18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability Lecturer: Barwick Shadows are harshest when there is only one lamp. — James Richardson 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability Let’s get back to similarity. Suppose I have a basis {~π£1 , … ,~π£π } of Rπ , and suppose π΄ is an π × π matrix, giving us a linear map ππ΄ βΆ Rπ Rπ . Maybe ππ΄ is actually more interesting to us than π΄, and maybe {~π£1 , … ,~π£π } is a better basis for us than the standard basis. So we want to express the action of ππ΄ entirely in terms of {~π£1 , … ,~π£π }. 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability When we look at our chosen basis {~π£1 , … ,~π£π }, we can write each vector ππ΄ (~π£π ) in a unique fashion as a linear combination of the basis vectors: π ππ΄ (~π£π ) = ∑ π½ππ~π£π . π=1 We could have put all those coefficients together into a new matrix π΅ = (π½ππ ). We say that π΅ represents ππ΄ with respect to the basis {~π£1 , … ,~π£π }. If we’d done that with the standard basis, we’d have the matrix π΄ staring back at us. But with a different basis, π΅ isn’t π΄. So how do they relate?? 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability So, let’s make a nice invertible matrix out of our basis: π β ( ~π£1 β― ~π£π ) . We see that π΄π = ( ∑ππ=1 π½π1~π£π β― ∑ππ=1 π½ππ~π£π ) . On the other hand, ππ΅ = ( ∑ππ=1 π½π1~π£π β― ∑ππ=1 π½ππ~π£π ) . So π΄π = ππ΅, whence π΅ = π −1 π΄π. 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability This is a tricky concept. I like to think about this diagram: RπππΜ π΄ π −1 π R~ππ£π RπππΜ π΅ R~ππ£π 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability Definition. We say two π × π matrices π΄ and π΅ are similar if they represent the same linear transformation with respect to two different bases. Equivalently, π΄ and π΅ are similar if π΅ represents ππ΄ with respect to some basis. Equivalently, π΄ and π΅ are similar if and only if there is some invertible matrix π such that π΅ = π −1 π΄π. 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability 5 −3 ), and let’s write the matrix 2 −2 3 1 π΅ that represents ππ΄ with respect to the basis {~π£1 = ( ) ,~π£2 = ( )}. 1 2 Let’s do a quick example. Consider π΄ = ( 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability 3 1 π΅ = ( ) 1 2 −1 5 −3 3 1 )( ) 2 −2 1 2 ( −1 = 2 −1 1 ( ) 5 −1 3 = ( ( 5 −3 3 1 )( ) 2 −2 1 2 4 0 ). 0 −1 So our π΄ is actually similar to a diagonal matrix. 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability And what does that mean? The matrix π΅ that represents π΄ with respect to {~π£1 ,~π£2 } is diag(4, −1), so: π΄~π£1 = 4~π£1 and π΄~π£2 = −~π£2 . So the eigenvalues for the diagonal matrix π΅ are also eigenvalues for the matrix π΄. 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability In other words, ~π£1 and ~π£2 form a basis of eigenvectors for π΄. So π΄ is diagonalizable. 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability In fact, similar matrices always have the same eigenvalues, because they have the same characteristic polynomials: ππ−1 π΄π (π‘) = det(π‘πΌ − π −1 π΄π) = det(π‘π −1 π − π −1 π΄π) = det(π −1 (π‘πΌ − π΄)π) = (det π)−1 det(π‘πΌ − π΄) det π = det(π‘πΌ − π΄) = ππ΄ (π‘). 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability So now we understand our terminology: an π × π matrix π΄ is diagonalizable if and only if it is similar to a diagonal matrix diag(π1 , … , ππ ), where π1 , … , ππ are the eigenvalues of π΄ with multiplicity. 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability In other words, the following are logically equivalent for an π × π matrix π΄: (1) π΄ is diagonalizable. (2) There exists a basis for Rπ consisting of eigenvectors of π΄. (3) There is a basis {~π£1 , … ,~π£π } for Rπ such that the matrix that represents ππ΄ with respect to {~π£1 , … ,~π£π } is diagonal. (4) π΄ is similar to a diagonal matrix. (5) π΄ is similar to the diagonal matrix diag(π1 , … , ππ ), where the ππ ’s are the eigenvalues of π΄, taken with multiplicity. (6) There is an invertible π × π matrix π such that diag(π1 , … , ππ ) = π −1 π΄π. 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability There’s one more condition I’d like to add to this list. To describe it, we need some notation, which may work in unfamiliar way: suppose π, π, π are three vector subspaces of Rπ , and suppose π ⊆ π and π ⊆ π. Then we write π=π⊕π ~ with ~π£ ∈ π and if every vector ~π₯ ∈ π can be written uniquely as a sum ~π£ + π€ ~ ∈ π. π€ 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability Equivalently, π = π ⊕ π if π ∩ π = {0} and if every vector ~π₯ ∈ π can be ~. written as a sum ~π£ + π€ In other words, if π ∩ π = {0}, then ~ , where ~π£ ∈ π and π€ ~ ∈ π}. π ⊕ π = {~π₯ ∈ Rπ | ~π₯ = ~π£ + π€ 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability The important fact here is that dim(π ⊕ π) = dim(π) + dim(π). ~ β } of That’s because I can take a basis {~π£1 , … ,~π£π } of π and a basis {~ π€1 , … , π€ π, and I can put them together into a basis ~ 1, … , π€ ~ β }. {~π£1 , … ,~π£π , π€ So, in fact, if π, π, π are three vector subspaces of Rπ with π ⊆ π and π ⊆ π, then π = π⊕π if and only if: (1) π∩π = {0} and (2) dim π+dim π = dim π. 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability Note that if π and π are two different eigenvalues of an π × π matrix π΄, then πΏπ ∩ πΏπ = {0}; indeed, if ~π£ ∈ πΏπ ∩ πΏπ , then it is an eigenvector for both π and π. So π~π£ = π΄~π£ = π~π£. Thus (π − π)~π£ = ~0, and since π − π ≠ 0, we may divide by it to see that ~π£ = ~0. 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability Now we can add the last of our equivalent conditions for π΄ to be diagonalizable: (7) If π1 , … , ππ are the eigenvalues of π΄, then Rπ = πΏπ1 ⊕ β― ⊕ πΏππ . (The cool kids call this the spectral decomposition.) 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability Proposition. An π × π matrix with π distinct real eigenvalues is diagonalizable. Proof. Let π1 , … , ππ be the distinct eigenvalues. Let’s look at the corresponding eigenspaces πΏππ = ker(ππ πΌ − π΄), each of which has dim(πΏππ ) ≥ 1. We have already seen that if π ≠ π, then πΏππ ∩ πΏππ = {0}. 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability So we have Rπ , which is π-dimensional, and we have π different subspaces πΏππ , each of which has dimension ≥ 1, and no two of which intersect nontrivially. So dim(πΏπ1 ⊕ β― ⊕ πΏππ ) = dim(πΏπ1 ) + β― + dim(πΏππ ) ≤ π. But the only way for that to happen is if each dim(πΏππ ) = 1, in which case their sum is exactly π. Hence Rπ = πΏπ1 ⊕ β― ⊕ πΏππ , and so π΄ is diagonalizable. 18.06.26: More on similarity and diagonalizability So let’s think again about our two obstructions to diagonalizability of π΄: (1) Non-real eigenvalues. (2) Repeated eigenvalues with an undersized eigenspace. Spectral theorems are how we deal with point (2). We just proved one: an π × π matrix with π distinct real eigenvalues is diagonalizable over R. Next time, we’ll prove another: a symmetric matrix is diagonalizable over R. Eventually, we’ll pass to the complex numbers, and do linear algebra there.