Equivalent Circuits and Transfer Functions Samantha R Summerson 14 September, 2009 1 Equivalent Circuits π ππ ππ π + + π£ππ ± π£ − − Figure 1: TheΜvenin equivalent circuit. + ππ π ↑ π£ππ π ππ − Figure 2: Mayer-Norton equivalent circuit. Recall the steps to ο¬nding the equivalent circuit values: π£ππ , ππ π , and π ππ . 1. Consider the open circuit (π = 0). Find the voltage, π£ππ = π£ππ . 2. Consider the short circuit, setting the terminal voltage to zero (π£ = 0). Solve for π = ππ π . 3. Zero the sources (all voltage sources short-circuited and current sources open-circuited) and ο¬nd the equivalent resistance, π ππ , looking back into the terminals. π ππ = − 1 π£ππ ππ π We can ο¬nd the equivalent circuit by performing any two of the three above steps. We can solve for the third unknown quantity using the π£ − π relation. Note that if we short-circuit our TheΜvenin equivalent circuit, the current traveling clockwise is ππ π . Example 1. Find the Norton equivalent circuit. For sake of completeness, we will go through all three 100Ω π1 π + π2 15π ± π£ 50Ω − Figure 3: Example 1 - ο¬nd the equivalent circuit values. steps. (a) Let π = 0. Using our voltage divider rule, π£ππ = π£ 50Ω (15π ) 50Ω + 100Ω 5π = = (b) Set π£ = 0, i.e. put a wire across the terminal. The voltage across the 50Ω resistor is now zero, meaning π2 must be zero. We are solving for ππ π = π. Using KCL, π1 = π, = ππ π . By KVL, 100π1 = 15π, 3 = π΄, 20 3 = π΄. 20 ⇒ π1 ⇒ ππ π (c) Zero out the voltage source, meaning short-circuit it (replace it with a wire). From the right-hand side of the circuit, the two resistors are in parallel. Thus, ( π ππ = = = 1 1 + 100 50 ( )−1 3 100 100 Ω 3 Example 2. Find the equivalent circuit values. 2 )−1 100 3 Ω + 5π ± π£ − Figure 4: Example 1 - TheΜvenin equivalent circuit. + 3 20 π΄ 100 3 Ω ↑ π£ππ − Figure 5: Example 1 - Mayer-Norton equivalent circuit. i. First, set π = 0. This implies that the current through the 10Ω resistor, which is the resistor we are measuring the output voltage across, is π4 . So, π£ππ = π£ = 10π4 . We only need to solve for π4 . Now we can write our KCL and KVL equations. By KVL, we have 10 = 20ππ + 16π4 , 10 = 20π1 + 5π3 . By KCL we have: π1 = π2 + π3 , π2 + 1 = π4 , π4 = 1 + π5 , π3 + π5 = π1 . First we will solve for π1 in terms of π4 . π1 16π4 16 π4 ⇒ 5 ⇒ π1 = π2 + π3 = (π4 − 1) + π3 = 5π3 from KVL equations = π3 = π4 − 1 + = 21 π4 − 1 5 3 16 π4 5 20Ω 10π ± π1 π2 π3 π 6Ω π4 + ↑ 1π΄ 5Ω 10Ω π£ − π5 Figure 6: Example 2 - ο¬nd the equivalent circuit values. Using this expression for π1 , we plug it into our ο¬rst KCL equation and solve for π4 . 21 π4 − 1) + 16π4 5 = 100π4 − 20 3 = π΄ 10 10 = ⇒ π4 20( Now, π£ππ = 10π4 = 3π. ii. Put a wire across the terminals, i.e. set π£ = 0. We are solving for ππ π = π. Due to the short circuit, no current will go through the 10Ω resistor. Thus, ππ π = π = π4 . From KVL, we have These two equations together imply 10 = 20π1 + 6π4 , 10 = 20π1 + 5π3 . 6 5 π4 = π3 . From KCL, we have π1 = π2 + π3 , 1 + π2 = π4 , π = π4 , π = π3 + π5 1 + π5 , = π1 . Combining the ο¬rst two equations, we have (π4 − 1) + π3 , 6 = π4 − 1 + π4 , from the KVL equations 5 11 = π4 − 1. 5 Using this value for π1 in the ο¬rst KVL equation, ( ) 11 π4 − 1 + 6π4 , 10 = 20 5 = 50π4 − 20, 3 ⇒ π4 = π΄. 5 π1 = iii. By the π£ − π relation, π ππ = 4 π£ππ 3 = 3 = 5Ω. ππ π 5 2 2.1 Equivalent Capacitance and Inductance Capacitors in Series and Parallel Consider two capacitors in parallel. The voltage across the capacitors will be the same, π£, though the current will be diο¬erent. By KCL, the current going into the node is the equal to the sum of the current through both capacitors: π = π1 + π2 . Using our π£ − π relation for capacitors, we can re-write this. π = π1 + π2 , ππ£ ππ£ + πΆ2 , = πΆ1 ππ‘ ππ‘ ππ£ = (πΆ1 + πΆ2 ) , ππ‘ ππ£ = πΆππ . ππ‘ Thus, the equivalent capacitance for two capacitors in parallel is πΆππ = πΆ1 + πΆ2 . This is analogous to the rule for resistors in series. Consider two capacitors in series. In this case, the current through both is the same but the voltages are diο¬erent. However, the voltage across both has the relation π£ = π£1 + π£2 . Since diο¬erentiating is a linear operation, we can take the derivative of both sides and plug in the π£ − π relations. ππ£ ππ‘ = = = = ππ£1 ππ£2 + , ππ‘ ππ‘ π π + , πΆ πΆ2 (1 ) 1 1 + π, πΆ1 πΆ2 π . πΆππ Thus, the equivalent capacitance for two capacitors in series is ( )−1 1 1 πΆππ = + . πΆ1 πΆ2 This is analogous to the rule for resistors in parallel. 2.2 Inductors in Series and Parallel We can do similar analysis for inductors. If we consider two inductors in parallel, the voltage across both will be the same,π£, though the current will be diο¬erent. Thus current going into the node connecting the two inductors has the following relation: π = π1 + π2 . 5 We can take the derivative of both sides and use our π£ − π relations. ππ ππ‘ ππ1 ππ2 + , ππ‘ ππ‘ π£ π£ = + , πΏ πΏ2 (1 ) 1 1 = + π£, πΏ1 πΏ2 π£ = . πΏππ = The equivalent inductance for two inductors in parallel is ( πΏππ = 1 1 + πΏ1 πΏ2 )−1 . This is analogous to the rule for resistors in parallel. Finally, consider two inductors in series. The current through both inductors will be the same, π. The voltage across the two is equal to the sum of the voltages, π£ = π£1 + π£2 . Using our π£ − π relations, we have π£ = = = = π£1 + π£2 , ππ ππ πΏ1 + πΏ2 , ππ‘ ππ‘ ππ (πΏ1 + πΏ2 ) , ππ‘ ππ πΏππ . ππ‘ The equivalent inductance for two inductors in series is πΏππ = πΏ1 + πΏ2 . This is analogous to the rule for resistors in series. The rules for inductors are similar to those for resistors, whereas the rules for capacitors are the opposite. 3 Transfer Function For an LTI system, for any sinusoidal input, the output will be a sinusoid with the same frequency but possibly diο¬erent amplitude and phase. Consider an input voltage π£ππ (π‘) = πππ ππ2ππ π‘ . The output voltage for the system will have the form π£ππ’π‘ (π‘) = πππ’π‘ ππ(2ππ π‘+π) . 6 We can write this output voltage in terms of the input voltage. π£ππ’π‘ (π‘) πππ’π‘ πππ ππ2ππ π‘ πππ , πππ πππ’π‘ ππ π πππ ππ2ππ π‘ , πππ πππ’π‘ ππ π π£ππ (π‘). πππ = = = The term scaling the input voltage is called the transfer function, π». Deο¬nition 1. The transfer function for an LTI system is deο¬ned as π»(π ) = π£ππ’π‘ . π£ππ The transfer function deο¬nes the response of the system to any complex exponential input. It essentially deο¬nes the system. Example 3. Consider a circuit/system where π£ππ’π‘ (π‘) = π£ππ (π‘ − π ). π is a constant. Find π»(π ). First of all, we need to check if the system is LTI. Since it is a simple delay system, it is. Now we consider a complex exponential input, π£ππ = ππ2ππ π‘ . The corresponding output is π£ππ’π‘ = ππ2ππ (π‘−π ) . Using the formula for the transfer function, we have π»(π ) = = ππ2ππ (π‘−π ) , ππ2ππ π‘ π−π2ππ π . Since the magnitude of this ο¬lter is always one, it is an all-pass ο¬lter. Example 4. Consider an LTI system with transfer function π»(π ) and π£ππ (π‘) = πππ (2ππ π‘). What is π£ππ’π‘ in terms of π»(π )? Like we do so many time, we re-write the cosine as a sum of exponentials (Euler’s formula) π£ππ (π‘) = ) 1 ( π2ππ π‘ π + π−π2ππ π‘ 2 Since ππ2ππ π‘ π−π2ππ π‘ → π»(π )ππ2ππ π‘ , → π»(−π )π−π2ππ π‘ , and our system is LTI (i.e. superposition holds), we have π£ππ’π‘ (π‘) = 1 1 π»(π )ππ2ππ π‘ + π»(−π )π−π2ππ π‘ . 2 2 7 From class we learned the two main properties of the magnitude and phase of the transfer function. Namely, β The magnitude of π» is an even function, i.e. β£π»(π )β£ = β£π»(−π )β£. β The phase of π» is an odd function, i.e. ∠π»(π ) = −∠π»(−π ). From class, we also saw that for a real input π£ππ (π‘) = πππ (2ππ π‘), the output always has the form π£ππ’π‘ (π‘) = β£π»(π )β£πππ (2ππ π‘ + ∠π»(π )). Example 5. Consider an LTI system with input π£ππ (π‘) = 1 + πππ (ππ‘) + πππ (2ππ‘), and transfer function { π»(π ) = ππ2ππ π‘ 0 β£2ππ β£ < 4 . otherwise Find π£ππ’π‘ . First we note that the input is a sum of three cosine functions at frequences π = 0, 21 , 1. By supersition and our derivation in class, ( ( )) 1 1 π£ππ’π‘ = β£π»(0)β£πππ (0) + β£π»( )β£πππ ππ‘ + ∠π» + β£π»(1)β£πππ (2ππ‘ + ∠π»(1)). 2 2 By examination, we see that π»(0) = 1, ( ) 1 π» = πππ , 2 π»(1) = 0. Thus, π£ππ’π‘ = 1 + β£πππ β£πππ (ππ‘ + ∠πππ ) + 0, = 1 + πππ (ππ‘ + π). We can see that the highest frequency component of the input, πππ (2ππ‘), was ο¬ltered out (i.e. that frequency does not appear in the output). This makes sense, as our ο¬lter is a low-pass ο¬lter. 8