Bio 140 Biology
Stavney
Name
Final Exam
200 pts. total. Directions:
1. First, write your name at the top of this exam.
2. On a computerized answer form, fill out your name, date, class, and exam number
3. Write the first three letters of your last name across the back top part of the computer form.
4. Answer all the multiple-choice, true-false questions directly on a computerized answer form,
filling in the rectangles with a #2 pencil that correspond to the correct answers.
5. Complete the short answer sheet at the back of the exam, including putting your name on that
sheet.
6. Separate the short answer sheet from the rest of the questions, fold it in half lengthwise, and write
the first three letters of your last name in the blanks provided.
7. Insert your computer form into the folded sheet.
8. Insert the folded short answer sheet in between the pages of these questions.
9. Submit your exam
Completed exam
for student Joe Smith
A cell which has a diploid (2n) number of 6 undergoes either mitosis or meiosis. Use the pictures below to answer
questions about the stages of division for this cell. (Note: if the correct answer below is more than one letter long, like
“ae.”, mark both a AND e on your answer sheet for that question). Choices can be used more than once.
Which diagram above shows the best representation of:
1. A cell in which homologous replicated chromosomes are separating?
2. A cell in mitotic prophase?
3. A cell in Metaphase II of meiosis?
4. A cell in Meiosis Telophase II?
5. A cell in S phase?
6. A cell where the diploid number is being reduced to haploid?
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Bio 101
Biology Final Exam
pg 1
7. Which two phases of meiosis create genetic variation and “gene scrambling”?
a. prophase II and metaphase I
b. telophase I and telophase II
c. prophase I and telophase II
d. prophase I and anaphase I
e. metaphase I and anaphase II
---------------------------------------------------TRUE/FALSE. Mark “a” if true, and “b” if false.
8. Homologous chromosomes separate in Metaphase II of meiosis
9. The cell designation “2n” means having both “halves” of a chromosome set, or a full set of both maternal and
paternal chromosomes.
10. The term hemizygous refers to the condition where a cell carries two recessive genes for a trait (such as bb).
11. An example of mitotic division is when a fertilized egg (zygote) divides many times to become a fetus, and then a
human baby
12. One way to diagnose the X-linked disease called hemophilia is to make a karyotype of the person who you suspect
has the disease.
13. Crossing over is a process that occurs during Prophase II of Meiosis.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------14. Which is NOT true about a pair of homologous chromosomes?
a. Both chromosomes have centromeres in the same location
b. One of the two homologous chromosomes is produced by the cell during S phase
c. One homologue is of paternal origin while the other is of maternal origin
d. Both chromosomes carry information about the same genetic characteristics
e. Both chromosomes are the same length
15. If B is the gene for brown eyes and b is the gene for blue eyes, how would you describe the genotype of a person
with blue eyes?
a. homozygous dominant
b. homozygous recessive
c. heterozygous
d. hemizygous
e. mutant
16. A man who is colorblind marries and has children by a woman who has normal color vision. The woman’s father
had normal color vision but her mother was colorblind. Color blindness is an X-linked recessive disorder. What are the
chances that this man and woman will give birth to a colorblind girl (restated: of all the possible children, how many
would be female and color blind)?
a. none
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 100%
Bio 101
Biology Final Exam
pg 2
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -----------------Match the list of inheritance types on the right with the description of the type on the left. (Note: if the correct answer
below is more than one letter long, like “ae.”, mark both a AND e on your answer sheet for that question).
17. There are many genes found on different
chromosomes which all contribute to a particular
phenotype (e.g. human height, skin color, intelligence)
a. multiple alleles
b. classical Mendelian inheritance
c. X linked (sex-linked) inheritance
e. incomplete dominance
ab. polygenic inheritance
ac. pleiotropy
ad. dominant autosomal disorder
ae. recessive autosomal disorder
18. The dominant allele or gene causes a disease or
condition such that "normal" individuals are homozygous
recessive (e.g. Huntington's chorea, achondroplasia)
19. There are two genes governing a phenotype and two
different alleles possible per characteristic
20. An inheritance system where the heterozygote is
intermediate in appearance between the homozygous
dominant and homozygous recessive phenotypes (e.g. pink
color in snapdragon flowers).
21. There are more than two gene forms for a characteristic,
such as the three IA, IB, and i genes in the ABO Blood Group genes.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------22. A genotype can be best be defined as:
a. the physical expression of the genes for a particular characteristic
b. the symbols of the different genes possible for a particular characteristic
c. an ordered chart of all the chromosomes lined up according to size
d. the specific location of the genes for a character on a chromosome
e. the specific gene symbols carried by a cell for a particular characteristic
23. The different kinds of gametes that would be produced from a parent whose genotype is AaBB would be:
a. A, a, and B
b. Aa and BB
c. AB and aB
d. AB,Aa,AB, and BB
e. You cannot determine the gametes from this information alone.
24. There are 40 chromosomes in a diploid cell of a Wango fern. In the life cycle of a Wango fern, a diploid cell
undergoes meiosis to form what is called a spore. The spore falls off the adult fern and germinates (that is, it undergoes
mitosis about 8 times) until a mass of cells form a tiny plant. If you took a cell from this tiny plant and examined it for
chromosome number, how many chromosomes would be present?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 40
d. 80
e. 160
25. Which two phases of meiosis create genetic variation and “gene scrambling”?
a. prophase II and metaphase I
b. telophase I and telophase II
c. prophase I and telophase II
d. prophase I and anaphase I
e. metaphase I and anaphase II
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Bio 101
Biology Final Exam
pg 3
TRUE/FALSE. Mark “a” if true, and “b” if false.
26. The disease known as Huntington's (Chorea) is caused by a dominant gene.
27. The ability to roll one's tongue is genetically determined.
28. The cell designation “2n” means having both “halves” of a chromosome set, or a full set of both maternal and
paternal chromosomes.
29. The term hemizygous refers to the condition where a cell carries two recessive genes for a trait (such as bb).
30. An example of mitotic division is when a fertilized egg (zygote) divides many times to become a fetus, and then a
human baby
31. One way to diagnose the X-linked disease called hemophilia is to make a karyotype of the person who you suspect
has the disease.
32. Crossing over is a process that occurs during Prophase II of Meiosis.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ----------------------------------------------33. Suppose a mutation occurs in a DNA gene. The protein that is made from this gene differs
from the unmutated protein by a single amino acid. This type of mutation is called a:
a. silent mutation
b. frameshift mutation
c. dominant mutation
d. early stop mutation
e. missense mutation
34. The process in which a DNA gene is used to make a copy of mRNA is called:
a. transcription
b. replication
c. translation
d. crossing over
e. mutation
35. If a DNA gene has 60 nucleotides, how many amino acids will be found in the protein made from these DNA
instructions?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 60
d. 120
e. 180
36. Which molecule below is responsible for bringing amino acids to the ribosome?
a. DNA genes
b. messenger RNA
c. ribosomal RNA
d. transfer RNA
e. polypeptides (proteins)
37. Insertions or deletions of nucleotides in a gene cause what type of mutation in the protein?
a. run-on
b. silent
c. frameshift
d. early stop
e. missense
Bio 101
Biology Final Exam
pg 4
38. The term "gel electrophoresis" refers to:
a. separating DNA fragments by spinning them in an electric centrifuge
b. chopping up DNA using electric current in gelatin
c. separating DNA fragments in a gelatin-like slab under and electric current
d. duplicating a single DNA piece into thousands of copies
e. creating mutations in genes that create gelatin protein
39. Polymerase chain reaction refers to the process where:
a. gene is inserted into bacteria and protein is then harvested from the bacteria
b. a small sample of DNA is replicated in a test tube to make many copies of that DNA
c. a chromosomal sample from a person is cut up and the pattern of cut bands are analyzed
d. an accident at a nuclear power plant involves polymerase molecules
e. DNA from one person is compared with DNA from another person
40. Restriction enzymes are used in DNA technology to:
a. make more DNA
b. make RNA from DNA
c. cut up DNA into specific pieces
d. link together DNA molecules
e. limit the growth of bacteria
41. Which of the following can be deduced from comparing the DNA fingerprint pattern of several different animal
species to each other?
a. whether these animals had any mutant genes
b. whether these animals could reproduce sexually
c. whether these animals were related to each other
d. whether these animals shared the same number of chromosomes
whether these animals were involved in crimes
42. In the levels of biological organization, what is the next HIGHER (more complex) grouping after the
whole organism level?
a. the tissue level
b. the community level
c. the cellular level
d. the ecosystem level
e. the population level
43. In the steps of the scientific method, what is the process where a scientist writes down tentative explanations or
statements about what he/she expects might happen under certain conditions?
a. observations
b. conclusions
c. hypotheses formation
d. experimentation
e. theory formation
44. NADH and FADH2 are used in cellular respiration to carry:
a. glucose
b. carbon dioxide
c. oxygen
d. electrons
e. water
Bio 101
Biology Final Exam
pg 5
45. Which molecule below is responsible for bringing amino acids to the ribosome?
a. messenger RNA
b. transfer RNA
c. ribosomal RNA
d. DNA genes
e. polypeptides (proteins)
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Using the diagram of a cell above, indicate where:
46. chloroplasts are located
47. The cell wall is located
48. The organelle where cellular respiration occurs
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------TRUE/FALSE Answer “a” if true and “b” if false.
49. The common name of an organism is the same wherever you go in the world.
50. A pH value of 3 is acidic.
51. High temperatures destroy enzyme function
52. DNA Fingerprinting can be used to identify a man as the father of a child.
53. Viruses are made of only nucleic acid and protein.
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Bio 101
Biology Final Exam
pg 6
54. What would be the correct way to write the scientific name for an organism in Kingdom Plantae, Species Monticola,
Order Coniferales, Genus Pinus, and Family Pinaceae? (If the correct answer is two letters long, like “ab”, fill in BOTH
“a” and “b” on the answer sheet)
a. Pinaceae pinus monticola
b. Coniferales pinaceae
c. Plantae Monticola
d. Pinus monticola
e. Pinus Monticola
ab. Coniferales pinaceae
ac. Pinaceae monticola
ad. Monticola coniferales
ae. Plantus Pinus
55. The three Domains of life are Archaea, Bacteria, and
a. Monera
b. Animalia
c. Eukarya
d. Protista
e. Prokaryotae
.
56. Water molecules tend to stick to each other. This property is known as:
a. surface tension
b. capillarity
c. adhesion
d. cohesion
e. high heat capacity
57. Amino groups (--NH2) are:
a. polar
b. non-polar
c. acidic
d. basic
e. known for carrying energy
58. Sterols:
a. are used in the synthesis of amino acids
b. consist of four rings
c. are used for insulation and energy storage
d. are used as light-catching molecules
e. are used for structural support
59. The biological role of cholesterol is:
a. keeping cell membranes fluid and flexible
b. chemical messaging (hormone)
c. speeding up chemical reactions
d. structural support of the cell
e. storing energy
60. Amino acids are the building blocks used to make:
a. DNA and RNA
b. polysaccharides
c. triglycerides
d. polypeptides (protein)
e. starch
Bio 101
Biology Final Exam
pg 7
61. Why are cells usually smaller than about 100 micrometers in diameter?
a. Enzymes denature as the volume of a cell increases
b. Very big cells tend to be eaten by other living things
c. Large cells have difficulty transporting food and waste efficiently through the membrane
d. Small cells can swim more quickly and can out-compete larger cells in getting to food
e. Cells need to be small so that they fit together to make a multicellular organism
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -----------------Use the diagram of molecules below to answer the following questions. Note that if the correct answer is made of
multiple letters, like “ab”, fill in “a” AND “b” both on your answer sheet. In this way, you may have to fill in more
than one rectangle to mark the correct answer. Some answers may be used more than once.
62. Which of the molecules shown above is most similar to the female reproductive hormone estrogen?
63. Which of the molecules shown above is most similar to cellulose?
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------64. The substrate that was catalyzed by the enzyme we studied in the online lab is:
a. invertase
b. water
c. sucrose
d. fructose
e. glucose
Bio 101
Biology Final Exam
pg 8
65. A molecule that blocks the active site of an enzyme, preventing catalysis of the normal reactant(s) is:
a. the substrate
b. a non-competitive inhibitor
c. a competitive inhibitor
d. a feedback inhibitor
e. an activator
66. If a DNA gene has 30 nucleotides, about how many amino acids will be found in the protein made from these
DNA instructions?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 60
d. 120
e. 180
67. Insertions or deletions of nucleotides in a gene usually cause what type of mutation in the protein?
a. run-on
b. silent
c. frameshift
d. early stop
e. missense
68. Polymerase chain reaction refers to the process where:
a. gene is inserted into bacteria and protein is then harvested from the bacteria
b. a small sample of DNA is replicated in a test tube to make many identical copies of that DNA
c. a chromosomal sample from a person is cut up and the pattern of cut bands are analyzed
d. an accident at a nuclear power plant involves polymerase molecules
e. DNA from one person is compared with DNA from another person
69. Suppose a population of organisms is reduced to only a few members by severe weather, then recovers, causing
a change in allelic frequencies in the recovered population. What is this phenomenon called?
a. mutation
b. genetic bottleneck
c. the Founder Effect
d. gene flow
e. stabilizing selection
70. The theory that species remain about the same for long periods of time, and then evolve very quickly over
relatively short periods of geologic time is known as:
a. punctuated equilibrium
b. gradualism
c. sympatric speciation
d. uniformitarianism (or uniformism)
e. genetic bottlenecking
71.A dichotomous key used in biology is a(n):
a. method of comparing two-part chitins (molluscs) to each other
b. chart or outline used to identify the name of a species
c. analytical paradigm for assessing types of natural selection
d. pair of plants or animals that are very similar in appearance
e. family tree showing how particular living things evolved over time
Final Exam Bio 101 pg. 9
Match the description at the left with the group of organisms on the right. If the correct answer is more than one
letter long, like “ab”, fill in both “a” and “b” on your answer sheet.
72. Multicellular, photosynthetic, eukaryotic, lives
mostly in the ocean
a. viruses
b. eubacteria
c. archaens (archaebacteria)
73. Multicellular, photosynthetic, true roots and
d. amoeba protozoans
vascular tissue, reproduces by means of flowers
e. ciliated protozoans
and fruits
ab. flagellate protozoans
ac. gymnosperm plants
74. Multicellular, photosynthetic, dominant gametophyte
ad. diatoms (unicellular algae)
generation, no true roots, no vascular tissue
ae. dinoflagellates (unicellular algae)
bc. multicellular algae (seaweeds)
bd. mosses
be. ferns
ce. angiosperm plants
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -----75. Which taxonomic group comes next just below (within) a Family?
a. Order
b. Genus
c. Phylum
d. Class
e. Species
76. Which of the following groups is characterized by endothermy and an amniotic egg with a hard calcium
carbonate shell?
a. mammals
b. reptiles
c. birds
d. amphibians
e. echinoderms
77. What's missing from the overall equation of cellular respiration below?
glucose + oxygen gas
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
carbon dioxide +
+ 36ATP
NADPH
NADH
ethanol (alcohol)
water
sunlight
78. Birds (Class Aves) evolved most directly from what other vertebrate group?
a. amphibians
b. reptiles
c. mammals
d. cartilaginous fish
e. bony fish
79. Global warming is largely cause by the increase of:
a. sulfates and nitrates into the atmosphere
b. nitrogen fixation by plants
c. ozone destruction
d. carbon dioxide release into the atmosphere
e. ultraviolet light
Final Exam Bio 101 pg. 10
80. Barnacles have jointed appendages and an exoskeleton. To what invertebrate group do they belong?
a. arthropods
b. segmented worms
c. echinoderms
d. cnidarians
e. mollusca
EXTRA CREDIT
TRUE/FALSE
81. Homologous chromosomes separate in Metaphase II of meiosis
82. The fuzzy, green part of moss is haploid.
Final Exam Bio 101 pg. 11
Final Exam Bio 101 pg. 12
Bio 101 Final Exam
SHORT ANSWER SHEET
Name
40 pts. Tear off this page, fold, and write the first three letters of your last name in the blanks provided on the back.
A. 10 pts Using the abbreviations P for phosphate, S for sugar, and all four bases found in deoxyribonucleic acid
(abbreviated by their one-letter designation), draw a double-stranded DNA molecule with five base pairs below.
Indicate covalent bonds between the P, S, and/or bases using solid lines and indicate hydrogen bonds with dotted or
dashed lines. There should be 10 total nucleotides in your drawing.
Example (not correct):
Final Exam Bio 101 pg. 13
B. 8. Describe four unique properties of a living thing, like we did in class. Use sufficient detail as to exclude nonliving things.
1.
2.
3.
C. 4 pts. An incomplete molecule is shown below. It is missing several hydrogen atoms. Fill in the correct number
of hydrogen atoms around this molecule and draw in the covalent bonds to the hydrogen atoms. In other words,
make this a correct drawing of a molecule based on the rules of bonding for carbon, oxygen, and nitrogen.
D. 10 pts. In Dinkelbush plants, large seeds (S) are dominant to tiny seeds (s). Red leaves (R) are dominant to green
leaves (r). Show the cross between a plant that is heterozygous for seed shape and homozygous recessive for leaf
color AND a plant that is homozygous dominant for seed shape and heterozygous for leaf color. Be sure to
indicate the genotypes of the parents, the gametes produced by each parent, and the predicted offspring using
a Punnett Square. Determine and write out genotypic ratio of the cross, followed by the phenotypic ratio. In
your ratios, be sure to include each actual genotype or phenotype along with its relative number.
Final Exam Bio 101 pg. 14
E. 8 pts. List the hierarchy of taxons in order from largest to smallest, beginning with the Domain and ending with
the Species.
Smaller and smaller
taxons
Final Exam Bio 101 pg. 15
First 3 letters of last name
Final Exam Bio 101 pg. 16