operative surgery module 2

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Module 2. Operative surgery and topographical anatomy of the lumbar region and
retroperitoneal space, pelvis, pelvic organs, perineum, upper and lower limbs
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Cellular retroperitoneal space is representetad by which of the following layers:
retroperitoneal, perirenal, periureteral cellular spaces;
retroperitoneal, perirenal;
perirenal, periureteral, pericystic;
perirenal, pericolic, pericystic
pericolic, perirenal, periureteral, retroperitoneal *
Which of the following vessels and organs are located in retroperitoneal space?
aorta, kidney, ureters;
suprarenal glands, kidney, inferior caval vein;
kidney, suprarenal gland, ureters;
kidney, suprarenal gland, renal arteries
kidney, suprarenal gland, ureters, abdominal aorta, inferior caval vein; *
Which of the following surgical approaches is best in case of ectopic pregnancy?
median middle laparotomy;
transrectal approach;
transversal Pfannenshtil’s approach;
superior middle laparotomy;
inferior middle laparotomy; *
Which of the following sutures is used in case of cystostomy?
silk nodular;
kapron nodular;
silk continuous;
katgut continuous;
katgut nodular; *
Which of the following surgical approaches is best to pelvic part of ureters?
Kocher’s;
Bergman-Israel’s;
Fedoroff’s;
Pfannenshtil’s;
Pyrogoff’s;*
To confirm the diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy, which was interrupted, puncture of
posterior fornix of vagina was performed. How deep puncture of posterior vaginal vault
is injected with a needle?
1 - 2 сm;
4 - 5 сm;
0,5 - 1 сm;
5 - 6 сm;
2 - 3 сm; *
Suturing of mucous layer of urinary bladder in case of cystostomy could lead to the:
inflammation;
bleeding;
edema of urinary bladder
fistula
formation of stones*
To confirm the diagnosis of nfectious meningitis, spinal puncture was performed. Which
of the following layers needle passes in case of lumbar puncture?
lig. supraspinale;
lig. interspinale;
lig. flavum with dura mater;
skin with subcutaneous tissue
all of these; *
9. Which of the followig incisions is used in case of subcutaneous paraproctitis?
A. from inside of rectum;
B. z-shaped incision, 4-5 cm from anus;
C. through posterior fornix of vagina;
D. through anterior fornix of vagina;
E. radial incision to anus; *
10. Which of the followig incisions is used in case of submucous paraproctitis?
A. radial incision to anus;
B. arcuate incision, 4-5 cm from anus;
C. through posterior fornix of vagina;
D. z-shaped incision.
E. from inside of rectum; *
11. Which of the followig incisions is used in case of ishio-rectal paraproctitis?
A. from inside of rectum;
B. through anterior fornix of vagina;
C. through posterior fornix of vagina;
D. radial incision to anus.
E. arcuate incision, 4-5 cm from anus; *
12. Floor of Pti’s triangle is formed by:
A. m. serratus post. inf.
B. m. obliquus abdominis ext.
C. f. lumbodorsalis
D. m. latissimus dorsi
E. m. obliquus abdominis int. *
13. Leshaft-Hryunfeldt’s rhombus is bounded from above by:
A. ХІІ rib
B. medial edge of m. obliquus abdominis ext.
C. f. lumbodorsalis
D. all of these
E. lower edge of m. serratus post. inf.*
14. Leshaft-Hryunfeldt’s rhombus is bounded from above by:
A. ХІІ rib
B. lower edge of m. serratus post. inf.
C. m. latissimus dorsi
D. all are false
E. m. obliquus abdominis int. *
15. Renal pedicle consist of:
A. renal vessels, ureter;
B. renal artery and vein;
C. renal vessels, nerves, ureter;
D. lymph vessels, ureter;
E. renal artery and vein, renal pelvis*
16. The ureter has ______________ narrowings.
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. all are false
E. three *
17. Which unpaired branches arise from abdominal aorta?
A. a. mesenterica sup., a. renalis, a. lumbalis.
B. a. mesenterica inf., aa. рhrenicae inf.
C. a renalis, a. lumbalis.
D. aa. рhrenicae inf.
E. tr. coeliaca, a. mesenterica sup., a. mesenterica inf, a. sacralis mediana *
18. Is this necessary to stitch mucous layer in case of suturing of ureters?
A. yes;
B. in according to types of grafting;
C. in according to types of sutures;
D. in according to incision
E. no; *
19. Which of the following recesses is used to confirm of diagnose of intraabdominal
bleeding?
A. recto-vesical
B. retrorectal
C. utero-vesical
D. prevesical
E. utero-rectal *
20. Rectum is divided into two main parts:
A. superior and inferior
B. saggital and frontal
C. supraampular and ampular
D. peritoneal and infraperitoneal
E. pelvic and perineal*
21. List the venous plexus of the rectum?
A. external and internal;
B. submucous, subcutaneous
C. superior, middle, inferior
D. all are false
E. submucous, subcutaneous, subfascial*
22. Which of the following positions of uterus in pelvis is normal?
A. retroversio, retroflexio;
B. anteversio, retroflexio;
C. retroversio, anteflexio;
D. curved forward in saggital plane зігнута
E. Anteversio, anteflexio; *
23. A. et v. glutea sup., n. gluteus sup. go out from pelvic cavity through which of the
following foramen?
A. for. infrapiriforme
B. great sciatic
C. lesser sciatic
D. external ring of femoral canal
E. for. suprapiriforme *
24. A. pudenda int., a. glutea inf., n. іschiadicus go out from pelvic cavity through which of
the following foramen?
A. lesser sciatic
B. for. suprapiriforme
C. external ring of femoral canal
D. great sciatic
E. for. infrapiriforme*
25. N. ischiadicus goes out from pelvic cavity through which of the following foramen?
A. great sciatic
B. external ring of femoral canal
C. for. suprapiriforme
D. lesser sciatic
E. for. іnfrapiriforme *
26. A man with trauma of leg amputation was performed in 10 hours after injury. It was:
A. secondary late;
B. secondary early;
C. reamputation;
D. necrectomy.
E. primary; *
27. A flap in case of fascioplastic method of amputation consists of which of the following
layers?
A. skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial fascia;
B. skin, subcutaneous tissue;
C. skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial fascia and periosteum;
D. skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial fascia, tendons.
E. skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial and proper fasciae;*
28. Which of the following joints has name “pelvic key”?
A. art. lumbosacralis
B. art. sacrococcygealis
C. symphysis
D. all are false
E. art. sacroiliaca
29. Which of the following arteries is the biggest branch of femoral artery?
A. a. epigastrica superficialis;
B. a. epigastrica superficialis;
C. a. pudenda externa;
D. a. genus descendens;
E. a. profunda femoris;*
30. Which of the cutaneous branches of femoral nerve lies most medial?
A. n. cutaneus femoris lateralis;
B. anterior cutaneous branches;
C. ilio-inguinal nerve;
D. individually;
E. saphenous nerve;*
31. Sciatic nerve divides into its branches at which of the following distance from joint line?
A. 10-12 сm;
B. 13-14 сm;
C. 14-15 сm;
D. at level of popliteal fossa;
E. 7-9 сm;*
32. Superior hole of canalis cruropopliteus is bounded by:
A. from behind – m. popliteus, from front – arcus tendineus m. solei;
B. from sides – lamina profunda fasciae cruris, from front – m. popliteus;
C. from inside – m. flexor digitorum longus, from outside – m. tibialis
posterior;
D. from front – m. soleus, from behind – n. peroneus profundus;
E. from front – m. popliteus, from behind – arcus tendineus m. solei;*
33. Which of the following muscles starts from tuber ishiadicus?
A. m. semimembranosus;
B. m. semitendinosus;
C. m. biceps femoris;
D. none of these;
E. all of these;*
34. Where is the n. ishiadicus in the middle third of the thigh region?
A. between m. semimembranosus and m. semitendinosus;
B. between lower edge of m. gluteus maximus and deep fascia;
C. between m. adductor magnus from front and caput longum of m. biceps
femoris from behind;
D. all of these;
E. between m. biceps femoris from outside, and m. semimembranosus from
inside *
35. Indicate terminal branches of n. peroneus superficialis:
A. n. cutaneous intermedius;
B. n. cutaneous lateralis;
C. n. surae;
D. n. saphenus;
E. n. cutaneous medialis;*
36. Which of the following muscles attaches to the head of the fibula?
A. m. semitendinosus;
B. m. semimembranosus;
C. m. quadriceps femoris;
D. m. adductor magnus;
E. m. biceps femoris; *
37. The medial wall of lacuna vasorum is formed by:
A. v. femoralis;
B. lig. surae superior;
C. arcus iliopectineus;
D. lig. pectineale;
E. lig. lacunare; *
38. Which of the following muscles forms floor of femoral triangle?
A. m. adductor brevis, m. gracilis;
B. m. adductor longus, m. iliopsoas;
C. m. iliopsoas;
D. m. gracilis, m. quadriceps femoris;
E. m. pectineus, m. iliopsoas;*
39. Which of the following anatomical structures goes out through inferior foramen of
adductor canal?
A. a. et v. femoralis;
B. a. et v. femoralis, n. saphenous;
C. a. et v. femoralis, n. ishiadicus;
D. n. femoralis;
E. a., v. et n. femoralis;*
40. The lateral wall of lacuna vasorum is formed by:
A. a. femoralis;
B. lig. lacunare;
C. a. epigastrica inferior;
D. lig. pectineale;
E. lig. іlio-pectineus;*
41. Which of the following anatomical structures forms external wall of femoral canal?
A. a. femoralis;
B. n. saphenus;
C. n. ishiadicus;
D. n. femoralis;
E. v. femoralis;*
42. Which of the following ligaments reinforce capsule of hip joint?
A. lig. pubofemorale, zona orbicularis;
B. lig. capitis femoris, lig. pubofemorale, lig. ishiofemorale;
C. zona orbicularis, lig. transversum acetabuli;
D. all of these;
E. lig. ishiofemorale, lig. iliofemorale, lig. pubofemorale;*
43. Indicate which methods of treatment of varix desease do you know?
A. conservative;
B. sclerosing (injection);
C. surgical;
D. combined;
E. all of these;*
44. Which of the following ligaments reinforce ankle joint from medial side?
A. lig. talofibulare anterius;
B. lig. talofibulare posterius;
C. lig. calcaneofibulare;
D. all of these;
E. lig. mediale (deltoideum); *
45. Anterior wall of femoral canal is formed by:
A. m. adductor longus;
B. v. femoralis;
C. m. gracilis;
D. f. pectinea;
E. f. lata; *
46. Superior wall of obturator canal is formed by:
A. foramen obturatum;
B. membrana obturatoria;
C. m. obturatorius internus;
D. m. obturatorius externus;
E. sulcus obturatorius os pubis;*
47. Indicate projection of n. peroneus communis in popliteal fossa:
A. lateral edge of m. biceps femoris;
B. medial edge of m. semimembranosus;
C. head of fibular bone;
D. lateral edge of m. semitendinosus;
E. medial edge of m. biceps femoris;*
48. Which of the following anatomical structures form floor of popliteal fossa?
A. popliteal surface of femur and lig. popliteum obliquum;
B. m. popliteus;
C. femur bone and m. popliteus;
D. os tibia and m. popliteus;
E. lig. popliteum obliquum and m. popliteus;*
49. Which of the following nerves are located in popliteal fossa?
A. n. femoralis;
B. n. cutaneus femoris lateralis;
C. n. ishiadicus, n. peroneus communis;
D. n. peroneus communis;
E. n. tibialis, n. peroneus communis; *
50. A. рoplitea enters the popliteal fossa after which of the following canals?
A. canalis cruropopliteus;
B. canalis musculoperonaeus superior;
C. canalis musculoperonaeus inferior;
D. all are false;
E. сanalis adductorius; *
51. A. рoplitea goes in which of the following canals after leaving from popliteal fossa?
A. сanalis adductorius;
B. canalis musculoperonaeus superior;
C. canalis musculoperonaeus inferior;
D. all are false;
E. canalis cruropopliteus; *
52. Which of the following anatomical structures takes part in forming of walls of canalis
cruropopliteus?
A. m. tibialis posterior;
B. lamina profunda fasciae cruris;
C. m. flexor digitorum longus;
D. m. soleus;
E. all of these; *
53. Which of the following anatomical structures form anterior wall of canalis
cruropopliteus?
A. m. flexor digitorum longus, m. soleus ;
B. m. soleus, lamina profunda fasciae cruris;
C. lamina profunda fasciae cruris;
D. lamina profunda fasciae cruris, m. tibialis posterior .
E. m. tibialis posterior, m. flexor digitorum longus;*
54. Which of the following anatomical structures goes in fissure of superficial lamina of leg
fascia in middle third of posterior surface of leg?
A. n. peroneus profundus;
B. v. saphena magna;
C. v. saphena parva;
D. n. saphenus;
E. n. peroneus superficialis;*
55. Which of the following anatomical structures take part in forming of “corona mortis”?
A. v.femoralis, a. femoralis, a. epigastrica inf.;
B. v.femoralis, a. femoralis;
C. m. adductor magnus, v. femoralis;
D. lig. inguinale, a. epigastrica inf., a. obturatoria;
E. v.femoralis, a. epigastrica inf., a. obturatoria; *
56. What are the basic requirements for vascular suture?
A. connection of vessels should be performed with minimal narrowing of at
the junction;
B. ends of vessels should be connected end-to-end;
C. hermetic anastomoses;
D. prevention of blood clots;
E. ends of vessels should be connected by their internal surfaces; *
57. What are the absolute indications for amputations?
A. traumatic limb abruption;
B. chronic osteomyelitis of limb with danger of development of internal
organs amyloidosis;
C. severe purulent infection that threatens the health of the patient
(gangrene);
D. malignant tumor;
E. all of these;*
58. Which of the following vessels should be ligated in case of injury of gluteal region?
A. superior gluteal artery;
B. obturator artery;
C. common iliac artery;
D. external iliac artery;
E. internal iliac artery;*
59. The latissimus dorsi muscle is supplied the:
A. Posterior primary rami of thoracic nerves
B. The spinal accessory nerve
C. Branches of local intercostals nerves
D. The suprascapular nerve
E. The thoracodorsal nerve *
60. The musculotendinous cuff of the glenohumeral joint is formed by all of the following
muscles (or their tendons) except the:
A. Teres major *
B. Teres minor
C. Subscapularis
D. Supraspinatus
E. Infraspinatus
61. The muscle, other than the deltoid, which is an abductor of the shoulder joint, is the:
A. Teres major
B. Teres minor
C. Subscapularis
D. Supraspinatus *
E. Infraspinatus
62. The nerve exposed by transecting the infraspinatus muscle and reflecting it toward the
humerus is the:
A. Dorsal scapular nerve
B. Accessory nerve
C. Axillary nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve *
E. None of the above
63. If the muscles listed below contracted simultaneously, which group would be most
effective in elevating the scapula?
A. Trapezius, pectoralis minor
B. Trapezius, pectoralis minor, latissimus dorsi
C. Trapezius, levator scapulae, pectoralis major, subclavius
D. Rhomboid major, levator scapulae, trapezius *
E. Serratus anterior, latissimus dorsi, trapezius, rhomboid major
64. All of the following muscles flex the shoulder except the:
A. Deltoid
B. Pectoralis major
C. Teres major *
D. Coracobrachialis
E. Biceps brachii
65. How could you demonstrate the functional integrity of the serratus anterior muscle?
A. Supinate the forearm
B. Elevate the shoulder
C. Protract (draw forward) the scapula *
D. Retract the scapula
E. Breathe out deeply
66. Which of the following is not a boundary of the quadrangular space?
A. The teres minor
B. The teres major
C. The shaft of the humerus
D. The long head of the triceps
E. The medial head of the triceps *
67. Demonstration of the sternocostal head of the pectoralis major muscle is accomplished by
having the patient:
A. Press the palm firmly against the parietal region of the head *
B. Press the palm firmly medially and downward against the hip
C. Push horizontally forward against resistance
D. Bring the extended arm downward and backward against resistance
E. Brace the shoulder back against resistance
68. Following an automobile accident, a patient exhibits atrophy (wasting) of the trapezius
muscle. Which of the following nerves has been lesioned?
A. The radial nerve
B. The thoracodorsal nerve
C. The ulnar nerve
D. The spinal accessory nerve *
E. The long thoracic nerve
69. The trapezius muscle contributes to all of the following except:
A. Carrying a weight in the hand – with the arm at the side
B. Carrying a load on the shoulder
C. Pushing a cart *
D. Tilting the head back (extension)
E. Full abduction of the arm
70. Which of the following muscles does not have an attachment to the scapula?
A. The coracobrachialis
B. The serratus anterior
C. The pectoralis major *
D. The triceps
E. The biceps
71. The biceps brachii is a prime mover in:
A. Extension of the elbow
B. Flexion of the wrist
C. Pronation
D. Supination *
E. Abduction of the shoulder
72. The supinator muscle and the biceps brachii are both:
A. Innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve
B. Supinators of the flexed forearm *
C. Innervated by the radial nerve
D. Innervated by the ulnar nerve
E. Innervated by the median nerve
73. Of the following muscles, the only one that would laterally rotate the humerus is the:
A. Pectoralis major
B. Teres major
C. Teres minor *
D. Latissimus dorsi
E. Subscapularis
74. Which of the following muscles is not a medial rotator of the arm?
A. The subscapularis
B. The teres major
C. The teres minor *
D. The latissimus dorsi
E. The pectoralis major
75. What is reamputation:
A. Second amputation
B. Amputation after 48 hours
C. Amputation after 7-8 days
D. Final amputation
E. Repeated amputation *
76. How many articulations form the Lisfrank’s joint:
A. 2 *
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
77. Following a circular amputation at midthigh, muscles retract unevenly, with those having
no femoral attachment retracting the most. Which of the following muscles wound retract
the least?
A. The sartorius
B. The rectus femoris
C. The adductor longus *
D. The gracilis
E. The semimembranosus
78. What is amputation?
A. Cutting of the distal part for the extremity length *
B. Cutting of the distal part through the joint line
C. Cutting of the proximal part for the extremity length
D. Cutting of the distal extremity part
E. None of the above.
79. What is disarticulation?
A. Cutting of the distal part for the extremity length
B. Cutting of the distal part through the joint line *
C. Cutting of the proximal part for the extremity length
D. Cutting of the distal extremity part
E. None of the above.
80. What is the level of amputation?
A. Level of skin cutting
B. Level of superficial muscles cutting
C. Level of bone cutting *
D. Level of deep muscles cutting
E. Level of skin and superficial muscles cutting.
81. Which of the following surfaces is working for III and IV fingers:
A. Palmar *
B. Dorsal
C. Ulnar
D. Radial
E. All of the above.
82. Which of the following surfaces is working for II finger:
A. Palmar
B. Dorsal
C. Palmar and dorsal
D. Palmar and ulnar
E. Palmar and radial. *
83. Which of the following surfaces is working for V finger:
A. Palmar
B. Dorsal
C. Ulnar and radial
D. Palmar and radial
E. Palmar and ulnar. *
84. Working surface for the stump of lower limb is:
A. Anterior *
B. Posterior
C. Lateral
D. Medial
E. Anterior and posterior.
85. What is primary amputation?
A. Primary surgical debridement with removal of unviable extremity part *
B. Amputation after 7-8 days.
C. Amputation in cases of osteomyelitis or multiple ankylosis
D. Amputation in case of false stump that is impossible to make prosthetic appliance
E. Amputation in case of false extremity position.
86. What is secondary amputation?
A. Primary surgical debridement with removal of unviable extremity part
B. Amputation after 7-8 days *
C. Amputation in cases of osteomyelitis or multiple ankylosis
D. Amputation in case of false stump that is impossible to make prosthetic appliance
E. Amputation in case of false extremity position.
87. What is final amputation?
A. Primary surgical debridement with removal of unviable extremity part
B. Amputation after 7-8 days
C. Amputation in cases of osteomyelitis or multiple ankylosis *
D. Amputation in case of false stump that is impossible to make prosthetic appliance
E. Amputation in case of false extremity position.
88. What is immediate amputation?
A. Primary surgical debridement with removal of unviable extremity part
B. Amputation after 7-8 days
C. Amputation in cases of osteomyelitis or multiple ankylosis
D. Amputation in case of false stump that is impossible to make prosthetic appliance
E. Amputation within the limits of 12 hours after injure. *
89. What is repeated amputation?
A. Primary surgical debridement with removal of unviable extremity part
B. Amputation after 7-8 days
C. Amputation in cases of osteomyelitis or multiple ankylosis
D. Amputation in case of false stump that is impossible to make prosthetic appliance
*
E. Amputation in case of false extremity position.
90. What is guillotine amputation?
A. Cutting of the soft tissue and the bone on the same level *
B. Cutting of the skin and muscles on the different levels
C. Central amputation
D. Сutting of the skin, subcutaneous tissue and superficial muscles on the same level
E. Cutting of the superficial and deep muscles on the different levels.
91. What is two-steps circular amputation?
A. Cutting of the soft tissue and the bone on the same level
B. Cutting of the skin with subcutaneous tissue and muscles on the different levels *
C. Central amputation
D. Сutting of the skin, subcutaneous tissue and superficial muscles on the same level
E. Cutting of the superficial and deep muscles on the different levels.
92. What is three-steps circular amputation?
A. Cutting of the soft tissue and the bone on the same level
B. Cutting of the skin with subcutaneous tissue and muscles on the different levels *
C. Central amputation
D. Сutting of the skin, subcutaneous tissue and superficial muscles on the same level
E. Cutting of the skin with subcutaneous tissue, superficial and deep muscles on the
different levels. *
93. The first step of amputation is:
A. Soft tissue cutting *
B. Cutting and treatment of the bone
C. Vessels, nerves treatment and stump formation
D. Stump formation
E. Cutting of the fascia and muscles.
94. The second step of amputation is:
A. Soft tissue cutting
B. Cutting and treatment of the bone *
C. Vessels, nerves treatment and stump formation
D. Stump formation
E. Cutting of the fascia and muscles.
95. The third step of amputation is:
A. Soft tissue cutting
B. Cutting and treatment of the bone
C. Vessels, nerves treatment and stump formation *
D. Stump formation
E. Cutting of the fascia and muscles.
96. What is osteoplastic amputation?
A. Bone stump is covered by bone
B. Bone stump is covered by bone and periosteum *
C. Bone stump is covered by muscles
D. Bone stump is covered by fascia and muscles
E. Bone stump is covered by bone and muscles.
97. What is myoplastic amputation?
A. Bone stump is covered by bone
B. Bone stump is covered by bone and periosteum
C. Bone stump is covered by muscles *
D. Bone stump is covered by fascia and muscles
E. Bone stump is covered by bone and muscles.
98. What is fasciomyoplastic amputation?
A. Bone stump is covered by bone
B. Bone stump is covered by bone and periosteum
C. Bone stump is covered by muscles
D. Bone stump is covered by fascia and muscles *
E. Bone stump is covered by bone and muscles.
99. Non-periostal method of the bone treatment is:
A. Cutting and removal of the periosteum on 1-2 cm distally from the bone cutting *
B. Covering of the bone stump by the periosteum
C. Cutting of the bone and periosteum on the same level
D. None of the above
E. All of the above.
100.
How many ligatures must be applied on the distal part of vessels during ligation?
A. 1 *
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. No one.
101.
How many ligatures must be applied on the proximal part of vessels during third
step of amputation?
A. 1
B. 2 *
C. 3
D. 4
E. No one.
102.
Nerve is cutted above _____ cm from amputation level.
A. 2-3
B. 3-4
C. 4-5
D. 5-6
E. 6-7 *
103.
Blood supplying of superior parts of ureters is realize by branches of which of the
following vessels?
A. superior rectal artery;
B. abdominal aorta;
C. uterine arteries;
D. obturator artery;
E. renal artery *
104.
Which of the following anatomical structures goes through urogenital diaphragm
in male?
A. spongy part of urethra
B. anal canal
C. lower fascia of pelvic diaphragm
D. testicular arteries
E. membranous part of urethra *
105.
Which of the following anatomical structures goes through urogenital diaphragm
in female?
A. anal canal
B. dorsal vein of clitoris
C. dorsal artery of clitoris
D. all are false
E. urethra, vagina *
106.
Weak places of the lumbar region:
A. Lesgaft-Gruinfeld’s rhombus and Pti’s triangle *
B. Lesgaft-Gruinfeld’s rhombus and Bohdalek’s rhombus
C. Bohdalek’s triangle
D. Pti’s and Bohdalek’s triangle
E. Pti’s triangle.
107.
In which of the following points the paranephric block can be performed
A. Lateral edge of the erector muscle of spine at XII rib’s level
B. Below costal margin at scapular line
C. Below costal margin at posterior axillary line
D. Backwards to scapular line in X intercostal space
E. At vertex of an angle formed by XII rib and external edge of the erector muscle of spine.
*
108.
At which of the following levels performance of the spinal puncture is most
safety:
A. Between III and IV lumbar vertebrae
B. Between I and II lumbar vertebrae
C. Between II and III lumbar vertebrae
D. Between IV and V lumbar vertebrae *
E. Between XII thoracic and I lumbar vertebrae.
109.
Which of the following layers pass a needle during performance of lumbar
puncture:
A. Skin with subcutaneous tissue
B. Supraspinal ligament
C. Interspinous ligament
D. Yellow ligament and dura mater encephali
E. All of the above. *
110.
Which of the following approaches can be perform in case of nephrectomy:
A. Fedorov and Bergman-Izrael’s approaches *
B. Fedorov’s approaches
C. Bergman’s approaches
D. Pyrogov’s approaches
E. Izrael’s approaches.
111.
Which of the following operative interventions is performed for extraction of
nephrolith from the renal pelvis:
A. Nephrostomy
B. Pyelotomy *
C. Nephrotomy
D. Nephropexy
E. Nephrectomy.
112.
What is the name of operation for kidney fixation in case of nephroptosis:
A. Pyelotomy
B. Nephrotomy
C. Nephrostomy
D. Nephrectomy
E. Nephropexy. *
113.
Fat of the retroperitoneal space is represent by which of the following layers:
A. Retroperitoneal, perinephric, periureteral
B. Pericolonic, perinephric, periureteral, retroperitoneal *
C. Retroperitoneal, perinephric
D. Perinephric, periureteral, perivesical
E. Perinephric, pericolonic, perivesical.
114.
Syntopy of the left kidney is represent by the following:
A. Loops of the small intestine, costal part of the diaphragm, descending colon at the front
B. Spleen, lower horizontal part of the duodenum at the front
C. Spleen, fundus of stomach, left flexure of colon, tail of pancreas with splenic vessels at
the front *
D. Duodenum, pancreas, descending colon at the front
E. Pancreas, spleen, descending colon at the front.
115.
Syntopy of the right kidney at the front is represent by the following:
A. Loops of jejunum, transverse colon, posterior wall of stomach
B. Right flexure of colon, pyloric part of stomach and upper horizontal part of duodenum
C. Liver, ascending colon, pyloric part of stomach
D. Liver, right flexure of colon, descending part of duodenum *
E. Liver and descending part of duodenum.
116.
What is nephrostomy:
A. Kidney excision
B. Kidney incision
C. Opening of ren pelvis
D. Decapsulation of kidney
E. Renal fistula. *
117.
The broad, yellow, elastic bands that join the laminae of adjacent vertebral arches
are known as the:
A. Interspinous ligaments
B. Supraspinous ligaments
C. Ligamentum nuchae
D. Intertransverse ligaments
E. Ligamenta flava *
118.
Which of the following statements correctly applies to the medial column of the
erector spinae muscle?
A. It is known as the longissimus muscle
B. It arises from spinous processes *
C. It inserts into transverse processes
D. It is a flexor of the vertebral column
E. It is a superficial muscle
119.
Which of the following muscles is concerned with the maintenance of posture and
movements of the vertebral column?
A. Serratus posterior inferior
B. Trapezius
C. Latissimus dorsi
D. Levator scapulae
E. Longissimus *
120.
The erector spinae muscle is innervated by the:
A. Axillary nerve
B. Dorsal rami of spinal nerves *
C. Accessory nerve
D. Branches from the posterior cord of brachial plexus
E. Dorsal scapular nerve
121.
Characteristics of thoracic vertebrae include all of the following except:
A. Long vertical spinous processes of T5, T6, T7, and T8
B. A transverse foramen in each vertebra *
C. A small circular vertebral foramen
D. Progressively shorter transverse processes from T10-12
E. Thoracic articular processes set on an arc to permit rotation
122.
Which of the following terms correctly applies to abnormal curvatures of the
vertebral column?
A. Sacralization
B. Lumbarization
C. Kyphosis *
D. Osteoporosis
E. Osteomalacia
123.
Lordosis is characterized by an increased curve of the vertebral column that is:
A. Convex posteriorly
B. Convex anteriorly *
C. Convex to the side
D. Concave laterally
E. Concave anteriorly
124.
A herniated or prolapsed disc usually occurs in which of the following directions?
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Posterolateral *
D. Anterolateral
E. Inferiorly
125.
In severe neck flexion injuries, which of the following ligaments usually is torn?
A. Anterior longitudinal
B. Posterior longitudinal *
C. Apical
D. Ligamentum nuchae
E. Ligamentum flavum
126.
The subarachnoid space ends inferiorly at the level of the:
A. L5 vertebra
B. L3 vertebra
C. S2-3 vertebrae *
D. T12 vertebra
E. L1 vertebra.
127.
In adults, the spinal cord usually ends inferiorly at the:
A. Lower border of S2
B. Upper border of S1
C. Lower border of S4
D. Upper border of coccyx
E. Lower border of L1. *
128.
The least serious congenital abnormality involving the neural arch and the neural
tube is:
A. Rachischisis
B. Meningohydroencephalocele
C. Meningomyelocele
D. Spina bifida occulta *
E. Meningoencephalocele.
129.
To perform a lumbar puncture (spinal tap) in an adult, the needle is introduced
between the spinous processes of:
A. L4 and 5 *
B. L2 and 3
C. S1 and L2
D. T12 and L1
E. S3 and L4.
130.
Lymph from the skin of the back in the region of the spinous process of the tenth
thoracic vertebra drains into the:
A. Posterior mediastinal lymph nodes
B. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
C. Axillary lymph nodes *
D. Sacral lymph nodes
E. None of the above.
131.
The _________ passes between the sixth and seventh cervical vertebrae:
A. Vertebral artery
B. Seventh cervical spinal nerve *
C. Sixth cervical spinal nerve
D. Vertebral vein
E. Eight cervical spinal nerve.
132.
The cauda equina is made up of the:
A. Spinal nerves of S1-3
B. Anterior rami of spinal nerves L2 and 3
C. Posterior rami of spinal nerves L1 to cocc 1
D. Anterior and the posterior nerve roots of the spinal nerves below the first lumbar segment
of the spinal cord *
E. Spinal nerves of L1-5.
133.
A herniated disc that causes sensory changes in a specific dermatome is pressing
on:
A. An anterior primary ramus
B. An anterior gray horn of the spinal cord
C. An anterior root
D. A posterior primary ramus
E. A spinal nerve or a posterior root. *
134.
Which of the following statements regarding the blood supply to the spinal cord is
true?
A. The anterior spinal arteries are two in number and run down the anterior surface of the
spinal cord close to the anterior nerve roots
B. The posterior spinal arteries supply the posterior third of the spinal cord *
C. The veins of the spinal cord drain into the external vertebral venous plexus
D. The anterior and the posterior spinal arteries do not anastomose with the radicular arteries
E. The spinal cord has a profuse blood supply.
135.
The following statements concerning the vertebral column are correct except
which?
A. The intervertebral discs make up approximately one fourth the length of the vertebral
column
B. In old age, atrophy of the intervertebral discs tends to produce a continuous posterior
convexity of the vertebral column
C. During pregnancy, the weight of the developing fetus increases the posterior lumbar
concavity of the vertebral column
D. The odontoid process of the axis represents developmentally the body of the atlas
E. There are seven cervical spinal nerves and eight cervical vertebrae. *
136.
The following statements concerning the vertebral column are correct except
which?
A. The posterior ramus of the first cervical spinal nerve and its continuation, the great
occipital nerve, supplies the skin over the back of the scalp
B. When an individual is in the standing position, the line of gravity passes anterior to the
cervical part of the vertebral column and posterior to the thoracic and lumbar regions of
the column *
C. The tip of the spine of a thoracic vertebra lies directly behind the vertebral body of the
vertebra below
D. The intervertebral disc is innervated by a recurrent branch of spinal nerve that enters the
vertebral canal through the intervertebral foramen
E. The atlantoaxial joints permit rotation of the atlas with the head on the axis.
137.
When performing a lumbar puncture (spinal tap), the following structures are
pierced by the needle except which?
A. The posterior longitudinal ligament *
B. The supraspinous ligament
C. The arachnoid mater
D. The ligamentum flavum
E. The dura mater.
138.
All the following characteristics are present in a lumbar vertebra except which?
A. There is a massive kidney-shaped body
B. The transverse processes are short and thick *
C. The spinous processes are short, flat, and quadrangular in shape
D. The transverse processes have no foramen
E. The articular surfaces of the superior articular processes face medially.
139.
The following statements regarding the internal vertebral venous plexus are
correct except which?
A. It drains blood from the vertebral bodies
B. It permits malignant cells from the prostate to metastasize to the skull
C. It does not possess competent velves
D. The venous flow is indirectly influenced by changes in the intra-abdominal pressure
E. It does not communicate with veins within the thorax. *
140.
The following statements regarding herniation of an intervertebral disc are correct
except which?
A. It generally herniates posteriorly
B. In the lumbar region, it usually affects the spinal nerve whose number corresponds to the
vertebra below
C. It is a portion of the nucleus pulposus that actually herniates
D. A contributing factor to the herniation may be excessive compression of the posterior
region of the disc *
E. It may press on the spinal cord.
141.
The following statements regarding an intervertebral disc are correct except
which?
A. During aging, the fluid within the nucleus pulposus is diminished and the amount of
fibrocartilage is increased
B. The atlantoaxial joint possesses a small disc *
C. The discs play a major role in development of the curvatures of the vertebral column
D. The discs are thickest in the lumbar region
E. The discs are innervated by adjacent spinal nerves.
142.
The weakness of the left deltoid and biceps brachii muscles could have resulted
from pressure on which nerve roots?
A. The posterior nerve roots of C5and 6
B. The anterior nerve roots of C5 and 6 *
C. The anterior nerve roots of C7 and 8
D. The anterior nerve roots of C8 and T1
E. None of the above.
143.
The following structures form the boundaries of intervertebral foramen except
which?
A. Intervertebral discs
B. Bodies of the cervical vertebrae
C. The posterior longitudinal ligament *
D. Articular processes of the vertebrae
E. Pedicles of the vertebrae.
144.
The right suprarenal vein drains into which of the following veins?
A. Right renal
B. Inferior mesenteric
C. Superior mesenteric
D. Portal
E. Inferior vena cava. *
145.
Which of the following arteries contributes to the blood supply of the pancreas?
A. Left gastroepiploic
B. Inferior mesenteric
C. Proper hepatic
D. Splenic *
E. Left colic.
146.
The suprarenal gland receives its blood supply from which of the following
arteries?
A. Renal *
B. Gonadal
C. Superior mesenteric
D. Inferior mesenteric
E. Superior phrenic.
147.
Which of the following structures contributes to the formation of the lumbar
triangle?
A. Rectus sheath
B. Crest of the ilium *
C. Ischial tuberosity
D. Inguinal ligament
E. Serratus posterior.
148.
The psoas major muscle inserts on to which of the following structures?
A. Greater trochanter
B. Anterior superior iliac spine
C. Crest of the ilium
D. Lesser trochanter *
E. E.Ischial spine.
149.
Which of the following structures is located in the renal column?
A. Interlobular arteries
B. Collecting tubule
C. Arcuate arteries
D. Interlobar arteries *
E. Minor calyx.
150.
Which of the following vessels and organs are situated in retroperitoneal space?
A. Kidney, suprarenal gland, ureter, abdominal part of aorta, inferior vena cava*
B. Aorta, kidney, ureter
C. Suprarenal gland, kidney, inferior vena cava
D. Kidney, suprarenal gland, ureter
E. Kidney, suprarenal gland, renal arteries.
151.
What is nephrostomy?
A. Renal fistula *
B. Incision of the kidney
C. Cutting of renal pelvis
D. Decapsulation of the kidney
E. Extraction of the kidney.
152.
What is the name of operation of kidney fixation during nephroptosis?
A. Nephropexy *
B. Nephrotomy
C. Neprostomy
D. Nephrectomy
E. Pyelotomy.
153.
What is the name of operation of renal calculus extraction from the renal pelvis?
A. Pyelotomy *
B. Nephrotomy
C. Nephrectomy
D. Nephropexy
E. Neprostomy.
154.
The perineum is bordered by the:
A. Tuber ischiadicus
B. Lig. sacro-tuberale
C. Coccyx
D. Inferior branches of
E. All of the above. *
155.
A typical thoracic vertebra includes all of the following components except:
A. A heart shaped vertebral body
B. Inferior articular facets
C. A neural canal
D. Superior costal facets
E. Transverse foramina *
156.
The female reproductive viscera are best characterized by which of the following
statements?
A. The mesosalpinx contains the tubal branches of the uterine vessels *
B. The ovarian veins drain directly into the inferior vena cava
C. Lymph from the cervix drains into the inguinal nodes
D. Visceral afferent nerves from the body of the uterus course along the pelvic splanchnic
nerves
E. The ovarian arteries are branches of the internal iliac arteries
157.
Each of the following structure crosses the pelvic brim except the:
A. Ovarian artery
B. Ureter
C. Round ligament of the uterus
D. Uterine artery *
E. Lumbosacral trunk
158.
Which of the following structures is most important for support of the female
pelvic viscera?
A. The supporting fasciae
B. The perivescular stalk as a suspensory structure
C. The uterosacral ligament
D. The levator ani muscle *
E. The round ligament of the uterus
159.
The parasympathetic preganglionic nerve fibers to the wall of the urinary bladder
have their cell bodies in the:
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Lateral horn of all thoracic cord levels
C. Sacral spinal cord segments 2,3, and 4 *
D. Lateral horn of the spinal cord at upper lumbar levels
E. Lateral horn of all thoracic and upper three lumbar levels of the spinal cord
160.
Each of the following arteries is a direct or indirect branch of the internal iliac
artery except the:
A. Obturator
B. Artery of the ductus deferens
C. Inferior epigastric *
D. Umbilical
E. Middle rectal
161.
The internal spermatic fascia is derived from the:
A. External abdominal oblique aponeurosis
B. Internal abdominal oblique aponeurosis
C. Transversus abdominis aponeurosis
D. Transversalis fascia *
E. Peritoneum
162.
Each of the following characterizes the levator ani muscle except:
A. It forms the principal part of the pelvic diaphragm
B. It generally shows a separation into three parts
C. It arises from the inner surface of the superior ramus of the pubis
D. It resists increased intraabdominal pressure
E. It separates the superficial and deep inguinal spaces *
163.
The deep perineal space in the male contains each of the following except the:
A. Membranous urethra
B. Prostate gland *
C. Bulbourethral glands
D. Deep transverse perineus muscle
E. Sphincter urethral muscle
164.
Each of the following characterizes the pudendal canal except:
A. It is formed by a split in the obturator intemus fascia
B. It is located on the lateral wall of the ischiorectal fossa
C. It transmits the pudendal nerve
D. It transmits the internal pudendal artery and vein
E. It transmits lymphatics from the upper third of the rectum *
165.
The perineum receives its primary motor supply from which of the following
nerves?
A. Pudendal *
B. Inferior gluteal
C. Superior gluteal
D. Posterior femoral cutaneous
E. Ilioinguinal
166.
Pelvic splanchnic nerves are:
A. Parasympathetics from the second, third, and fourth sacral spinal cord segments *
B. Sympathetics to the second, third, and fourth sac al nerves
C. Direct branches from the sacral sympathetic trunk
D. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers ascending to the abdomen andthorax
E. Direct branches from the lumbar plexus to the pelvic viscera
167.
All of the following statements concerning the uterus are correct except:
A. The peritoneum reflects from the posterior surface of the uterus to form the
rectouterine pouch
B. The normal position of the uterus is described as anteverted and anteflexed
C. The peritoneum extends from the anterior surface of the uterus onto the bladder
D. It receives its blood supply from a vessel that courses deep to the ureter *
E. The uterine tubes enter the uterus inferior to the fundus of the uterus
168.
The crura of the clitoris or penis are attached to the:
A. Transverse perineal ligament
B. Pubic symphysis
C. Ischial spines
D. Ischiopubic rami *
E. Ischial tuberosities
169.
The highest point of the iliac crest is at the transverse level of which of the
following structures?
A. Inguinal ligament
B. Xiphisternal joint
C. Fourth lumbar vertebra *
D. Anterior iliac spine
E. ischial tuberosity
170.
The tunica dartos scroti contains which of the following?
A. Fat
B. Striated muscle
C. The iliohypogastric nerve
D. The inferior epigastric artery
E. Smooth muscle *
171.
The inferior epigastric artery arises from which of the following arteries?
A. Internal thoracic
B. External iliac *
C. Femoral
D. Obturator
E. Musculophrenic
172.
The superficial external pudendal artery emerges through which of the following?
A. Deep inguinal ring
B. Saphenous opening *
C. Lumbar triangle
D. Arcuate line
E. Rectus sheath
173.
Among the coverings of the cord and testis, which of the following represents the
internal abdominal oblique muscle layer?
A. Tunica tartos
B. External spermatic fascia
C. Cremaster muscle and fascia *
D. Internal spermatic fascia
E. Subcutaneous layer
174.
The cremaster muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves?
A. Ilioinguinal
B. Iliohypogastric
C. Femoral
D. Subcostal
E. Genitofemoral *
175.
The iliolumbar artery is a branch of which of the following arteries?
A. Internal iliac *
B. External iliac
C. Internal thoracic
D. Femoral
E. Inferior epigastric
176.
The remnant of the gubemaculum testis is known as which of the following?
A. Processus vaginalis
B. Tunica vaginalis testis
C. Inguinal canal
D. Scrotal ligament *
E. Genitoinguinal ligament
177.
Which of the following structures is not located in the spermatic cord?
A. Ductus deferens
B. Deferential artery
C. Testicular artery
D. Pampiniform plexus of veins
E. Urethra *
178.
The tunica vaginalis testis is a remnant of which of the following?
A. Urachus
B. Processus vaginalis *
C. Scrotal ligament
D. Gubemaculum testis
E. Genitoinguinal ligament
179.
The pelvic splanchnic nerves provide parasympathetic fibers to all of the
following structures except:
A. Bladder
B. Right colic flexure *
C. Descending colon
D. Sigmoid colon
E. Distal one third of the transverse colon
180.
Which of the following types of pelvis predominates in the male?
A. Anthropoid and android *
B. Gyn'ecoid and android
C. Platypelloid and anthropoid
D. Gynecoid and platypelloid
E. PlatypeUeid and android
181.
Which of these statements does not describe differences between male and female
pelvis accurately?
A. The female pelvis is more cylindrical than the male
B. The female sacrum is shorter and wider than the male
C. The female pubic tubercles are farther apart than the male
D. The female pubic arch makes a more acute angle than in the male *
E. The female anterolateral pelvic wall is relatively wider than in the male
182.
The pelvic diaphragm is composed of all the following muscles except the:
A. Coccygeus
B. Iliococcygeus
C. Piriformis *
D. Pubococcygeus
E. Puborectalis
183.
Visceral branches of the internal iliac artery include all except which one of the
following?
A. Umbilical
B. Inferior vesical
C. Middle rectal
D. Uterine
E. Iliolumbar *
184.
Which of the following statements about the sacral plexus is true?
A. It takes form on the anterior wall of the pelvis
B. Its major part lies on the obturator internus muscle
C. It gives off the pudendal nerve *
D. Most of its branches pass above the piriformis to appear in the buttock
E. It supplies the medial cutaneous area below the knee
185.
Which of these nerves is formed by posterior divisions of the sacral plexus?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Common peroneal *
Anococcygeal
Pudendal
Nerve to the quadratus femoris
Nerve to the obturator internus and superior gemellus
186.
Which of these nerves is formed by anterior divisions of the sacral plexus?
A. Superior gluteal
B. Tibial *
C. Inferior gluteal
D. Nerve to the piriformis
E. Lateral part of the posterior femoral cutaneous nerve
187.
These statements about pelvic splanchnic nerves are correct except for which of
the following?
A. They contain preganglionic parasympathetic fibers
B. They convey visceral afferents from the pelvic plexus to sacral segments of the
spinal cord
C. They contribute to formation of the inferior hypogastric plexus
D. They are branches of the sciatic nerve *
E. They are known as nervi erigentes
188.
Which of these statements correctly describes the obturator nerve?
A. It arises from the sacral plexus
B. It passes along the lateral pelvic wall *
C. It supplies abductor muscles of the thigh
D. It arises from posterior rami of sacral nerves
E. It gives off pelvic splanchnic nerves
189.
In relation to autonomic plexuses of the pelvis, all these items are correct except
which one of the following?
A. The superior rectal plexus consists chiefly of sympathetic fibers
B. The ovarian plexus consists chiefly of sympathetic fibers
C. Parasympathetic "components predominate in the inferior hypogastric plexus
D. The superior hypogastric plexus is known as the pelvic plexus *
E. Hypogastric nerves help to form the inferior hypogastric plexus
190.
Which of these statements does not describe correctly the pelvic splanchnic
nerves?
A. They are known as nervi erigentes
B. They are major pathways for visceral afferents from pelvic viscera
C. Afferents from the uterus follow a route through these nerves *
D. Their visceral efferent fibers have cell bodies at spinal cord levels S2-4
E. Their visceral afferents ascend to a dorsal root ganglion cell body of S2-4 spinal
nerves
191.
The rectum receives its blood supply primarily by the branches of the:
A. Superior mesenteric artery
B. Inferior mesenteric artery *
C. Inferior rectal arteries
D. Branches of the external iliac artery
E. Femoral artery
192.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect about innervation of the
rectum?
A. Its motor fibers include sympathetics *
B. Its motor fibers are conveyed in the middle rectal plexus
C. Its afferent supply of nerves belongs to the parasympathetic system
D. Pelvic splanchnic nerves are involved in its innervation
E. The superior rectal plexus may supply rectal blood vessels
193.
All of these statements are true about the urinary bladder except that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
194.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
195.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
196.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
197.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
198.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
199.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
200.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
201.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Its base is the superior posterior surface
The median umbilical ligament is attached to its apex
Its neck leads into the urethra
When distended, it becomes lower in position *
Its body shows superior and inferolateral surfaces
Which of these structures is not a component of the bladder?
Vesical trigone
Detrusor muscle
Pubovesical muscle
Ureteric ostia
Vesical sphincter *
Correct relationships of the female ureters include which of the following?
The ureters pass lateral to the vagina
The ureters are not in close proximity to the vesical nerve plexus
At the base of the broad ligament the uterine artery crosses above and in front of
the ureters *
The ureters enter the anterior aspect of the bladder
At the pelvic brim the ovarian vessels cross medial to the ureters
The male urethra traverses all of the following structures except the:
Prostate gland
Ejaculatory duct *
Urogenital diaphragm
Sphincter urethra
E.
Internal urethral orifice
Which of these statements correctly describes the seminal vesicles?
They store sperm
They secrete a seminal fluid component *
They lie medial to the ductus deferens
They form the ampulla of the ductus deferens
They empty directly, and alone, into the prostate
The ovarian artery is a branch of the:
Internal iliac
External iliac
Inferior epigastric
Abdominal aorta *
Uterine artery
Which one of these structures is not a part of the female internal genital system?
Ovary
Perineal body *
Mesovarium
Infundibulum
Vagina
Which of these nerves is not included in the uterovaginal nerve plexus?
Sympathetics
Parasympathetics
Somatic *
Afferent
Vasomotor
Lymphatic drainage of the uterus includes all the following except the:
External iliac nodes
Inferior mesenteric nodes *
Internal iliac nodes
Lumbar nodes
Superficial inguinal nodes
202.
Which of these is characteristic of the vagina?
A. Its anterior fornix is deeper than the posterior fornix
B. It terminates at the urogenital diaphragm
C. It fuses around the cervix of the uterus *
D. Normally it is flattened laterally
E. It allows little distention
203.
The greater part of the pelvic diaphragm is formed from the:
A. Obturator internus muscle
B. Pelvic fascia
C. Perineal membrane
D. Levator ani *
E. Coccygeus
204.
Visceral branches of the internal iliac artery include which of these?
A. Middle rectal *
B. Obturator
C. Iliolumbar
D. Lateral sacral
E. Internal pudendal
205.
Branches of the internal iliac artery to the pelvic wall and lower limb include
which of the following?
A. Inferior vesical
B. Superior vesical
C. Umbilical
D. Uterine
E. Superior gluteal *
206.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the urogenital region of the
perineum?
A. It contains the rectum
B. It contains the ischiorectal fossa
C. It includes the coccygeal triangle
D. It is pierced by the urethra *
E. Its floor is the obturator internus muscle
207.
All of the following are correct statements about the pelvic splanchnic nerves
except which of these items?
A. They are parasympathetic nerves
B. They arise from cord levels S2, S3, S4
C. They are the sole innervation of prostatic musculature *
D. They contribute to the formation of the pelvic plexus
E. They are the sole motor fibers to the rectum
208.
Which of the following arteries is the chief blood supply of the perineum?
A. Obturator
B. Superior gluteal
C. Iliolumbar
D. External iliac
E. Internal pudendal *
209.
The major innervation of the perineum is which of these nerves?
A. Sciatic
B. Pudendal *
C. Femoral
D. Obturator
E. Inferior gluteal
210.
The morphological homologue in the female of the penis in the male is the:
A. Clitoris *
B. Labia majora
C. Labia minora
D. Vestibular bulbs
E. Vulva
211.
Most perineal structures send their lymphatics to the:
A. Internal iliac nodes
B. Nodes of the lumbar chain
C. Superficial inguinal nodes *
D. External iliac nodes
E. Inferior mesenteric nodes
212.
Which one of these statements about the ischiorectal fossa is incorrect?
A. They are spaces on each side of the anal canal
B. They contain the pudendal nerve and internal pudendal vessels
C. They contain connective tissue and fat
D. Their inferior walls are formed by the levator ani muscle *
E. They are bordered laterally by the obturator intemus muscle
213.
The inferior pelvic aperture is bordered by all the following except the:
A. Inferior margin of the pubic symphysis
B. Rami of the pubis and ischium
C. Coccyx
D. Sacrotuberous ligament
E. Iliac crest *
214.
The urogenital diaphragm includes which of these structures?
A. A continuous sheet of smooth muscle
B. The anal opening
C. Superior and inferior fascias *
D. The coccygeus
E. The obturator intemus muscle
215.
The deep perineal space is described correctly by which of the following
statements?
A. It is filled completely by the deep perineal muscles *
B. In the male it surrounds the scrotum and penis
C. It is limited by the superficial fascia
D. Its fascia is a continuation of abdominal fascia
E. It communicates directly with the ischiorectal fossa
216.
The superficial perineal space includes which one of these structures?
A. Deep transverse perineal muscle
B. Puborectalis
C. Sphincter urethrae
D. Superficial perineal fascia *
E. Perineal body
217.
Which of these statements correctly describes the course of the ureter?
A. The right ureter is related to the base of the sigmoid colon
B. After crossing the pelvic brim, the ureter lies lateral to the internal iliac artery
C. In the male, as it nears the bladder, it passes above the ductus deferens
D. The ureter enters the superior aspect of the bladder
E. In the female the ureter crosses behind and below the uterine artery *
218.
Which of the following structures does not attach into the perineal body?
A. Perineal membrane
B. Ischiocavemosus. *
C. Sphincter ani externus
D. Transversus perinei superficialis
E. Bulbospongiosus
219.
Which of these statements correctly describes the bulbourethral glands?
A. They are found only in the female
B.
C.
D.
E.
They open into the membranous urethra
They are located in the deep perineal pouch *
They are located close to the sides of the anus
Their ducts open into the scrotum
220.
Territories supplied by the pudendal nerve include all the following except the:
A. Pelvic surface of the levator ani *
B. Anal triangle
C. Urogenital triangle
D. Labium majus
E. Scrotum
221.
Which of the following is a branch of the internal pudendal artery?
A. Superior gluteal
B. Uterine
C. Inferior vesical
D. Umbilical
E. Inferior rectal *
222.
Correct statements regarding the middle rectal vein include which of these?
A. It begins in the anal columns
B. It becomes the inferior mesenteric vein
C. It has no valves
D. It is a more important vessel than the middle rectal artery *
E. It drains the rectum below the internal sphincter
223.
The superior gluteal artery is a branch of the:
A. Obturator
B. Internal iliac *
C. Internal pudendal
D. Iliolumbar
E. Middle rectal
224.
Branches of the sacral plexus include which of these nerves?
A. Obturator
B. Femoral
C. Sciatic *
D. Iliohypogastric
E. Genitofemoral
225.
Which of the following items correctly describes the pelvic splanchnic nerves?
A. They send motor branches to the coccygeus
B. They contract the sphincter ani intemus
C. They are sensory to the perineum
D. They cause contraction of the arteries of the penis
E. They arise from spinal levels S2, S3, S4 *
226.
Which of the following nerves passes through the greater sciatic foramen and
largely innervates the perineum?
A. Superior gluteal
B. Pudendal *
C. Inferior gluteal
D. Sciatic
E. Posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh
227.
Which of these structures is attached to the posterior aspect of the broad ligament?
A. Ligament of the ovary *
B. Uterine tube
C. Round ligament of the uterus
D. Uterine artery
E. Ureter
228.
All of the following statements correctly describe the ovary except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
It is covered with cuboidal epithelium
Its anterior border is attached to the broad ligament by the mesovarium
The suspensory ligament of the ovary suspends tts tubal pole
It has a smooth surface *
The ligament of the ovary attaches it to the lateral margin of the uterus
229.
The abdominal orifice of the uterine tube is located at its:
A. Ampulla
B. Isthmus
C. Uterine part
D. Fundus
E. Infundibulum *
230.
The part of the uterus that rises above the uterine tubes is the:
A. External os
B. Body
C. Fundus *
D. Cervix
E. Fornix
231.
Correct relations of the female ureters include which of the following?
A. They are equidistant from each side of the cervix
B. They cross the lateral fornix of the vagina *
C. They cross above the broad ligament
D. They enter the bladder behind the vagina
E. They cross above the uterine artery
232.
These statements regarding innervation of the uterus are correct except for which
one of the following?
A. It includes many parasympathetic efferents *
B. The uterovaginal plexus holds many sympathetic efferent fibers
C. Afferents from the body of the uterus travel with the sympathetic system
D. Pain fibers from the uterus enter the spinal cord through the last two thoracic
nerves
E. Innervation is not necessary to the function of this organ
233.
Which of the following structures is most important for support of the female
pelvic viscera?
A. The supporting fasciae
B. The perivascular stalk as a suspensory structure
C. The uterosacral ligament
D. The levator ani muscle *
E. The round ligament of the uterus
234.
Functions of the pelvic splanchnic nerves include which of these?
A. To contract arteries of the erectile tissue
B. To carry motor fibers to striated muscle
C. To supply muscle of the prostate
D. To carry sensory fibers from the body of the uterus
E. To control muscular walls of the bladder *
235.
Pelvic lymph nodes include all the following except the:
A. Common iliac
B. Internal iliac
C. Lateral sacral
D. Superior hypogastric *
E. Median sacral
236.
Which of these statements describes the extent of the perineum?
A. From the symphysis pubis to the central perineal tendon
B. From the symphysis pubis to the tip of the coccyx *
C. From the central perineal tendon to the tip of the coccyx
D. From the ischial tuberosities to the symphysis pubis
E. From the symphysis pubis to the anus
237.
The anterior half of the inferior pelvic aperture is closed by which of these
structures?
A. The levator ani muscle
B. The coccygeus muscle
C. The urogenital diaphragm *
D. The arcuate pubic ligament
E. The urethral sphincter muscle
238.
All of the following structures are found in the area of the urogenital triangle
except the:
A. External anal sphincter *
B. Sphincter urethrae muscle
C. Arcuate pubic ligament
D. Deep transversus perinei muscle
E. Perineal membrane
239.
The wedge-shaped mass of fibrous tissue located at the center of the perineum is
the
A. Perineal membrane
B. Ischiorectal tendon
C. Sacrotuberous ligament
D. Perineal body *
E. Urorectal septum
240.
In the male, the superficial perineal space contains all except which one of these
structures?
A. The root of the penis
B. Branches of internal pudendal vessels
C. The proximal part of the spongy urethra
D. The membranous urethra *
E. The pudendal nerve
241.
In the female, the deep perineal space contains all except which one of the
following structures?
A. The greater vestibular glands *
B. Part of the urethra
C. The inferior part of the vagina
D. The deep transverse perineal muscles
E. The sphincter urethrae
242.
The ischiorectal fossae are described correctly by which of these statements?
A. There is no communication between the two sides
B. They are located on each side of the rectum *
C. They are filled with watery fluid
D. Anteriorly they continue inferior to the urogenital diaphragm
E. They have no relation to rectal function
243.
Which of the following nerves does not innervate the scrotum?
A. The ilioinguinal
B. Medial branches of the perineal
C. Branches of the pudendal
D. Inferior gluteal *
E. Posterior femoral cutaneous
244.
Most of the innervation of the perineum is supplied by which of these nerves?
A. Obturator
B. Pudendal *
C. Femoral
D. Sciatic
E. Sympathetics
245.
The deep perineal space of the male contains which of these structures?
A. Bulbourethral glands *
B. Bulbospongiosus muscle
C. Ischiocavernosus muscle
D. The spongy urethra
E. The root of the penis
246.
The blood supply of the scrotum includes which of these arteries?
A. Inferior vesical
B. Umbilical
C. External pudendal *
D. Inferior gluteal
E. Superior rectal
247.
Which of the following structures is not located in the female superficial perineal
space?
A. Superficial transverse perineal muscle
B. Ischiocavernosus muscle
C. Bulbospongiosus muscle
D. Greater vestibular glands *
E. Dorsal nerve of the clitoris
248.
The clitoris of the female is similar to the penis of the male except that it:
A. Is composed of erectile tissue
B. Is composed of two crura
C. Has two corpora cavernosa
D. Has a corpus spongiosum *
E. Is suspended by a suspensory ligament
249.
Which of the following statements correctly compares the female pelvis with the
male pelvis?
A. The hip bones are closer together than in the male
B. The sacrum is narrower than in the male
C. There are fewer prominent bony markings than in the male *
D. The ischial tuberosities are closer together than in the male
E. The subpubic angle of the pubic arch is less than in the male
250.
The diagonal conjugate diameter of the pelvis is a measurement of the superior
pelvic aperture between which of the following points?
A. The midpoint of the inferior border of the symphysis pubis to the midpoint of the
sacral promontory *
B. The midpoint of the superior border of the symphysis pubis to the midpoint of the
sacral promontory
C. Transversely from the linea terminalis on one side to this line on the opposite side
D. From one iliopubic eminence to the opposite sacroiliac joint
E. From one ischial spine to the opposite ischial spine
251.
A pelvis in which the anteroposterior (AP) diameter of the superior pelvic
aperture is short and the transverse diameter is long is called:
A. Gynecoid
B. Anthropoid
C. Platypelloid *
D. Android
E. Piriform
252.
Which of these muscles crosses the pelvic brim?
A. Piriformis
B. Obturator interims
C. Levator ani
D. Coccygeus
E. None *
253.
Which of these muscles is a part of the pelvic diaphragm?
A. Obturator intemus
B. Piriformis
C. Puborectalis *
D. Quadratus femoris
E. Deep transverse perineal muscle
254.
Which of these nerves does not arise from the sacral plexus?
A. Sciatic
B. Obturator *
C. Pudendal
D. Superior gluteal
E. Inferior gluteal
255.
All of the following arteries enter the pelvis minor except the:
A. Internal iliac (paired)
B. Median sacral
C. Femoral *
D. Superior rectal
E. Ovarian (paired)
256.
The superior rectal artery is a branch of which of these arteries?
A. Inferior mesenteric *
B. Umbilical
C. Inferior vesical
D. Internal, pudendal
E. Middle rectal
257.
In the female, which of these statements about the route of the pelvic part of the
ureter is correct?
A. It descends on the anterior wall of the pelvis
B. It forms the anterior boundary of the ovarian fossa
C. It passes lateral to the origin of the uterine artery
D. At the level of the ischial spine, it is crossed superiorly by the uterine artery *
E. It enters the anterior angle of the bladder
258.
The base of the urinary bladder is its:
A. Posterior surface *
B. Anterior end
C. Inferolateral surface
D. Neck
E. Superior surface
259.
Arteries of the urinary bladder include all except which one of the following?
A. Superior vesical
B. Inferior vesical
C. External iliac *
D. Inferior gluteal
E. Obturator
260.
The ejaculatory ducts open into which of the following structures?
A. External urethral orifice
B. Urethral crest
C. Ureter
D. Prostatic urethra *
E. Urinary bladder
261.
All of these are true statements about the female urethra except which one of the
following?
A. It corresponds to the prostatic and membranous parts of the male urethra
B. It is longer than the male urethra *
C. It passes through the pelvic diaphragm
D. Inferiorly it is associated intimately with the vagina
E. It passes through the urogenital diaphragm
262.
Which of these structures is a male accessory genital gland?
A. Testes
B. Deferent ducts
C. Seminal vesicles
D. Ejaculatory ducts
E. Prostate *
263.
The ductus deferens ends in which of the following?
A. Testes
B. Seminal vesicles
C. Ejaculatory duct *
D. Prostate
E. Bulbourethral gland
264.
Correct statements about the seminal vesicles include which of the following?
A. Their ducts contribute to formation of the ejaculatory duct *
B. Their secretion probably is not valuable
C. They are situated posterior to the rectum
D. They store sperm
E. They lie in front of the ureters
265.
Descriptions of the position of the uterus include all but which one of these?
A. Anteversion
B. Anteflexion
C. Vertical proflexion *
D. Retroversion
E. Retroflexion
266.
Pain from the ovary is usually referred to which of the following regions?
A. Inguinal and pubic regions *
B. Perineum, posterior thigh, and leg
C. Shoulder
D. Back
E. None of the above
267.
Pain associated with external hemorrhoids is mediated by:
A. The hypogastric nerves to the lumbar splanchnic nerves
B. The pelvic splanchnic nerves
C. The pudendal nerve *
D. The sacral sympathetic chain
E. None of the above
268.
Laceration of the male urethra just inferior to the urogenital diaphragm would
likely result in extravasation of urine into all the following regions except?
A. The abdominal wall between the deep layer of superficial fascia and deep fascia
B. The anal triangle between the superficial (ischioahal) fat and the deep fascia *
C. The penis between the superficial fascia and the deep (Buck's) fascia
D. The scrotum deep to the dartos layer
E. The urogenital triangle between the deep layer of superficial (Colles') fascia and deep
fascia
269.
Cancer from the testis would most likely metastasize first to the:
A. Lumbar nodes *
B. Superficial inguinal nodes
C. Deep inguinal nodes
D. Internal iliac nodes
E. External iliac nodes
270.
Hydrocele is a fluid accumulation within which of the following?
A. Round ligament
B. Gubernaculum testis
C. Scrotal ligament
D. Tunica vaginalis testis *
E. Vas deferens
271.
In the male, obstruction of the ureter by ureteric stones occurs most often at which
of the following portions of this structure?
A. Nearest the kidney
B. On the side wall of the pelvis
C. Just superior to the ischial spine
D. Just lateral to the ductus deferens
E. Where it crosses the external iliac artery and the brim of the pelvis *
272.
The nerve most likely to be injured during removal of cancerous lymph nodes
from the side wall of the pelvis is the:
A. Femoral
B. Lumbosacral trunk
C. Sciatic
D. Pudendal
E. Obturator *
273.
Infection may reach the ischiorectal fossa from all except which one of the
following?
A. Inflammation of the anal sinuses
B. Downward extension of a perirectal abscess
C. Following a tear in the anal mucous membrane
D. A penetrating wound in the anal region
E. A ruptured urethra *
274.
A carcinoma of the cervix of the uterus is likely to spread via the lymphatics into
the:
A. External iliac nodes
B. Internal iliac nodes
C. Superficial inguinal nodes
D. Internal and external iliac nodes *
E. Presacral lymph nodes.
275.
A carcinoma of the prostate is likely to spread via the lymphatics into the:
A. Internal and external iliac nodes
B. Internal iliac nodes *
C. Para-aortic nodes
D. Superficial inguinal nodes
E. Inferior mesenteric nodes.
276.
The superior rectal artery originates from the:
A. Internal pudendal artery
B. External iliac artery
C. Internal iliac artery
D. Inferior mesenteric artery *
E. None of the above.
277.
The left ovarian artery originates from the:
A. External iliac artery
B. Internal iliac artery
C. Left renal artery
D. Left common iliac artery
E. Abdominal part of the aorta. *
278.
The inferior rectal artery originates from the:
A. Superior mesenteric artery
B. Internal iliac artery
C. Internal pudendal artery *
D. External iliac artery
E. Presacral artery.
279.
The middle rectal artery originates from the:
A. Prasacral artery
B. Common iliac artery
C. Internal iliac artery *
D. External iliac artery
E. Inferior mesenteric artery.
280.
The obturator internus muscle receives its nerve supply from the:
A. Obturator nerve
B. Pudendal nerve
C. Pudendal nerve and the perineal branch of S4
D. Hypogastric plexus
E. None of the above. *
281.
The internal anal sphincter receives its nerve supply from the:
A. Hypogastric plexuses *
B. Vagus nerve
C. Obturator nerve
D. Pudendal nerve
E. Pudendal nerve and the perineal branch of S4
282.
The sphincter urethrae receives its innervation from the:
A. Vagus nerve
B. Obturator nerve
C. Pudendal nerve *
D. Inferior rectal nerve
E. Hypogastric plexuses.
283.
The levator ani muscle receives its innervation from the:
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Hypogastric plexuses
C. Pudendal nerve and the perineal branch of S4 *
D. Obturator nerve
E. Inferior rectal nerve.
284.
The superior rectal vein drains into the:
A. Inferior vena cava
B. Internal iliac vein
C. External iliac vein
D. Inferior mesenteric vein *
E. None of the above.
285.
The right ovarian vein drains into the:
A. Right internal iliac vein
B. Inferior vena cava *
C. Inferior mesenteric vein
D. Right external iliac vein
E. Right renal vein.
286.
A patient was examined with a left-sided varicocele; the left testicular vein drains
into the:
A. Left renal vein *
B. Left internal iliac vein
C. Left external iliac vein
D. Inferior vena cava
E. Left inferior suprarenal vein.
287.
The prostatic venous plexus drains into the:
A. Inferior vena cava
B. Internal iliac vein *
C. External iliac vein
D. Internal and external iliac veins
E. Testicular veins.
288.
In most women, the anatomic position of the uterus when the bladder is empty is:
A. Retroverted
B. Anteverted
C. Anteflexed
D. Anteverted and anteflexed *
E. Retroflexed.
289.
The uterus receives its blood supply from the:
A. Superior vesical artery
B. Middle rectal artery
C. Ovarian artery
D. Uterine artery
E. Uterine and ovarian arteries. *
290.
In a woman with ovarian cancer, it is judicious to examine the:
A. Peritoneal cavity for evidence of excessive fluid (ascites)
B. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
C. Para-aortic nodes at the level of the first lumbar vertebra
D. External iliac lymph nodes
E. Para-aortic nodes and evidence of excessive peritoneal fluid (ascites). *
291.
The narrowest part of the male urethra is the:
A. Membranous part
B. Prostatic part
C. Penile part
D. External meatus on the glans penis *
E. None of the above.
292.
The posterior wall of the lower third of the vagina is supported by the:
A. Coccyx
B. Perineal body *
C. Anal canal
D. Anococcygeal body
E. None of the above.
293.
The rectouterine pouch (pouch of Douglas) can be most efficiently entered by a
surgical incision through the:
A. Posterior fornix of the vagina *
B. Anterior fornix of the vagina
C. Anterior rectal wall
D. Lateral fornix of the vagina
E. Posterior wall of the cavity of the uterine body.
294.
Cancer of the prostate can metastasize to the skull via the:
A. Pampiniform plexus
B. External iliac veins
C. Vertebral venous plexus *
D. Portal vein
E. Inferior vena cava.
295.
The middle (median) lobe of the prostate lies:
A. Inferior to the ejaculatory ducts
B. Superior to the ejaculatory ducts
C. Anterior to the prostatic urethra
D. Lateral to the lower part of the prostatic urethra
E. Superior to the ejaculatory ducts and posterior to the upper part of the prostatic urethra. *
296.
The promontory of the sacrum is formed by the:
A. Lower border of the anterior surface of the fifth sacral vertebra
B. Anterior surface of the second sacral vertebra
C. Lateral masses of the sacrum
D. Anterior and upper border of the first sacral vertebra *
E. Lateral edge of the sacrum.
297.
The pelvic outlet is bounded posteriorly by the coccyx, laterally by the
sacrotuberous ligamentous and the _______ , and anteriorly by the pubic arch:
A. Ischial spines
B. Piriformis muscle
C. Ischial tuberosities *
D. Perineal membrane
E. Obturator foramen.
298.
The pelvic diaphragm is formed by the ______ and coccygeus muscles and their
covering fasciae:
A. Piriformis
B. Levator ani *
C. Deep transverse perineal muscles
D. Perineal membrane
E. Sphincter urethrae.
299.
The urogenital diaphragm is attached laterally to the:
A. Tip of the coccyx
B. Ischial spine
C. Inferior ramus of the pubis and the ischial ramus *
D. Ischial tuberosities
E. Obturator internus fascia.
300.
During defecation, the levator ani muscles:
A. Are completely inactive
B. Do not support the uterus and vagina
C. Relax (puborectalis portion) with the anal sphincters *
D. Do not support the sigmoid colon
E. Do not support the bladder.
301.
The mucous membrane lining the upper half of the anal canal is:
A. Lined with stratified squamous epithelium
B. Drained by the inferior rectal vein
C. Drained into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes
D. Sensitive to touch and to pain
E. Sensitive to stretch. *
302.
The anal columns:
A. Contain tributaries of the superior rectal vein *
B. Are connected at their ends by spiral valves
C. Are located in the lower half of the anal canal
D. Are transverse folds of mucous membrane
E. Contain branches of the pudendal nerve.
303.
The rectouterine pouch (pouch of Douglas):
A. Is formed by parietal pelvic fascia
B. Commonly contains coils of jejunum
C. Lies anterior to the vagina
D. Lies behind the posterior fornix of the vagina and the body of the uterus *
E. Is not the most dependent part of the female peritoneal cavity when the woman is in the
standing position.
304.
The following structures are closely relates to the rectouterine pouch (pouch of
Douglas) except which?
A. Anteriorly is situated the posterior surface of the upper part of the vagina
B. Posteriorly is situated the upper part of the rectum
C. The trigone of the bladder is directly related to its anterior wall *
D. Anteriorly is situated the posterior surface of the body of the uterus
E. Laterally is situated the sacrocervical ligaments passing forward to the cervix.
305.
The following statements regarding the ovary are correct except which?
A. It is attached to the posterior layer of the broad ligament
B. It ovulates an ovum into the peritoneal cavity
C. It is attaches to the lateral pelvic wall by the round ligament of the ovary *
D. It normally is not related to the posterior fornix of the vagina
E. The right ovarian vein drains into the inferior vena cava.
306.
The broad ligament contains all of the following except which?
A. The round ligament of the ovary
B. The uterine artery
C. The round ligament of the uterus
D. The uterine tubes
E. The ureters. *
307.
Malignant tumors of the trigone of the bladder spread (metastasize) to which of
the following lymph nodes?
A. Lumbar
B. Sacral
C. External iliac only
D. External and internal iliac *
E. Superficial inguinal.
308.
In males, traumatic injury to the perineum may rupture the bulb of the penis or the
penile urethra. The resulting leakage of blood or urine may be found in all of the
following areas except which?
A. The anterior abdominal wall
B. The ischiorectal fossa *
C. The scrotum
D. The penis
E. The superficial perineal pouch.
309.
Using your knowledge of anatomy, explain the relationship of the uterine tube to
the peritoneal cavity;
A. The tube is retroperitoneal
B. The tube lies within the peritoneal cavity
C. The tube lies within the broad ligament near its base
D. The tube lies in the free margin of the broad ligament *
E. The tube lies within the parametrium.
310.
The tender, doughlike mass felt through the posterior wall of the vagina resulted
from what?
A. A retroverted uterus
B. Blood in the pouch of Douglas *
C. A full bladder
D. Blood in the uterovesical pouch
E. A prolapsed ovary.
311.
What is the venous drainage of the mucous membrane of the anal canal?
A. Middle rectal veins only
B. Inferior rectal veins only
C. Superior and inferior rectal veins *
D. Middle and inferior rectal veins
E. Internal pudendal veins.
312.
Within the femoral triangle, the femoral vein and artery are encased in a fascial
femoral sheath. The medial part of this sheath contains a small, vertical gap - the femoral
ring, through which herniation may occur. The boundaries of the femoral ring include all
the following except the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Femoral nerve *
Femoral vein
Inguinal ligament
Lacunar ligament
Pectineal ligament (of Cooper)
313.
The superficial epigastric artery arises from which of the following arteries?
A.
Femoral *
B.
Internal iliac
C.
External iliac
D.
Inferior epigastric
E.
Superior epigastric
314.
The superficial circumflex iliac artery arises from which of the following arteries?
A. External iliac
B. Internal iliac
C. Superior epigastric
D. Inferior epigastric
E. Femoral artery *
315.
Branches of the sacral plexus include which of these nerves?
A. Obturator
B. Femoral
C. Sciatic *
D. Iliohypogastric
E. EGenitofemoral
316.
Femoral hernia descends into the thigh behind which of the following ligaments?
A. Iliopectineal
B. Lacunar
C. Reflected inguinal
D. Falx inguinalis
E. EInguinal *
317.
Flexion of the hip joint (with the knee extended) is limited by the:
A. Iliofemoral ligament
B. Anterior abdominal wall
C. Pubofemoral ligament
D. Anterior superior iliac spine
E. None of the above. *
318.
Abduction of the hip joint is limited by the:
A. Pectineus muscle
B. Iliofemoral ligament
C. Ischiofemoral ligament
D. Pubofemoral ligament *
E. Ligament of the head of the femur.
319.
Extension of the hip joint is limited by the:
A. Iliofemoral ligament *
B. Ischiofemoral ligament
C. Pubofemoral ligament
D. Quadriceps muscle
E. Adductor magnus muscle.
320.
Flexion of the hip joint (with the knee flexed) is limited by the:
A. Hamstring muscle
B. Iliofemoral ligament
C. Adductor magnus muscle
D. Pubofemoral ligament
E. Anterior abdominal wall *
321.
The long head of the biceps femoris muscle is innervated by the;
A. Obturator nerve
B. Tibial portion of the sciatic nerve *
C. Femoral nerve
D. Common peroneal nerve
E. Sural nerve.
322.
The gracilis muscle is innervated by the:
A. Femoral nerve
B. Common peroneal nerve
C. Sural nerve
D. Obturator nerve *
E. Tibial portion of the sciatic nerve.
323.
The gluteus maximus muscle is innervation by the:
A. Inferior gluteal nerve *
B. Nerve to quadratus femoris
C. Obturator nerve
D. Superior gluteal nerve
E. Nerve to obturator internus.
324.
The sartorius muscle is innervated by the:
A. Obturator nerve
B. Femoral nerve *
C. Nerve to vastus medialis
D. Superior gluteal nerve
E. Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
325.
The hamstring portion of the adductor magnus muscle is innervated by the:
A. Common peroneal nerve
B. Tibial portion of the sciatic nerve *
C. Obturator nerve
D. Femoral nerve
E. Nerve to the pectineus muscle.
326.
The adductor longus muscle is innervated by the:
A. Femoral nerve
B. Common peroneal nerve
C. Tibial portion of the sciatic nerve
D. Anterior division of the obturator nerve *
E. Posterior division of the obturator nerve.
327.
A malignant melanoma (cancer) of the skin covering the buttock is likely to
spread via lymphatics to the:
A. Horizontal group of superficial inguinal nodes *
B. Vertical group of superficial inguinal nodes
C. Posterior axillary nodes
D. Popliteal nodes
E. Internal iliac nodes.
328.
Lymph from the nail bed of the big toe drains into the:
A. Horizontal group of superficial inguinal nodes
B. Presacral nodes
C. Popliteal nodes
D. Internal iliac nodes
E. Vertical group of superficial inguinal nodes. *
329.
The lateral meniscus of the knee joint:
A. Has a thick inner border
B. Is strongly attached around its circumference to the fibia
C. Is more frequently torn than the medial meniscus
D. Is strongly attached to the lateral collateral ligament
E. Is attached by its anterior horn to the tibia in front of the intercondylar eminence. *
330.
Lymph from the skin of the lateral side of the foot drains into the;
A. Popliteal nodes *
B. Vertical group of superficial inguinal nodes
C. Internal iliac nodes
D. Horizontal group of superficial inguinal nodes
E. Subsartorial nodes.
331.
Lymph from the skin of the medial side of the knee drains into the:
A. Popliteal nodes
B. Vertical group of superficial inguinal nodes *
C. Internal iliac nodes
D. Medial group of the horizontal superficial inguinal nodes
E. Lateral group of the horizontal inguinal nodes.
332.
Lymph from the skin around the anus drains into the:
A. Internal iliag nodes
B. Inferior mesenteric nodes
C. Lateral group of the horizontal superficial inguinal nodes
D. Medial group of the horizontal superficial inguinal nodes *
E. Vertical group of inguinal nodes.
333.
The sciatic nerve enters the gluteal region through which foramen?
A. Posterior sacral
B. Greater sciatic *
C. Anterior sacral
D. Lesser sciatic
E. Obturator.
334.
The common peroneal nerve can be palpated in which region of the knee?
A. As it winds around the medial side of the neck of the fibula
B. As it passes around the medial condyle of the tibia
C. As it winds around the lateral side of the neck of the fibula *
D. As it passes forward between the tibia and the fibula
E. As it crosses the lateral side of the head of the fibula.
335.
If the dorsalis pedis artery is severed just proximal to its medial and lateral tarsal
branches, blood can still reach the dorsum of the foot through which vessel(s)?
A. The peroneal artery
B. The posterior tibial artery
C. The medial plantar artery
D. The lateral plantar artery
E. All of the above. *
336.
In children, the chief arterial supply to the head of the femur is derived from
which of the following artery or arteries?
A. The obturator artery *
B. The internal pudendal artery
C. Branches from the medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries
D. The deep circumflex iliac artery
E. The superficial circumflex iliac artery.
337.
Which statement is correct concerning the femoral ring?
A. It is the opening in the deep fascia of the thigh for the great saphenous vein
B. It is the opening in the adductor magnus muscle for the femoral artery
C. It is the proximal opening in the femoral canal *
D. It is the compartment in the femoral sheath for the femoral artery
E. It is the compartment in the femoral sheath for the femoral nerve.
338.
To lift the left foot off the ground while walking, which of the following muscles
play an important role?
A. The left gluteus medius muscle
B. The left gluteus maximus muscle
C. The right adductor longus muscle
D. The right gluteus medius muscle *
E. None of the above.
339.
Rupture of the tendo calcaneus results in an inability to do what?
A. Dorsiflex the foot
B. Evert the foot
C. Invert the foot
D. Plantar flex the foot *
E. None of the above.
340.
If the foot is permanently dorsiflexed and everted, which nerve might be injured?
A. The deep peroneal nerve
B. The superficial peroneal nerve
C. The common peroneal nerve
D. The tibial nerve *
E. The obturator nerve.
341.
The femoral nerve arises from which of the following segments of the spinal
cord?
A. L2 and 3
B. L4 and 5 and S1, 2, and 3
C. L2, 3, and 4 *
D. L1 and 2
E. L5 and S1, 2, and 3.
342.
The femoral sheath is formed by which of the following layer(s) of fascia?
A. The pectineus fascia
B. The fascia iliaca and the fascia transversalis *
C. The fascia lata and the membranous layer of the superficial fascia
D. The psoas fascia and the fatty layer of superficial fascia
E. The processus vaginalis.
343.
Which of the following muscles everts the foot?
A. The tibialis posterior muscle
B. The flexor hallucis longus muscle
C. The peroneus longus muscle *
D. The tibialis anterior muscle
E. The flexor digitorum longus muscle.
344.
Injury to the common peroneal nerve results in which conditions?
A. Inability to invert the foot
B. Inability to plantar flex the ankle
C. Inability to feel skin sensation on the medial side of the leg
D. Inability to plantar flex the big toe
E. Inability to evert the foot. *
345.
After a lesion of the tibial part of the sciatic nerve, some active flexion may still
be possible at the knee joint; the muscle responsible for this remaining flexion include
which?
A. The short head of the biceps femoris muscle *
B. The gastrocnemius muscle
C. The plantaris muscle
D. The popliteus muscle
E. The long head of the biceps femoris muscle.
346.
A patient in the supine position with the hip and knee joints extended is asked to
abduct the lower limb against resistance provided by the physician; this exercise tests
which of the following muscles?
A. The semitendinosus muscle
B. The gluteus medius muscle *
C. The pectineus muscle
D. The gracilis muscle
E. The semimembranous muscle.
347.
A femoral hernia has the following characteristics except which?
A. It is more common in women than in men
B. The swelling occurs below and lateral to the pubic tubercle
C. It descends through the femoral canal
D. Its neck is related immediately laterally to the femoral artery *
E. Its neck is related medially to the sharp edge of the lacunar ligament.
348.
The gastrocnemius and the soleus muscles have all the following features in
common except which?
A. They are supplied by the tibial nerve
B. They are found in the posterior compartment of the leg
C. They arise from the femoral condyles and flex the knee joint *
D. They insert via the tendo calcaneus
E. They plantar flex the ankle joint.
349.
All the following statements about the sartorius muscle are correct except which?
A. It flexes the leg at the knee joint
B. It flexes the thigh at the hip joint
C. It laterally rotates the thigh at the hip joint
D. It adducts the thigh at the hip joint *
E. It attaches to the anterior superior iliac spine.
350.
The following structures are transmitted through the lesser sciatic foramen except
which?
A. The tendon of the obturator internus muscle
B. The internal pudendal vessels
C. The nerve to the obturator internus muscle
D. The pudendal nerve
E. The inferior gluteal artery. *
351.
The following statements regarding the great saphenous vein are correct except
which?
A. It arises on the dorsum of the foot
B. It enters the leg by passing anterior to the medial malleolus
C. It drains into the femoral vein approximately 1,5 in (3,8 cm) below and lateral to the
pubic tubercle
D. It is accompanied by the saphenous nerve
E. It has no communication with the deep veins of the leg. *
352.
The following statements regarding the obturator nerve are correct except which?
A. It originates from the lumbar plexus
B. It enters the thigh immediately beneath the inguinal ligament *
C. It innervates the adductor muscles of the thigh
D. It divides into an anterior and a posterior division
E. It supplies the skin on the medial side of the thigh.
353.
Which of the following anatomic structures pass through the suprapiriform
foramen?
A. A. glutea superior *
B. M. piriformis
C. A. glutea inferior
D. N. pudendus
E. M. gemellus superior.
354.
Which of the following anatomic structures pass through the suprapiriform
foramen?
A. N. ischiadicus
B. N. pudendus
C. N. gluteus superior *
D. N. cutaneus femoris posterior
E. None of the above.
355.
Which of the following anatomic structures pass through the infrapiriform
foramen?
A. A. pudenda interna *
B. A. glutea superior
C. A. glutea inferior
D. A. obturatoria
E. A. femoralis.
356.
Which of the following anatomic structures pass through the infrapiriform
foramen?
A. A. glutea superior
B. N. ischiadicus *
C. V. glutea superior
D. N. gluteus superior
E. N. cutaneus femoris lateralis.
357.
N. ischiadicus pass between which of the following muscles of the thigh:
A. Long head of biceps of thigh and semitendinous muscle with semimembranous muscle *
B. External obturator muscle and internal obturator muscle
C. Semimebranous muscle and semitendinous muscle
D. Vastus medialis muscle and sartorius muscle
E. Adductor longus muscle and semitendinous muscle.
358.
The biggest branch of femoral artery is:
A. Superficial epigastric artery
B. Inferior epigastric artery
C. Deep artery of thigh *
D. External pudendal artery
E. Rectal artery.
359.
The medial wall of vascular lacuna is formed by:
A. Femoral vein
B. Superior crural artery
C. Lacunar ligament *
D. Iliopectineal arch
E. Pectineal ligament.
360.
The lateral wall of vascular lacuna is formed by:
A. Iliopectineal arch *
B. Lacunar ligament
C. Superior crural artery
D. Pectineal ligament
E. Internal iliac artery.
361.
The medial wall of muscular lacuna is formed by:
A. Femoral nerve
B. Lacunar ligament
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Iliopectineal ligament *
E. Pubic ligament.
362.
Which of the following muscles pass through the lesser ischiadic foramen:
A. Obturator internus muscle *
B. Lesser ischiadic muscle
C. Inferior gemellus muscle
D. Piriform muscle
E. Superior gemellus muscle.
363.
How many muscular layers of gluteal region could be identified?
A. two
B. one
C. four
D. five
E. three*
364.
Which of the following muscles create superficial layer of gluteal region?
A. m. gluteus med., m. gluteus max
B. m. gluteus max, m. quadratus femoris
C. m. quadratus femoris, . m. gluteus med., m. gluteus max
D. m. piriformis, mm. gemelli
E. m. gluteus max. *
365.
Which of the following muscles create middle layer of gluteal region?
A. m. gluteus max, m. quadratus femoris
B. m. obturatorius int., mm. gemelli, m. quadratus femoris,
C. m. quadratus femoris, . m. gluteus med., m. gluteus max
D. m. obturatorius int., mm. gemelli,
E. m. gluteus med., m. piriformis, m. obturatorius int., mm. gemelli, m. quadratus femoris, *
366.
Which of the following muscles create deep layer of gluteal region?
A. m. obturatorius int., mm. gemelli,
B. m. gluteus max, m. quadratus femoris
C. mm. gemelli, m. quadratus femoris,
D. m. gluteus min.
E. m. gluteus min., m. obturatorius ext. *
367.
Scarp’s triangle is bounded from above by:
A. m. sartorius
B. m. ilio-psoas
C. m. pectineus
D. f. lata
E. lig. Inguinale *
368.
Which of the following muscles creates floor of femoral triangle?
A. m. sartorius, m. pectineus.
B. m. quadratus femoris,
C. mm. gemelli
D. m. quadratus femoris, m. sartorius
E. m. ilio-psoas, m. pectineus. *
369.
Which of the following anatomical structures go through lacuna vasorum?
A. pudenda int., a. glutea inf.,
B. et v. glutea sup.
C. glutea inf., n. pudendus
D. n. ischiadicus, n. cutaneus femoris post.
E. et v. femoralis *
370.
Lacuna vasorum is bounded from outside by:
A. lig. inguinale
B. m. ilio-psoas
C. f. lata
D. et v. femoralis
E. lig. ilio-pectineum *
371.
Lacuna vasorum is bounded from inside by:
A. lig. inguinale
B. lig. ilio-pectineum
C. f. lata
D. a. et v. femoralis
E. lig. lacunare (Gimbernati) *
372.
Which of the following anatomical structures go through lacuna musculorum?
A. et v. femoralis
B. n. pudendus
C. n. ischiadicus
D. n. cutaneus femoris post
E. m. ilio-psoas et n. femoralis *
373.
Describe the direction of Rozer-Nelaton’s line?
A. from superior anterior iliac spine to coccyx;
B. between right and left superior anterior iliac spines;
C. from symphysis to tip of coccyx;
D. all are false
E. from superior anterior iliac spine to sciatic tuber, through gluteal region; *
374.
Greater trochanter of femur bone displaces ________________________ in case
of fractures of neck of femur?
A. left Rozer-Nelaton’s line;
B. right Rozer-Nelaton’s line;
C. on Rozer-Nelaton’s line;
D. all are false
E. above Rozer-Nelaton’s line; *
375.
Which of the following anatomical structures is located within lig. capitis
femoris?
A. n. obturatorius
B. glutea inferior
C. n. gluteus superior
D. profunda femoris
E. r. acetobularis from a. obturatoria *
376.
A patient after the injury diagnosed anterior-medial hip dislocation. Between
which of the following ligaments hip dislocation could be present?
A. ilio-femoral and ischio-femoral;
B. pubo-femoral and ischio-femoral;
C. pubo-femoral and inguinal;
D. ischio-femoral and inguinal;
E. ilio-femoral and pubo-femoral;
377.
A patient after the injury diagnosed anterior-lower hip dislocation. Between which
of the following ligaments hip dislocation could be present?
A. ilio-femoral and pubo-femoral;
B. pubo-femoral and ischio-femoral;
C. pubo-femoral and inguinal;
D. ischio-femoral and inguinal;
E. pubo-femoral and ischio-femoral; *
378.
Lig. sacrospinale and lig. sacrotuberale bound which of the following foramens?
A. obturator, greater sciatic;
B. greater sciatic, suprapiriform;
C. suprapiriform, infrapiriform;
D. infrapiriform, greater sciatic;
E. lesser sciatic, greater sciatic; *
379.
Intermuscular cellular space of gluteal region connects with which of the
following cellular spaces?
A. ischio-rectal fossa;
B. posterior femur bed;
C. popliteal fossa through posterior femur bed;
D. pelvic fat;
E. all are correct; *
380.
What the greatest danger of gluteal region wounds?
A. possibility of paraproctitis;
B. possibility of abscess;
C. possibility of phlegmon;
D. bleeding from wound
E. bleeding into the pelvic fat; *
381.
Main vasculo-nervous bundles of gluteal region are located:
A. in subcutaneous tissue;
B. under middle muscular layer;
C. under m. gluteus minimus;
D. under fascia;
E. under m. gluteus maximus; *
382.
Medial wall of femoral canal is represented by:
A. femoral artery;
B. femoral nerve;
C. lacunar ligament;
D. iliopsoas muscle;
E. femoral vein; *
383.
Anterior wall of femoral canal is represented by:
A. femoral artery;
B. femoral nerve;
C. lacunar ligament;
D. fascial sheath of femoral vein;
E. superficial layer of f. lata; *
384.
Femoral nerve goes:
A. in lacuna vasorum;
B. between femoral artery and vein;
C. in lacunar ligament
D. in adductor muscles;
E. in lacuna musculorum; *
385.
Which of the following anatomical structures go through Hunter’s canal (femoropopliteal)?
A. et v. circumflexa femoris medialis, n. obturatorius;
B. et v. profunda femoris, n. obturatorius;
C. a., v. et n. femoralis;
D. et n. femoralis, greater peroneal vein;
E. et v. femoralis, saphenous nerve; *
386.
What is "corona mortis"?
A. femoral artery lies medially to femoral vein;
B. wall of femoral vein is border of internal ring of femoral canal;
C. inferior epigastric artery goes through lacuna vasorum;
D. femoral artery gives off main type branches;
E. obturator artery or its branches lie within lacunar ligament; *
387.
A patient with stab wound in middle third of anterior surface of thigh has bleeding
and hematoma. Which of the following vessels could be damaged in this situation?
A. v. femoralis;
B. profunda femoris;
C. obturatoria;
D. all are correct;
E. femoralis; *
388.
Name the superior projection point of the femoral artery
A. between external and middle thirds of inguinal ligament;
B. between internal and middle thirds of inguinal ligament;
C. midpoint of internal third of inguinal ligament;
D. midpoint of external third of inguinal ligament;
E. midpoint of inguinal ligament; *
389.
Which of the following arteries realizes blood suppling of muscles of posterior
bed of thigh?
A. circumflexa femoris medialis;
B. circumflexa femoris lateralis;
C. femoralis;
D. obturatoria;
E. profunda femoris; *
390.
Name the inferior projection point of the femoral nerve
A. tubercle of medial condyle of femur;
B. medial condyle of femur;
C. midpoint between gibbosity of tibial bone and head of fibular bone;
D. 1 см backward from internal edge of tibial bone;
E. middle of popliteal fossa; *
391.
Where is place for best ligation of femoral artery (to preserve the collateral blood
flow)?
A. below arising of a. profunda femoris;
B. below arising of aa. genus superioris;
C. below arising of aa. genus inferioris;
D. below arising of a. genus descendens;
E. above arising of a. profunda femoris; *
392.
A patient with stab wound in lower third of thigh was performed ligation of
femoral artery. From which side we should put ligature on vessel?
A. from internal wall of artery with sharp Deshan’s needle;
B. from external wall of artery with blunt Deshan’s needle;
C. from external wall of artery with sharp Deshan’s needle;
D. from external wall of artery with straight Bilrot’s forceps;
E. from internal wall of artery with blunt Deshan’s needle; *
393.
Name the superior projection point of the n. ishiadicus that is used for conduction
anesthesia.
A. internal edge of tuber ishiadicus;
B. tip of greater trochanter of femoral bone;
C. point between internal and middle thirds of inguinal ligament;
D. midpoint of inguinal ligament;
E. midpoint between internal edge of sciatic tuber and tip of greater trochanter of femoral
bone; *
394.
A patient after the injury diagnosed posterior hip dislocation. Between which of
the following ligaments hip dislocation could be present?
A. ilio-femoral and pubo -femoral;
B. pubo-femoral and ischio-femoral;
C. pubo-femoral and inguinal;
D. ischio-femoral and inguinal;
E. ilio-femoral and ischio -femoral; *
395.
A patient with injury of sciatic nerve. Which of the following layers should be
cutted for approach to the sciatic nerve in middle third of posterior surface of thigh?
A. skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial fascia, f. lata, m. semitendinous;
B. skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial fascia, f. lata, m. semimembranous;
C. skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial fascia, f. lata, mm. semitendinous et
semimembranous;
D. skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial fascia, f. lata, m. biceps femoris
E. skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial and proper fasciae, separating muscles; *
396.
Name the most important landmark in the wound to find the superficial femoral
ring?
A. v. saphena parva;
B. v. femoralis;
C. femoralis;
D. n. femoralis;
E. v. saphena magna; *
397.
A patient with stab wound in lower third of thigh has arterial bleeding. In case of
ligation of femoral artery within femoral triangle m. sartorius should be displaced:
A. inside;
B. forward;
C. backward;
D. upward;
E. outside; *
398.
In case of denudation of femoral artery within femoral triangle which of the
following layers we will cut?
A. skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial fascia;
B. skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial fascia, proper fasciae, m. sartorius;
C. skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial fascia, proper fasciae, m. semimembranous;
D. skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial fascia, proper fasciae, m. semitendinous;
E. skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial fascia, proper fasciae; *
399.
Name the inferior projection point of the femoral artery
A. lateral condyle of femur;
B. tip of popliteal rhombus;
C. midpoint between gibbosity of tibial bone and head of fibular bone;
D. 1 см backward from internal edge of tibial bone;
E. tubercle of medial condyle of femur; *
400.
Which of the following nerves may radiate pain in the knee joint at adnexitis?
A. n. femoralis;
B. motor branches of n. obturatorius;
C. n. ishiadicus;
D. n. pudendus;
E. cutaneous branche of n. obturatorius; *
401.
Ken’s line is projection line for which of the following arteries?
A. brachialis;
B. subclavia;
C. axillaris;
D. tibialis anterior;
E. femoralis; *
402.
Hritti-Szymanowskyy’s amputation of thigh in lower third belongs to which of the
following types of amputations?
A. fascioplastic;
B. conico-circular;
C. myoplastic;
D. circular;
E. osteoplastic; *
403.
A patient with traumatic compression of sciatic nerve. Which of the following
groups of muscles suffer in case of injury of n. ishiadicus?
A. anterior group of thigh, anterior and posterior groups of leg;
B. posterior group of thigh, anterior and posterior groups of leg;
C. posterior group of thigh, anterior and external groups of leg;
D. anterior group of thigh, posterior and external groups of leg;
E. posterior group of thigh, anterior, posterior and external groups of leg; *
404.
Which of the following anatomical structures has name “adductor canal”?
A. canalis cruro-popliteus;
B. canalis spiralis;
C. canalis musculo-peronealis;
D. canalis pudendalis.
E. canalis femoro-popliteus; *
405.
Which way to detect popliteal artery provides a wide surgical access?
A. long diagonal of popliteal rhombus, something outside;
B. anterior-internal side of thigh;
C. anterior-external side of thigh;
D. through popliteal fossa in transverse direction;
E. long diagonal of popliteal rhombus, something inside; *
406.
Fat of popliteal fossa connects with which of the following cellular spaces?
A. posterior bed of thigh;
B. posterior bed of leg;
C. anterior bed of leg;
D. fat of gluteal region through posterior bed of thigh;
E. all of these; *
407.
Where is place for best ligation of popliteal artery (to preserve the collateral blood
flow)?
A. above arising of a. genus superior lateralis;
B. below arising of a. genus superior medialis and a. genus superior;
C. below arising of a. genus superior lateralis;
D. above arising of a. genus descendens;
E. above arising of a. genus superior medialis; *
408.
A surgeon performes ligation of popliteal artery (approach – through popliteal
fossa). Which of the following surgical instruments he needs for ligation of this artery
and from which side he should put ligature on vessel?
A. sharp Deshan’s needle, from outside;
B. straight Bilrot’s forceps, from outside;
C. blunt Deshan’s needle, from inside;
D. curved Bilrot’s forceps, from outside;
E. blunt Deshan’s needle, from outside; *
409.
A surgeon performes catheterization of popliteal artery. Which of the following
surgical approaches is best for saving neurovascular components?
A. through middle of popliteal fossa;
B. long diagonal of popliteal rhombus, something inside;
C. long diagonal of popliteal rhombus, something outside;
D. anterior-external side of thigh;
E. anterior-internal side of thigh; *
410.
Name the external landmarks for the projection line of common peroneal nerve in
the popliteal fossa?
A. m. quadriceps femoris, m. semimembranous, m. semitendinous, external surface of neck
of fibula;
B. m. biceps femoris, medial condyle of femur;
C. m. biceps femoris, lateral condyle of femur;
D. m. semimembranous, m. semitendinous, , lateral condyle of femur;
E. m. biceps femoris, m. semimembranous, m. semitendinous, external surface of neck of
fibula; *
411.
A patient diagnosed with hemarthrosis of the knee joint. Which artery is its
source?
A. а. genus superior lateralis;
B. а. genus superior medialis;
C. а. genus inferior medialis;
D. а. genus inferior lateralis;
E. а. genus media; *
412.
A. tibialis posterior and n. tibialis go through which of the following canal?
A. canalis malleolaris;
B. canalis musculo-peronealis superior;
C. canalis musculo-peronealis inferior;
D. canalis femоro-popliteus.
E. canalis cruro-popliteus; *
413.
A patient with stab wound in region of popliteal fossa, bleeding. Which of the
following vasculo-nervous structures of popliteal fossa is located most deeply?
A. v. poplitea:
B. n. tibialis;
C. v. saphena parva;
D. n. tibialis communis;
E. poplitea; *
414.
A patient with phlegmon of posterior surface of thigh, inflammation spread to the
popliteal fossa. In which of the following directions inflammations from deep popliteal
cellular space could be spread to?
A. obturator canal, anterior muscular bed of thigh and leg;
B. adductor canal, anterior muscular bed of leg;
C. obturator canal, external muscular bed of leg;
D. adductor canal, internal muscular bed of thigh;
E. adductor canal, posterior muscular bed of thigh and leg; *
415.
To arrest bleeding а. tibialis роsterior was ligated in middle third of leg. Which of
the following arteries is main source of blood suppling of lateral bed of leg in case of
ligation а. tibialis роsterior in middle third of leg?
A. а. tibialis роsterior;
B. dorsalis pedis;
C. а. tibialis anterior;
D. none of these;
E. peronea; *
416.
A surgeon performes approach to а.t ibialis роsterior in middle third of leg.
Cruro-popliteal canal is bounded by which of the following muscles?
A. m. flexor digitorum longus;
B. m. flexor hallucis longus;
C. m. soleus;
D. m. tibialis posterior;
E. all of these; *
417.
Where is projection and palpation point of a. dorsalis pedis?
A. in front of lateral melleolus;
B. in projection of I metatarsal bone;
C. in projection of II cuneiform bone;
D. none of these;
E. in front of medial melleolus; *
418.
A patient has no pulse on а. tibialis роsterior. Where is projection and palpation
point of a. tibialis роsterior?
A. lateral surface of lateral melleolus;
B. near superior edge of Achilles tendon;
C. near internal edge of Achilles tendon;
D. medial surface of medial melleolus;
E. posterio-medial surface of medial melleolus; *
419.
Where is projection line of a. dorsalis pedis?
A. from tuberositas tibiae to medial melleolus;
B. from tuberositas tibiae to midpoint between medial melleolus and Achilles tendon;
C. 1 сm from medial edge of tibial bone to midpoint between medial melleolus and Achilles
tendon;
D. from middle of popliteal fossa downwards vertically;
E. from midpoint between malleoli to I interosseal metatarsal space; *
420.
A patient with anaerobic infection of thigh wound. Guillotine amputation was
performed. This surgery belongs to which of the following types of amputations?
A. conico-circular;
B. single-flap;
C. with cuff;
D. double-flap;
E. circular; *
421.
N. tibialis goes out from popliteal fossa between which of the following muscles?
A. m. peroneus longus, m. peroneus brevis;
B. m. peroneus brevis, m. popliteus;
C. m. tibialis posterior, m. plantaris;
D. m. flexor digitorum longus, m. peroneus brevis;
E. m. popliteus, m. plantaris; *
422.
In the interval between which of the following muscles femoral artery goes to the
posterior surface of the knee?
A. m. rectus femoris, m. gracilis;
B. m. vastus lateralis, m. biceps femoris;
C. m. adductor longus, m. biceps femoris;
D. m.adductor magnus, m. adductor minus;
E. m. vastus medialis, m.adductor magnus; *
423.
Which of the following arteries arise from popliteal artery and form articular knee
arterial network?
A. genus media;
B. genus superior lateralis;
C. genus superior medialis;
D. genus inferior lateralis;
E. all of these; *
424.
Damage of which of the following nerves of lower extremity leads to pes equinus?
A. n. peronaeus superficialis;
B. n. peronaeus profundus;
C. n. tibialis;
D. n. saphenus.
E. n. peronaeus communis; *
425.
Specify the zone of innervation of n. peroneus superficialis:
A. anterior group of leg muscles and skin of lateral surface of leg;
B. lateral group of leg muscles and skin of anterior surface of leg;
C. skin of posterior surface of leg until tip of malleolus lateralis;
D. muscles and skin of posterior surface of leg;
E. lateral group of leg muscles and skin of lateral surface of leg and foot; *
426.
Damage of n. peroneus communis leads to which of the following forms of foot?
A. griffin claw;
B. most abducted;
C. most flexed;
D. most adducted;
E. pes equinus; *
427.
Specify the zone of innervation of n. peroneus profundus:
A. lateral group of leg muscles, skin of II interdigital interval on foot;
B. posterior group of leg muscles, skin of plantar surface of foot;
C. anterior group of leg muscles;
D. skin of I interdigital interval on foot;
E. anterior group of leg muscles, skin of I interdigital interval on foot; *
428.
Which of the following muscles takes part in abduction of foot?
A. mm. adductor magnus, longus et brevis;
B. m. gracilis, m. piriformis, m. tensor fasciae latae;
C. m. obturatorius internus, m. quadratus femoris;
D. mm. gemelli superioret inferior;
E. m. gluteus medius, m. gluteus minimus, m. tensor fasciae latae; *
429.
Which of the following arteries arises from femoral artery within femoral
triangle?
A. epigastrica superficialis;
B. circumflexa ilium superficialis;
C. pudenda externa;
D. genus descendens;
E. profunda femoris; *
430.
Which of the following muscles should be cutted in case of arthrotomy of hip
joint?
A. m. gracilis;
B. m. rectus femoris;
C. m. pectineus;
D. m. iliopsoas;
E. m. tensor fasciae latae; *
431.
Which of the following surgical approaches is used in case of arthrotomy of knee
joint?
A. incision above tendon of m. biceps femoris;
B. incision through popliteal fossa;
C. incision between m. semimembranosus and m. semitendinosus;
D. incision through Zhober fossa;
E. parapatellar incisions; *
432.
Which of the following surgical approaches is used in case of arthrotomy of ankle
joint?
A. anterior;
B. posterior;
C. medial;
D. median;
E. lateral; *
433.
Indicate extra-articular ligaments of knee joint:
A. lig. patellae propria;
B. lig. collaterale (medial, lateral);
C. lig. popliteum obliguum;
D. lig. popliteum arcuatum;
E. all of these; *
434.
Which of the following surgical approaches is used in case of arthrotomy of hip
joint?
A. posterior;
B. lateral;
C. medial;
D. on the medial edge of the anterior tibial muscle;
E. combined; *
435.
Where surgeon should cut in case of phlegmon of anterior leg region?
A. on projection line of a. tibialis anterior, departing at 2 cm to the middle;
B. on projection line of a. tibialis anterior, departing at 2 cm to the outside;
C. on medial edge of m. tibialis anterior;
D. on projection line of a. tibialis anterior;
E. on anterior edge of tibial bone; *
436.
Which of the following incisions is used in case of foot phlegmon?
A. medial incision on the edge of the foot lifting;
B. lateral incision on the edge of the foot lifting;
C. medial incision;
D. incision on heel bone and phalanges;
E. incision on lateral and medial edges of aponeurosis plantaris; *
437.
Indicate intra-articular ligaments of knee joint:
A. lig. cruciatum anterius;
B. lig. cruciatum posterius;
C. lig. meniscofemorale posterius;
D. lig. transversum genus;
E. all of these; *
438.
All of the following statements concerning the psoas major muscle are true
except:
A. It receives innervation from spinal levels L2 and L3
B. The femoral nerve emerges from its lateral border
C. It inserts on the lesser trochanter of the femur
D. It is a primary extensor of the thigh *
E. The lumbar plexus takes form within its substance
439.
In which of the following muscles is the lumbar plexus formed?
A. The quadratus lumborum
B. The iliacus
C. The psoas major *
D. The transversus abdominis
E. None of the above
440.
The femoral triangle is bounded by the:
A. Sartorius, gracilis and pectineus
B. Inguinal ligament, rectus femoris and adductor magnus
C. Inguinal ligament, vastus intermedius and sartorius
D. Inguinal ligament, gracilis and rectus femoris
E. Inguinal ligament, sartorius and adductor longus *
441.
The lateral boundary of the femoral triangle is:
A. The rectus femoris
B. The sartorius *
C. The pectineus
D. The adductor longus
E. None of these
442.
Which of the following muscles is not considered to take part in the formation of
the floor of the femoral triangle?
A. The iliacus
B. The psoas major
C. The vastus medialis *
D. The pectineus
E. The adductor longus
443.
The femoral sheath is a continuation of the:
A. Transversalis fascia *
B. Lumbodorsal fascia
C. Fascia cribrosa
D. External obligue fascia
E. Internal obligue fascia
444.
A thirty year old woman developed a mass in the proximal portion of the femoral
triangle. The mass was soft but tended to bulge whenever she coughed or strained. The
most probable diagnosis is a(n):
A. Aneurysm of the femoral artery
B. Lipoma
C. Lymph node
D. Femoral hernia *
E. Thrombosis of the great saphenous vein
445.
The femoral canal is especially important because it is a common site for hernia.
Which of the following statements concerning the femoral canal is not true?
A. It is approximately 1,25 centimeters in length
B. It lies medial to the femoral vein
C. The canal transmits the femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve *
D. The femoral ring which forms the base of the canal is larger in women than in
men
E. The round ligament of the uterus lies superior to the anterior margin of the
femoral ring
446.
A sac of a femoral hernia will have all of the following relations except:
A. The lacunar ligament will lie medially
B. The femoral artery will contact the lateral wall of the sac *
C. The inguinal ligament will lie ventrally and superiorly
D. The pectinate (Cooper’s) ligament will lie dorsally and inferiorly
E. The femoral sheath will surround the sac
447.
Of the structures passing into the thigh under the inguinal ligament the one which
would be found immediately lateral to the sac of a femoral hernia is the:
A. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
B. Iliopsoas muscle
C. Femoral vein *
D. Femoral nerve
E. Femoral artery
448.
The only muscle in the following group which is an effective medial rotator of the
hip joint is the:
A. Gluteus maximus
B. Gluteus minimus *
C. Quadratus femoris
D. Obturator internus
E. Piriformis
449.
All of the following muscles rotate the hip joint laterally except the:
A. Piriformis
B. Obturator internus
C. Gluteus maximus
D. Tensor fascia lata *
E. Quadratus femoris
450.
Which of the following muscles is not responsible for the indicated movement of
the hip joint?
A. Semimembranous: lateral rotation *
B. Gluteus maximus: lateral rotation
C. Gluteus maximus: extension
D. Gluteus minimus: medial rotation
E. Sartorius: flexion
451.
The gluteus maximus muscle:
A. Originates entirely from the sacrum
B. Is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve
C. Is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve *
D. Is a medial rotator of the hip joint
E. Is a flexor of the hip joint
452.
A man backed into a whirling blade and suffered complete severance of the
tendon of his biceps femoris muscle just above the lateral condyle of the femur. The one
adjacent structure most likely to be involved is the:
A. Popliteal artery
B. Sciatic nerve
C. Tibial nerve
D. Common peroneal nerve *
E. Tendon of the semimembranosus muscle
453.
Which of the following muscles does not arise from the ishial tuberosity?
A. The semitendinosus
B. The biceps femoris
C. The semimembranosus
D. The gemellus superior *
E. All of them arise from the ishial tuberosity
454.
Of the following thigh muscles, the one that receives significant innervation from
both the peroneal and tibial portions of the sciatic nerve is the:
A. Adductor magnus
B. Semitendinosus
C. Semimembranosus
D. Biceps femoris *
E. Vastus lateralis
455.
Which of the following muscles is not supplied by the femoral nerve?
A. The pectineus
B. The adductor longus *
C. The sartorius
D. The articularis genu
E. The rectus femoris
456.
Following a circular amputation at midthigh, muscles retract unevenly, with those
having no femoral attachment retracting the most. Which of the following muscles
wound retract the least?
A. The sartorius
B. The rectus femoris
C. The adductor longus *
D. The gracilis
E. The semimembranosus
457.
Which one of the following muscles acts across two joints?
A. The rectus femoris *
B. The vastus intermedius
C. The vastus lateralis
D. The vastus medialis
E. The adductor magnus
458.
All of the following muscles act across two joints except the:
A. Sartorius
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Semimembranosus
D. Rectus femoris
E. Adductor longus *
459.
The sartorius:
A. Flexes the hip, extends the knee, rotates the hip laterally
B. Extends both the hip and the knee and rotates the hip medially
C. Flexes both the hip and the knee and rotates the hip laterally *
D. Flexes the hip, has no action on the knee
E. Flexes the knee, has no action on the hip
460.
In some cases of congenital spasticity, the most troublesome feature of the
condition is the development of “scissor gait” due to overaction of the adductor group of
muscles. A logical procedure to alleviate this condition would be to:
A. Fuse the hip joints
B. Immobilize the extremities with a brace or cast
C. Ligate the medial femoral circumflex artery
D. Cut the femoral nerve
461.
E. Cut the obturator nerve *
Which of the following is not found in the adductor canal?
A. The saphenous nerve
B. The femoral artery
C. The femoral vein
D. The nerve to the vastus medialis
E. The saphenous vein *
All of the following muscles have a major attachment to the linea aspera except
462.
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Adductor magnus
Short head of the biceps femoris
Vastus lateralis
Adductor brevis
Iliopsoas *
463.
Which one of the following muscles does not bound the popliteal fossa:
A. The semimembranosus
B. The semitendinosus
C. The biceps femoris
D. The gastrocnemius
E. The soleus *
464.
Which one of the following structures are not found in the popliteal fossa?
A. The popliteal vein
B. The profunda femoris artery *
C. The peroneal nerve
D. The lesser saphenous vein
E. The tibial nerve
465.
A perforating wound at the lateral margin of the popliteal fossa is most likely to
injure the:
A. Popliteal artery
B. Popliteal vein
C. Saphenous vein
D. Common peroneal nerve *
E. Tibial nerve
466.
None of the following muscles can both flex the knee and plantar flex the ankle
except the:
A. Popliteus
B. Gastrocnemius *
C. Soleus
D. Tibialis posterior
E. Flexor digitorum longus
467.
The muscle which is primarily concerned with “unlocking the knee joint” from
full extension before flexion can begin is the:
A. Popliteus *
B. Semimembranosus
C. Semitendinosus
D. Biceps femoris
E. Quadriceps femoris
468.
The popliteal muscle acts to:
A. Flex the leg and rotate it medially *
B. Extend the leg
C. Flex the leg and rotate it laterally
D. Extend the leg and rotate it medially
E. none of the above
469.
The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg are all inserted
into the:
A. Tibia
B. Fibula
C. Tubercle of the navicular
D. Talus
E. Calcaneus *
470.
Which of the following groups of muscles are found in the deep posterior
compartment of the leg?
A. Extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, tibialis anterior
B. Flexor digitorum longus, articularis genu, flexor digitorum brevis
C. Gastrocnemius, plantaris, soleus
D. Peroneus longus, peroneus brevis, peroneus tertius
E. Flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, tibialis posterior *
471.
All of the following muscles act across more than one joint except the:
A. Biceps femoris
B. Vastus medialis *
C. Gastrocnemius
D. Semimembranosus
E. Flexor hallucis longus
472.
All of the following are muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg except for
the:
A. Tibialis anterior
B. Extensor hallucis longus
C. Peroneus tertius
D. Peroneus brevis *
E. Extensor digitorum longus
473.
The peroneus brevis muscle is most active during which of the following
movements:
A. Inversion of the foot
B. Eversion of the foot *
C. Dorsiflexion (extension) of the toes
D. Flexion of the leg
E. Medial rotation of the leg
474.
A long distance runner has severe cramp-like pains down the outer side of his leg.
You suspect spasm (cramp) of his peroneal muscles. Your diagnosis is confirmed by your
finding that the:
A. Ankle is held in extreme dorsiflexion (extension)
B. Ankle is held in extreme plantar flexion
C. Foot is held in marked inversion
D. Foot is held in marked eversion *
E. Medial longitudinal arch is exaggerated (Pes Cavus)
475.
Which of the following muscles forms a sling with the tibialis anterior to support
the longitudinal arches of the foot?
A. Flexor hallucis longus
B. Peroneus longus *
C. Flexor digitorum longus
D. Peroneus brevis
E. Flexor digitorum brevis
476.
The quadratus plantae:
A. Inserts into the flexor hallucis longus
B. Is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve *
C. Extends the terminal phalanges of the four small toes
D. Is separated from muscles of the first layer by the flexor digitorum brevis
E. None of the above are correct
477.
A puncture wound from stepping on a nail could penetrate in order:
A. The plantar aponeurosis, flexor digitorum brevis, flexor digitorum longus *
B. The plantar aponeurosis, adductor hallucis, flexor hallucis brevis
C. The plantar aponeurosis, quadratus plantae, flexor digitorum brevis
D. The plantar aponeurosis, abductor hallucis brevis, extensor hallucis longus
E. The plantar aponeurosis, abductor digiti minimi, adductor hallucis
478.
Following a small penetrating wound to the medial side of the tendocalcaneus the
only disability you can detect is inability to plantar flex the distal phalanx of the big toe.
You suspect injure to the:
A. Medial plantar portion of the posterior tibial nerve
B. Lateral plantar portion of the posterior tibial nerve
C. Flexor hallucis longus *
D. Flexor hallucis brevis
E. The patient is “compensation conscious”. Such a finding is an impossible
consequence of such an injury
479.
The action of the hamstring muscles includes:
A. Flexion of the hip
B. Extension of the hip
C. Extension of the hip and flexion of the knee *
D. Extension of the knee
E. Flexion of the knee
480.
The gluteus maximus muscle is involved in:
A. Extension of the hip
B. Abduction of the hip
C. Adduction of the hip
D. Lateral rotation of the hip
E. All are correct *
481.
All of the following muscles of the medial femoral group (adductor group) are
innervated entirely by the obturator nerve except for the:
A. Gracilis
B. Pectineus
C. Pectineus and adductor magnus *
D. Adductor brevis
E. Adductor magnus
482.
The quadriceps femoris muscle:
A. Consists of four parts
B. Only one part acts across the hip joint
C. Cannot function normally if the patella is fractured
D. Is the chief extensor of the knee joint
E. All are correct *
483.
Following a fracture of the upper third of the shaft of the femur, the proximal
fragment will be flexed by the pull of the:
A. Vastus intermedius
B. Iliopsoas *
C. Semimembranosus
D. Gluteus maximus
E. None of these
484.
Which of the following is not a bone of the foot?
A. The talus
B. The calcaneus
C. The navicular
D. The cuboid
E. The scaphoid *
485.
The following part or branch of the brachial plexus receives contributions from
the C8 spinal nerve:
A. Lateral cord
B. Lateral pectoral nerve
C. Posterior cord *
D. Nerve to the subclavius muscle
E. Suprascapular nerve.
486.
The following part or branch of the brachial plexus has a terminal branch that
supplies the skin on the medial side of the arm:
A. Musculocutaneous nerve
B. Lateral cord
C. Thoracodorsal nerve
D. Medial cord *
E. Ulnar nerve.
487.
The following part of the brachial plexus is formed from the anterior divisions of
two trunks:
A. Lateral cord *
B. Posterior cord
C. Median nerve
D. Medial cord
E. None of the above.
488.
The following part of the brachial plexus has branches that supply the extensor
muscles of the arm:
A. Lateral cord
B. Posterior cord *
C. Median nerve
D. Medial cord
E. Lateral and medial cords.
489.
During its course in the upper limb, the axillary nerve lies:
A. In front of the lateral epicondyle of the humerus
B. Against the spiral groove of the humerus
C. Medial to the brachial artery in the cubital fossa
D. Against the surgical neck of the humerus *
E. In front of the medial epicondyle of the humerus.
490.
During its course in the upper limb, the ulnar nerve lies:
A. In front of the lateral epicondyle of the humerus
B. Against the spiral groove of the humerus
C. Medial to the brachial artery in the cubital fossa
D. Against the surgical neck of the humerus
E. Behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus. *
491.
During its course in the upper limb, the median nerve lies:
A. Anterior to the flexor retinaculum of the wrist
B. In front of the lateral epicondyle of the humerus
C. Medial to the brachial artery in the cubital fossa *
D. Within the quadrangular muscle space
E. Against the surgical neck of the humerus.
492.
During its course in the upper limb, the radial nerve lies:
A. Against the spiral groove of the humerus *
B. In front of the lateral epicondyle of the humerus
C. Medial to the brachial artery in the cubital fossa
D. Within the quadrangular muscle space
E. Against the surgical neck of the humerus.
493.
The extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle is innervated by the:
A. Radial nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Superficial radial nerve
D. Deep branch of the radial nerve *
E. Deep branch of the ulnar nerve.
494.
The dorsal interossei muscles are innervated by the:
A. Deep branch of the radial nerve
B. Deep branch of the ulnar nerve *
C. Musculocutaneous nerve
D. Median nerve
E. Recurrent branch of the median nerve.
495.
The extensor indicis muscle is innervated by the:
A. Radial nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Deep branch of the radial nerve *
E. Deep branch of the ulnar nerve.
496.
The extensor carpi ulnaris muscle is innervated by the:
A. Radial nerve
B. Deep branch of the radial nerve *
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Superficial branch of the ulnar nerve
E. Median nerve.
497.
The extensor carpi radialis longus muscle is innervated by the:
A. Deep branch of the ulnar nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve *
D. Median nerve
E. Anterior interosseus nerve.
498.
A shoulder separation that involves the lateral end of the clavicle sliding onto the
superior aspect of the acromion would most likely result from damage to the:
A. Costoclavicular ligament
B. Sternoclavicular ligament
C. Coracoclavicular ligament *
D. Glenohumeral ligament
E. Coracoacromial ligament.
499.
The muscle that will compensate in part for the paralysis of the supinator muscle
is the:
A. Extensor carpi ulnaris muscle
B. Brachialis muscle
C. Triceps brachii muscle
D. Biceps brachii muscle *
E. Anconeus muscle.
500.
The synovial sheath of the flexor pollicis longus muscle forms the:
A. Thenar space
B. Radial bursa of the wrist *
C. Midpalmar space
D. Ulnar bursa of the wrist
E. Digital synovial sheath for the index finger.
501.
To test for trapezius muscle paralysis, you would ask the patient to:
A. Flex the arm fully
B. Adduct the arm against resistance
C. Push against the wall with both hands
D. Shrug the shoulder *
E. Abduct the arm fully.
502.
Cutting the dorsal scapular nerve would most likely result in paralysis of the:
A. Supraspinatus muscle
B. Deltoid muscle
C. Rhomboid major muscle *
D. Trapezius muscle
E. Infraspinatus muscle.
503.
After injury to a nerve at the wrist, the thumb is laterally rotated and adducted.
The hand looks flattened and apelike. The nerve that has been damaged is the:
A. Anterior interosseus nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Deep branch of the radial nerve
D. Median nerve *
E. Superficial branch of the radial nerve.
504.
The following statements concerning the blood vessels of the upper limb are
correct except which?
A. The pulsation of the radial artery are felt anterior to the distal third of the radius between
the tendons of the brachioradialis and the flexor carpi radialis
B. The axillary vein is formed by the union of the venae comitantes of the brachial artery
and the basilic vein
C. The cephalic vein arises on the palm of the hand *
D. The axillary sheath surrounds the axillary vessels and the brachial plexus
E. The cephalic vein drains into the axillary vein.
505.
At the wrist, the flexor retinaculum is attached to the following bones except
which?
A. The hook of the hamate
B. The ridge on the trapezium
C. The pisiform bone
D. The tubercle of the scaphoid
E. The triquetral bone. *
506.
The following statements concerning the shoulder joint are correct except which?
A. The inferior part of the capsule is the weakest
B. The subacromial bursa communicates with the joint cavity *
C. The strength of the joint depends largely on the tone of the surrounding muscles
D. Dislocation of the shoulder joint is common
E. The axillary artery lies in front of the shoulder joint.
507.
The following statements concerning the lymphatic drainage of the upper limb are
correct except which?
A. Lymph from an infected nail bed of the little finger drains into the supratrochlear lymph
node
B. Lymph from infected cut of the index finger drains into the infraclavicular nodes
C. Lymph from an infected graze over the medial side of the elbow joint drains into the
anterior (pectoral) group of axillary nodes *
D. Lymph from the upper lateral quadrant of the breast drains into the anterior (pectoral)
group of axillary nodes
E. Lymph from a boil on the back over the inferior angle of the scapula drains into the
posterior (subscapular) nodes.
508.
The following structures pass superficial to the flexor retinaculum at the wrist
except which?
A. Palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Flexor pollicis longus tendon *
D. Ulnar artery
E. Palmar cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve.
509.
Collateral circulation around the shoulder joint would involve the following
except which?
A. The subscapular artery
B. The superficial cervical artery
C. The suprascapular artery
D. The anterior circumflex humeral artery
E. The lateral thoracic artery. *
510.
The proximal row of carpal bones includes all the following carpal bones except
which?
A. The pisiform
B. The capitate *
C. The lunate
D. The triquetral
E. The scaphoid.
511.
Regarding a “winged scapula”, the following facts are correct except which?
A. The spinal part of the accessory nerve is damaged *
B. The inferior angle of the scapula projects backward
C. The serratus anterior muscle may be wasted
D. The long thoracic nerve is damaged
E. The scapula can no longer be pulled anteriorly around the chest wall (as in thrusting the
upper limb anteriorly when reaching).
512.
The following statements concerning the rotator cuff are correct except which?
A. It adds stability to the shoulder joint
B. It is formed by the tendons of the short muscles around the shoulder joint
C. The muscle tendons are fused to the capsule of the shoulder joint
D. Degeneration or tearing of the cuff will cause severe pain in the shoulder region
E. All the muscle tendons associated with the cuff are innervated by the suprascapular
nerve. *
513.
The quadrangular space in the region of the shoulder transmits the following
structures except which?
A. The axillary nerve
B. The posterior circumflex humeral artery
C. The lymphatic vessels
D. The radial nerve *
E. The posterior circumflex humeral vein.
514.
The following statements concerning the lateral cord of the brachial plexus are
true except which?
A. It contains sympathetic nerve fibers
B. It has a branch that supplies the pectoralis major muscle
C. It has a branch that supplies the skin on the lateral side of the forearm
D. It has a branch that supplies the skin on the lateral side of the upper arm *
E. It lies lateral to the second part of the axillary artery.
515.
An examination of a patient with carpal tunnel syndrome may reveal all the
following symptoms and signs except which?
A. Atrophy of the muscles of the thenar eminence
B. Weakness in opposition of the thumb
C. Loss of skin sensation on the medial part of the palm *
D. Loss of skin sensation on the anterior surface of the index finger
E. Normal skin sensation on the anterior surface of the little finger.
516.
The following movements are expected to be normal after complete section of the
medial cord of the brachial plexus except which?
A. Extension of the wrist
B. Flexion of the elbow
C. Abduction of the shoulder joint
D. Metacarpophalangeal flexion and interphalangeal extension of the medial four fingers *
E. Metacarpophalangeal flexion and interphalangeal extension of the thumb.
517.
The following statements regarding the sympathetic innervation of the upper limb
are correct except which?
A. There are preganglionic nerve fibers originating in spinal cord segments T2 to 8
B. It causes vasoconstriction of the arteries and veins of the skin
C. There are preganglionic nerve fibers synapsing in the middle cervical, the inferior
cervical, and the first thoracic ganglia
D. Many of the postganglionic fibers are distributed within the branches of the brachial
plexus
E. The sympathetic nerves do not innervate the sweat glands. *
518.
During an automobile accident, a patient fractured the neck of her right radius and
damaged a closely related nerve. At physical examination, the patient exhibited the
following except which?
A. Weakness in extending the terminal phalanx of the thumb
B. A loss of skin sensation on the lateral part of the dorsum of the hand *
C. An inability to extend the metacarpophalangeal joint of the index finger
D. A normal ability to adduct the thumb at the carpometacarpal joint
E. Normal skin sensation down the medial border of the hand.
519.
Diminished sweating and increased warmth and vasodilatation of the skin vessels
over the hypothenar eminence as well as the ring and the little fingers could result from
the following except which?
A. A lesion of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus *
B. Ulnar nerve damage behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus
C. A lesion of the medial cord of the brachial plexus
D. A lesion of the eighth cervical nerve
E. Ulnar nerve damage over the front of the wrist.
520.
Which of the following muscles was likely to have been paralyzed by the
dislocation of the shoulder joint some years ago?
A. The rhomboid minor
B. The deltoid *
C. The supraspinatus
D. The teres minor
E. The subscapularis.
521.
The suprascapular artery arises from:
A. Inferior thyroid artery
B. Ascending artery of neck
C. Thyrocervical trunk *
D. Infrascapular artery
E. Circumflex artery of scapula.
522.
The medial cutaneous nerve of arm arises from:
A. Lateral cord of brachial plexus
B. Medial cord of brachial plexus *
C. Posterior cord of brachial plexus
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
E. Medianus nerve.
523.
The posterior cutaneous nerve of arm arises from:
A. Lateral cord of brachial plexus
B. Medial cord of brachial plexus
C. Posterior cord of brachial plexus *
D. Ulnar nerve
E. Radial nerve.
524.
The superior lateral cutaneous nerve of arm arises from:
A. Lateral cord of brachial plexus *
B. Medial cord of brachial plexus
C. Posterior cord of brachial plexus
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
E. Axillary nerve.
525.
The superior ulnar collateral artery pass with which of the following artery:
A. Medianus nerve
B. Ulnar nerve *
C. Radial nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
E. Posterior cutaneous nerve of arm.
526.
Which of the following anatomic structures pass through the carpal canal:
A. Medianus nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Interosseal artery of palm
E. Superficial and profundus tendon of fingers. *
527.
Subscapular artery arises from:
A. A. axillares *
B. A. transversae colli
C. A. circumflexa scapulae
D. A. thoracodorsalis
E. A. thoracica lateralis.
528.
The first part of axillary artery is situated within which of the following triangles:
A. Claviculopectoral *
B. Pectoral
C. Infrapectoral
D. Clavicular
E. Infradeltoid.
529.
The second part of axillary artery is situated within which of the following
triangles:
A. Pectoral *
B. Claviculopectoral
C. Infrapectoral
F. Clavicular
D. Infradeltoid.
530.
The third part of axillary artery is situated within which of the following triangles:
A. Pectoral
B. Claviculopectoral
C. Infrapectoral *
D. Clavicular
E. Infradeltoid.
531.
Which of the following arteries arise from the axillary artery within the pectoral
triangle?
A. A. thoracica lateralis *
B. A. transversae colli
C. A. circumflexa scapulae
D. A. thoracodorsalis
E. A. circumflexa humeri anterior.
532.
Which of the following arteries arise from the axillary artery within the
subpectoral triangle?
A. A. transversae colli, a. circumflexa scapulae, a. thoracica lateralis
B. A. circumflexa humeri anterior and posterior, a. subscapularis *
C. A. circumflexa scapulae, a thoracica lateralis
D. A. thoracodorsalis, a. circumflexa humeri anterior
E. A. circumflexa humeri anterior
533.
Which of the following cords form the brachial plexus?
A. Medial, lateral, posterior *
B. Medial, lateral, anterior
C. Medial, lateral
D. Superior, medial, lateral
E. Inferior, medial, lateral.
534.
Pyrogov’s space is situated between which of the following muscular layers of
forearm:
A. I – II
B. II – III
C. III – IV *
D. IV – V
E. None of the above.
535.
Which of the following anatomic structures form floor of anatomic snuffbox?
A. Os hamatum
B. Os pisiforme
C. Os naviculare *
D. Os capitatum
E. Os lunatum.
536.
Which of the following bones can be palpated on floor of anatomic snuffbox?
A. Os hamatum *
B. Os pisiforme
C. Os naviculare
D. Os capitatum
E. Os lunatum.
537.
Which of the following vessels can be pressed within anatomic snuffbox?
A. A. radialis *
B. A. ulnaris
C. V. cephalica
D. Aa. digitales dorsales
E. Aa. digitales dorsales communes.
538.
Which of the following statements concerning the biceps brachii muscle is false?
A. The short head arises from the apex of the coracoid process
B. Innervation is supplied by the musculocutaneous nerve
C. The biceps is a weaker forearm flexor than the brachialis muscle
D. The long head arises from the infraglenoid tuberosity *
E. Innervation is supplied by fibers from the fifth and sixth cervical nerves
539.
Which of the following muscles would not be paralyzed by severance of the
median nerve above the elbow?
A. The flexor pollicis longus
B. The flexor pollicis brevis
C. The pronator quadratus
D. The abductor pollicis longus *
E. The abductor pollicis brevis
540.
Which of the following muscles would not be paralyzed by injury of the ulnar
nerve behind the medial epicondyle?
A. The flexor carpi ulnaris
B. The abductor digiti minimi
C. The adductor pollicis
D. The palmaris longus *
E. The palmaris brevis
541.
How would you demonstrate the action of the biceps?
A. Flex and pronate the forearm
B.
C.
D.
E.
542.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
543.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
544.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
545.
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Supinate the forearm and flex the elbow *
Pronate the forearm and extend the elbow
Flex the shoulder joint with the forearm pronated
None of the above
Which of the following muscles attaches to the humerus?
The supinator *
The abductor pollicis longus
The extensor pollicis brevis
The extensor pollicis longus
The extensor indicis
The cubital fossa is bounded by the:
Biceps medially, pronator teres laterally
Pronator teres medially, brachioradialis laterally *
Pronator teres laterally, brachioradialis medially
Pronator teres medially, brachialis laterally
Pronator teres laterally, brachialis medially
All of the following either bound or lie within the cubital fossa except the:
Median nerve
Radial and ulnar arteries
Pronator teres muscle
Tendon of the biceps
Flexor carpi radialis muscle *
The muscle acting as the most powerful flexor across the elbow joint would be
Long head of the biceps
Brachialis *
Coracobrachialis
Brachioradialis
Short head of the biceps
546.
Which structures passes between the two heads of origin of the pronator teres
muscle?
A. The deep radial nerve
B. The superficial radial nerve
C. The ulnar nerve
D. The median nerve *
E. The brachial artery
547.
A surgeon who wishes to find the ulnar nerve in the forearm may find it as it
passes between the two heads of the:
A. Pronator teres
B. Flexor digitorum superficialis
C. Flexor digitorum profundus
D. Flexor carpi ulnaris *
E. Extensor carpi ulnaris
548.
Which of the following muscles does not arise from the ulna?
A. The supinator
B. The extensor indicis
C. The flexor digitorum profundus
D. The extensor pollicis brevis *
E. The abductor pollicis longus
549.
None of the following muscles insert on the radius except the:
A. Brachioradialis *
B. Flexor digitorum profundus
C. Extensor carpi ulnaris
D. Extensor indicis
E. Flexor carpi radialis
550.
Following a slash wound in the forearm the only disability was lack of extension
of the terminal phalanx of the thumb. You know that the _____ has been severed.
A. Extensor pollicis longus *
B. Extensor pollicis brevis
C. Abductor pollicis longus
D. Abductor pollicis brevis
E. Deep branch of the radial nerve
551.
Muscles flexing a metacarpophalangeal joint include the:
A. Flexor digitorum superficialis
B. Flexor digitorum profundus
C. Corresponding lumbrical muscle
D. Corresponding dorsal interosseus muscle
E. All of the above muscles *
552.
Edema under the flexor retinaculum gives rise to a condition known as Carpal
Tunnel Syndrome. The contents of the carpal tunnel are all but which one of the
following?
A. The flexor digitorum superficialis
B. The flexor digitorum profundus
C. The flexor pollicis longus
D. The ulnar nerve *
E. The median nerve
553.
Which of the following structures is most superficial of the structures passing
deep to the flexor retinaculum?
A. Tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis to digits 3 and 4
B. The median nerve *
C. Tendon of the flexor indicis proprius
D. Tendon of the flexor digitorum superficialis to digits 1 and 5
E. The ulnar nerve
554.
The flexor retinaculum passes from the:
A. Lower end of the radius to the ulnar styloid process
B. Tubercle of scaphoid bone and trapezium to the pisiform bone and hook of
hamate *
C. Trapezoid and capitate bones to the pisiform bone and hook of hamate
D. First metacarpal to the fifth metacarpal bone
E. All of the above
555.
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is the result of pressure on the _____ as it passes deep to
the flexor retinaculum with the flexor tendons.
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve *
C. Radial nerve
D. Ulnar artery
E. Radial artery
556.
Simultaneous contraction of the flexor carpi ulnaris and the extensor carpi ulnaris
requires activation of the:
A. Median and ulnar nerves
B. Radial nerve alone
C. Radial and median nerves
D. Ulnar and radial nerves *
E. None of these
557.
An injury at the wrist severing the tendons of the palmaris longus and flexor
digitorum superficialis would be least likely to be complicated by severance of the:
A. Radial artery
B. Median nerve
C. Ulnar artery
D. Ulnar nerve
E. Superficial radial nerve *
558.
The correct term for spreading of the fingers is:
A. Abduction *
B. Adduction
C. Flexion
D. Extension
E. None of these
559.
In order to give the peace sign which muscles need to be operative?
A. First dorsal and first palmar interossei
B. First dorsal and second dorsal interossei
C. First dorsal and second palmar interossei
D. First dorsal and third dorsal interossei *
E. First dorsal and third palmar interossei
560.
A medical student, attempting to open a window in the lab, put his hand through
the glass and suffered a laceration of the wrist. On examination he was able to touch his
little finger with his thumb but was unable to flex the terminal phalanx of the thumb.
What structure is most likely to be damaged?
A. The flexor pollicis brevis
B. The flexor pollicis longus *
C. the opponens pollicis
D. The median nerve
E. The ulnar nerve
561.
All of the following muscles are involved in complete extension of the index
finger (as prime movers or otherwise) except the:
A. First dorsal interosseous
B. Extensor carpi radialis brevis *
C. First lumbrical muscle
D. Extensor digitorum
E. Extensor indicis
562.
Which of the following muscles does not participate directly in the formation of
the extensor expansion (hood) of the middle finger:
A. The second lumbrical
B. The second dorsal interosseous
C. The third dorsal interosseous
D. The second palmar interosseous *
E. The extensor digitorum
563.
Flexion of the terminal phalanx of the thumb is produced by the:
A. Flexor pollicis longus *
B. Flexor pollicis brevis
C. First dorsal interosseous
D. First palmar interosseous
E. All of the above
564.
Abduction of digits II, III and IV of the hand is accomplished by activation of the:
A. Flexor digitorum profundus
B. Dorsal interosseous muscles *
C. Lumbricales muscles
D. Palmar interosseous muscles
E. None of the above
565.
Which of the following is not a muscle of the hypothenar eminence?
A. The adductor pollicis *
B. The abductor digiti minimi
C. The flexor digiti minimi brevis
D. The palmaris brevis
E. The opponeus digiti minimi
Adduction of the thumb requires use of a muscle(s) which is/are innervated by
566.
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Median nerve
Ulnar nerve *
Radial nerve
Median and ulnar nerves
Median, radial and ulnar nerves
567.
The palmaris longus muscle:
A. Is frequently absent
B. Is innervated by the median nerve
C. Arises from the medial epicondyle of the humerus
D. Inserts into the palmar aponeurosis
E. All of the above *
568.
The lesser tubercle of the humerus receives the tendon(s) of the:
A. Subscapularis muscle *
B. Coracobrachialis muscle
C. Supraspinatus muscle
D. Teres minor muscle
E. All of these
569.
Foramen trilaterum connects which of the following spaces?
A. cavity of the shoulder joint and axillary cavity;
B. spatium supraspinatum and infraspinatum;
C. spatium supraspinatum and spatium subscapularis;
D. all are false;
E. scapular region and axillary cavity; *
570.
Where is place of injection in case of puncture of the shoulder joint on external
surface of shoulder?
A. on 1 сm lateral from greater tubercle of humeral bone;
B. above acromion;
C. beneath posterior edge of acromion;
D. along posterior edge of m. deltoideus;
E. on 2 сm below acromion, above greater tubercle of humeral bone; *
571.
A. circumflexa scapulae and deep branches of a. transversa colli are located under
which of the following muscles?
A. m. serratus inferior;
B. m. teres minor;
C. m. infraspinatus.
D. m. deltoideus;
E. m. trapezius; *
572.
Which of the following vasculo-nervous bundles lies in superficial subpectoral
space?
A. anterior branches of thoracic nerves;
B. internal thoracic artery;
C. brachial plexus;
D. subcostal nerve;
E. thoraco-acromial artery; *
573.
Which of the following veins goes through subpectoral space, penetrate the deep
fascia and fall into subclavian vein?
A. brachiocephalic vein;
B. deep cervical vein;
C. lateral cutaneous vein;
D. anterion intercostal vein;
E. basal vein; *
574.
Which of the followig structures of main vasculo-nervous bundle of axillary fossa
is located most superficial and medial?
A. n. medianus;
B. n. ulnaris;
C. n. radialis;
D. n. musculo-cutaneus;
E. v. axillaris; *
575.
Which of the followig structures of main vasculo-nervous bundle of axillary fossa
is located behind the axillary artery?
A. n. ulnaris;
B. n. radialis;
C. n. cutaneus antebrachii;
D. n. cutaneus brachii;
E. n. medianus; *
576.
Which of the followig structures of main vasculo-nervous bundle of axillary fossa
is located in front of subscapular artery?
A. n. radialis;
B. n. ulnaris;
C. n. axillaris;
D. axillaris;
E. n. medianus; *
577.
Which of the following nerves arises from posterior trunk of brachial plexus?
A. n. medianus;
B. n. ulnaris;
C. n. musculo-cutaneus;
D. n. cutaneus brachii;
E. n. radialis; *
578.
Which of the following nerves is the biggest nerve of axillary fossa?
A. n. medianus;
B. n. ulnaris;
C. n. cutaneus brachii;
D. n. musculo-cutaneus;
E. n. radialis. *
579.
Which of the following arteries arise from axillary artery near superior edge of
tendon of m. latissimus dorsi?
A. thoracoacromialis;
B. subscapularis;
C. circumflexa humeri posterior and a. thoracica superior;
D. circumflexa scapulae;
E. circumflexa humeri posterior and a. circumflexa humeri anterior; *
580.
Which of the following arteries is main trunk of collateral circulation of axillary
artery?
A. thoracica superior;
B. thoracoacromialis;
C. circumflexa scapulae;
D. circumflexa humeri posterior;
E. subscapularis; *
581.
Which of the following vasculo-nervous bundles is located on medial wall of
axillary cavity?
A. n. cutaneus lateralis, a. thoracospinalis;
B. n. intercosto-brachialis, a. subscapularis;
C. thoracica superior, n. subcostalis;
D. n. thoracospinalis, a. thoracica superior;
E. n. thoracicus longus, a. thoracica lateralis; *
582.
A. collateralis ulnaris superior goes together with which of the following nerves?
A. n. medianus;
B. n. radialis;
C. n. musculo-cutaneus;
D. n. humerus posterior;
E. n. ulnaris; *
583.
Projection point of n. cutaneus brachii superior lateralis in the place of output in
the subcutaneous tissue in according to posterior edge of deltoid muscle:
A. middle third;
B. lower third;
C. midpart
D. between middle and lower thirds;
E. superior third; *
584.
Projection of the place of output of n. axillaris onto posterior surface of humerus
in according to acromion:
A. 4 сm apart;
B. 5 сm apart;
C. 6 сm apart;
D. 7 сm apart;
E. 2 сm apart; *
585.
Which of the following vasculo-nervous bundles is located in subdeltoid cellular
space?
A. n. radialis, a. circumflexa humeri posterior;
B. n. musculo-cutaneus, a. circumflexa humeri anterior;
C. circumflexa humeri posterior, n. ulnaris;
D. n. subscapularis, a. circumflexa humeri anterior;
E. n. axillaris, a. circumflexa humeri posterior; *
586.
N. musculo-cutaneus arises from which of the following nervous structures?
A. medial trunk of brachial plexus;
B. posterior trunk of brachial plexus;
C. n. medianus;
D. n. ulnaris;
E. lateral trunk of brachial plexus; *
587.
N. cutaneus brachii posterior arises from which of the following nervous
structures?
A. medial trunk of brachial plexus;
B. posterior trunk of brachial plexus;
C. n. musculo-cutaneus;
D. n. ulnaris;
E. lateral trunk of brachial plexus; *
588.
What is the most frequently damaged nerve in fractures of the humerus?
A. n. medianus;
B. n. ulnaris;
C. n. musculo-cutaneus;
D. n. axillaris;
E. n. radialis; *
589.
What nerve is adjacent to the shoulder joint capsule?
A. n. radialis;
B. n. ulnaris;
C. n. thoraco-spinalis;
D. n. intercosto-brachialis;
E. n. axillaris; *
590.
N. cutaneus brachii lateralis superior arises from which of the following nervous
structures?
A. lateral trunk of brachial plexus;
B. medial trunk of brachial plexus;
C. posterior trunk of brachial plexus;
D. n. axillaris;
E. n. musculo-cutaneus;*
591.
Which of the following superficial veins is accompanied by n. cutaneus brachii?
A. v. cephalica;
B. v. mediana;
C. v. ulnaris;
D. v. radialis;
E. v. basilica; *
592.
N. medianus is placed ______________ in relation to the a. brachialis.
A. medially;
B. forwards;
C. backwards;
D. individually;
E. laterally; *
593.
A. brachialis profunda divides into which of the following arteries?
A. arteries to humeral bone;
B. r. deltoideus;
C. collateralis media;
D. collateralis radialis;
E. all of these; *
594.
Which of the following nerves is the most frequently damaged nerve in fractures
of the surgical neck of humerus?
A. n. medianus;
B. n. radialis;
C. n. ulnaris;
D. n. musculo-cutaneus;
E. n. axillaris; *
595.
Which of the following cutaneous veins in the cubital fossa is not accompanied by
cutaneous nerve?
A. v. cephalica;
B. both are accompanied;
C. individually;
D. both are not accompanied;
E. v. basilica; *
596.
At which of the following levels division of radial nerve at the deep and
superficial branches is present?
A. 5-7 сm above processus styloideus of ulnar bone;
B. 5-7 сm below processus styloideus of ulnar bone;
C. at level of processus styloideus of ulnar bone;
D. 2 сm above of joint line;
E. at level of joint line; *
597.
Which of the following annatomical sructures goes through carpal canal?
A. n. ulnaris;
B. n. radialis;
C. n. medianus;
D. interossea palmaris;
E. tendons of mm. flexor digitorum superficialis et profundus; *
598.
Which of the following arteries are branches of deep palmar arch?
A. aa. digitales palmares communes;
B. princeps pollicis;
C. radialis indicis;
D. aa. digitales dorsales;
E. aa. metacarpeae palmares; *
599.
Which of the following arteries could be palpated near lateral edge of os
pisiformae:
A. radialis;
B. ramus carpeus palmaris;
C. ramus palmaris profundus;
D. princeps pollicis.
E. ulnaris*
600.
Which of the following muscles is guideline for determining the position of
vascular-nerve bundle in the axillary fossa in case of abducted and rotated outward limb?
A. m. deltoideus;
B. m. pectoralis major;
C. m. pectoralis minus;
D. caput longum of m. biceps brachii;
E. m. coracobrachialis; *
601.
Which of the following muscles are intimately adherent to the capsule of the
elbow joint?
A. m. coracobrachialis, m. supinator;
B. m. anconeus, m. supinator;
C. m. pronator teres, m. supinator;
D. m. flexor carpi radialis;
E. m. brachialis and m. supinator; *
602.
Indicate the branches of 1st part of axillary artery:
A. subclavia;
B. circumflexa scapulae;
C. thoracica interna;
D. thoracica lateralis;
E. thoracica superior and a. thoracoacromialis; *
603.
Indicate element of main vasculo-nervous bundle in clavipectoral triangle:
A. trunks of brachial plexus;
B. v. basilica;
C. n. axillaris;
D. n. musculocutaneus;
E. axillaris; *
604.
Indicate element of main vasculo-nervous bundle in subpectoral triangle:
A. n. medianus;
B. v. basilica;
C. n. musculocutaneus;
D. n. ulnaris;
E. v. cephalica; *
605.
N. ulnaris is located _____________ in middle third of brachial region?
A. behind v. cephalica;
B. medial to brachial artery;
C. outwards from the basilar artery;
D. within sheath of m. biceps brachii;
E. between a. brachialis and v. brachialis; *
606.
Where is the n. medianus in the middle third of the brachial region?
A. between m. flexor digitorum superficialis and m. palmaris longus;
B. between m. flexor digitorum profundus and m. palmaris longus;
C. between m. flexor pollicis superficialis and m. flexor pollicis longus;
D. between m. flexor pollicis profundus and m. palmaris longus;
E. between m. flexor digitorum superficialis and m. flexor digitorum profundus; *
607.
Which of the following surgical approaches is used in case of arthrotomy of
shoulder joint after Langenbeck?
A. 8-10 cm downwards from acromion;
B. on posterior edge of deltoid muscle;
C. through deltoid muscle;
D. on sulcus deltoideo-pectoralis;
E. on anterior edge of deltoid muscle; *
608.
Puncture of shoulder joint should be performed:
A. under processus coracoideus;
B. in space between posterior edge of deltoid muscle and edge of m. supraspinatus;
C. under posterior edge of acromion;
D. above acromion;
E. lateral to processus coracoideus; *
609.
Which of the following incisions is used in case of subdeltoid phlegmon?
A. on posterior edge of m. deltoideus;
B. through m. deltoideus closer to its anterior edge;
C. on sulcus deltoideo-pectoralis;
D. through middle of m. deltoideus;
E. on anterior edge of m. deltoideus; *
610.
Branches of which of the following nerves take part in innervation of radiocarpal
joint?
A. median, radial;
B. radial, musculo-cutaneous;
C. musculo-cutaneous;
D. axillary;
E. radial, median, ulnar; *
611.
Subperiostal method of the bone treatment is:
A. Cutting and removal of the periosteum on 1-2 cm distally from the bone cutting
B. Covering of the bone stump by the periosteum *
C. Cutting of the bone and periosteum on the same level
D. None of the above
E. All of the above.
612.
Periostal method of the bone treatment is:
A. Cutting and removal of the periosteum on 1-2 cm distally from the bone cutting
B. Covering of the bone stump by the periosteum
C. Cutting of the bone and periosteum on the same level *
D. None of the above
E. All of the above.
613.
Working surface for the superior extremity is:
A. Palmar *
B. Dorsal
C. Anterior and posterior
D. Lateral and dorsal
E. Medial and palmar.
614.
Which of the following surfaces is working for I finger:
A. Palmar
B. Dorsal
C. Ulnar and radial
D. Palmar and radial
E. Palmar and ulnar. *
615.
What is “Lisfrank’s joint key”?
A. lig. talonaviculare
B. lig. calcaneonaviculare plantare
C. lig. cuneometatarseum secundum *
D. lig. calcaneocuboideum
E. lig. plantare longum.
616.
What is Lisfrank’s joint?
A. art. subtalaris
B. art. talocalcaneonaviculare
C. art. calcaneocuboidea
D. art. tarsometatarsea *
E. art. metatarsophalangea.
617.
What is Chopart’s joint?
A. art. talocalcaneonaviculare
B. art. calcaneocuboidea
C. art. tarsi transversa *
D. art. cuneonavicularis
E. art. subtalaris.
618.
What is Sharp’s surgery?
A. Disarticulation in tarsometatarsal articulations
B. Amputation in continuity of metatarsal bones *
C. Tarsal bones amputation
D. Disarticulation in metatarsophalangeal articulations
E. None of the above.
619.
What is Lisfrank’s surgery?
A. Disarticulation in tarsometatarsal articulations *
B. Amputation in continuity of metatarsal bones
C. Tarsal bones amputation
D. Disarticulation in metatarsophalangeal articulations
E. None of the above.
620.
Working surface for the lower limb is:
A. Posterior
B. Anterior
C. Lower
D. Anterior and lower *
E. Posterior and lower.
621.
Lisfrank’s joint key is:
A. Connection between I and II metatarsal bones
B. Connection between II and III metatarsal bones
C. Connection between medial cuneiform bone and II metatarsal bone *
D. Connection between lateral cuneiform bone and II metatarsal bone
E. Connection between lateral cuneiform bone and III metatarsal bone.
622.
Projection line of joint space for distal phalanx is situated on dorsal surface on
___ mm more distally then corner that formed after flexion this phalanx.
A. 1
B. 2 *
C. 3
D. 4
E. 8.
623.
Projection line of joint space for middle phalanx is situated on dorsal surface on
___ mm more distally then corner that formed after flexion this phalanx.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4 *
E. 8.
624.
Projection line of joint space for proximal phalanx is situated on dorsal surface on
___ mm more distally then corner that formed after flexion this phalanx.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 8. *
625.
The scar tissue in case of amputation of finger phalanx would be situated on
_______ surface:
A. Dorsal *
B. Palmar
C. Ulnar
D. Radial
E. Lower.
626.
Following an amputation at midleg the fibular bone would be cutted above the
shin bone on:
A. 1-2 cm
B. 2-3 cm
C. 3-4 cm *
D. 4-5 cm
E. 5-6 cm.
627.
Following a forearm amputation the radial bone would be cutted above the ulnar
bone on:
A. 1-2 cm *
B. 2-3 cm
C. 3-4 cm
D. 4-5 cm
E. 5-6 cm.
628.
Extremities amputation in case of frostbite would be performed not earlier than:
A. 1-2 days
B. 2-3 days
C. 3-4 days
D. 4-5 days
E. 5-6 days. *
629.
Which of the following amputation is osteoplastic:
A. Three-steps thigh amputation by Pyrogov
B. Pyrogov’s leg amputation *
C. Sharp’s operation
D. Krukenberg-Albreht’s operation
E. Amputation at upper one third of shoulder by Farabef.
630.
Which of the following amputation is osteoplastic:
A. Three-steps thigh amputation by Pyrogov
B. Krukenberg-Albreht’s operation
C. Sharp’s operation
D. Thigh amputation by Gritti-Shymanovsky *
E. Amputation at upper one third of shoulder by Farabef.
631.
Which of the following amputation is osteoplastic:
A. Three-steps thigh amputation by Pyrogov
B. Krukenberg-Albreht’s operation
C. Sharp’s operation
D. Sabaneev’s amputation *
E. Amputation at upper one third of shoulder by Farabef.
632.
Krukenberg-Albreht’s operation is:
A. Three-steps circular shoulder amputation at lower one third
B. Double-flap fasciocutaneous amputation at midshoulder
C. Cinematisation (cinematic forearm amputation) *
D. Foot amputation through the metatarsal bones
E. Thigh amputation at upper one third.
633.
Following a Gritti-Shymanovsky’s amputation:
A. The femoral bone stump would be covered by the patella *
B. The femoral bone stump would be covered by the shin bone gibbosity
C. The shin bone stump would be covered by the heel bone
D. The femoral bone stump would be covered by the heel bone
E. The shin bone stump would be covered by the patella.
634.
Following a Sabaneev’s amputation:
A. The femoral bone stump would be covered by the patella
B. The femoral bone stump would be covered by the shin bone gibbosity *
C. The shin bone stump would be covered by the heel bone
D. The femoral bone stump would be covered by the heel bone
E. The shin bone stump would be covered by the patella.
635.
Following an osteoplastic leg amputation by Pyrogov:
A. The femoral bone stump would be covered by the patella
B. The femoral bone stump would be covered by the shin bone gibbosity
C. The shin bone stump would be covered by the heel bone *
D. The femoral bone stump would be covered by the heel bone
E. The shin bone stump would be covered by the patella.
636.
What is phalangisation:
A. Finger formation by I metacarpal bone *
B. Two fingers formation by ulnar and radial bones
C. Finger formation by ulnar bone
D. Finger formation by radial bone
E. None of the above.
637.
What is cinematic amputation:
A. Finger formation by I metacarpal bone
B. Two fingers formation by ulnar and radial bones *
C. Finger formation by ulnar bone
D. Finger formation by radial bone
E. None of the above.
638.
The extremity circumference at amputation level is 54 cm. Flap length in case of
circular single-flap amputation would be:
A. 16 cm
B. 18 cm
C. 20 cm *
D. 22 cm
E. 24 cm.
639.
The extremity circumference at amputation level is 57 cm. Flap length in case of
circular single-flap amputation would be:
A. 17 cm
B. 18 cm
C. 19 cm
D. 20 cm
E. 21 cm. *
640.
The extremity circumference at amputation level is 54 cm. Length of longer flap
in case of circular double-flap amputation would be:
A. 10 cm
B. 12 cm
C. 14 cm *
D. 16 cm
E. 18 cm.
641.
The extremity circumference at amputation level is 54 cm. Length of shorter flap
in case of circular double-flap amputation would be:
A. 4 cm
B. 6 cm
C. 8 cm *
D. 10 cm
E. 12 cm.
642.
How many centimeters would be given for skin shorting at flap length calculation
in case of flap amputation:
A. 1-2
B. 2
C. 3
D. 2-3 *
E. 3-4.
643.
What is neurolysis?
A. Release nerve from scar tissues *
B. Nerve suture
C. Nerve cutting
D. Nerve grafting
E. Neuroma resection.
644.
What is neurorrhaphy?
A. Release nerve from scar tissues
B. Nerve suture *
C. Nerve cutting
D. Nerve grafting
E. Neuroma resection.
645.
Primary tendon suture would be placed:
A. Within 4-6 hours after injure *
B. Within 7-8 hours after injure
C. Within 9-10 hours after injure
D. Within 11-12 hours after injure
E. Within 12-24 hours after injure.
646.
Early secondary tendon suture would be placed:
A. Within 7-8 weeks after injure
B. Within 8-9 weeks after injure
C. Within 9-10 weeks after injure
D. Within 4-6 weeks after injure *
E. Above 10 weeks after injure.
647.
Late secondary tendon suture would be placed:
A. Within 2 months after injure
B. Within 2 weeks after injure
C. Within 3 weeks after injure
D. Within 4-6 weeks after injure
E. Above 6 weeks after injure. *
648.
The intratrunkal suture with knots implanted between tendon stumps is:
A. Braun’s suture
B. Lange’s suture
C. Dreyer’s suture
D. Kiuneo’s suture *
E. Kirshner’s method.
649.
The intratrunkal suture with knots and threads that situated on tendon surfaces is:
A. Braun’s suture
B. Lange’s suture *
C. Dreyer’s suture
D. Kiuneo’s suture
E. Kirshner’s method.
650.
Tendon suture is placed by:
A. Catgut
B. Polyester
C. Silk *
D. Polydioxanon
E. None of the above.
651.
Collateral circulation in case of femoral artery ligation under inguinal ligament
would be developed by:
A. а. glutea inferior and a. circumflexa femoris lateralis *
B. branches of а. profunda femoris
C. branches of а. iliaca externa
D. branches of а. iliaca interna
E. а. glutea inferior and a. pudenda interna.
652.
Collateral circulation in case of femoral artery ligation under inguinal ligament
would be developed by:
A. branches of а. profunda femoris
B. branches of а. iliaca externa
C. branches of а. iliaca interna
D. a. obturatoria a. and circumflexa femoris medialis *
E. а. glutea inferior and a. pudenda interna.
653.
Collateral circulation in case of femoral artery ligation under inguinal ligament
would be developed by:
A. branches of а. profunda femoris
B. a. pudenda externa and a. pudenda interna *
C. branches of а. iliaca externa
D. branches of а. iliaca interna
E. а. glutea inferior and a. pudenda interna.
654.
Collateral circulation in case of femoral artery ligation within femoral triangle
would be developed by:
A. а. glutea inferior and a. circumflexa femoris lateralis
B. branches of а. profunda femoris *
C. branches of а. iliaca externa
D. branches of а. iliaca interna
E. а. glutea inferior and a. pudenda interna.
655.
Collateral circulation in case of popliteal artery ligation within Jober’s fossa
would be developed by:
A. branches of a. tibialis anterior
B. branches of a. tibialis posterior
C. branches of a. femoralis profunda
D. rete articulare genu *
E. branches of a. peronea.
656.
Incision for approach to popliteal artery within Jober’s fossa would be conducted
on tendon margin of:
A. m. adductor longus
B. m. adductor magnus *
C. m. adductor brevis
D. m. biceps femoris
E. caput mediale m. gastrocnemii.
657.
Collateral circulation in case of popliteal artery ligation within popliteal space
would be developed by:
A. branches of a. peronea
B. branches of a. suralis
C. branches of a. tibialis anterior
D. branches of a. tibialis posterior
E. rete articulare genu. *
658.
Collateral circulation in case of obstruction of a. tibialis anterior at lower leg third
would be developed by:
A. a. peronea *
B. rete articulare genu
C. a. malleolaris anterior lateralis
D. a. malleolaris anterior medialis
E. a. dorsalis pedis.
659.
Collateral circulation in case of obstruction of a. tibialis anterior at upper leg third
would be developed by:
A. rete articulare genu
B. a. genus media
C. aa. surales
D. a. peronea *
E. a. poplitea.
660.
Collateral circulation in case of obstruction of a. tibialis posterior at middle leg
third would be developed by:
A. a. tibialis anterior *
B. a. peronea
C. aa. plantares
D. aa. surales
E. a.poplitea.
661.
Collateral circulation in case of obstruction of a. tibialis posterior at medial
malleolus region would be developed by:
A. a. tibialis anterior
B. a. peronea
C. a. tibialis anterior and a. peronea *
D. a.poplitea
E. aa. plantares.
662.
Collateral circulation in case of obstruction of a. axillaris above the origin of
a. subscapularis would be developed by:
A. r. descendens a. transversae colli and a. subscapularis *
B. a. profunda brachii and aa. circumflexa humeri anterior
C. a. thoracoacromialis and a. profunda brachii
D. a. circumflexa humeri posterior and a. circumflexa humeri anterior
E. branches of a. brachialis.
663.
Collateral circulation in case of obstruction of a. axillaris above the origin of a.
subscapularis would be developed by:
A. a. profunda brachii and aa. circumflexa humeri anterior
B. a. profunda brachii and a. recurrens radialis
C. a. transversa scapulae and aa. circumflexa scapulae *
D. a. profunda brachii and aa. circumflexa humeri posterior
E. a. circumflexa humeri posterior and a. circumflexa humeri anterior.
664.
Collateral circulation in case of obstruction of a. axillaris under the origin of a.
subscapularis would be developed by:
A. a. profunda brachii and aa. circumflexa humeri anterior *
B. a. profunda brachii and a. recurrens radialis
C. a. transversa scapulae and aa. circumflexa scapulae
D. a. profunda brachii and aa. circumflexa humeri posterior
E. a. circumflexa humeri posterior and a. circumflexa humeri anterior.
665.
Collateral circulation in case of obstruction of a. brachialis at middle shoulder
third would be developed by:
A. a. profunda brachii and aa. circumflexa humeri anterior
B. a. profunda brachii and aa. circumflexa humeri posterior
C. a. circumflexa humeri posterior and a. circumflexa humeri anterior
D. a. profunda brachii and a. recurrens radialis *
E. rete cubiti.
666.
Collateral circulation in case of obstruction of a. brachialis at middle shoulder
third would be developed by:
A. a. profunda brachii and aa. circumflexa humeri anterior
B. a. circumflexa humeri posterior and a. circumflexa humeri anterior
C. rete cubiti
D. a. profunda brachii and aa. circumflexa humeri posterior
E. aa. collaterales ulnares superior et inferior and a. recurrens ulnaris. *
667.
Collateral circulation in case of obstruction of a. brachialis at antecubital fossa
would be developed by:
A. rete cubiti *
B. a. profunda brachii and aa. circumflexa humeri anterior
C. a. circumflexa humeri posterior and a. circumflexa humeri anterior
D. a. profunda brachii and aa. circumflexa humeri posterior
E. a. transversa scapulae and aa. circumflexa scapulae.
668.
Collateral circulation in case of occlusion of a. ulnaris at middle forearm third
would be developed by:
A. a. interossea recurrens and a. interossea posterior
B. branches of a.radialis and a. interossea anterior *
C. a. interossea communis
D. a. recurrens ulnaris and a. collateralis ulnaris inferior
E. a. recurrens radialis and a. collateralis radialis.
669.
Collateral circulation in case of occlusion of a. ulnaris at lower forearm third
would be developed by:
A. a. interossea recurrens and a. interossea posterior
B. a. interossea communis
C. a. radialis and a. interossea anterior *
D. a. recurrens ulnaris and a. collateralis ulnaris inferior
E. a. recurrens radialis and a. collateralis radialis.
670.
Collateral circulation in case of occlusion of a. ulnaris at lower forearm third
would be developed by:
A. a. interossea recurrens and a. interossea posterior
B. arcus palmaris profundus *
C. arcus palmaris superficialis
D. a. recurrens ulnaris and a. collateralis ulnaris inferior
E. a. recurrens radialis and a. collateralis radialis.
671.
Collateral circulation in case of occlusion of a. radialis at lower forearm third
would be developed by:
A. a. interossea recurrens and a. interossea posterior
B. arcus palmaris profundus
C. arcus palmaris superficialis *
D. a. recurrens ulnaris and a. collateralis ulnaris inferior
E. a. recurrens radialis and a. collateralis radialis.
672.
Collateral circulation in case of occlusion of a. radialis at lower forearm third
would be developed by:
A. a. recurrens ulnaris and a. collateralis ulnaris inferior
B. a. interossea recurrens and a. interossea posterior
C. a. ulnaris and a. interossea anterior *
D. a. recurrens radialis and a. collateralis radialis
E. rete cubiti.
673.
Abduction of superior extremity to horizontal condition is impossible after
arthrotomy of shoulder joint by lateral access. Which of the following nerves is
damaged?
A. n. radialis
B. n. ulnaris
C. n. medianus
D. n. musculocutaneus
E. n. axillaris. *
674.
Abduction of superior extremity to horizontal condition is impossible after
arthrotomy of shoulder joint by lateral access. Which of the following muscles is
damaged?
A. m. triceps brachii
B. m. deltoideus *
C. m. biceps brachii
D. m. coracobrachialis
E. m. pectoralis major.
675.
How many joints form the elbow joint?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3 *
D. 4
E. 5.
676.
How many ligaments strengthen the elbow joint?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3 *
D. 4
E. 5.
677.
How many volvuluses has the knee joint?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
E. 9. *
678.
Complication after Langenbek’s knee joint arthronomy is damage of:
A. n. peroneus communis *
B. n. tibialis
C. n. peroneus superficialis
D. n. peroneus profundus
E. n. suralis.
679.
Conduction of the elbow joint arthrotomy from lateral side is better for prevention
damage of:
A. n. cutaneus antebrachii medialis
B. n. ulnaris *
C. n. medianus
D. a. collateralis ulnaris superior
E. a. collateralis ulnaris inferior.
680.
Which of the following ligaments is intraarticular ligament of knee joint?
A. lig. popliteum arcuatum
B. lig. popliteum obliquum
C. lig. transversum genus *
D. lig. collaterale tibiale
E. lig. collaterale fibulare.
681.
Which of the following ligaments is extraarticular ligament of knee joint?
A. lig. cruciatum anterius
B. lig. cruciatum posterius
C. lig. meniscofemorale posterior
D. lig. transversum genus
E. lig. collaterale fibulare. *
682.
Arthrotomy of hip joint in case of purulent coxitis is conducted from _______
posterior access.
A. Textor’s
B. Kornev’s
C. Langenbek’s *
D. Olie’s
E. Merfi-Lekser’s.
MSQ for figures:
683.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 1 is indicated by 11?
A. M. scalenus anterior*
B. M. scalenus medius
C. M. scalenus posterior
D. M. sternoclaidomastoideus
E. M. stylohyoideus
684.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 1 is indicated by 12?
A. A. subclavia*
B. A. axillaris
C. A. thoracoacromialis
D. A. thoracica superior
E. A. thyroidea inferior
685.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 1 is indicated by 13?
A. Truncus thyrocervicalis*
B. A. axillaris
C. A. thoracoacromialis
D. A. thoracica superior
E. A. thyroidea inferior
686.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 1 is indicated by 14?
A. Truncus thyrocervicalis
B. A. axillaris
C. A. thoracoacromialis
D. A. thoracica superior
E. A. thyroidea inferior*
687.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 1 is indicated by 15?
A. Truncus thyrocervicalis
B. A. axillaris
C. A.transversa colli*
D. A. thoracica superior
E. A. thyroidea inferior
688.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 1 is indicated by 16?
A. Truncus thyrocervicalis
B. A. axillaris
C. A.transversa colli
D. A. suprascapularis*
E. A. thyroidea inferior
689.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 1 is indicated by 22?
A. Truncus thyrocervicalis
B. A. axillaris
C. A.circumflexa scapulae
D. A. suprascapularis
E. A. subscapularis*
690.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig. 1 is indicated by 23?
A. Truncus thyrocervicalis
B. A. axillaris
C. A.circumflexa scapulae*
D. A. suprascapularis
E. A. subscapularis
691.
A. 25*
B. 24
C. 26
D. 23
E. 22
A. thoracodorsalis is indicated by which of the following numbers in fig.1?
692.
A. 9*
B. 8
C. 7
D. 6
E. 5
A. thoracica superior is indicated by which of the following numbers in fig.1?
693.
A. 9
B. 8*
C. 7
D. 6
E. 5
A. thoracoacromialis is indicated by which of the following numbers in fig.1?
694.
A. 24
B. 18*
C. 20
D. 22
E. 25
A. dorsalis scapularis is indicated by which of the following numbers in fig.1?
695.
A. 24*
B. 12
C. 21
D. 26
E. 25
A. brachialis is indicated by which of the following numbers in fig.1?
696.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig.2 is indicated by 1?
A. M. scalenus anterior
B. M. scalenus medius
C. M. scalenus posterior
D. M. sternoclaidomastoideus*
E. M. stylohyoideus
697.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig.2 is indicated by 2?
A. M. scalenus anterior*
B. M. scalenus medius
C. M. scalenus posterior
D. M. sternoclaidomastoideus
E. M. stylohyoideus
698.
A. 5*
B. 8
C. 3
D. 10
E. 12
A. suprascapularis is indicated by which of the following numbers in fig.2?
699.
A. 3*
B. 18
C. 12
D. 10
E. 5
A. transversa colli is indicated by which of the following numbers in fig.2?
700.
A. 6*
B. 1
C. 2
D. 23
E. 21
M. trapezius is indicated by which of the following numbers in fig.2?
701.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig.2 is indicated by 13?
A. a. thoracoacromialis
B. a. axillaris
C. a. suprascapularis
D. a. clavicularis*
E. a. transversa colli
702.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig.2 is indicated by 8?
A. a. thoracoacromialis
B. a. axillaris*
C. a. suprascapularis
D. a. clavicularis
E. a. transversa colli
703.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig.2 is indicated by 5?
A. a. et n. thoracoacromialis
B. a.et n. axillaris
C. a.et n. suprascapularis*
D. a.et n. dorsalis scapulae
E. a.et n. transversa colli
704.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig.2 is indicated by 18?
A. N. musculocutaneus*
B. N. axillaris
C. N. radialis
D. N. medianus
E. N.ulnaris
705.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig.2 is indicated by 28?
A. N. musculocutaneus
B. N. axillaris
C. N. radialis*
D. N. medianus
E. N.ulnaris
706.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig.2 is indicated by 32?
A. N. musculocutaneus*
B. N. axillaris
C. N. radialis
D. N. medianus
E. N.ulnaris
707.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig.2 is indicated by 33?
A. N. musculocutaneus
B. N. axillaris
C. N. radialis
D. N. medianus*
E. N.ulnaris
708.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig.2 is indicated by 37?
A. N. musculocutaneus *
B. N. axillaris
C. N. radialis
D. N. medianus
E. N.ulnaris
709.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig.2 is indicated by 40?
A. a. thoracoacromialis*
B. a. circumflexa scapulae
C. a. suprascapularis
D. a. clavicularis
E. a. transversa colli
710.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig.2 is indicated by 43?
A. a. thoracoacromialis *
B. a. circumflexa scapulae
C. a. suprascapularis
D. a. clavicularis
E. a. subscapularis
711.
Which of the following anatomical structures in fig.2 is indicated by 52?
A. a. thoracoacromialis*
B. a. thoracica superior
C. a. suprascapularis
D. a. clavicularis
E. a. subscapularis
712.
N. cutaneus antebrachii medialis is indicated by which of the following numbers
in fig.2?
A. 35*
B. 38
C. 37
D. 39
E. 28
713.
N. cutaneus brachii medialis is indicated by which of the following numbers in
fig.2?
A. 35*
B. 38
C. 37
D. 39
E. 28
714.
A. 25*
B. 38
C. 37
D. 39
E. 28
N. musculocutaneus is indicated by which of the following numbers in fig.2?
715.
A. 33*
B. 38
C. 37
D. 39
E. 28
N. medianus is indicated by which of the following numbers in fig.2?
716.
A. 1*
B. 5
C. 11
D. 61
E. 63
M. sartorius is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
717.
A. 53*
B. 47
C. 46
D. 23
E. 22
M. sartorius is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
718.
A. 4*
B. 5
C. 1
D. 61
E. 63
M. iliopsoas is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
719.
A. 61*
B. 66
C. 63
D. 57
E. 55
M. gracilis is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
720.
A. 46*
B. 45
C. 44
D. 53
E. 20
M. gracilis is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
721.
A. 38*
B. 35
C. 34
D. 23
E. 55
M. gracilis is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
722.
A. 56*
B. 60
C. 63
D. 57
E. 55
M. semitendinosus is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
723.
A. 22*
B. 20
C. 21
D. 23
E. 46
M. semitendinosus is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
724.
A. 23*
B. 20
C. 21
D. 22
E. 46
M. semimembranosus is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
725.
A. 57*
B. 56
C. 55
D. 22
E. 46
M. semimembranosus is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
726.
A. 10*
B. 11
C. 8
M. vastus lateralis is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
D. 7
E. 3
727.
A. 17*
B. 21
C. 20
D. 15
E. 14
M. vastus lateralis is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
728.
A. 66*
B. 63
C. 60
D. 61
E. 53
M. adductor longus is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
729.
A. 47*
B. 45
C. 44
D. 14
E. 53
M. adductor longus is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
730.
A. 63*
B. 66
C. 60
D. 61
E. 53
M. adductor brevis is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
731.
A. 45*
B. 47
C. 44
D. 14
E. 53
M. adductor brevis is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
732.
A. 3*
B. 1
C. 4
D. 5
E. 7
M. pectoneus is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
733.
A. 51*
B. 43
C. 33
D. 32
E. 62
N. saphenus is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
734.
M. biceps femoris is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
A. 20, 21*
B. 16, 17
C. 14, 15
D. 22, 23
E. 44, 45
735.
A. 31*
B. 27
C. 34
D. 35
E. 38
M. biceps femoris is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 4?
736.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 3 is indicated by 2?
A. M. gluteus maximus*
B. M. gluteus medius
C. M. gluteus minimus
D. M. gemellus superior
E. M. adductor magnus
737.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 3 is indicated by 42?
A. M. gluteus maximus*
B. M. gluteus medius
C. M. gluteus minimus
D. M. gemellus superior
E. M. adductor magnus
738.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 3 is indicated by 15?
A. M. semitendonosus*
B. M. semimembranosus
C. M. gracilis
D. M. sartorius
E. M. gastrocnemius
739.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 3 is indicated by 16?
A. M. semimembranosus*
B. M. semitendonosus
C. M. gracilis
D. M. sartorius
E. M. gastrocnemius
740.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 3 is indicated by 24?
A. M. semimembranosus
B. M. semitendonosus
C. M. gracilis
D. M. sartorius
E. M. gastrocnemius*
741.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 3 is indicated by 48?
A. M. piriformis*
B. M. obturatorius internus
C. M. gracilis
D. M. sartorius
E. M. gastrocnemius
742.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 3 is indicated by 11?
A. M. adductor magnus*
B. M. semitendonosus
C. M. gracilis
D. M. sartorius
E. M. semimembranosus
743.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 3 is indicated by 50?
A. M. gluteus minimus*
B. M. gluteus maximus
C. M. gluteus medius
D. M. piriformis
E. M. gemellus superior
744.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 3 is indicated by 49?
A. M. tensor fasciae latae*
B. M. semitendonosus
C. M. gracilis
D. M. sartorius
E. M. iliopsoas
745.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 3 is indicated by 44?
A. M. obturatorius internum*
B. M. obturatorius externum
C. M. gemellus inferior
D. M. gemellus superior
E. M. piriformis
746.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 3 is indicated by 46?
A. M. gemellus superior*
B. M. gemellus onferior
C. M. obturatorius externum
D. M. obturatorius onternum
E. M. piriformis
747.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 3 is indicated by 47?
A. M. gluteus minimus
B. M. gluteus maximus
C. M. gluteus medius*
D. M. piriformis
E. M. gemellus superior
748.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 3 is indicated by 36?
A. M. adductor magnus*
B. M. biceps femoris
C. M. vastus lateralis
D. M. quadriceps femoris
E. M. quadratus femoris
749.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 3 is indicated by 41?
A. M. adductor magnus
B. M. biceps femoris
C. M. vastus lateralis
D. M. quadriceps femoris
E. M. quadratus femoris*
750.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 3 is indicated by 7?
A. N. cutaneus femoris posterior*
B. N. gluteus onferior
C. N. ischiadicus
D. N. tibialis
E. N. gluteus superior
751.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 3 is indicated by 39?
A. M. adductor magnus*
B. M. biceps femoris
C. M. vastus lateralis
D. M. quadriceps femoris
E. M. quadratus femoris
752.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 3 is indicated by 5?
A. N. pudendus*
B. N. gluteus onferior
C. N. gluteus superior
D. N. obturatorius onternus
E. N. cutaneus femoris posterior
753.
A. 44*
B. 48
C. 47
D. 43
E. 41
M. obturatorius internus is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 3?
754.
A. 10*
B. 6
C. 3
D. 5
E. 14
Nn. clunii inferiores is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 3?
755.
A. 30*
B. 25
C. 27
D. 23
E. 7
N. peroneus communis is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 3?
756.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 5 is indicated by 16?
A. m. levator ani*
B. m. obturatorius internus
C. m. piriformis
D. m. gluteus minimus
E. m. gemellus superior
757.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 5 is indicated by 17?
A. m. obturatorius internus*
B. m. levator ani
C. m. piriformis
D. m. gemellus superior
E. m. gluteus minimus
758.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 5 is indicated by 1?
A. a. glutea superior*
B. a. iliolumbalis
C. a. obturatoria
D. a. glutea inferior
E. a.pudenda interna
759.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 5 is indicated by 2?
A. a. Obturatoria*
B. a. iliolumbalis
C. a. glutea superior
D. a. glutea inferior
E. a.pudenda interna
760.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 5 is indicated by 5?
A. a.pudenda interna*
B. a. iliolumbalis
C. a. glutea superior
D. a. glutea inferior
E. a. obturatoria
761.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 5 is indicated by 6?
A. a. glutea inferior*
B. a. iliolumbalis
C. a. glutea superior
D. a.pudenda interna
E. a. obturatoria
762.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 5 is indicated by 3?
A. a. umbilicalis*
B. a. iliolumbalis
C. a. glutea superior
D. a.pudenda interna
E. a. obturatoria
763.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 5 is indicated by 13?
A. a. rectalis inferior*
B. a. iliolumbalis
C. a. glutea inferior
D. a.pudenda interna
E. a. rectalis media
764.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 5 is indicated by 4?
A. m. piriformis*
B. m. obturatorius internus
C. m. coccygeus
D. m. gluteus minimus
E. m. gemellus superior
765.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 5 is indicated by 7?
A. m. coccygeus*
B. m. obturatorius internus
C. m. piriformis
D. m. gluteus minimus
E. m. gemellus superior
766.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 6 is indicated by 33?
A. a. glutea superior*
B. a. iliolumbalis
C. a. glutea superior
D. a.pudenda interna
E. a. obturatoria
767.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 6 is indicated by 32?
A. a. Obturatoria*
B. a. iliolumbalis
C. a. glutea superior
D. a.pudenda interna
E. a. glutea superior
768.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 6 is indicated by 31?
A. a. umbilicalis*
B. a. iliolumbalis
C. a. glutea superior
D. a.pudenda interna
E. a. obturatoria
769.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 6 is indicated by 29?
A. a. glutea inferior*
B. a. iliolumbalis
C. a. glutea superior
D. a. pudenda interna
E. a. obturatoria
770.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 6 is indicated by 26?
A. a. pudenda interna*
B. a. iliolumbalis
C. a. glutea superior
D. a. glutea inferior
E. a. obturatoria
771.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 6 is indicated by 23?
A. a. rectalis inferior*
B. a. iliolumbalis
C. a. glutea inferior
D. a.pudenda interna
E. a. rectalis media
772.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 6 is indicated by 35?
A. a. iliolumbalis*
B. a. glutea inferior
C. a. glutea superior
D. a.pudenda interna
E. a. obturatoria
773.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 6 is indicated by 34?
A. a. sacralis lateralis*
B. a. glutea inferior
C. a. glutea superior
D. a. iliolumbalis
E. a. obturatoria
774.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 6 is indicated by 3?
A. a. umbilicalis dexter*
B. a. iliolumbalis
C. a. glutea superior
D. a.pudenda interna
E. a. obturatoria
775.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 6 is indicated by 21?
A. a. pudenda interna*
B. a. iliolumbalis
C. a. glutea superior
D. a. glutea inferior
E. a. obturatoria
776.
Which of the following anatomical structures on fig. 6 is indicated by 22?
A. a. perinealis*
B. a. sacralis
C. a. pudenda interna
D. a. glutea inferior
E. a. obturatoria
777.
A. 17 *
B. 18
C. 20
D. 24
F. 19
Plexus pampiniformis is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 6?
778.
A. 16 *
B. 18
C. 20
D. 17
G. 19
A. testicularis is indicated by which of the following numbers on fig. 6?
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