Sample Questions to Final Exam
1- The process of valuing an investment by determining the present value of its future
cash flows is called (the):
A) Constant dividend growth model.
B) Discounted cash flow valuation.
C) Average accounting valuation.
D) Expected earnings model.
E)
Capital Asset Pricing Model
2- The net present value (NPV) rule can be best stated as:
A) An investment should be accepted if, and only if, the NPV is exactly equal
to zero.
B) An investment should be rejected if the NPV is positive and accepted if it is
negative.
C) An investment should be accepted if the NPV is positive and rejected if it is
negative.
D) An investment with greater cash inflows than cash outflows, regardless of
when the cash flows occur, will always have a positive NPV and therefore
should always be accepted.
E) None of the above.
3- The length of time required for an investment to generate cash flows sufficient to
recover its initial cost is the:
A) Net present value.
B) Internal rate of return.
C) Payback period.
D) Profitability index.
E) Discounted payback period.
4- The payback rule can be best stated as:
A) An investment is acceptable if its calculated payback period is less than
some prespecified number of years.
B) An investment should be accepted if the payback is positive and rejected if it
is negative.
C) An investment should be rejected if the payback is positive and accepted if it
is negative.
D) An investment is acceptable if its calculated payback period is greater than
some prespecified number of years.
E) None of the above.
5- An investment's average net income divided by its average book value is the:
A) Net present value.
B) Internal rate of return.
C) Average accounting return.
D) Profitability index.
E) Payback period.
6- The average accounting return (AAR) rule can be best stated as:
A) An investment is acceptable if its AAR is less than a target AAR.
B) An investment is acceptable if its AAR exceeds a target AAR.
C) An investment is acceptable if its AAR exceeds the firm's return on equity
(ROE).
D) An investment is acceptable if its AAR is less than the firm's return on assets
(ROA).
7- The discount rate that makes the net present value of investment exactly equal to zero
is the:
A) Payback period.
B) Internal rate of return.
C) Average accounting return.
D) Profitability index.
E) Discounted payback period.
8- Complete the following decision rule: A project should be accepted if its ______
exceeds the firm's required rate of return.
A) IRR
B) NPV
C) payback
D) discounted payback
E) AAR
9- The possibility that more than one discount rate will make the NPV of an investment
zero is called the ___________ problem.
A) net present value profiling
B) operational ambiguity
C) mutually exclusive investment decisions
D) issues of scale
E) multiple rates of return
10- A situation in which taking one investment prevents the taking of another is called:
A) Net present value profiling.
B) Operational ambiguity.
C) Mutually exclusive investment decisions.
D) Issues of scale.
E) Multiple rates of return.
11- The present value of an investment's future cash flows divided by its initial cost is
the:
A) Net present value.
B) Internal rate of return.
C) Average accounting return.
D) Profitability index.
E) Payback period.
12- The profitability index (PI) rule can be best stated as:
A) An investment is acceptable if its PI is greater than one.
B) An investment is acceptable if its PI is less than one.
C) An investment is acceptable if its PI is greater than the internal rate of return
(IRR).
D) An investment is acceptable if its PI is less than the net present value (NPV).
E) None of the above
13- Net present value can be defined as:
A) The rate of return that causes the present value of all cash flows associated
with a project to equal zero.
B) The discount rate that causes the current value of cash inflows to exceed the
current value of cash outflows.
C) A measure of the value created or added today by undertaking a project.
D) The cash outflows from a project subtracted from the cash inflows for the
project.
E) The net costs of a project subtracted from the net income generated from the
project.
14- The crossover point is defined as the discount rate that:
A) Causes the net present value of a project to equal zero.
B) Causes the IRR of one project to exceed the IRR of a second project.
C) Indicates the point where the IRR equals zero as IRR moves in a downward
direction.
D) Makes the net present values of two projects equal.
E) Causes a project to move from a positive net present value to a negative net
present value.
15- The principle that an investment should be accepted if the difference between the
investment's market value and its cost is positive and rejected if the difference is
negative is referred to as the:
A) Average accounting return rule.
B) Internal rate of return rule.
C) Profitability index rule.
D) Discounted payback rule.
E) Net present value rule.
16- The discounted payback period is best defined as the length of time until the:
A) Sum of the discounted cash flows is equal to the average book value.
B) Sum of the discounted cash flows is equal to the initial investment.
C) Sum of the cash inflows is equal to the sum of the cash outflows.
D) Sum of the discounted cash flows from project A equals the sum of the
discounted cash flows from project B.
E) Sum of the discounted net income is equal to the cost of the project.
17- When the decision to accept or reject one project does not affect the decision to
accept or reject any other project, the project is said to be:
A) Mutually exclusive.
B) Mutually inclusive.
C) Independent.
D) A crossover project.
E) Acceptable.
18- A conventional cash flow is defined as a series of cash flows where:
A) The total of the cash flows is positive.
B) All of the cash flows are positive.
C) The sum of the cash flows is equal to zero.
D) The present value of the cash flows is equal to zero.
E) Only the initial cash flow is negative.
19- The __________ decision rule is considered the "best" in principle.
A) internal rate of return
B) payback period
C) average accounting return
D) net present value
E) profitability index
20- A project whose NPV equals zero ______________.
A) should be rejected
B) has a profitability index that is greater than one
C) is expected to earn a return equal to the firm's required return
D) has a discounted payback period that is shorter than the life of the project
E) should be accepted even if the firm has alternative investments with positive
NPVs
21- The changes in the firm's future cash flows that are a direct consequence of accepting
a project are called:
A) Incremental cash flows.
B) Stand-alone cash flows.
C) Aftertax cash flows.
D) Net present value cash flows.
E) Erosion cash flows.
22- The evaluation of a project based solely on its incremental cash flows is the basis of
the:
A) Incremental cash flow method.
B) Stand-alone principle.
C) Dividend growth model.
D) Aftertax salvage value analysis.
E) Discounted payback method.
23- A cost that has already been paid, or the liability to pay has already been incurred, is
a(n):
A) Salvage value expense.
B) Net working capital expense.
C) Sunk cost.
D) Opportunity cost.
E) Erosion cost.
24- The cash flows of a new project that come at the expense of a firm's existing projects
are:
A) Salvage value expenses.
B) Net working capital expenses.
C) Sunk costs.
D) Opportunity costs.
E) Erosion costs.
25- The most valuable investment given up if an alternative investment is chosen is a(n):
A) Salvage value expense.
B) Net working capital expense.
C) Sunk cost.
D) Opportunity cost.
E) Erosion cost.
26- Incremental cash flows are defined as:
A) The total cash flows of a firm from the point at which a project is
implemented until the point at which the project ends.
B) Any change in the future net income of a firm that results from a new project
being implemented.
C) The cash flows that are foregone when a new project or activity is accepted.
D) Those cash flows that have already occurred and will not change whether or
not a new project is accepted.
E) The changes in the firm's future cash flows that are a direct consequence of
accepting a project.
27- Sunk costs can be defined as:
A) The costs that have already been incurred and will not change whether or not
a project is accepted.
B) The initial, or start-up, costs of a project that cannot be recouped should the
new project be implemented.
C) Any and all fixed costs that are incurred as the result of accepting a new
project or activity.
D) The costs resulting from losses in current projects due to the implementation
of a new project.
E) Any and all costs necessary to implement a new project or activity.
28- The future rental income that could have been earned if a building had not been sold
is called a(n) ______ cost.
A) Sunk
B) Incremental
C) Opportunity
D) Side
E) Stand-alone
29- The reduction in the sale of hamburgers when hot dogs are added to a menu is called
the_____ cost.
A) Sunk
B) Opportunity
C) Incremental
D) Stand-alone
E) Erosion
30- It is important to identify and use only incremental cash flows in capital investment
decisions:
A) Because they are the simplest to identify.
B) Only when the stand-alone principle fails to hold.
C) Because ultimately it is the change in a firm's overall future cash flows that
matter.
D) To accommodate unforeseen changes that might occur.
E) Whenever sunk costs are involved.
31- Which of the following is true regarding project evaluation?
A) Financing costs must be included in the statement of cash flows because
they are not accounted for elsewhere.
B) The stand-alone principle calls for evaluation of a project based on its
incremental cash flows.
C) Changes in NWC are not considered incremental cash flows.
D) When fixed assets are sold at the project end, there are usually no tax
consequences of the sale.
32- Your company currently sells oversized golf clubs. The Board of Directors wants
you to look at replacing them with a line of supersized clubs. Which of the
following is NOT relevant?
A) A reduction in revenues of $300,000 from terminating the oversized line of
clubs.
B) Land you own with a market value of $750,000 that may be used for the
project.
C) $200,000 spent on research and development last year on oversized clubs.
D) $350,000 you will pay to Fred Singles to promote your new clubs.
E) $125,000 you will receive by selling the existing production equipment
which must be upgraded if you produce the new supersized clubs.
33- The government has been trying to decide whether or not to purchase any of the new,
advanced missiles it has developed. One of the arguments in favour of purchasing
the missiles is that since so much money has been spent on their development it
would be a waste of money not to buy them now. What is the major problem with
this argument?
A) It includes erosion costs in the decision-making process.
B) It includes sunk costs in the decision-making process.
C) It includes opportunity costs in the decision-making process.
D) It includes net working capital changes in the decision-making process.
E) It includes financing costs in the decision-making process.
34- You are advising a friend who is attempting to decide whether or not to drop one of
the courses they are currently enrolled in. If they drop, they will forfeit the
money spent on tuition. Which of the following regarding the drop decision is
consistent with capital budgeting principles?
I. Remaining in the class means you must give up your part-time job.
II. The tuition cost for the class was outrageous, $1,000 per credit hour.
III. If you drop the class, you can sell the textbook now for $30 at the
bookstore.
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
E) I, II, and III
35- Your company purchased a piece of land five years ago for $150,000 and
subsequently added $175,000 in improvements. The current book value of the property
is $225,000. There are two options for future use of the land: 1) the land can be sold
today for $375,000 on an aftertax basis; 2) your company can destroy the past
improvements and build a factory on the land. In consideration of the factory project,
what amount (if any) should the land be valued at?
A) The present book value of $225,000.
B) The aftertax salvage value of $375,000.
C) The sales price of $375,000 less the book value of the improvements.
D) The original $150,000 purchase price of the land itself.
E) The property should be valued at zero since it is a sunk cost.
36- Which of the following would likely NOT cause erosion?
I. A gas station owner expands floor space to make room for a convenience
store.
II. You begin selling coffee in new, small-sized pouches alongside your
regular-sized coffee cans.
III. You build a Taco Bell just down the street from your McDonalds
franchise.
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) III only
D) I and III only
E) II and III only
37- A firm is considering a project which would increase accounts receivable by $10,000,
accounts payable by $35,000, and inventory by $30,000. Which of the following
is true?
A) Net working capital has increased.
B) Sales will increase.
C) Payments to creditors will slow.
D) Net working capital has decreased.
E) This is a net source of cash.
38- _________________ would usually represent a net cash inflow at the beginning of a
project and an equal net cash outflow upon completion of the project.
A) An increase in payables
B) An increase in inventory
C) An increase in receivables
D) An increase in fixed assets
E) An increase in receivables, coupled with an identical increase in payables
39- Which of the following would be considered a use of funds?
I. An increase in receivables
II. An increase in payables
III. An increase in inventory
IV. An increase in sales
A) I and III only
B) I and IV only
C) II and III only
D) II and IV only
E) I, III, and IV only
40- Which of the following can be depreciated for tax purposes?
I. Machinery and equipment
II. Land
III. Buildings
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
E) I, II, and III
41- All else equal, the market value of a corporate bond is always inversely related to its
I. time to maturity
II. coupon rate
III. yield-to-maturity
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and III only
E) I, II, and III
42- Which of the following provisions would NOT be listed in the bond indenture?
A) Amount of bonds issued
B) Repayment arrangements
C) The total amount of bonds issued
D) Protective covenants
E) Interest rate on similar risk bonds
43- Which of the following items is/are included in the bond indenture?
I. Call provisions
II. Sinking fund provisions
III. Negative covenants
IV. A description of the property used as security
A) I and II only
B) I and III only
C) I, II, and IV only
D) II, III, and IV only
E) I, II, III, and IV
44- All else the same, the existence of a ______________ will increase the required
return on a bond.
A) call provision
B) conversion feature
C) sinking fund
D) trust deed
E) protective covenant
45- For a bond selling at par, the yield to maturity must be _____________.
A) greater than the coupon rate
B) less than the coupon rate
C) greater than the face value
D) greater than the required rate of return
E) equal to the coupon rate
46- A firm intends to take on a significant amount of new debt in order to fund the
purchase of a close competitor. However, before it can complete the transaction,
the firm must call one of its outstanding bond issues. It is plausible that the called
bonds:
A) Are backed by the corporation's fixed assets.
B) Have a higher interest rate than the new bonds will.
C) Have an inferior tax status than the new bonds will.
D) Can be called at a price that is very near par.
E) Have covenants which restrict such increase in debt.
47- Which of the following statements about bond ratings is/are accurate?
I. Bond ratings are typically paid for by a company's bondholders.
II. Bond ratings are based solely on information acquired from sources other
than the firm itself.
III. Bond ratings represent an independent assessment of the creditworthiness
of bonds.
A) II only
B) I and II only
C) III only
D) I and III only
E) II and III only
48- Your neighbour is bragging that the coupon payment on the bonds he bought five
years ago has increased in each of the last three years. You know he must own
_______________.
A) a zero coupon bond
B) an income bond
C) a convertible bond
D) a put bond
E) a floating rate bond
49- The component(s) of nominal returns NOT described in the Fisher effect is (are) :
I. The real return on investment.
II. The default risk premium.
III. The taxability premium.
IV. The inflation premium.
A) II only
B) I and III only
C) I, III, and IV only
D) II and III only
E) I, II, III, and IV
50- If the management of a corporation wants to raise equity capital while maintaining
control over the corporation and limiting their cash outflows, they should issue
shares of:
A) Non-voting preferred stock.
B) Voting preferred stock.
C) Voting common stock.
D) Non-voting common stock.
E) Zero coupon bonds.
51- It is more difficult to value a stock than it is to value a bond because:
A) The future cash flows of a stock are known.
B) The life of an equity security is limited.
C) The required market rate of return on a stock is known in advance.
D) Equity securities have no maturity date.
E) The maturity value of a stock is known.
52- Which of the following rights are granted to shareholders of common stock?
I. Election of corporate directors
II. Selection of all senior management executives
III. The option of voting by proxy
IV. The right to share in any remaining assets in a liquidation
A) I and III only
B) II and IV only
C) I, II, and III only
D) I, III, and IV only
E) I, II, III, and IV
53- Which of the following statements concerning dividends is (are) correct?
I. Dividends become a liability of the corporation at the time they are declared.
II. The stockholders determine the amount of dividend to be paid.
III. Dividends are a tax deductible expense.
IV. Common stock dividends can be either cumulative or non-cumulative.
A) I only
B) II only.
C) I and IV only
D) II and IV only
E) I and III only
54- The coattail provision gives the preferred stockholders the:
A) Right to convert their shares into bonds with an equivalent yield-to-maturity.
B) Obligation to convert their shares into callable shares of common stock.
C) Obligation to convert their shares into shares of common stock.
D) Right to convert their shares into cash at par value at their discretion.
E) Right to convert their shares into shares of common stock.
55- The capital gain yield:
A) When subtracted from the dividend yield is equal to the required rate of
return.
B) Is the rate at which the price of the stock grows.
C) Must always be a positive value.
D) Is equal to the dividend amount divided by the current market price of the
stock.
E) Is the same as the current yield for shares of common stock.
56- The dividend growth model assumes that:
A) The rate of growth is constant.
B) Next year's dividend is the same amount as last year's dividend.
C) The rate of growth exceeds the required rate of return.
D) The dividend amount used in the formula is the last dividend paid.
E) The valuation is as of the year following the payment of the dividend used in
the computation.
58- You wish to be on the board of directors of a company. If you wish to buy as low a
percentage of the total outstanding shares as is necessary to guarantee yourself a
seat on the board, you should look for a firm that has ____________.
A) cumulative preferred stock
B) cumulative voting Class B stock
C) convertible debentures
D) straight voting common stock
E) cumulative voting common stock