Model Question Paper - 2006 NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION FOR ENERGY MANAGERS AND ENERGY AUDITORS PAPER-I: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT Duration: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 150 Section-I: OBJECTIVE TYPE i) ii) 1 Each question carries one mark Put a (√ ) tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book Which of the following is commercial energy source? a) Electricity 2 b) Nuclear Energy b) China b) 60 years 8 9 c) 200 years d) 75 years b) 15,360 Mtoe c) 9405 Mtoe d) 12,396 Mtoe b) 2.2 c) 4.5 d) 1.0 The type of energy possessed by the charged capacitor is a) Kinetic energy 7 d) India The world average per person energy consumption is equivalent to _____tonnes of coal a) 3 6 c) USA The global primary energy consumption (2002) was equivalent to a) 21,842 Mtoe 5 d) Solar World oil reserves are estimated to last over a) 45 years 4 c) Hydel Which country has the largest share of the global coal reserves? a) Russia 3 Marks: 1×50 = 50 b) Electrostatic c) Potential d) Magnetic Active power consumption of motive drives can be determined by using one of the following relations. a) 3 x V x I b) 3 x V2 x I x cos c) 3 x V x I2 x Cos d) 3 x V x I x Cos The portion of apparent power that doesn’t do any work is termed as a) Apparent power b) Active power c) Reactive Power d) None of the above kVA is also called as a) reactive power b) apparent power c) active power d) captive power 10 11 12 13 The ratio of maximum demand to the connected load is termed as a) Load factor b) Demand factor c) Contract demand d) none of the above “The judicious and effective use of energy to maximise profits and enhance competitive positions”. This can be the definition of: a) Energy conservation b) Energy management c) Energy policy d) Energy Audit The objective of energy management includes a) Minimising energy costs b) minimising waste c) Minimising environmental degradation d) all the above Replacement of steam based hot water generation by solar system is an example of a) matching energy usage to the requirement b) maximising system efficiency c) Energy substitution d) Performance improvement 14 15 16 17 The benchmarking parameter for air conditioning equipment is a) kW/Ton of Refrigeration b) kW/ kg of refrigerant handled c) kcal/m3 of chilled water d) Differential temperature across chiller Which instrument is used to monitor O2, CO in flue gas? a) Combustion analyzer b) Power analyzer c) Pyrometer d) Fyrite The objective of material and energy balance is to assess the: a) input-output b) conversion efficiency c) losses d) all the above In material balance of a process, recycle product is always considered as a) input to process 18 c) both (a) and (b) d) none of them b) energy output c) energy balance d) all the above In a furnace, the lower the exhaust temperature ____ is the furnace efficiency. a) lower 20 b) output to process Sankey diagram shows in graphics ___. a) energy input 19 e) none of the above b) moderate c) higher d) none of above In a heat treatment furnace the material is heated up to 800 °C from ambient temperature of 30 ° C considering the specific heat of material as 0.13 kCal / kg °C. What is the energy content in one kg of material after heating? a) 150 kCal 21 22 23 b) 250 kCal c) 350 kCal 4) 100 kCal The force field analysis in energy action planning deals with barriers having a) Positive forces only b) negative forces only c) Both negative and Positive forces d) no forces In force field analysis of energy action-planning, one of the actions below do not fall under positive force? 1) high price of energy 2) energy efficient technology available 3) top management commitment 4) lack of awareness The support for energy management is expressed in a formal written declaration of commitment. This is called a) Company policy b) Management policy c) Energy policy d) Energy efficiency policy 24 The term “Energy is a relatively high component of product cost”, which motivates plant to take measures for energy conservation? This is a positive force in a field analysis towards achievement of goal. State True or False? 25 “An integrated energy purchase and energy management budget should be developed as part of the energy management action plan”. This statement holds good for the company’s a) Safety 26 b) Accountability c) Reliability d) Stability Simple pay back period is equal to: a) Ratio of First cost/net yearly savings b) Ratio of Annual gross cash flow/capital cost n c) t 0 27 28 d) All the above t Which of the following equation is used to calculate the future value of the cash flow? a) NPV (1 – i)n b) NPV (1 + i)n c) NPV + (1 – i)n b) NPV/ (1 + i)n The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient compressor in a plant was Rs 5 lakh. The net annual cash flow is Rs 1.25 lakh. The return on investment is: a) 15% 29 CFt (1 k ) b) 20% c) 25% d) 19.35% The broad indicator of the annual return expected from initial capital investment is __ a) NPV b) IRR c) ROI d) Discount factor 30 The factor that reflects the risk of the project while evaluating the present value of the expected future cash flow is ________________ a) Life of the project b) Discount rate c) Capital cost d) All the above 31 Project financing is the first step of project management- State True or False 32 The term ‘energy services contract’ in a project comes under a) Financing 33 b) contracting c) monitoring d) evaluation The contract in which project specifications are provided to a contractor who procures and installs equipment at cost plus a mark-up or fixed price is called a) Extended Financing terms b) guaranteed saving performance contract c) shared saving performance contract d) Traditional contract 34 CPM predicts the time required to complete the project— State True or False 35 The path through the project network in which none of the activities have slack is called a) start time 36 b) slack time c) critical path d) delay time Which of the following statements about critical path analysis (CPA) is true? a) The critical path is the longest path through the network b) The critical path is the shortest path through the network c) Tasks with float will never become critical d) The network should remain constant throughout the project 37 The network model that allows for randomness in activity completion times is called (a) CUSUM (b) CPM (c) PERT (d) Gantt chart 38 Performance is done after implementation. State True or false 39 In project management system, Critical Path Method CPM) allows for randomness activity completion time deterministic method while Programme Evaluation Review Technique (PERT) uses fixed time estimate for each activity. State True or False. 40 Which of the following does not belongs to project planning technique? 41 a) CPM b) PERT c) Gantt chart d) IRR (internal rate of return) Energy monitoring and targeting is built on the principle of “ _____”. a) “production can be reduced to achieve reduced energy consumption” b) “Consumption of energy is proportional to production rate” c) “You cannot manage what you do not measure” d) None of the above. 42 Which of the variable does not contribute to energy consumption? a) Production b) Hours c) Climate d) none of the above 43 Level of production may have an effect on specific energy consumption. State True or False 44 The empirical relationship used to plot production Vs Energy consumption is (Y= energy consumed for the period; C = fixed energy consumption; M = energy consumption directly related to production; X= production for same period). a) X=Y+MC 45 b) Y=Mx+C b) 8000 kCal d) above 100 km b) X-rays c) Gamma rays d) UV-A b) Bromine c) Both a & b d) None The main source of CFCs in household sector is___________ a) Televisions 50 c) above 50 km The compounds that can easily break ozone molecules are______ a) Chlorine 49 d) 4000 kCal The ozone layer in the stratosphere acts as an efficient filter for ____ a) Solar UV- B rays rays 48 c) 6000 kCal The spread of the ‘Stratosphere’ above the Earth’s surface is______ a) Below 15 km b) 10 to 50 km 47 d) None of above 1 kg LPG = _____ kcal. a) 12,000 kcal 46 c) M=Cx+Y b) Refrigerators c) Washing machines d) All Global warming is due to release of a) SO2 b) greenhouse Gases c) inert gases d) free chlorine Section-II: SHORT QUESTIONS iii) iv) v) Marks: 5×10 = 50 Answer any TEN of the following Each question carries FIVE marks Each answer should not exceed more than 8 lines ( ½ page) 1 Classify the types of the energy available on the earth? 2 A 250 W sodium vapor lamp is installed on a street. The supply voltage for a street light is 230 V and it operates for around 12 hours in a day. Considering the current of 2 amps and power factor 0.85 calculate the energy consumption per day 3 What are the few comparative factors need to be looked in to for external benchmarking used for inter-unit comparison and group of similar units? 4 What is the purpose of material and energy balance? 5 What are the vital elements for a successful energy management programme? 6 Why organizations hesitant to invest money on energy conservation projects? 7 Briefly explain shared saving performance contract. 8 Why CUSUM technique is most useful? 9 Write the importance of ozone layer? 10 How do you relate plant maintenance to achieve energy efficiency in a plant? Section-III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS i) ii) iii) Marks: 10×5 = 50 Answer any FIVE of the following Each question carries TEN marks Each answer should not exceed more than 20 lines ( 1 page) 1 List the strategies for better energy security of the nation? 2 What is heat transfer? Briefly explain three primary modes of heat transfer. 3 Give a typical energy audit reporting format. 4 Explain in brief the “position of energy manager” and “Energy committee” in an organisation? In your own words, explain what do you expect as support from top management? 5 Explain the limitations with ‘Simple Payback Period’ technique with an example.