Fall Semester, 2005. Biology 1406
Exam III. Ch 9-12
Name_________________________
Date ___________
Remote number __
1) According to Griffith’s experiments, bacteria
could be _______________, as shown
when they were injected into____________.
a) Dangerous/ rabbits
b) Transformed/mice
c) Prokaryotes/dogs
d) Deleterious/DNA
2) Nucleic acids are made up of ____-carbon
sugar, phosphate groups and either a large
base called ______________or a smaller
base.
a) 6, pyrimidine
b) 5, purine
c) 4, inositol
d) 5, ATP
3) Chargaff’s experiments showed that
organisms contains similar amounts of
Adenine and __________
a) Thymine
b) Cytosine
c) Uridin
d) Guanine
e) Phosphate
4) Watson and Crick’s model of the DNA
proposes that the 2 strands are
____________ and that the bases are
facing _________________.
a) Identical, outward
b) Symmetrical, outward
c) Replicated, outward
d) Parallel. inward
e) Antiparallel, inward
5) Replication of the DNA is …
a) Conservative
b) Innovative
c) Semiconservative
d) Republican
e) Creative
6) The enzyme that unwinds the Double helix
is called:
a) Gyrase
b) Helicase
c) SSBP
d) DNA Polymerase
e) DNA replicase
7) The enzyme that Assembles complementary
strands of DNA is:
a) Gyrase
b) Helicase
c) SSBP
d) DNA Polymerase
e) DNA Replicase
8) Since DNA replication is
__________________, the lagging strands
contains the Okazaki fragments that will be
joined by ______________.
a) Semiconservative, Polymerase
b) Discontinuous, ligase
c) Slow, accelerase
d) Spontaneous, SSBP
e) Complementary, helicase
9) The Central Dogma of Molecular Biology is
that:
a) All men are created equal
b) One gene in DNA is transcribed and
translated into one protein
c) Cloning is possible for any eukaryotic
cell
d) Biomolecules can be transformed, but
not created
e) All biomolecules are produced by DNA
10) The function of the messenger RNA is to
carry a specific:
a) Amino acid to the ribosome
b) RNA sequence to the ribosome
c) ribosome to the cytoplasm
d) transfer RNA sequence
e) sequence for DNA replication
11) Ribosomes consist of :
a) RNA and protein
b) DNA and protein
c) RNA and lipids
d) DNA and RNA
e) DNA, RNA and liposomes
12) The RNA molecule that transports and
position amino acids is the:
a) Ribosome
b) Messenger RNA
c) Transfer RNA
d) Ribosomal RNA
e) RNA Polymerase
13) DNA sequences are __________________
into RNA by _________________
a) Transcribed, ribosomes
b) Translated, mRNA
c) Transcribed, RNA polymerase
d) Copied, promoters
e) Terminated, a primer.
14) In the mRNA, information blocks of
trinucleotides are known as ___________
a) Codons
b) Ribosomes
c) Anticodons
d) Chaperons
e) Initiation complex
15) Examples of sequences that code for STOP
of translation are:
a) AUU, and AUG
b) AUA, and AUG
c) UUU, and UAG
d) UAG, and UAA
e) AAA, and UUU
16) The initiation code also calls for the amino
acid…
a) Arginine
b) Isoleucine
c) Leucine
d) Valina
e) Methionine
17) Peptide bond formation during translation
occurs at the __________of the ribosome:
a) Promoter site
b) Origin site
c) Catalytic site
d) Termination site
e) Web site
18) Changes in the sequence of bases in the
DNA are called:
a) Evolutions
b) Mutations
c) Involutions
d) Convolutions
e) Convulsions
19) Bacterial cell-cycle is divided in
a) Replication, and meiosis
b) Growth and binary fission
c) Interphase, prophase, metaphase,
anaphase, and telophase
d) Mitosis and meiosis
20) The positively charged proteins that enable
the folding of the DNA are called:
a) Proteons
b) Glueteons
c) Histones
d) Herstones
21) Immediately after replication, each
chromosome has 2 DNA double helices,
called:
a) Sister chromosomes
b) Sister chromatids
c) Daughter chromosomes
d) Daughter chromatids
e) Sister chromatins
22) What are telomeres?
a) Constrictions of the chromosome
b) The beginning of a gene
c) The parts that get expressed
d) End segments of chromosomes
e) Where genes are
23) A (n)___________cell contains a single
copy of each chromosomes in humans
a) Haploid
b) Diploid
c) Autosomic
d) Somatic
24) Replication of chromosomes during
interphase is called _____ phase
a) Mitosis
b) Meiosis
c) S
d) G
e) Pro25) In which phase of meiosis do the
homologous chromosomes undergo
separation?
a) metaphase I
b) anaphase II
c) prophase I
d) metaphase II
e) anaphase I
26) During which phase of meiosis are
homologous chromosomes paired, side by
side, and aligned at the center of the
dividing cell?
a) prophase I
b) metaphase I
c) anaphase II
d) anaphase I
e) metaphase II
27) When do the centromeres uncouple and
sister chromatids separate?
a) anaphase I
b) prophase II
c) metaphase II
d) anaphase II
e) metaphase I
28) Between the metaphases of meiosis I and
meiosis II,:
a) there is a full cell cycle.
b) there is an extended G1 period.
c) there is a prolongued interphase
d) a decrease in chromosome number has
occurred.
e) a single round of DNA replication is
carried out
29) A human gamete has:
a) 23 chromosomes.
b) 46 chromosomes (23 pairs).
c) 46 chromosomes.
d) 23 autosomes.
e) two sex chromosomes.
.
30) The intertwining (crossing over) of paternal
and maternal homologous chromosomes
during meiosis is called:
a) partitioning.
b) Anaphase
c) chiasma.
d) pleiotropy.
e) epistasis.
31) Sexual life cycles produce genetic variation
in offspring by:
a) independent assortment of
chromosomes.
b) crossing over between nonsister
chromatids.
c) random fertilization.
d) All of the above
e) None of the above.
32) Gametes are examples of:
a) haploid cells.
b) somatic cells.
c) diploid cells.
d) the products of mitotic division.
e) things your parents don’t want to talk
about
33) Snapdragons have a single gene (locus)
that determines flower color. The allele R is
for red flowers and it shows incomplete
dominance over the recessive allele r for
white flowers. What color flowers are
produced by Rr plants?
a) All red
b) Mixed red and white (some flowers of
each color)
c) Pink
d) white with pink streaks
e) purple
34) An allele at one locus affects several
phenotypic traits (e.g. cystic fibrosis is
caused by a single defective gene which
causes clogged blood vessels, sticky
mucus, salty sweat, liver failure, etc.). This
is an example of:
a) continuous variation.
b) codominance.
c) incomplete dominance.
d) epistasis.
e) pleiotropic effects.
35) A human is heterozygous at a blood group
locus and expresses both genotypes (e.g.
they have type AB blood). This is an
example of:
a) Partial inheritance.
b) codominance.
c) incomplete dominance.
d) pleiotropy.
e) complete dominance
36) A human autosomal recessive lethal genetic
disease whose defective allele has been
maintained at a relatively high level in
certain population groups because it gives
the heterozygote resistance to malaria is:
a) Tay-Sachs disease.
b) cystic fibrosis.
c) sickle-cell anemia.
d) muscular dystrophy.
e) Huntington’s disease.
37) Thomas Morgan was the first person to:
a) map a specific gene/trait to a specific
chromosome (sex).
b) observe codominance.
c) carry out amniocentesis.
d) observe crossing over under the
microscope.
e) define genetic variation.
38) An example of a human genetic condition
caused by an autosomal dominant defective
gene/allele:
a) Klinefelter’s syndrome.
b) Down syndrome.
c) Huntington’s disease.
d) cystic fibrosis.
e) Turner.
39) An inactivated ‘X’ chromosome in a human
female cell is seen as a/an:
a) centrosome.
b) Barr body.
c) genetic imprint.
d) nucleosome.
e) centromere.
40) An example of a human genetic disease
involving a male with a Barr body is:
a) Klinefelter syndrome.
b) Down syndrome.
c) Huntington’s disease.
d) Turner syndrome
e) muscular dystrophy.
41) The human chromosomes which are not
either the "X" or "Y" chromosomes are
collectively called _________.
a) Mosaics
b) sex chromosomes
c) karyotypes
d) monosomics
e) autosomes
42) A human gene is said to be sex-linked if:
a) it is more common in females than
males.
b) it is found on the ‘Y’ chromosome.
c) it is encoded by the ‘X’ chromosome.
d) it is expressed only in males.
e) it is recessive in males
43) An example of a phenotypic female human
with no Barr body would be someone with:
a) an XXX karyotype.
b) Down Syndrome.
c) Kleinfelter Disease.
d) Huntington Disease.
e) Turner Syndrome.
44) A person with a karyotype of trisomy 21 will
suffer from:
a) Tay-Sachs.
b)
c)
d)
e)
Down Syndrome.
Kleinfelter Disease.
Huntington Disease.
Turner Syndrome.
45) A trait shows continuous variation within a
population (e.g. height in humans). This
suggests that the trait exhibits:
a) a polygenic pattern of inheritance.
b) pleiotrophy.
c) incomplete dominance.
d) codominance.
e) linkage disequilibrium
46) If the allele for inflated pea pods (I) is
dominant to the allele for constricted (i), the
cross Ii x ii is expected to produce
a) all with inflated pods.
b) All with constricted pods.
c) half with inflated and half with
constricted pods.
d) 3/4 with inflated and 1/4 with constricted
pods.
e) 3/4 with constricted and 1/4 with inflated
pods.
47) According to the Law of Segregation
a) each individual carries a single copy of
each "factor."
b) pairs of factors fuse during the formation
of gametes.
c) pairs of factors separate during the
formation of gametes.
d) the sex chromosomes of males and
females differ.
e) there is an independent assortment of
non-homologous chromosomes during
meiosis.
48) A recessive gene is one
A) that is not expressed as strongly as a
dominant allele.
B) whose effect is masked by a
dominant allele.
C) that appears only in a heterozygote.
D) that produces no effect when present
in the homozygous condition.
E) that must be lethal in the
homozygous condition.
49) The physical manifestation (appearance) of
an organism's genes is its
A) environment.
B) genotype.
C) phenotype.
D) genetic code
E) number of chromosomes.
50) The genetic makeup of an individual is its
A) phenotype.
B) sex cells.
C) mutation
D) gene pool.
E) genotype.
51) A Mendelian test cross is used to determine
whether
A) an allele is dominant or recessive.
B) flowers are purple or white.
C) the genotype or phenotype is more important.
D) an individual is homozygous or heterozygous.
E) segregation or independent assortment is
occurring.
52) Colorblindness is more common in men
than in women because
A) men have only one X chromosome.
B) the gene is located on the Y chromosome.
C) women cannot inherit the gene from their
fathers.
D) crossing-over occurs only in women.
E) men get more copies of the gene than do
women.
53) Blood typing is often used as evidence in
paternity cases in court. In one case, the mother
had blood type B and the child had blood type
O. Which of the following blood types could the
father NOT have?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
E) Both choices C and D are correct.
54) Autosomal nondisjunction can result in
A) XYY males.
B) Turner syndrome.
C) Klinefelter syndrome
D) Trisomy X.
E) Down syndrome.
55. The correct labeling is :
a. A= G1; B= G2; C=mitosis; D=meiosis
b. A= G1; B= DNA replication; C= G2; D=
mitosis
c. A= G1; B= Cell growth; C=G2; D= mitosis
d. A= Growth; B= Replication; C= meiosis;
D=mitosis
56. Indicate the specific stage and the type
of division (mitosis or meiosis) for these
two diagrams below:
a. A= Prophase, mitosis; B=
prophase, meiosis
b. A= Prophase, meiosis; B=
prophase, mitosis
c. A= Metaphase, meiosis I; B=
metaphase meiosis II
d. A= Metaphase, meiosis I; B=
metaphase, mitosis.
e. A= metaphase, mitosis; B=
metaphase, meiosis I
57. This Punnate square represent the F2
generation. Since we can see a 9:3:3:1
ratio, this indicates that we are dealing
with an example of ___________ using
a __________ cross.
a. Segregation, Monohybrid.
b. Segregation, Dihybrid.
c. Independent assortment,
monohybrid.
d. Independent assortment,
dihybrid.