Integrated
Markets
Part III
It’s the real thing
Real Interest Parity
Real interest rate (r)
Nominal interest rate (i)
i$ = r$ + p$e, p$e =
expected inflation, and
i¥ = r¥ + p¥e
Don’t You Just Love
Math!
If (i$
- i¥) = 4%, as before
Then, r$ + p$e - r¥ - p¥e = 4%
Or, (r$ - r¥) + (p$e - p¥e) = 4%
So, (r$ - r¥) = 4% - (p$e - p¥e)
What are
e
p$ &
e
p¥ ?
p$e 2%
Jpn inflation rate: p¥e - 2%
Therefore,
(r$ - r¥) (2 – (-2) - 4
And r$ - r¥ 0
US inflation rate:
Just What the Doctor
Ordered
Note that uncovered
interest parity has to be
true for real interest parity
to hold
If real interest parity does
not hold, and capital is
mobile, real interest parity
will hold
Purchasing Power Parity
The Law of One Price (LOOP)
Gold, silver, oil, and securities with
identical risk & return each have the
same price everywhere
That’s common sense
Actual applications may require
considerable disentangling of tariffs
& local taxes, transportation costs
Weaker
For real estate it clearly does not
work in any absolute sense
But, if humans were perfectly mobile,
would real estate prices become
uniform everywhere?
People are already very mobile;
comparable units in major cities have
become comparably expensive. How
about comparable rural locations?
Back to PPP
PPP is also common sense, but isn’t
that simple
What is a “representative market
basket of goods?”
Absolute PPP: ER = relative prices
Very strong assumption.
ER(¥/$) = P¥/P$
ER(¥/$) = P¥/P$
If ER = 110, as it does now
A New York salary of $100 a day is as
livable as a Tokyo salary of ¥11,000 a
day
An Alaska salary of $500.00 per week
is equivalent a Hokkaido salary of
¥55,000
A one week $3000 ecotourism
package in Maui should be identical
or similar to a ¥330,000 package in
Okinawa
Relative PPP
Using the above equation and a little
mathematics,
Ln(¥/$) = ln(P¥) – ln(P$),
Taking derivatives with respect to time,
%Δ(¥/$) = %ΔP¥ - %ΔP$
This equation says that the per cent
appreciation of the dollar should equal the
Japanese inflation rate minus the US
inflation rate
THE REAL EXCHANGE
RATE
RXR[¥/$] = ER[¥/$]*P$/P¥
In percentage change terms, this
means that
%∆RXR[¥/$] = %∆R[¥/$] + %∆P$ - %∆P¥
We know much about those last two
terms: US & JPN’s rates of inflation
Let’s use that knowledge
Long-Run Exchange Rate Changes
In general, MV = Py. Hence,
M$V$ = P$y$, & M$V$/y$, = P$,
M¥V¥ = P¥y¥ & M¥V¥/y¥ = P¥
OK, rearrange terms to get:
R(¥/$) = P¥/P$ =
(M¥/M$)(V¥/V$)(y$/y¥)
Reality Check
R(¥/$) = P¥/P$ = (M¥/M$)(V¥/V$)(y$/y¥)
Is this equation valid?
LHS: R(¥/$), has fallen recently, 120
to 110 (yen appreciation)
P¥/P$ has also fallen due to minor
deflation in Japan & minor
inflation in USA
So R(¥/$) = P¥/P$ is OK
What About the RHS?
Is (M¥/M$)(V¥/V$)(y$/y¥) falling?
We know that (M¥/M$) is rising
due to Japanese use of monetary
policy to stimulate the economy
We also know that (y$/y¥) is rising
due to faster growth rate in USA
Two of the terms are rising?
(M¥/M$)(V¥/V$)(y$/y¥)
This means that (V¥/V$) must be
falling rapidly enough to offset
the other two terms
What do we know about velocity
that could lead to that
conclusion?
Let’s Talk About
R(d/$) = Pd/P$ =
(Md/M$)(Vd/V$)(y$/yd)
d, of course, stands for dong
What about the currencies of
Korea, China, Europe?