally
d) Less potent and long-acting
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