15. Which two basic functions or responsibilities given Congress by the Constitution
appear to be inherently at odds with one another?
a. oversight and law-making b. law-making and representation
c. representation and logrolling d. logrolling and redistricting
16. A fragmented Congress
a. is likely to have members with a constituency focus.
b. is relatively insulated from interest group pressures.
c. is tightly organized around strong political parties.
d. all of the above.
17. Which of the following BEST describes the "natural" state of Congress?
a. efficient b. integrated c. fragmented d. unprofessional
18. Subgovernment or policy triangle refers to the relationship among federal agencies
(bureaus), interest groups, and __________ in a given area of public policy.
a. the news media b. cabinet officers c. the White House staff
d. none of these
19. The concept of LOGROLLING refers to
a. action taken by a senator that attempts to prevent a bill from passing in the
Senate.
b. a method that is used to keep one bill on the floor for an extended period of time,
thus blocking all legislation.
c. an arrangement by which two or more members of Congress agree in advance to
support each other’s bills.
d. a method that the president uses when he wants to prevent the passage of
legislation.
20. The "hurdles" which a bill has to clear in the legislative process are called
a. "stop-gaps." b. "delay points." c. "veto points." d. "counter-points."
21. A typical bill, complete with appropriations measures and riders (non-germane
amendments), would probably have to clear somewhere between _______________
of the "hurdles" alluded to in question #20.
a. 5 - 10 b. 20 - 30 c. 50 - 70 d. 10,000 - 20,000
22. A filibuster is
a. an attempt to prevent the passage of a bill by halting action through unlimited
debate.
b. an attempt to persuade others to vote for a particular bill in return for a favor at a
later date.
c. a device used to force a bill out of a standing committee.
d. a new 3/4 lb. beef sandwich at the Dairy Queen.
23. Which of the following is most likely to use a filibuster?
a. a House member who supports a bill that is likely to be passed by the majority.
b. a Senator who supports a bill that is likely to be passed by the majority.
c. a. a House member who opposes a bill that is likely to be passed by the majority.
d. a Senator who opposes a bill that is likely to be passed by the majority.
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24. Most of the actual work of legislating is
a. performed by interest groups and then acted upon by Congress.
b. accomplished in state legislatures and then the more acceptable ideas are acted
upon by Congress.
c. performed by the president and his staff and then routinely accepted by Congress.
d. performed by the committees and subcommittees within Congress.
25. By far, the most important committees within Congress are the
a. joint resolution committees. b. special investigative committees.
c. standing committees. d. none of these.
26. A conference committee is
a. a special committee convened to resolve the differences between the Congress
and the president on legislative issues.
b. called into session when the president has vetoed an appropriations bill with a
pocket veto.
c. a special committee convened to reconcile differences between House and
Senate versions of a bill.
d. a special committee in the House that assists the Speaker in enacting his party’s
legislative agenda.
1. Which of the following statements would BEST characterize Americans' expectations
regarding presidential leadership?
a. Americans are generally undemanding of presidential leadership.
b. Americans have unrealistically high expectations of their presidents.
c. Americans are so thoroughly disgusted with presidential lying and corruption that
they seem to have no expectations whatsoever of presidential leadership.
d. The expectations of Americans are generally consistent with the reality of
presidential power.
4. If you subscribed to the literalist theory of presidential power you would believe that
the president has
a. inherent powers. b. inherent and statutory powers. c. only express powers.
d. no powers.
5. The president's role as a leader in the legislative process
a. became almost non-existent with the presidency of Franklin Roosevelt.
b. was at its height at the end of the 19th century.
c. is largely a phenomenon that has occurred since the Great Depression.
d. is prescribed by the Constitution; therefore, his degree of influence never
changes.
6. Which of the following powers are explicitly delegated to the president by the
Constitution?
1. to be commander-in-chief 2. to act as manager of the economy
3. to be domestic crisis manager 4. to be chief foreign policy maker
5. to appoint the Speaker of the House of Representatives
a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1, 2, 3, and 4 c. all of these d. 1 only
7. The personal political skill of the president
a. has little bearing on public perceptions of his leadership ability.
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b. is far less important than the constitutional powers of the president.
c. is a primary source of presidential power.
d. really does not vary much from one president to another.
8. A president who comes to Washington with a clear set of predetermined goals, who
pursues those goals unbendingly, and who refuses to engage in political
compromise with other leaders (e.g., those in Congress) will probably
a. be seen as a strong and successful president.
b. be unsuccessful at cultivating strong working relationships with important
constituencies such as Congress and the news media.
c. over-power all political resistance.
d. be impeached.
9. The BEST example of the type of president described in the previous question is
a. Ronald Reagan. b. Lyndon Johnson. c. Jimmy Carter. d. Franklin Roosevelt.
10. Which of the following accurately describe the reality of presidential power?
1. unlimited 2. personal 3. negative 4. episodic 5. mythical
a. 1 and 4 b. 1 and 5 c. 1, 2, and 3
d. 2, 3, and 4
11. Which term indicates that the president does NOT have the power to continuously
control or manage the legislative process?
a. limited b. episodic c. micromanage d. negative
12. In contrast to the powers given to the president by the Constitution, the powers
constitutionally granted to Congress are described in terms that are more
a. detailed. b. moral. c. discretionary. d. general.
14. The early months of a president’s term in which his popularity with the public is
generally high is known as the
a. probationary period.
b. learning curve.
c. infancy period.
d. honeymoon period.
15. According to the videotaped program “The Power Game,“ which of the following
“games” is NOT one of the games a president must master to be a successful
leader?
a. the Agenda Game.
b. the Coalition Game.
c. the Persuasion Game.
d. the Image Game.
16. According to the videotaped program “The Power Game, “ which of the following
“games” requires a president to identify two or three major issues and convince
Congress to devote its legislative energies to resolving dealing with these before
taking on other problems?
a. the Agenda Game
b. the Coalition Game
c. the Persuasion Game
d. the Image Game
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20. According to Max Weber, a bureaucracy should
a. set up regulations that prevent the average person from quickly understanding the
purpose of the rule.
b. prevent specialization for it only leads to delay in policy implementation.
c. only exist within a democratic form of government.
d. be an apolitical organization.
29. Which of the following is among the reasons discussed in class for the rapid growth
in bureaucracies during the late 1880s, the 1930s, and the 1960s?
1. advances in science and technology
2. the perceived need for regulation of business activities
3. increased government responsibilities in providing income security
4. the American cultural belief in progress (technology fix)
5. bureaucratic imperialism
a. all of these b. 1 and 3 c. 1, 2, and 4 d. 2, 3, and 5
30. Presidential attempts to significantly affect the structure and operation of federal
bureaucracies have
a. been very successful.
b. been a result of hard work and are beginning to pay off.
c. been almost completely unsuccessful.
d. had significant when Congress has been controlled by Republicans.
31. One of the most important differences between private corporations and public
bureaucracies is that the latter are
a. much larger.
b. much more labor intensive.
c. not organized to make a profit.
d. subject to change much more frequently.
36. In which case did the Supreme Court first declare an act of Congress
unconstitutional?
a. MCCULLOCH V MARYLAND b. SHERBERT V VERNER c. PALKO V CONNECTICUT
d. MARBURY V MADISON
37. In the case MARBURY V MADISON, John Marshall was
a. the Attorney General.
b. the Chief Justice.
c. not eligible to participate in the decision because of his prior role as Secretary of
State.
d. the acting district attorney for the state of Maryland.
38. Which of the following constitutes a "cue" (cue theory) that may indicate whether the
Supreme Court will decide to hear a case on appeal?
1. The president or other high ranking federal officer publicly calls on the Supreme
Court to review of the case.
2. The case involves a civil liberties or civil rights issue.
3. The judges on the lower appellate court have sharply divided opinions.
4. The subject matter of the case involves a social or political agenda that is
consistent with the dominant ideology of the Supreme Court.
5. The case involves a question of federalism.
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a. 1, 2, & 5
b. 1, 2, & 3
c. 1, 2, 3, & 4
d. 1, 2, 3, & 5
39. Merits consciousness is the idea that a justice's
1. vote to grant certiorari reflects a predisposition by the justice to reverse a lower
court's decision based on the merits of the case.
2. vote to deny certiorari reflects a predisposition by the justice to reverse a lower
court's decision based on the merits of the case.
3. vote to grant or deny certiorari is highly associated with his or her political party
ideology.
4. vote to grant or deny certiorari is highly associated with his or her political party
affiliation.
5. vote to grant or deny certiorari is based strictly on the degree or extent of legal
impact that he or she believes the decision will ultimately have.
a. 1 only
b. 1 & 2
c. 3 & 4
d. 5 only
40. Which of the following determines whether the Supreme Court will issue a writ of
certiorari?
a. "gang of four"
b. "rule of five"
c. "rule of four"
d. "four on the floor"
42. The doctrine of stare decisis means
a. to reverse a decision of a lower court.
b. that the court does not have jurisdiction in a case.
c. to refer a case to the next highest court.
d. to stand on the decided cases - that is to decide a case based on the precedents
set in other similar cases.
43. The power of the courts to decide whether an act of another branch of government
is consistent with or contrary to the provisions of the Constitution is known as
a. judicial review. b. writs of judicial appeal. c. the greater judicial need doctrine.
d. the doctrine of common sense.
44. Appellate jurisdiction involves the authority of a court to
a. decide guilt or innocence in criminal cases.
b. determine the extent of damages in civil cases.
c. limit the jurisdiction of lower courts.
d. review the decisions of lower courts.
45. A writ of certiorari by the Supreme Court orders
a. both parties in a case to reach a settlement without further litigation.
b. a public official to discharge his or her duty.
c. a lower court to send it the records of a case for review.
d. the state legislature to rewrite legislation that was found to be unconstitutional.
48. Which of the following were established in class as criteria of judicial policymaking?
a. legal impact and policy impact
b. policy impact and compliance
c. legal impact and compliance
d. none of these
49. Which criterion of judicial policy-making refers to the "potential of a given court
decision to substantially alter or change an existing policy or practice?"
a. legal impact b. policy impact c. compliance d. none of these
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50. The fact that public schools, particularly in the South, had not integrated two
decades after the Supreme Court's decision in BROWN V BOARD OF EDUCATION
illustrated the relevance of _______________ as a criterion of judicial policy-making.
a. legal impact b. policy impact c. compliance d. none of these
51. The criterion of judicial policy-making that requires parties affected by a court’s
decision to actually change or alter their behavior in accordance with the decision is
a. legal impact b. policy impact c. compliance d. none of these
52. Which of the following cases meet both of the criteria of judicial policy-making?
1. GRISWOLD V CONNECTICUT
2. ENGEL V VITALE
3. MIRANDA V ARIZONA
4. PLESSY V FERGUSON
5. BAKER V CARR
a. 1, 2, & 3 b. 1, 2, 3, & 4 c. 1, 2, 3, & 5 d. all of the above
53. In MARBURY V MADISON, the Supreme Court held that
a. Madison had to deliver Marbury's judicial commission.
b. Congress could not change the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
c. Congress could give the Supreme Court the power to issue writs of mandamus.
d. all of these.
54. A writ of mandamus is a court order compelling
a. both parties in a case to reach a settlement without further litigation.
b. a public official to discharge his or her duty.
c. a lower court to send it the records of a case for review.
d. the state legislature to rewrite legislation that was found to be unconstitutional.
55. Judicial activism refers to a philosophy that
a. implies a willingness on the part of judges to make liberal social policy.
b. implies a reluctance on the part of judges to make liberal social policy.
c. implies a willingness on the part of judges to use the power of judicial review to
declare an act or action of another branch of government unconstitutional and,
therefore, void.
d. implies a reluctance on the part of judges to use the power of judicial review to
declare an act or action of another branch of government unconstitutional and,
therefore, void.