AN S 424, Companion Animal Science
Exam 4 (Final), May 2, 2012
135 Questions
Exam is 15% of total grade
Please fill in in pencil the circle on your bubble sheet which corresponds to your answer.
Fill in your last name first on your bubble sheet. Be sure to fill in the dots corresponding to
the letters of your name. Do NOT list your student ID number. Failure to fill out the bubble
sheet accordingly will result in a zero on the exam.
Multiple Choice/T-F Answer (135 points)
1) Members of the family of mustelidae can range in size over three orders of magnitude.
A) True
B) False
2) All of the following are domesticated mustelids except (circle one):
A) Ferrets
B) Mink
C) Otters
D) Sable
E) Tayras
3) Though considered a nuisance species or wild animal species that is prohibited to own in
some states, evidence suggests that domestic ferrets have been domestic animals for
approximately 4,500 years before present.
A) True
B) False
4) Which of the following viruses, when used in vaccination, confers cross protection.
A) CAV2 for CAV1
B) Feline corona for canine corona
C) Feline parvo for canine parvo
D) FIV for FeLV
E) Human mumps for canine distemper
5) Leptospira is a virus with 4 closely related serovars.
A) True
B) False
6) On average RNA viruses are more stable in the environment than DNA viruses?
A) True
B) False
7) Advantage is a spot on product used in both dogs and cats
A) True
B) False
ANS 424 Exam 4, Sp 2012
8) One advantage to milbemycin over ivermenctin/pyrantel combination products is that
milbemycin has activity against what organism below not seen in the ivermectin/pyrantel
product?
A) Coccidia
B) Giardia
C) Hook worms
D) Round worms
E) Whip worms
9) One needs to test dogs for B canis and retroviruses before breeding
A) True
B) False
10) Flea bite dermatitis/allergy has been substantially diminished with the advent of spot on
products active against fleas
A) True
B) False
11) One of the most important things to determine if you should start your own business is
A) Your personal tolerance for risk
B) Identification of future investors
C) Suppliers for your office equipment
D) What colors you are going to use for the interior office paint
12) The three most important paid professionals you can enlist to help you are
A) Accountant, interior designer, staff
B) Architect, Staff, Landscaper
C) Accountant, Lawyer, Staff
D) Staff, Banker, Investors
13) The statement of what you specifically will be offering to your customer that differentiates
you from your competition is your:
A) Statement of Intent
B) Core Benefit Proposition
C) Proof of Concept
D) Articles of Incorporation
14) A marketing plan should include:
A) Goals and Objectives
B) Profit and Loss Statement
C) Strategy and Tactics
D) A & C
ANS 424 Exam 4, Sp 2012
15) One of the best ways to help you research a business idea is to
A) Just jump in
B) Find a similar business in a different part of the country
C) Read about it in a book
D) None of the above
16) On average RNA viruses are more or less genetically stable than DNA viruses?
A) Less stable
B) More stable
17) On average RNA viruses are more or less likely to jump divergent species than DNA
viruses?
A) More likely
B) Less likely
18) The two arms of the nonspecific immune response are the humoral (antibody) and cytotoxic
cell response arms:
A) True
B) False
19) Adjuvented vaccines are more likely those that are killed versus modified live vaccines
A) True
B) False
20) On average, modified live viral vaccines incite a stronger immune response than killed virus
vaccine.
A) True
B) False
21) Which of the following are potential reasons to use a canary pox based viral vector vaccine
A) It is a “live” viral vector and hence has the benefits of a MLV type vaccine
B) It prevents the need for adjuvents
C) It can be used to vaccinate for dangerous viral diseases (ie rabies), without fear of viral
reversions
D) All of the above are potential reasons
22) Vaccine related sarcomas are a common condition of dogs
A) True
B) False
23) Canine corona virus attacks the intestinal microvilli crypts.
A) True
B) False
ANS 424 Exam 4, Sp 2012
24) Canine parvo virus attacks the intestinal microvilli crypts.
A) True
B) False
25) Old Dog Encephalitis is associated with which virus:
A) Canine adenovirus type 1
B) Canine adenovirus type 2
C) Canine corona virus
D) Canine distemper virus
E) Canine parvo virus
26) Leptospira is recommended to be include for vaccines only after 12 weeks of age to avoid
post vaccinal reactions:
A) True
B) False
27) Using a canine vaccine against human mumps virus can help prevent canine distemper viral
associated disease in 6 week old pups:
A) True
B) False
28) All of the following are true about parvo virus except:
A) It is a RNA virus
B) It is a small virus
C) It is trophic for rapidly dividing cells
D) It is very stable in the environment
E) It jumped species to the dog in the late 1970’s in central Europe
29) All of the following may be a cause of Canine Infectious Tracheabronchitis except:
A) B. brontiseptica
B) Canine distemper virus
C) Canine parainfluenza virus
D) CAV-1
E) All can cause the symptoms of Canine Infectious Tracheabronchitis
30) If an animal comes down with the nervous system form of canine distemper it has an
excellent chance of recovering.
A) True
B) False
31) A pup that has the dermatological (skin lesions) of canine distemper virus is less likely to
develop the central nervous system form.
A) True
B) False
ANS 424 Exam 4, Sp 2012
32) Corona infection in dogs is almost always associated with a serious and life threatening
condition in dogs
A) True
B) False
33) Canine herpes virus infection is only a serious concern in bitches infected during pregnancy
or the periparturient period.
A) True
B) False
34) Which of the following viral types was not discussed as a virus type that infects both dogs
and cats
A) Corona virus
B) Herpes virus
C) Parvo virus
D) Retrovirus
35) Feline corona virus is like what other virus discussed in class in that in a rare number of
instances it causes a fatal disease associated with vasculitis:
A) A parvo virus causing Aleutian disease in ferrets
B) Canine distemper virus
C) Canine influenza virus
D) Canine rotavirus
E) Feline distemper virus
36) Which of the species discussed in class is an important model for studying influenza
A) The cat
B) The dog
C) The ferret
37) The weasel war dance and dooking are normal behaviors seen in what species:
A) The cat
B) The dog
C) The ferret
38) If a ferret lives long enough it has a high chance of developing either an insulinoma or an
adrenal tumor.
A) True
B) False
39) Jills, if unspay and unbred, are at risk for a fatal bone marrow suppression caused by an
estrogen toxicity
A) True
B) False
ANS 424 Exam 4, Sp 2012
40) Ferrets do not appear to carry any serious nematode infections.
A) True
B) False
41) On average maternal derived immunity (antibodies) is shorter lived in cats than in dogs.
A) True
B) False
42) A feline clinical disease consisting of cerebellar signs can be the result of what viral
infection in the very young kitten?
A) Feline calici virus
B) Feline corona virus
C) Feline herpes virus
D) Feline parvo virus
E) FeLV
43) FeLV is more easily transmitted by casual contact and sharing of food and water bowls than
is FIV
A) True
B) False
44) FeLV is particularly dangerous in that the virus can recombine with endogenous retroviral
sequence and the resultant recombined strain can be transmitted to other cats.
A) True
B) False
45) The retro in retrovirus refers to the ability of the virus to go in reverse with regard to the
forward direction of the central dogma of biology
A) True
B) False
46) Rabbit young are:
A) Precocious
B) Altricial
47) When breeding rabbits, the following is true:
A) Take the doe to the bucks cage
B) Take the buck to the does cage
48) All of the following about rabbit reproduction is correct except:
A) A doe need a nest box 3 – 4 days prior to parturition
B) A doe pulls fur from dewlap and stomach to line the nest box
C) Litters are larger and more frequent in the Winter
D) Kits can easily be fostered to other does
E) A doe can rebreed 24 hours after kindling
ANS 424 Exam 4, Sp 2012
49) The golden hamster originated from wild animals of what country?
A) China
B) Europe
C) Mongolia
D) Russia
E) Syria
50) Hamsters are best described as?
A) Very territorial and best kept singly
B) Very social and best kept as pairs, which need to be established at weaning age.
51) Some golden hamsters have a documented genetic loss of delta sarcoglycan which leads a
muscular dystrophy affecting the heart especially
A) True
B) False
52) Hamsters have the shortest gestation of any placental mammal.
A) True
B) False
53) Gerbils were introduced to the USA in:
A) The nineteenth century
B) They were not introduced, since they native to the USA
C) 1912
D) 1954
E) 1978
54) Gerbils require a mesh type of cage floor surface.
A) True
B) False
55) Mouse hearing extends to the ultrasound range
A) True
B) False
56) Domestic mice originated in the Mediterranean basin 10,000 years before present and
migrated to Asia and India about 3,000 years ago.
A) True
B) False
57) The C line of mice which gave rise to inbred strains such as C57BL, were derived from
stock produced by Abbie Lathrop.
A) True
B) False
ANS 424 Exam 4, Sp 2012
58) The original anti-cruelty legislation in Britain of 1835 protected rats, and hence led to the
creation of strains of pet rats.
A) True
B) False
59) Rats are relatively resistant to obesity and hence can easily be fed free choice.
A) True
B) False
60) The staining seen around eyes of rats that may be stressed is related to compounds that build
up in the rats system, which is related to the fact that rats have no gall bladder.
A) True
B) False
61) Macaws tend to be very long, very large, and very long lived psitticines.
A) True
B) False
62) Hyacinth and indigo macaws constitute a separate genus distinct from other macaws.
A) True
B) False
63) A genus of true parrots, the amazona include some of the best talkers, ranked second only to
African Gray Parrots.
A) True
B) False
64) The bird fancy community is starting to develop color variants of companion animal parrots
including examples discussed in class of yellow naped parrot variants.
A) True
B) False
65) Amazons, as short bodied and relatively short tailed psittacines are classed with cockatoos
taxonomically.
A) True
B) False
66) Zygodactylism is a defining characteristic of all psittacines.
A) True
B) False
ANS 424 Exam 4, Sp 2012
67) One of the characteristics that may have made the Quaker Parrot (AKA Monk Parakeet) so
adaptable to the varied environments into which it has been introduced is that fact that it
comes from a temperate environment in south/central Argentina, versus a tropical or
subtropical environment.
A) True
B) False
68) What is false about cockatoos?
A) They are demanding companions
B) They are long lived
C) They can be in the wild either endangered or nuisance animals, depending on the
species.
D) They have an obligate need to eat eucalyptus leaves.
E) They may like to “cuddle”
69) One of the characteristics of Pionus parrots is a bare eye ring.
A) True
B) False
70) African Grey parrots include two subspecies; the Congo and the Timneh.
A) True
B) False
71) Passerine companion animals include all of the following except:
A) Mynas
B) Gouldian finches
C) Amazons
D) Canaries
E) Zebra finches
72) The cloacal temperature of sugar gliders is an inaccurate reflection of their core body
temperature.
A) True
B) False
73) The normal anatomy of sugar gliders includes fusion of the 2nd and 3rd digits of the hind leg.
A) True
B) False
74) Sugar gliders communal animals in the wild and can be kept as groups in captivity.
A) True
B) False
75) Estivation is analogous to hibernation.
A) True
B) False
ANS 424 Exam 4, Sp 2012
76) Hedgehogs are good pets because they are minimally active and have a very small natural
territory
A) True
B) False
77) It is not unusual for hedgehogs to froth at the mouth, salivate excessively and groom
themselves with the resultant slim, especially after eating a novel meal.
A) True
B) False
78) Some species of amphibians are excellent basic biomedical and developmental experimental
models, since they can regenerate limbs etc.
A) True
B) False
79) A defining characteristic of amphibians is the requirement to spend all of their life in water
A) True
B) False
80) Which of the following amphibians could be found in the wild in Iowa?
A) Hyla cineria
B) The Axolotl salamander
C) Fire bellied toad
D) Clawed frogs
E) Poison dart frog
81) Amphibians include all of the following except:
A) Amphisbaenians
B) Frogs
C) Newts
D) Salamanders
E) Toads
82) Fire bellied toads are remarkably long lived, living as long as some dogs.
A) True
B) False
83) Horned toads are by far the most popular pet frog or toad species.
A) True
B) False
84) Green iguanas are one of the few reptile food animals.
A) True
B) False
ANS 424 Exam 4, Sp 2012
85) For the most part, keeping exotic amphibians and reptiles involves keeping wild animals in
effect. As such, managed environments must address the natural needs of a given species.
A) True
B) False
86) Tortoises are distinguished from turtles and terrapins by their being land animals.
A) True
B) False
87) Green iguanas are exquisitely sensitive to Ca mineral balance and are subject to serious
disease if not fed properly and exposed to a certain amount of UV light per day.
A) True
B) False
88) Anoles are a group of new world lizards
A) True
B) False
89) Chameleons are demanding animals and hence not an ideal starter reptile/lizard for the
inexperienced enthusiast.
A) True
B) False
90) Geckos are a group of primarily insectivorous lizards adept at climbing due to their
lamellate feet, of which the Tokay Gecko is a difficult animal in terms of behavior, and not
an easily kept species.
A) True
B) False
91) Hard water is distinguished from soft water by a relatively ______ concentration of ______
A) Higher, minerals
B) Lower, minerals
C) Equal, minerals
D) Higher, nitrate
E) Lower, nitrate
92) Guppies show striking sexual dimorphism with the males being extremely brightly colored
and with elaborate tails.
A) True
B) False
ANS 424 Exam 4, Sp 2012
93) Siamese fighting fish are found in the rice paddies of which country.
A) Japan
B) Indonesia
C) Birkina faso
D) Bhutan
E) Thailand
94) Discus are large attractive cichlids from Africa
A) True
B) False
95) The pathogen Ich is what class of pathogen:
A) Parasitic
B) Bacterial
C) Viral
D) Fungal
96) New aquariums require a viable nitrogen cycle which can be started by all below except:
A) Increase the temperature to 80-82˚F
B) Using used gravel or used water filters
C) Adding drops of 100% ammonia
D) Adding drops of 100% chlorine
E) Adding raw food or shrimp
97) When managing snakes, a hot rock is to be avoided
A) True
B) False
98) The cobra is classed as an elapid snake.
A) True
B) False
99) All snakes are oviparous.
A) True
B) False
100) Snakes require low humidity for skin shedding.
A) True
B) False
101) In snakes, the male copulatory organs which can be checked for by probing or cloacal
popping are termed the hemipenes.
A) True
B) False
ANS 424 Exam 4, Sp 2012
102) Snakes reproduce in spring when prey species are abundant, and inducing reproduction
requires a long period of up to 3 months of very cool environment to induce.
A) True
B) False
103) Snakes rarely exhibit pronounced sexual dimorphism, a prominent exception of which is
the Leaf-nosed snake of Madagascar.
A) False
B) True
104)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The CERF exam evaluates what physiological systems
Eyes
The elbow joint
The heart
The hip joint
Thyroid gland function
105) One needs to blood type cats before breeding
A) True
B) False
106) One needs to test dogs for B canis before breeding
A) True
B) False
107) The Orthopedic Foundation for Animals will track/test for other conditions in addition to
orthopedic disease.
A) True
B) False
108)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which breed of cat is not at risk for type B blood associated complications:
British shorthairs
Devon Rex
Ragdoll
Siamese
Turkish Van
109)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Transmissible canine venereal tumors are caused by:
A bacterial agent
A retrovirus
A tumor cell line that has been in existence for thousands of years
A viral agent
B. canis
ANS 424 Exam 4, Sp 2012
110) While there are exceptions, in most cases of diseases where DNA tests are available, the
test is specific to an individual breed
A) True
B) False
111)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
All are signs of aggression in a dog except:
On greeting rolls on back and exposes belly
Protects food, etc
Resists being stood over
Resists discipline
Shows prolonged eye contact
112) In canines territorial aggression can be seen equally in males and females.
A) True
B) False
113) Competitive or sibling rivalry aggression in dogs is best treated by severe disciple of the
more dominant dog.
A) True
B) False
114) Inappropriate elimination (house soiling) in dogs can result for a number of medical
problems; hence a veterinary evaluation is indicated as part of a remedy.
A) True
B) False
115) Aggressiveness in a pre-pubertal bitch is potentially ameliorated by allowing her to go
through one heat cycle.
A) True
B) False
116) Extreme submissiveness including submissive urination, is potentially helped by
castration of both bitches and dogs before they reach full sexual maturity.
A) True
B) False
117) Acquiring a young aged matched companion for a dog can be a good idea
A) True
B) False
118) An increase in the number of cats in a house hold may increase the likelihood of
spraying.
A) True
B) False
ANS 424 Exam 4, Sp 2012
119) Castration of male cats is an effective means of addressing spraying
A) True
B) False
120) Maternal grooming and owner handling of pups in early life is associated with lower
incidence of stress related behaviors and poor growth.
A) True
B) False
121) In dogs, territoriality is established in the early adult period.
A) True
B) False
122) The two types of pheromones discussed in class include Releaser and Primer
pheromones.
A) True
B) False
123) Sound communication in dogs are cats is not thought to be terribly complicated but in
light of recent findings in animal communication, there may be ranges of communication
(high and low ultrasonic ranges), which have not been evaluated.
A) True
B) False
124) Cat facial expressions are more varied than a dog’s, with a dog being limited with
respect to the mechanism used to display their state of being.
A) True
B) False
125) Hunting and prey drive in dogs is increased in groups and may not be related to hunger.
A) True
B) False
126)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The following can be used to encourage defecation in dogs except:
Exercise after resting or sleeping
Walking after eating and drinking
Walking in an area with smells of previously soiled areas
All of the above can be used.
Only A and B can be used.
127) Male dogs scratch after elimination more than females
A) True
B) False
ANS 424 Exam 4, Sp 2012
128) Siamese pointed blue-eyed cat are usually deaf
A) True
B) False
129) Immune mediated diseases are effectively a failure of the bodies immune tolerance,
which involves, primarily, a breakdown in the innate immune response.
A) True
B) False
130) The immune system that involves B cell and T cell function are primary constituents of
which part of the immune system:
A) The innate immune system
B) The adaptive immune system
131) Excessive production of glucocorticoids is a characteristic of Cushing’s disease
A) True
B) False
132) When conducting food trials in dogs to identify triggers of atopy, one needs to substitute
all of the food intake, and continuing scrap and treat feeding will invalidate the trial.
A) True
B) False
133) Felines are commonly subject to acquired hyperthyroidism
A) True
B) False
134) German Shepherd Dogs are especially at risk for hemangiosarcoma
A) True
B) False
135) Immune mediated hemolytic anemia is seen at much higher incidence in Cocker
Spaniels.
A) True
B) False
ANS 424 Exam 4, Sp 2012