BIOLOGY 1406
FINAL EXAM
COMPREHENSIVE
SPRING 2005
Name:____________________________
1. Which of these terms refers to the process of maintaining relatively constant internal conditions
in a living organism?
a. Order.
b. Sensitivity
c. Development
d. Homeostasis
e. Regulation
2. The cation form of an element is compared to the uncharged form of the same element. Which
of the following statements is TRUE?
a. The cation has less protons.
b. The cation has a different half-life
c. The cation has more neutrons.
d. The cation has less electrons.
e. The cation has more electrons.
3. Mitochondria are believed to have evolved from:
a. the golgi apparatus.
b. the endoplasmic reticulum.
c. invaginations of the plasma membrane
d. endosymbiont bacteria.
e. early photosynthetic organisms.
4. A crystal of sodium chloride is held together by:
a. hydrogen bonds.
b. ionic bonds.
c. covalent bonds.
d. hydration shells of the individual molecule.
e. a chemical reaction between the sodium and chloride ions.
5. Which of the above properties of water was/is not important to the development of living
systems?
a. Cohesion—water molecules “stick together”
b. High specific heat—water requires much energy to raise its temperature
c. High heat of vaporization—much energy absorbed when water evaporates
d. Low density of ice—it floats
e. All of the above are properties of water that are important to the development and
maintenance of life on this planet.
6. The type of reaction commonly used to disconnect (break apart) the monomeric units of
macromolecules is best classified as a/an:
a. exergonic reaction.
b. hydrolysis reaction.
c. disulfide reaction.
d. hydrogen bonding.
e. dehydration reaction.
7. An example of a type of chemical bond which involves a full separation of charge (transfer of
electrons) is a/an:
a. hydrogen bond.
b. ionic bond.
c. covalent bond.
d. hydrophobic bond.
e. electron bond.
8. A storage fat molecule is made up of:
a. two fatty acids, glycerol, phosphate and another alcohol type unit.
b. three fatty acids and glycerol.
c. two fatty acids and glycerol.
d. two fatty acids, glycerol and a phosphate group.
e. three fatty acids, glycerol, phosphate and an alcohol type unit.
9. The beta-sheet and alpha-helix of a folded protein/polypeptide would be examples of its:
a. primary structure.
b. secondary structure.
c. tertiary structure.
d. quaternary structure.
e. All of the above are correct answers.
10. The monomer repeat units of a protein are connected to each other by what type of bonds?
a. Peptide bonds
b. Phosphodiester bonds
c. Ester bonds
d. Hydrogen bonds
e. Ionic bonds
11. What is the defining characteristic of an acid?
a. It donates hydrogen ions.
b. It has an excess of hydroxide ions
c. It accepts hydrogen ions.
d. it has a pH greater than 7.
e. It will donate or accept hydrogen ions depending on the pH.
12. The bonds between two carbon atoms or carbon and hydrogen represents
a. shared electrons
b. energy sinkholes
c. both a and d
d. slurpy factoids
e. ionic bonds
13. All cells possess all the following components, except:
a. Cytoplasm
b. genetic material
c. nuclear membrane
d. plasma cell membrane
e. ribosomes
14. A chemical reaction that releases energy is known as a(an) __________ reaction.
a. exergonic.
b. coupled.
c. anabolic.
d. endergonic.
e. unfavored
15. A final product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an early enzyme in the pathway. This is likely
to be an example of:
a. competitive inhibition.
b. feedback inhibition.
c. cooperativity.
d. energy coupling.
e. a second messenger.
16. The second law of thermodynamics states that for chemical reactions:
a. entropy always increases.
b. entropy always decreases.
c. free energy always increases.
d. free energy always decreases.
e. anabolic reactions must always be paired with catabolic reactions.
17. The electron transport chain utilized to make ATP during photosynthesis by plants is located in
the:
a. stroma.
b. thylakoid membrane.
c. inner chloroplast membrane.
d. outer chloroplast membrane.
e. plasma membrane.
18. Which is a difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
a. Prokaryotes have RNA, eukaryotes have DNA.
b. Prokaryotes have DNA, eukaryotes have RNA.
c. Prokaryotes have a nucleus, eukaryotes have a nucleoid.
d. Prokaryotes have a nucleoid, eukaryotes have a nucleus.
e. Prokaryotes have a cell wall, eukaryotes do not.
19. The replacement electrons for the reaction center of photosystem II come from
a. photosystem I
b. water
c. glucose
d. oxygen
e. NADPH
20. Light dependent reactions produce:
a. ATP, NADPH and Oxygen
b. ATP, NADPH and Carbon Dioxide Glucose, ATP, Oxygen
d. Glucose, ATP, Carbon Dioxide
e. ATP, NADPH, Water
21. In normal C3 plants (no CAM), photorespiration occurs:
a. at night.
b. during hot dry days.
c. during cold rainy days.
d. Answers (b) and (c) are both true.
e. There is little or no photorespiration in C3 plants
22. Where does the O2 released during photosynthesis come from?
a. CO2
b. H2O
c. ATP
d. C6H12O6
e. RuBP
23. The energy of the movement of electrons down a concentration gradient via electron transport
within the thylakoid membrane generates
a. H2O.
b. CO2.
c. glucose.
d. O2.
e. ATP.
24.The nucleoid is:
a. where chromosomes are found in eukaryotes.
b. where the DNA is found in prokaryotic cells.
c. where ribosomal RNAs are synthesized in eukaryotes.
d. an ancient endosymbiont.
e. one of the very earliest life forms.
25. The net yield of ATP from a glucose molecule being metabolized through glycolysis to
pyruvate is ______ molecule(s).
a. 1
b. 2
c. 6
d. 36
e. 42
26. The main function of cell fermentation is to:
a. produce oxygen
b. produce ATP in the absence of oxygen
c. recycle the NADH to NAD+
produce pyruvate in the absence of oxygen
e. produce 2 extra NADPH’s
27. In addition to ATP, glycolysis produces:
a. GTP.
b. NADH.
c. lactate.
d. FADH2.
e. a proton gradient across the membrane
28. In Griffith’s experiments, what happened when heat-killed S-strain pneumococcus were
injected into a mouse along with live R-strain pneumococcus?
A) DNA from the live R-strain was taken up by the heat-killed S-strain, converting them to R-strain
and killing the mouse.
B) DNA from the heat-killed S-strain was taken up by the live R-strain, converting them to S-strain
and killing the mouse.
C) Proteins released from the heat-killed S-strain killed the mouse.
D) RNA from the heat-killed S-strain was translated into proteins that killed the mouse.
E) nothing
29. Which is NOT found in DNA?
A) deoxyribose sugar
B) adenine
C) phosphate group
D) phospholipid group
E) thymine
30. The correct structure of a nucleotide is
A) phosphate-5 carbon sugar-nitrogen base.
B) phospholipid-sugar-base.
C) phosphate-sugar-phosphate-sugar.
D) adenine-thymine and guanine-cytosine.
E) base-phosphate-glucose.
31. The X-ray diffraction pattern for DNA suggested to Wilkins and Franklin all of the following
features about DNA EXCEPT
A) a DNA molecule is helical.
B) a DNA molecule has a diameter of 2 nanometers.
C) one full turn of the DNA helix occurs every 3.4 nanometers.
D) the phosphate-sugar “backbone” of the molecule is on the outside of the DNA helix.
E) A pairs with T and G pairs with C in a DNA molecule.
32. For the DNA sequence GCCTAT in one polynucleotide chain, the sequence found in the other
polynucleotide chain is
A) CGGATA.
B) GCCATA.
C) CGGAUA.
D) ATTCGC.
E) GCCTAT.
33. Semiconservative DNA replication means
A) the old DNA is completely broken down.
B) the old DNA remains completely intact.
C) A pairs with T and G pairs with C.
D) only half of the DNA is replicated.
E) each new DNA molecule has half of the old one.
34. Which of the following are NOT involved in the DNA replication process?
A) DNA helicase
B) DNA ligase
C) DNA replicase
D) DNA polymerase
E) All of the above are involved.
35. Which one of the following forms of damage to DNA is caused by ultraviolet light?
A) Adjacent thymines on a strand become linked together.
B) The two strands become separated from each other.
C) The DNA becomes fragmented.
D) The DNA begins growing uncontrollably.
E) The DNA begins to decay from its two ends.
36. The formation of a cell plate is beginning across the middle of a cell and nuclei are reforming at
opposite ends of a cell. What kind of a cell is this?
A) an animal cell in metaphase
B) an animal cell in telophase
C) an animal cell undergoing cytokinesis
D) a plant cell in metaphase
E) a plant cell undergoing cytokinesis
37. Which of the following is a haploid?
A) zygote
B) gamete (sex cell)
C) muscle cell
D) embryo
E) brain cell
38. Chromosome number is reduced during meiosis because the process consists of
A) two cell divisions without any chromosome replication.
B) a single cell division without any chromosome replication.
C) two cell divisions in which half of the chromosomes are destroyed.
D) two cell divisions and only a single round of chromosome replication.
E) four cell divisions with no chromosome replication.
39. Homologous chromosomes pair up (synapsis) during
A) mitosis.
B) meiosis I.
C) meiosis II.
D) mitosis and meiosis II.
E) protein synthesis
40. According to the Law of Segregation
A) each individual carries a single copy of each “factor.”
B) pairs of factors fuse during the formation of gametes.
C) pairs of factors separate during the formation of gametes.
D) the sex chromosomes of males and females differ.
E) there is an independent assortment of non-homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
41. A Mendelian test cross is used to determine whether
A) an allele is dominant or recessive.
B) flowers are purple or white.
C) the genotype or phenotype is more important.
D) an individual is homozygous or heterozygous.
E) segregation or independent assortment is occurring.
42. Autosomal nondisjunction can result in
A) XYY males.
B) Turner syndrome.
C) Klinefelter syndrome
D) Trisomy X.
E) Down syndrome.
43. The incorrect theory that “organisms can modify their bodies through use or disuse of parts, and
that these modifications can be passed on to their offspring” was formulated by
A) Hutton.
B) Darwin.
C) Aristotle.
D) Lamarck.
E) Lyell.
44. The theory of natural selection states that
A) all individuals live to reproduce in each generation.
B) only the largest and strongest survive.
C) random assortment of genes results in better characteristics in the following generations.
D) the best adapted individuals survive and reproduce, contributing the most genes to the next
generation.
E) individuals that mutate in response to their environment will survive.
45. Natural selection on a trait can only occur if the trait is ________.
A) inheritable
B) behavioral
C) favorable
D) morphological
E) a new mutation
46. A change in the genetic makeup of a population is
A) natural selection.
B) uniformitarianism.
C) artificial selection.
D) evolution.
E) genetic drift.
47. The fossil record indicates that over the last 50 million years the horse has evolved in all but
which of the following ways?
A) tooth structure
B) leg anatomy
C) overall size
D) abundance of hair
E) It has evolved in all these respects.
48. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium represents an idealized, evolution-free population in which
the allele frequencies and genotype frequencies will not change over time. In order for this to
happen, five conditions must be met: 1) there must be no mutation; 2) there must be no gene flow
between populations; 3) the populations must be very large; 4) all mating must be random; and 5)
there must be no natural selection. If one of these five conditions was violated, genetic change, and
thus evolution, would occur in the populations of subsequent generations. Suppose that only
condition 3 were violated—that the population was very small. In this situation, the evolution
would probably be due to _________.
a. mutation
b. migration
c. genetic drift
d. natural selection
e. all of the above
49. What is a gene pool?
a. a region of DNA found at a specific position on a chromosome
b. the number of copies of an allele for a specific gene in a population
c. the total number of all the genes in a population
d. none of the above
50. Evolution is best defined as a change in __________.
a. number of species
b. physical traits
c. DNA sequence
d. allele frequencies
51. Why is the sickle cell allele found at a high frequency in African human populations?
a. Individuals with sickle cell anemia are resistant to malaria, which has historically been prevalent
in Africa.
b. Heterozygote carriers of the allele are susceptible to malaria, which has historically been absent
in Africa.
c. Individuals with sickle cell anemia are susceptible to malaria, which has historically been absent
in Africa.
d. Heterozygote carriers of the allele are resistant to malaria, which has historically been prevalent
in Africa.
52. The organisms most likely to undergo sympatric speciation by polyploidy are
A) mammals.
B) insects.
C) plants.
D) protists.
E) birds.
53. In many species of fireflies males flash to attract females. Each species has a different flashing
pattern. This is an example of
A) allopatric speciation.
B) geographical isolation.
C) temporal isolation.
D) natural selection.
E) behavioral isolation.
54. The greatest cause of extinctions is
A) asteroid impacts.
B) interactions with other species.
C) overspecialization.
D) habitat change.
E) limited species range.