Core questions for 10th grade biology
Scientific method
1. Which of the following observations is qualitative and not quantitative?
a. Surveying the size of a goose population.
b. Observing the nocturnal behavior of coyote populations.
c. Recording the date when goose migrations begin every year.
d. Counting the number of goose nests that are robbed of eggs in an area.
2. What is true of all hypotheses?
a. They are true.
b. They are false.
c. They are testable.
d. They are indisputable.
3. In an experiment, what happens to the control group?
a. It receives no experimental treatment.
b. It receives experimental treatment last.
c. It receives experimental treatment first.
d. It receives more experimental treatments than the other groups.
4. In a controlled experiment, what do scientists measure?
a. how many dependent variables they have
b. how many independent variables they have
c. how the dependent variables change in response to changes in the
independent variable
d. how the independent variables change in response to changes in the
dependent variable
5. Regarding the scientific method, which statement is false?
a. Hypotheses are proven as absolutely true or false.
b. The control is not subjected to the experimental variable.
c. Statistical tests may be used to analyze the results of the experiment.
d. Results of the experiment are often summarized in a graph or table.
6. Which of the following is true about theories and hypotheses?
a. A hypothesis is highly tested, but a theory is not testable.
b. A hypothesis is a general explanation, but a theory is a specific prediction.
c. One hypothesis can lead to many theories.
d. Several related hypotheses can be incorporated into a theory
7. Each of the following steps is involved in scientific thought except
a. questioning ideas.
b. evaluating bias.
c. making observations.
d. expressing your personal opinions.
8. List the following steps of the scientific method in order from first (1) to last (4):
____ Collect experimental data
____ Making a hypothesis
____ Analyze the data
____ Make an observation
9. Look at the graph below. What is the dependent variable? What is the independent
variable?
Use the table below to answer question 10.
Students’ Observations of a Pond Ecosystem
Quantitative
Qualitative
37 fish and 3 frogs
Leaves lie on the bottom of the pond
2 types of aquatic grass
Water insects move along the water’s
surface
12 small rocks and 1 medium rock
All 3 frogs are sitting on a pond bank
sand
10. A group of students measured a ten-square-meter section of a pond ecosystem
and recorded observations. Which statement is a testable hypothesis?
a. The frogs living in the pond represent a population.
b. Water is an abiotic component in the pond ecosystem.
c. If the fish are given more food, then they will be happier.
d. If the frogs are startled, then they will jump into the water.
Introduction to biology
11. Which level of biological organization is composed of tissues?
a. Cell
b. Organ
c. Molecule
d. Atom
12. Look at the pictures below of the cheetahs and the paramecium ( a single-celled
organism). Then answer the question that follows.
Which of the following statements about the cheetahs and paramecium is false?
a. These organisms respond to their environment.
b. The cells of these organisms have the same basic structure.
c. Homeostasis and metabolism are important for the cheetah but not for
a paramecium.
d. Reproduction means that the organisms will be able to produce more
of their own kind.
13. We sent an unmanned spacecraft to another planet to detect other life forms that
might be quite different from those on earth. If the probe can only send back one
still picture, which property of life would be most evident?
a. Organization
b. Homeostasis
c. Growth and development
d. Response to stimuli
14. The smallest unit that has all of the characteristics of life is the
a. Cell
b. Tissue
c. Organ
d. Organism
15. Autotrophs obtain energy through ________________, while heterotrophs
obtain energy through ___________________.
a. photosynthesis, food eaten
b. decomposition, reproduction
c. food eaten, photosynthesis
d. reproduction, decomposition
16. Growth and/or development is not observed in the human organism during
a. childhood
b. adolescence.
c. repair of an injury.
d. death.
17. Which of the following is NOT an example of a response to a stimulus?
a. A plant growing towards the sunlight.
b. A caterpillar changing into a butterfly.
c. The pupil of the eye changes in size with changes in light intensity.
d. Stingers are discharged from the tentacles of a jellyfish when touched.
18. Give one advantage each of sexual and asexual reproduction.
19. Using a butterfly as an example, compare and contrast the processes of growth
and development.
20. Define homeostasis and give two examples of homeostasis in living things.
Biochemistry
21. Proteins are a major part of every living cell and have many different functions
within each cell. Carbohydrates also perform numerous roles in living things.
Part 1. Describe how the structures of proteins differ from the structures of
carbohydrates.
Part II. Describe how the functions of proteins and carbohydrates differ.
22. In the picture below, is one of many water molecules that would be found in a
beaker of water.
***Hand-draw picture***
Part I. Draw 3 additional water molecules surrounding the one given. Each
molecule drawn must be properly oriented to the molecule given.
Part II. Draw a box around 1 possible hydrogen bond in the above diagram.
Part III. Draw a box around a covalent bond in the above diagram.
Part IV. Label the partial charges on both hydrogens and the oxygen on one
molecule.
23. Which of the following organic molecules can never be used as a source of
energy?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Lipids
c. Proteins
d. Nucleic acids
24. Match the following organic molecules to the appropriate structures.
a. Carbohydrate
b. Lipid
c. Protein
25. Match the monomer to the appropriate polymer. Write the letter of the
monomers beside the corresponding polymer.
a. Amino acid
b. Monosaccharide
c. Fatty acid & glycerol
d. Nucleotide
1.
2.
3.
4.
Lipid ___
Carbohydrate ___
Nucleic acids ___
Proteins ___
26. Which statement is correct regarding acids and bases?
a. Acids increase the pH and bases decrease the pH.
b. Acids release hydrogen (H+) ions [or hydronium (H3O+) ions] and bases
release hydroxide (OH-) ions.
c. Acids are harmful but bases are not harmful.
d. Acids combine with bases to form sugars.
27. Which of the following is NOT a main component of living cells?
a. Aluminum
b. Hydrogen
c. Carbon
d. Nitrogen
28. Which word association is NOT correct?
a. Nucleic acid – DNA
b. Carbohydrate – steroid
c. Lipid – long-term energy storage
d. Protein – enzyme
29. Compounds are formed when
a. atoms of an element lose an electron.
b. atoms of an element gain an electron.
c. atoms of the same element join together.
d. atoms of two different elements join together.
30. What allows you to fill a glass of water above the rim without the water spilling
over the edge?
a. Cohesion of water molecules.
b. Breaking of the ionic bonding of water.
c. Balance between H+ and OH- ions.
d. The vibrational movements of water molecules.
Cell structure and function
31. Which statement best describes a difference between prokaryotic cells and
eukaryotic cells?
a. The presence of both DNA and ribosomes in prokaryotic cells indicates
that they are more complex than eukaryotic cells.
b. The larger size of prokaryotic cells indicates than they are more complex
than eukaryotic cells.
c. The presence of membrane-bound organelles in eukaryotic cells indicates
that they are more complex than prokaryotic cells.
d. The larger size of eukaryotic cells indicates than they are more complex
than prokaryotic cells.
32. Ribosome : protein synthesis :: nucleus :
a. Controlling cell activities.
b. energy release.
c. nutrient storage.
d. protein transport.
33. According to the cell theory,
a. the smallest unit of life is a nucleus.
b. animals but not plants are composed of cells.
c. a multicellular organism is composed of many cells.
d. new cells arise only from pre-existing cells.
34. Which is not a correct association of organelles and functions?
a. Lysosome – intracellular digestion
b. Cell wall – regulation of molecule passage in and out of animal cells
c. Vacuole – storage
d. Golgi apparatus (bodies) – packing materials for transport
35. If an active cell produces a material that will later be sent out of the cell, which is
the correct sequence of organelles through which that material would travel?
a. ER  ribosomes  golgi apparatus
b. Ribosome  ER  golgi apparatus
c. ER  golgi apparatus  ribosome
d. Golgi  ER  ribosome
36. Both plant and animal cells have mitochondria because they both
a. carry out photosynthesis.
b. have a large central vacuole.
c. have endoplasmic reticulum.
d. need ATP for energy.
37. Considering the history of microscopy, which of these organelles would have
been discovered first?
a. Ribosome
b. Nucleus
c. Lysosome
d. ER
38. Considering the measures of surface area and volume, explain why our bodies
are composed of trillions of very small cells rather than a few hundred very large
cells.
39. Besides the mitochondria, identify one similarity and two differences between
plant and animal cells.
40. Explain why complex organisms tend to be multicellular as opposed to
unicellular.
Cell Membrane and Transport
41. Why are phospholipids ideal for making up the selectively permeable cell
membrane?
a. They repel small ions
b. They react readily with water molecules
c. They form triple layers that insulate the cell
d. They have a nonpolar and polar region
42. A cell begins to swell when placed in an unknown solution. What can you
conclude about the solution?
a. The solution is isotonic
b. The solution is hypotonic
c. The solution is saturated
d. The solution is hypertonic
43. The movement of molecules against the concentration gradient requires the use
of energy from what molecule?
a. ATP
b. mRNA
c. Protein
d. Lipid
44. Proteins DO NOT easily pass through the phospholipid bilayer of cell membranes
because
a. The membrane is made of protein
b. They contain nitrogen
c. They are very large molecules
d. They cause digestion of the cell
45. Once a solute and solvent are evenly distributed in a solution, they will
a. Stop moving about
b. Move back toward a concentration of the solvent
c. Continue to move about but with no net movement to higher concentration
d. Be totally out of equilibrium
46. Using the above diagram and assuming K+ ions readily cross the cell
membrane, which statement best describes the movement of the K + ions.
a. Bottom to top
b. Top to bottom
c. Equally in both directions
d. The cell is already at equilibrium
47. Use the above diagram to answer the following question:
Which component of this plasma membrane contains a hydrophobic region and
acts as the primary barrier to most foreign substances.
a. Protein
b. Cholesterol
c. Carbohydrate chain
d. Phospholipid bilayer
48. Which of the following terms includes all of the others
a. Pinocytosis
b. Endocytosis
c. Active transport
d. Phagocytosis
49. Compare and contrast active and passive transport in terms of energy use and
concentration gradient
50. Differentiate between diffusion and osmosis by giving an example of each.
Cell Reproduction
51. Using the above diagram, which event most likely occurs next in the cell cycle
a. The chromatin condenses
b. The nuclear envelope dissolves
c. The chromosomes double in number
d. The cell membrane pinches inward to divide the cytoplasm
52. Mitosis and meiosis are processes by which animal and plant cells divide.
Which statement best describes a difference between mitosis and meiosis?
a. Meiosis is a multi step process
b. Mitosis occurs only in eukaryotic cells
c. Meiosis is used in the repair of an organism
d. Mitosis produces genetically identical daughter cells
53. What might happen if cytokinesis was omitted from the cell cycle
a. The daughter cells would die
b. The cell would lose its mitochondria
c. The daughter cells would not have nuclei
d. The cell would not divide into two daughter cell
54. If the total number of chromosomes in a cell is 6, then after mitosis there will be
a. 6 chromosomes in each daughter cell
b. 3 chromosomes in each daughter cell
c. 12 chromosomes in each daughter cell
d. 2 chromosomes in each daughter cell, one from each parent
55. If the total number of chromosomes in a cell is 6, then after meiosis there will be
a. 6 chromosomes in each daughter cell
b. 3 chromosomes in each daughter cell
c. 12 chromosomes in each daughter cell
d. 2 chromosomes in each daughter cell, one from each parent
56. In meiotic cell division, which phase is not repeated
a. Interphase
b. Prophase
c. Metaphase
d. Cytokinesis
57. Using 3 of the boxes on the diagram above correctly label fertilization, meiosis
and mitosis.
58. Which of the following increases genetic variation during meiosis?
a. Spindle fiber formation
b. Crossing over
c. Condensing of chromatin into chromosomes
d. Centromere formation
59. In terms of chromosome number why is meiosis (instead of mitosis) used to
produce gametes?
60. Contrast cytokinesis in animal and plant cells.
DNA and Protein Synthesis
61. A mutation occurs at the midpoint of a gene, altering all amino acids encoded
after the point of mutation. Which mutation could have produced this change?
a. Deletion of two nucleotides
b. Deletion of three nucleotides
c. Insertion of six nucleotides
d. Insertion of twelve nucleotides
62. Look at the picture below. Which of the following correctly identifies the
processes occurring at A and B?
a. replication and transcription
b. transcription and translation
c. translation and transcription
d. transcription and replication
63. If a species contains 23% adenine in its DNA, what is the percentage of guanine
it would contain?
a. 46%
b. 25%
c. 23%
d. 27%
64. Which is most directly responsible for the sequence of amino acids in a protein?
a. The sequence of codons in mRNA.
b. The number of codons in mRNA.
c. The proteins associated with rRNA.
d. The sequence of the anti-codons.
Questions 65–66 refer to the mRNA sequence CUC–AAG–UGC–UUC and the table below,
which lists mRNA codons.
65. Which of the following would represent the sequence of DNA from which the mRNA
sequence was made?
a. CUC–AAG–UGC–UUC
b. GAG–UUC–ACG–AAG
c. GAG–TTC–ACG–AAG
d. AGA–CCT–GTA–GGA
66. Which of the following represents the portion of the protein molecule coded for by
the mRNA sequence above?
a. serine–tyrosine–arginine–glycine
b. valine–aspartic acid–proline–histidine
c. leucine–lysine–cysteine–phenylalanine
d. glutamic acid–phenylalanine–threonine–lysine
67. What is the control variable in this experiment?
a. No hormone
b. Hormone A
c. Hormone B
d. Hormone A and B
68. What can you conclude about the effect Hormone B has on the rate of gene
transcription compared to the control treatment?
a. It increases gene transcription rate.
b. It decreases gene transcription rate.
c. It does not change gene transcription rate compared to the control.
d. It has a smaller effect on transcription rate than Hormone A does.
69. Explain how RNA differs from DNA.
70. Compare the roles of mRNA and tRNA in the making of a protein.
Genetics
71. A scientist observes that a certain trait is determined by a single allele. An organism
inherited one version of the trait from one parent and another version from the other
parent. Both versions of the trait are expressed in the phenotype of the offspring. Which
pattern of inheritance best classifies the observed trait?
a. dominance
b. sex-linkage
c. co-dominance
d. incomplete dominance
72. An organism that has inherited two of the same alleles of a gene from its parents is
______________ for that trait.
a. hereditary
b. heterozygous
c. homozygous
d. hemizygous
73. If a characteristic is X-linked, it
a. occurs mostly in males.
b. occurs only in males.
c. occurs mostly in females.
d. occurs only in females.
Questions 74–75 refer to the figure below, which shows a cross between two
rabbits. In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant to brown fur (b).
74. The fur in both of the parents in the cross is
a. black.
b. brown.
c. homozygous dominant.
d. homozygous recessive.
75. The phenotype of the offspring indicated by Box 3 would be
a. brown.
b. a mixture of brown and black.
c. black.
d. The phenotype cannot be determined.
76. If an individual with a dominant phenotype is crossed with an individual with a
recessive phenotype, four of their nine offspring show the recessive phenotype. What is
the genotype of the first parent?
a. AA
b. Aa
c. aa
d. The answer cannot be determined from this information.
77. If the genotype of an organism is YySsTt, then yST would represent
a. the genotype of the offspring.
b. a possible phenotype of the offspring.
c. a gamete of the parent.
d. a possible zygote.
78. A man with blood type AB could not be the father of a child with
a. blood type A.
b. blood type B.
c. blood type AB.
d. blood type O.
79. Crossing a snapdragon that has red flowers with one that has white flowers
produces a snapdragon that has pink flowers. The trait for flower color
exhibits
a. multiple alleles.
b.incomplete dominance.
c.complete dominance.
d.codominance.
80. What is the relationship between DNA, chromosomes, and genes?
Evolution
81. Which of the following is a way in which variations can arise in a population?
a. natural selection
b. mutation
c. crossing over during meiosis
d. both B and C
Use the graph below to answer the following question.
82. Tail length in mice varies within a population. Scientists observed change in the
distribution of tail lengths in a mouse population over time. At the genetic level, what
has most likely happened to the allele for the shortest tail lengths?
a. The allele changed from being dominant to being recessive.
b. The allele changed from being autosomal to being sex-linked.
c. The allele became less frequent than the alleles for longer tail lengths.
d. The allele began to code for long tail lengths instead of the shortest ones.
83. Which of the following best describes natural selection?
a. Individuals who adapt during their lifetime are more likely to survive and
reproduce.
b. Individuals born with certain favorable traits are more likely to survive and
reproduce.
c. There are little or no variations in populations, which makes adaptations rare over
time.
d. Individuals with little or no variation are more likely to survive and reproduce.
84. The frequency of an allele in a fly population changes from 89% to 20% after three
generations. Which other events most likely occurred during the same time period?
a. An environmental change and a fly population increase.
b. An environmental change and a fly population decrease.
c. Interbreeding of flies with an invasive species and fly population speciation.
d. Interbreeding of flies with an established local species and fly population
speciation.
85. If early Viking explorers in Greenland and North America had survived and become
the main ancestors of early North American settlers, rather than the mixture of
immigrants from across Europe and other continents, today there would be a much
higher incidence of Nordic traits in the US population. Such a scenario would
demonstrate
a. gene flow from continent to continent.
b. the founder effect.
c. genetic drift among the original Viking explorers.
d. directional selection.
86. What is the correct order of the steps regarding speciation?
a. one species  geographic isolation  divergent evolution  reproductive
isolation  two species
b. one species  reproductive isolation  divergent evolution  geographic
isolation  two species
c. one species  divergent evolution  geographic isolation  reproductive
isolation  two species
d. one species  geographic isolation  reproductive isolation  divergent
evolution  two species
Use the diagram below to answer questions 87-88.
87. The similarity of these structures suggests that the organisms
a. have a common ancestor.
b.evolved slowly.
c.all grow at different rates.
d.live for a long time.
88. An analysis of the DNA from these organisms would indicate that
a. their DNA is identical.
b. they all have tails.
c. their DNA sequences show many similarities.
d. they all have the same number of chromosomes.
89. Bulldogs have been bred by humans for increasingly large heads. This has made
the birthing process more difficult for the mother, and may decrease survival among
newborn pups. This intentional breeding is an example of
a. natural selection.
b. founder effect.
c. genetic drift.
d. artificial selection.
90. What is the difference between a variation and an adaptation?
Enzymes
Use the diagram below to answer question 91.
91. The diagram models how a poison bonds to the active site of an enzyme. Which
function is the enzyme most likely unable to perform because of the attachment of
the poison molecule?
a. The release of stored chemical energy,
b. The donation of electrons to the substrate.
c. The supply of activation energy for a reaction.
d. The catalysis of the reaction with the substrate.
Use the graph below to answer question 92.
92. The graph shows how the activity of an enzyme changes at different temperatures.
Which statement best describes what happens to the enzyme when the temperature
of the reaction reaches 63°C?
a. The enzyme is used up and the reaction stops.
b. The enzyme begins to decrease the rate of the reaction.
c. The enzyme continues to increase the rate of the reaction.
d. The enzyme changes shape and can no longer speed up the reaction.
93. Which method regulates enzyme action?
a.
b.
c.
d.
changing pH
changing temperature
a molecule of similar shape to the enzyme competes for the active site.
All of the above are correct.
94. During enzymatic action, the enzyme
a.
b.
c.
d.
becomes the product.
is used up.
and the substrate form a permanent complex.
and the substrate form a temporary complex but the enzyme is not used up.
95. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme?
a.
b.
c.
d.
lipase
maltase
urease
lactose
96. Each enzyme has particular substrate because enzymes
a.
b.
c.
d.
increase the energy of activation.
decrease the productivity of the cell.
always require coenzymes.
have active sites complementary in shape to their substrates.
Use the graph below for question 97.
97. The optimum pH for pepsin is
a. 2
b. 8
c. 3
d. 7
98. Enzymes
a.
b.
c.
d.
provide the energy for metabolic reactions.
speed up metabolic reactions.
act as a buffer in metabolic reactions.
raise the energy of activation for a reaction.
99. Describe the relationship between an enzyme, substrate, active site, and product.
100. Look at the graph below. Explain why enzyme activity increases between 0°C and
20°C.
Cellular respiration and photosynthesis
101. The main products formed during aerobic cellular respiration are energy,
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
oxygen and water.
oxygen and carbon dioxide.
water and carbon dioxide.
sugar and oxygen.
sugar and carbon dioxide.
102. The largest number of ATP molecules are produced in which part of the
respiration reaction?
a. glycolysis
b. transition reaction
c. Kreb’s cycle (citric acid cycle)
d. Electron transport system (chain)
103. The order of the major pathways and reactions of aerobic cellular respiration is
A.
B.
C.
D.
glycolysis – transition reaction – citric acid cycle – electron transport system.
electron transport system – glycolysis – transition reaction – citric acid cycle.
glycolysis – electron transport system – transition reaction - citric acid cycle.
citric acid cycle – glycolysis – electron transport system – transition reaction.
104. The main reason why organisms would use fermentation is
a. lack of oxygen.
b. lack of enzymes.
c. it produces the greatest amount of ATP.
d. lack of carbon dioxide.
105. Which statement best compares the energy transformations of photosynthesis and
cellular respiration?
a. Only photosynthesis uses oxygen to create energy.
b. Only photosynthesis causes an increase in kinetic energy.
c. Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both store energy in chemical bonds.
d. Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both require chemical energy to make
food.
106. The raw materials or reactants of the photosynthetic process include
a. glucose and oxygen.
b. carbon dioxide and glucose.
c. carbon dioxide and water.
d. carbon dioxide and oxygen.
e. glucose and water.
107. The substance that initially traps solar energy in photosynthesis is
a. chlorophyll.
b. RuBP.
c. water.
d. glucose.
108. The oxygen generated during photosynthesis is derived from
a. carbon dioxide.
b. water.
c. cytochrome.
d. glucose.
109. Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps for photosynthesis?
a. Calvin cycle  Photosystem I  Photosystem II
b. Calvin cycle  Photosystem II  Photosystem I
c. Photosystem I  Photosystem II  Calvin cycle
d. Photosystem II  Photosystem I  Calvin cycle
110. The Calvin cycle is dependent upon a supply of
a. water and carbon dioxide.
b. carbon dioxide and NADPH.
c. carbon dioxide, NADPH and ATP.
d. oxygen and carbon dioxide.
e. glucose and carbon dioxide.
Ecology
Refer to the following graph to answer questions 111.
111. Isle Royale is located in Lake Superior. Isle Royal is home to populations of
wolves and moose. The interactions between the wolves and moose, as well as the
individual population sizes, have been studied since 1958. The graph shows the
populations sizes over time for both wolves and moose. Explain 1 likely reason why the
wolf population increased between 1975 and 1980.
112. A researcher observing an ecosystem describes the amount of sunlight,
precipitation, and type of soil present. Which factors is the researcher most likely
describing?
a. biotic factors in a forest
b. biotic factors in a tundra
c. abiotic factors in a prairie
d. abiotic factors in an ocean
113. In a marine food web, there is a far greater mass of algae than of all the killer
whales. Why is this so?
a. whales are bigger than algae
b. an alga has more mass than a killer whale
c. whales don’t eat algae
d. it takes a massive amount of algae to support a food web with a killer whale at
the top.
114. In a meadow food chain, which is the correct sequence of the path of energy flow?
a. hawk snake  mouse grass
b. mouse  grass hawk snake
c. grass mouse snake hawk
d. snake  mouse  hawk grass
115. The maximum population that the environment can support for an indefinite period
of time is called the __________________
a. biotic potential
b. environmental resistance
c. carrying capacity
d. replacement reproduction.
116. The ultimate source of energy for producers and all consumers is
a. plants.
b. the sun.
c. algae.
d. the ocean.
Refer to the following diagram to answer questions 117-118
117. The figure above represents a
a. trophic net.
b. food chain.
c. food net.
d. food web.
118. The algae are __________________ while the leopard seals are
___________________.
a. producers, carnivore
b. carnivore, omnivore
c. producer, omnivore
d. carnivore, producer
119. Using the following terms, trace the cycling of water between the atmosphere and
the earth: Evaporation, transpiration, precipitation, surface run-off
120. Why are producers an essential component of an ecosystem