Temple College
Government 2301
Spring 2003
Exam #2
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PLEASE CLOSE ALL NOTEBOOKS, TEXTBOOKS, ETC. AND PLACE EVERYTHING EXCEPT
YOUR ANSWER SHEET AND A PENCIL UNDER YOUR CHAIR.
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SHARING ANSWERS WITH OTHER STUDENTS (in this class or in another class – before, after, or
during the exam) IS EXPRESSLY PROHIBITED. IF YOU HAVE QUESTIONS, ASK THE
INSTRUCTOR.
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PLEASE DO NOT WRITE ON THIS TEST BOOKLET UNLESS OTHERWISE INSTRUCTED!
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PLEASE AVOID UNNECESSARILY FOLDING, BENDING, CURLING, CRUMPLING, OR
OTHERWISE DAMAGING YOUR ANSWER SHEET, PARTICULARLY ALONG THE TOP AND
BOTTOM EDGES. THE SCORING MACHINE IS VERY SENSITIVE.
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IMPORTANT: MAKE ALL ERASURES COMPLETELY - IT IS YOUR RESPONSIBILITY TO
CLEARLY INDICATE YOUR CHOSEN ANSWER. RESPONSES THAT ARE NOT
COMPLETELY ERASED WILL BE COUNTED AS INCORRECT BY THE SCORING MACHINE.
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WRITE THE VERSION OF THE TEST BOOKLET ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET TO ENSURE
PROPER SCORING.
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BE SURE TO WRITE YOUR NAME ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET!!
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THIS EXAM IS WORTH 100 POINTS.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. INSTRUCTIONS: Answer each of the following multiple-choice questions by
marking the letter on your scan-tron form that corresponds to the BEST response.
70 questions
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Constitutionally dividing governmental powers between the states and the national government is referred to as
A) dual legitimacy.
C) federalism.
B) egalitarianism.
D) separation of powers.
2) The story of welfare reform in the states illustrates how
A) both the national government and state governments make policies that have important effects on people's
lives.
B) the federal government establishes more restrictive policies for the states than for the national government.
C) the federal government is able to act more quickly and effectively than the states to solve problems that cross
state boundaries.
D) the national government preempts for itself control over certain problems of national scope.
3) Which of the following statements best reflects changes brought about by the Personal Responsibility and Work
Opportunity Act passed in 1996?
A) Public welfare is now a state responsibility with federal financial support.
B) Public welfare is now a state responsibility without federal support.
C) Recipients of welfare may receive no more than ten years of benefits.
D) States have lost much of their discretion in creating their own welfare programs.
4) According to the authors of STRUGGLE FOR DEMOCRACY, federalism is part of which sphere of the analytical
framework?
A) structural
B) political
C) economic
D) governmental
5) A unitary system of government is
A) another name for a confederation.
B) different from a confederation in that the national government must share power with the constituent units.
C) different from a federal system in that the national government does not have ultimate authority.
D) different from a federal system in that the central government has all the power.
6) Federalism refers to a system in which
A) powers are divided between the central government and smaller governments.
B) the constituent units or states retain ultimate authority and can veto major actions.
C) the central government retains all government power and can change its constituent units.
D) the smaller units or states retain most power, but must submit essential legislation for approval by the public.
7) Federalism as it exists today is
A) the most frequently used way of organizing governments around the world.
B) largely an American invention.
C) basically an outgrowth of early confederate systems.
D) normally found in small, homogeneous nations.
8) Countries with federal governments tend to be
A) homogeneous.
C) Protestant.
B) capitalist.
D) large and diverse.
9) According to the Greenberg text, which of the following is an argument in favor of federalism?
A) States may pursue unworthy policy goals.
B) In a large and diverse country, the needs, wants, and conditions of one place may differ from those in other
places.
C) Americans know more about the national government than about their local government.
D) Only the federal government can issue mandates.
10) According to the Greenberg text, the oldest and most important argument in favor of federalism is that
A) in a large and diverse country, needs, wants, and conditions differ from one place to another.
B) different states may pursue unworthy policy goals.
C) lack of uniformity in state rules and programs leads to consistent national programs.
D) people are actually better informed about national politics than state and local affairs.
11) Which of the following might be used as an argument against federalism?
A) Federalism leads to consistency in program implementation.
B) People are closer to state and local government than to national government.
C) State and local governments are often the "laboratories" of innovation and experimentation.
D) Historically, one of the main effects of federalism was to let white majorities in the southern states enslave and
then discriminate against black people.
12) Some say the national government is actually "closer" to most citizens than their nearby state capitals because
A) citizens are more likely to vote in national elections than in state and local elections.
B) the president is often more accessible than state governors.
C) the elite press pays little attention to national politics.
D) more people know about the activities of the national government than of state governments.
13) Allowing women the right to vote and pioneering efforts to fight air and water pollution are examples of
A) policies first formulated and implemented by the federal government.
B) unworthy policies pursued by state governments.
C) policies first formulated and implemented by state governments.
D) state policies that were mandated by the U.S. Supreme Court.
14) American federalism is consistent with the Founders' contention that
A) direct democracy works best in a large country.
B) tyranny is less likely when government's power is dispersed.
C) power should be concentrated in the federal government.
D) a strong military is necessary to prevent uprisings.
15) According to the Greenberg text, how does the Constitution embody federalism?
A) It grants ultimate authority to the states.
B) The national government partly functions through state-based institutions.
C) The national government grants almost complete discretion to state institutions.
D) The national government cannot regulate any state activities.
16) The Tenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution declares that powers not delegated to the United States, nor
prohibited by it to the states, are
A) reserved to the national government.
B) reserved to U.S. cities.
C) delegated to the federal government.
D) reserved to the states respectively, or to the people.
17) Which of the following powers does the Constitution assign to the states?
A) coining money
B) making treaties with foreign governments
C) vetoing national legislation
D) deciding who could vote for members of the U.S. House of Representatives
18) American federalism, according to the Constitution,
A) reserves powers to the states that are not explicitly listed in the Constitution as powers of the national
government.
B) reserves powers to the national government that are not explicitly listed in the Constitution as powers of the
states.
C) does not limit the types of laws Congress can pass.
D) does not limit what the national government can do.
19) What is the central meaning of the supremacy clause?
A) Powers not delegated to the national government are reserved to the states.
B) Powers enumerated in the constitution are delegated exclusively to Congress.
C) States are obligated to recognize the validity of the public acts and judicial proceedings of the other states.
D) Federal law has precedence over conflicting state laws.
20) Throughout U.S. history, there have been ebbs and flows in the relative power of the states and national
government. But
A) gradually the national government gained ground.
B) gradually the states gained control.
C) the Supreme Court was mostly silent on the matter of federalism.
D) The Supreme Court supported the states' rights to override national laws.
21) Nullification means
A) that the national government can declare state actions null and void.
B) that a provision of the U.S. Constitution does not apply to state governments.
C) that unconstitutional actions by the national government could be declared null and void by the states.
D) the same thing as judicial review.
22) The principal architect of judicial review was the strong-willed but subtle chief justice
A) John Jay.
C) Thomas Jefferson.
B) John Marshall.
D) Warren Burger.
23) Supreme Court decisions FLETCHER V. PECK and MARBURY V. MADISON
A) declared laws unconstitutional and established the Supreme Court's position as interpreter of the Constitution.
B) declared a national law unconstitutional and therefore granted the states power over the national government.
C) granted the states more powers than are explicitly expressed in the Constitution.
D) took away certain powers from the national government.
24) In FLETCHER V. PECK (1810), the U.S. Supreme Court
A) for the first time clearly exercised the power to hold state laws unconstitutional.
B) for the first time declared a municipal law unconstitutional.
C) established the principle of judicial review.
D) for the first time declared a law passed by Congress unconstitutional.
25) In MCCULLOCH V. MARYLAND, the Court said Congress had the right to establish a national bank under the
A) supremacy clause.
B) full faith and credit clause.
C) necessary and proper clause.
D) reservation clause.
26) The Missouri Compromise of 1820
A) outlawed the institution of slavery.
B) said that the state of Missouri would enter the union as a slave state for only 20 years.
C) banned importing new slaves into the United States.
D) established an equal number of slave and free states.
27) The due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment eventually allowed the Supreme Court to rule that
A) states could demand federal grants.
B) blacks could legally be denied the right to vote.
C) civil liberties were protected against the states as well as against the national government.
D) All of the above.
28) According to the Greenberg text, which of the following gave the national government increasing weight in
relation to the states?
A) the Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890
C) the Civil Rights Act of 1964
B) Roosevelt's New Deal
D) All of the above.
29) According to the Greenberg text, the metaphor of a marble cake is appropriate for American federalism because
A) national and state powers are fairly neatly divided.
B) national and state powers do not have clear boundaries.
C) national power sits atop state and local powers like frosting.
D) national power surrounds state and local powers nearly everywhere.
30) Layer cake federalism suggests the theory that
A) federal grants to the states should be used within programs largely shaped or regulated by the national
government.
B) the national government should be dominant in most important policy areas.
C) state and national government powers are neatly divided and occupy separate spheres.
D) elements of national and state influences swirl around each other, without any clear boundaries.
31) According to the Greenberg text, the biggest growth in federal grants-in-aid occurred during the 1950s, 1960s, and
1970s, under
A) primarily Republican administrations.
B) both Republican and Democratic administrations.
C) primarily Democratic administrations.
D) None of the above.
32) In the 1960s, when many grants-in-aid programs were begun, the money to fund the programs came mostly
from
A) Social Security taxes.
B) deficit spending.
C) the federal income tax.
D) borrowing.
33) With a categorical grant to a state,
A) funds can be used for broad purposes.
B) funds must be spent for a specific activity.
C) state and local officials have much discretion in the allocation of funds.
D) program details are not precisely defined.
34) Which of the following is a problem with categorical grants?
A) If national rules and regulations are vague, states and cities use funds for purposes different from what
Congress intended.
B) Federal rules and regulations result in "red tape."
C) Sometimes states and/or cities are "bypassed" in the funding process.
D) All of the above are problems with categorical grants.
35) Block grants
A) provide state and local governments money for general purposes and have fewer rules than categorical grants.
B) are very restrictive in that they can be used only for specific activities.
C) are generally disliked by local officials.
D) are intended to tighten national control over local affairs.
36) Which of the following is a possible explanation for the slowdown in grants-in-aid beginning in the late 1970s
and early 1980s?
A) a liberal turn in politics
B) a booming economy
C) a conservative turn in politics
D) widespread rejection of grant money by state and local officials
37) Scholars and journalists reporting on the failure of policy implementation have detailed how
A) the federal government was spending too much on foreign policy.
B) Congress was failing to execute the laws.
C) the relationships between the federal and state governments were too complicated.
D) more agencies were needed to implement policy.
38) Many contemporary conflicts about federalism concern not money, but __________.
A) judicial review issues.
B)separation of powers.
C) checks and balances.
D)control.
39) In 1984, the national government declared that all states must set a minimum drinking age of 21 or have their
highway aid cut by 15 percent. This is an example of
A) a mandate.
C) a block grant.
B)conditions on aid.
D)a Supreme Court ruling.
40) Which American document is the "supreme law of the land?"
A) The Declaration of Independence
C) The United States Constitution
B) The Articles of Confederation
D) Each of the fifty state constitutions
41) Under the Articles of Confederation, the United States was really a
A) single nation under a strong central government authority.
B) treaty organization among sovereign nations.
C) unitary system in which the individual states had no independent power from the national government.
D) none of these.
42) The Federalists advocated a
A) strong state government system.
B) strong central government and the new Constitution.
C) return to the Articles of Confederation.
D) return to British rule.
43) The Anti-Federalists advocated
A) return to British rule.
B) strong central government and the new Constitution.
C) the elimination of the state governments.
D) opposition to the Constitution.
44) Opponents of the Constitution in the late 1780s demanded inclusion of the Bill of Rights because they feared
abuse of power by
A) the national government.
C) local governments.
B) the state governments.
D) government at all levels.
45) In a confederal system of government, the ultimate government authority is the
A) national or central government.
C) local or city government.
B) state or provincial government.
D) none of these.
46) In a federal system of government, power is
A) concentrated in a unicameral legislature within a strong central government.
B) bestowed in the central government, with no power being granted to the constituent governments.
C) always vested in a bicameral legislature.
D) shared between the central government and regional governments.
47) In the American federal system, local governments are
A) creatures of the states.
B) creatures of the federal government.
C) provided for in Article VIII of the U.S. Constitution.
D) independent of both state and federal authority.
48) The Bill of Rights was important to ratification of the Constitution because
A) all of the state constitutions had such rights and would have made the U.S. Constitution void.
B) several important states would not have voted to ratify the Constitution had the Federalists been unwilling to
guarantee such amendments.
C) such rights were stipulated in the Articles of Confederation.
D) without a formal statement guaranteeing the rights of Americans the state governments could have openly
abridged the rights of citizens.
49) The Bill of Rights originally limited
A) the power of the central government.
B) the power of the state governments.
C) the rights of the people in each state.
D) both the power of the central government and the state governments.
50) What is the constitutional basis for Congress' implied powers?
A) the doctrine of separation of powers
C) the concept of checks and balances
B) the supremacy clause
D) the necessary and proper clause
51) According to Article I, sec. 8:18 of the Constitution, Congress has the power to make all laws
A) that it considers to be necessary and proper.
B) that promote the general welfare.
C) that are necessary and proper to carry out the powers expressly delegated to the national government.
D) that it danged well pleases.
52) The idea that state governments reserve any powers not delegated by the Constitution to the national government is
found in the
A) 10th Amendment.
B) Article 1, sec. 8:18.
C) Article VI, par. 2.
D) the Preamble.
53) The constitutional provision referred to in the previous question reflects
A) the political philosophy of the Anti-Federalists.
B) the political philosophy of the Federalists.
C) the political philosophy of Alexander Hamilton.
D) the wisdom of preventing politics from affecting constitution-writing.
54) The implied delegated powers of the national government
A) are limited by the decisions of the state governments.
B) are specifically mentioned in Article II, section 6.
C) give elasticity to our constitutional system.
D) restrict Congress from passing legislation that is not specifically delegated in the Constitution.
55) In MCCULLOCH V MARYLAND (1819), Chief Justice John Marshall argued that
A) the Constitution was highly specific and mentioned all permissible powers of Congress.
B) the states can countermand an act of Congress if the act isn't based on any specific grant of authority in the
Constitution.
C) the necessary and proper clause was irrelevant to the case.
D) Congress has the power to enact laws, which are necessary and proper to carry out its expressly delegated
powers.
56) A basic principle upheld in MCCULLOCH V MARYLAND is that
1. the powers of the national government come from the people.
2. the national government has powers in addition to those expressly enumerated in the Constitution.
3. the powers of the national government must be strictly limited to those expressly enumerated in the
Constitution.
4. ultimate political sovereignty rests with the states.
5. the national government has the power to do anything it wants.
A) 3 and 4
B) 1, 2, and 5
C) 2 only
D) 3, 4, and 5
57) A broad constructionist would have contended in the case of MCCULLOCH V MARYLAND that
A) Congress is limited in its use of power to those powers that are expressly mentioned in the Constitution.
B) Congress did not have the power to establish the Bank of the United States.
C) Congress had passed legislation that violated the Constitution, and therefore the Supreme Court must declare
the law unconstitutional.
D) none of these.
58) In the case of MCCULLOCH V MARYLAND, strict constructionists would have contended that
A) the national government had only those powers expressly delegated by the Constitution.
B) Congress had the power to establish a national bank.
C) Congress can do whatever is needed in a time of crisis.
D) the national government is supreme and can act for the good and welfare of the public.
59) When Chief Justice Roger Taney wrote (in DRED SCOTT V SANFORD, 1857) that the Constitution "speaks not only in
the same words, but with the same meaning and same intent as when it came from the hands of the framers," he
was
1. interpreting the Constitution broadly.
2. interpreting the Constitution flexibly.
3. interpreting the Constitution strictly.
4. reflecting his Federalist political philosophy.
5. reflecting his Democratic-Republican political philosophy.
A) 1 and 4
B) 2 and 5
C) 3 and 5
D) 1, 2, and 4
60) Which provision declares the supremacy of the Constitution and all laws made in pursuance of the Constitution?
A) Article I
B) Article II
C) Article VI, par. 2
D) 10th Amendment
61) Roger Taney's interpretation of federalism assumed
A) states' right to secede from the Union.
B) federal and state laws affected each other as co-equals; that the national government and the states were "dual
sovereign."
C) concurrent national and state control over education.
D) southern states' right to maintain slavery.
62) The 10th Amendment states that the powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited
by it to the states, are
A) the sole authority of Congress.
B) the sole authority of the executive branch.
C) reserved to the central government.
D) reserved to the states respectively, or to the people.
63) The national government's power to declare war, to regulate interstate commerce, and to coin money are examples
of ____________ delegated powers.
A) implied
B) inherent
C) expressly
D) reserved
64) Which prominent 19th century doctrine assumed that individual states could declare a law made by Congress void
within its borders?
A) the Monroe Doctrine
C) nullification
B) dual federalism
D) national federalism
65) According to our in-class discussions, the Supremacy Clause of the Constitution means that
A) Congress cannot pass legislation that would contravene state laws.
B) the original Constitution is superior to any amendment.
C) the original states have a superior status than those created after 1789.
D) states cannot use their reserved powers to thwart legitimate national laws.
66) According to the web article, "Republic of Texas' Facts, Goals, and Tactics Are Highly Questionable," constitutions
are ultimately political documents, as well as legal documents, because
A) politicians write them.
B) they reflect a consensus among members of a political community about how they want to organize their
governmental affairs.
C) they "legalize" or condone corrupt activities by elected officials.
D) none of these.
67) According to the author of the web article, "Republic of Texas' Facts, Goals, and Tactics Are Highly Questionable,"
the Republic of Texas's argument that Texas was illegally annexed by the United States in 1845 is incorrect and
irrelevant because
A) the United States may annex new territory even though the U.S. Constitution does not specifically give the
government that authority.
B) Texans in the 1840s sought to be annexed by the United States; they were not annexed against their will.
C) generations of Texans since 1845 have behaved as American citizens.
D) all of these.
68) In the case MISSOURI V HOLLAND [1920], the Supreme Court ruled that the act of Congress establishing closed
hunting seasons and other rules was
A) constitutional because the justices were conservationists and believed that it was the government's duty to
protect endangered species.
B) unconstitutional because the Constitution does not specifically delegate these powers to Congress and are
therefore powers that are reserved to the states.
C) constitutional because the Constitution gives Congress the power to make any laws it believes are "necessary
and proper" for the nation.
D) constitutional because the Constitution gives Congress the power to make laws that are "necessary and proper"
to give effect to the president's treaty-making power.
69) Which of the following statements correctly characterizes the fiscal dilemma of the American federal system
through much of the 20th century?
A) The burdens of government are mainly at the state and local levels while the bounties of government are
mainly at the national level.
B) The burdens of government are mainly at the national level while the bounties of government are mainly at the
state and local levels.
C) The national level has taken up the burdens of government while public opinion indicates that the national
government should stay out of local concerns.
D) The national government has refused to assist state and local governments in dealing with substantial burdens.
70) Which type of program gives local governments the most discretion over how to spend federal grant money?
A) categorical
C) formula
B) block
D) revenue sharing