NAME: _________________________________ DATE: __________________ PERIOD:__
*Study notes, quizzes, worksheets. Remember, part of your final will also include information about chemical reactions,
writing chemical equations and balancing equations.
Semester 1 Chemistry Final Review Part I
Chapter 1 and Lab Safety
1. The temporary answer that a scientist uses to guide an experiment is a
A) collection; B) law; C) record; D) hypothesis; E) all of these.
2. Scientists do not
A) search for evidence; B) have a good imagination; C) jump to conclusions;
D) test a hypothesis; E) share information with other researchers.
3. Scientific theories
A) always change; B) never change; C) change when new evidence is found;
D) always become laws; E) none of these.
4. The science dealing with the composition of materials and the changes in composition
which these materials undergo is A) biology; B) chemistry; C) physics; D) math.
5. Chemistry is the study of
A) electrons and protons; B) explosives; C) the production of new substances;
D) the properties, structure, and changes of matter.
6. A measure of not only the amount of matter but also of the effect of Earth’s gravitational pull on that matter.
A) mass B) weight C) volume D) matter
7. What should you do if you are unsure of a portion of the lab you are about to do?
A) begin the lab anyways
B) ask the teacher to explain it
C) don’t do the lab
D) none of the above
8. What should ALWAYS be worn in the laboratory at ALL times?
A) long pants B) contact lenses C) goggles D) all of the above
9. What should be done with your hair in the laboratory?
A) leave it down B) wear a hat to cover it C) tie it back
D) none of the above
10. If a fire breaks out from the Bunsen burner, what is the first thing you should do?
A) run and grab the fire extinguisher
B) turn off the gas
C) tell the teacher
D) throw a fire blanket on it
11. When heating a liquid in a test tube, how should you direct the mouth of the test tube?
A) towards yourself
B) away from yourself and others
C) towards your lab partner
D) none of the above
12. How long should you flush your eyes if you get a chemical, or think you get a chemical, in your eye?
A) 5 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 10 minutes
D) 20 minutes
13. What is the fifth step of the Scientific Method
A) make an observation
B) form a hypothesis
C) form a theory
D) design an experiment and collect data
Chapter 2 - Math of Chem and Data Analysis
14. A cube has a volume of 8.0 cm3 and a mass of 21.6 grams. The density of the cube, in grams per cubic centimeter,
is best expressed as
A) 2.7;
B) 2.15;
C) 0.37;
D) 0.73;
E) 0.98.
15. The mass of an object
A) is a measure of the gravitational force pulling the object toward the earth.
B) is a measure of the amount of matter in the object.
C) is a measure of the space occupied by the object.
D) varies with the altitude above the surface of the earth.
16. Three different observers measure the melting temperature of a substance and agree on the same value, but the
value they obtain does not agree with the accepted value. Their measurements can be described as
A) both accurate and precise.
B) neither accurate nor precise
C) precise but not accurate.
D) accurate but not precise.
17. The volume of an object is equal to
A) density x mass B) mass/density C) mass x inertia D) length x width
E) none of these.
18. Volume is measured in
A) liters; B) pounds; C) ounces; D) kilograms; E) none of these
19. A rectangular solid with dimensions of 6.0 cm x 5.0 cm x 3.0 cm has a mass of 135 grams. What is its density in
g/cm3 ?
A) 0.67 B) 1.5 C) 90 D) 135 E) 12,150
20. The number of millimeters in 0.620 centimeters is
A) 62.0; B) 0.062;
C) 6.20;
D) 620;
E) none of these.
21. What is the correct arrangement for metric prefixes in order increasing value?
A) micro, centi, kilo, deci
B) centi, milli, kilo, micro
C) milli, centi, deci, kilo
D) kilo, milli, centi, micro
22. The number of centiliters in 0.0576 kiloliters is
A) 5760; B) 576.0; C) 0.000576; D) 57600;
E) some other value.
23. If the density of an unknown material is 3.7 g/ml., and there are 25 ml. of it, what is the mass of this substance?
A) 0.148 g B) 92.5g C) 6.76 g D) 28.7 g
24. Write the following in scientific notation: 126000
25. Write the following in scientific notation: 0.0000017
Chapter 3 – Matter
26. A chemical change always results characteristically in a change of
A) state B) form C) matter D) size E) shape
27. The statement which describes a physical property of the element oxygen is
A) oxygen supports the burning of paper; B) oxygen is needed for the rusting of iron;
C) oxygen must be present for food to decay; D) oxygen has a density of 1.43 grams per liter;
E) oxygen is a component of water.
28. Which of the following is not a chemical change?
A) the dissolving of zinc by HCl
B) the exploding of gasoline
C) the corroding of a copper roof D) the boiling of water
29. One chemical property of a substance is a description of its
A) ductility B) density C) combustibility D) solubility E) none of these.
30. A new substance is formed as a result of a
A) physical change; B) chemical change; C) physical property; D) chemical property.
31. Chemical changes differ from physical changes because in chemical changes
A) new substances are formed. B) a change in mass occurs.
C) properties change. D) less energy change takes place.
32. When a substance changes and still retains its original properties, the change is called
A) chemical; B) exothermic; C) endothermic; D) physical.
33. All of the following are chemical changes except the
A) souring of milk; B) neutralization of an acid; C) rusting of iron;
D) tarnishing of silver; E) solution of sugar in water.
34. An example of a chemical change is the
A) condensation of steam B) corrosions of metals C) freezing of milk
D) dissolving of sugar E) none of these.
35. An example of a physical change is
A) burning; B) decaying; C) melting; D) rusting; E) oxidation.
36. Which of the following is a chemical property of matter?
A) color B) density C) flammability D) molecular mass E) vapor pressure
37. An example of a chemical change is
A) burning magnesium; B) boiling water; C) tearing paper; D) melting lead.
38. An example of a physical change is the
A) color change of leaves in the autumn; B) rust on a garden tool;
D) shredding a piece of paper
39. Matter exists as
A) elements, solids, metals, liquids.
B) elements, compounds, mixtures, solutions.
C) process called photosynthesis;
C) solids, liquids, gases, plasma.
D) solids, compounds, mixtures, liquids.
40. The state of matter characterized by both a definite shape and a definite volume is a
A) fluid; B) liquid; C) solution; D) gas; E) none of these.
41. The state of matter which has no definite shape or volume is
A) gas; B) liquid; C) solid; D) water.
42. Pure substances made of more than one element are called
A) compounds; B) mixtures; C) alloys; D) solutions.
43. An example of an element is
A) air; B) milk; C) mercury; D) salt; E) none of these.
44. A substance which cannot be further decomposed by ordinary chemical means is
A) water; B) air; C) sugar; D) carbon; E) steel.
45. Two solid substances that have been stirred together but not chemically combined
form a(n)
A) element; B) compound; C) mixture; D) suspension; E) solvent.
46. Air is a mixture because it
A) is colorless; B) is odorless; C) does not have a uniform composition; D) can be compressed.
Semester 1 Chemistry Final Review Part II
Chapter 4 – The Atom
47. Which is the mass number of an ion of potassium, K+, having 18 electrons, 19 protons,
and 20 neutrons? A) 36 B) 37 C) 38 D) 39
48. The atomic number of an element is the number of
A) neutrons in the nucleus; B) electrons in the outermost shell;
C) protons in the nucleus; D) electrons in the nucleus.
49. How many neutrons are present in an atom of silver which has a mass number of 108?
A) 14 B) 47 C) 61 D) 108
50. When Rutherford bombarded gold foil with positively charged alpha particles, most of the particles went through
but some were deflected back. Rutherford concluded that atoms A) are solid spheres. C) contain neutral particles. B)
have negative charges. D) have positive nuclei
51. The outermost energy level or valance of an atom can contain a maximum of
A) 5 orbitals; B) 7 orbitals; C) 8 electrons; D) 18 electrons.
52. The atomic number of an element is based on the
A) atomic mass. C) density of its vapor. B) mass number.
D) number of neutrons in atom. E) number of protons in atom.
53. The atoms of the isotopes of hydrogen
A) have one proton but differ in the number of electrons;
B) have one proton but differ in the number of neutrons;
C) have the same mass;
D) differ in the number of protons.
54. A nucleus having the following description: protons = 16 and neutrons = 15 would be in an atom of
A) P; B) H; C) Ga; D) O; E) S.
55. The mass number of an atom of iodine is 127, and the atomic number is 53. The number of protons in the nucleus
of this atom is A) 7; B) 53; C) 74; D) 127.
56. The particles which have equal but opposite electrical charges are
A) neutrons and protons; B) protons and electrons; C) electrons and neutrons; D) protons
57. Which of these statements is correct?
A) A proton is a negatively-charged particle in the nucleus.
B) An electron is a negatively-charged particle in the nucleus.
C) Neutrons and protons are charged particles in the nucleus.
D) A proton is a positively-charged particle in the nucleus.
E) none of these
58. Which of the following is a characteristic of an atom?
A) An atom is the smallest particle of matter.
B) All atoms are alike.
C) All atoms have the same mass, which equals l a.m.u..
D) An atom is the smallest particle of an element with the properties of the element.
59. The nucleus of an atom is
A) very large; B) positively charged;
C) electrically neutral; D) negatively charged; E) low in density.
60. What is the total number of neutrons in an atom having 24 electrons and a mass of 50?
A) 24 B) 26 C) 50 D) 74 E) none of these
61. The mass number of an element is the number of
A) protons and neutrons in the nucleus; B) free protons in the nucleus;
C) electrons and protons in the nucleus; D) electrons in all the shells.
62. A substance that contains only one kind of atom is called a(n)
A) compound; B) molecule; C) mixture; D) element.
63. The number of electrons in the neutral atom whose atomic number is 13 and whose atomic mass is 27 is
A) 13; B) 14; C) 27; D) 40.
64. A certain element has an atomic number of 7 and an atomic mass of 14. This means that there must be
A) 14 electrons in the nucleus of the element; B) 14 protons in the nucleus of the element;
C) 7 protons and 7 neutrons in the nucleus of the element; D) 7 protons and 7 electrons in the nucleus of the element.
Chapter 5 – Electrons in Atoms
65. Which of the following is the correct order for electrons filling in orbitals?
A) 1s, 2s, 2p, 2d C) 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d B) 2p, 3s, 3p, 3d D) 3p, 4s, 3d, 5s E) 4s, 3d, 4p, 4d
66. The electron dot arrangement around an atom of sulfur is
A) four single dots; B) four pairs of dots; C) two single dots;
D) three pair of dots; E) two single and two pair of dots
67. The electron dot arrangement of an atom of oxygen is
A) four single dots; B) four pair of dots; C) three single and one pair of dots;
D) two single and two pair of dots; E) two single dots.
68. Since an atom is considered to be electrically neutral, the number of electrons is equal to the number of
A) neutrons; B) protons; C) protons + neutrons; D) protons - neutrons.
69. The characteristic light spectrum of an element is produced when
A) the energy level of the neucleus is increased; B) electrons drop back to lower energy levels;
C) electrons are raised to higher energy levels; D) electrons are emitted by an atom.
70. If “n” represents the number of any energy level, how many orbitals are in that
energy level? A) n B) 2n C) n2 D) 2n2
71. The total number of electrons that can fill the “p” sublevel is
A) 3; B) 10; C) 6; D) 8; E) 14.
72. An orbital may never be
A) unoccupied; B). occupied by one electron; C) occupied by two electrons;
D) occupied by more than two electrons; E) as large as the shell itself.
73. The number of orbitals in the second energy level of an atom is
A) 1; B) 2; C) 3; D) 4; E) 5.
74. What neutral atom has the electron configuration ls2 2s22p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 ?
A) 11Na B)19K C) 20Ca D) 56Ba E) 17Cl
75. The total number of electrons that can fill the “d” sublevel is
A) 3; B) 14; C) 6; D) 5; E) 10.
76. What is the maximum number of electrons allowed in an orbital?
A) one B) two C) three D) six E) ten
77. The maximum number of “f” orbitals is
A) 1; B) 3; C) 5; D) 7; E) 10.
78. Which is the electron dot structure for the atom whose electronic structure is 1s 2 2s22p6 3s2 3p3 ?
A) X with two single dots B) X with 3 single dots
C) X with 3 singledots and one pair D) X with one single dot and 3 pairs
79. Which one is the correct electron dot symbol for a nitrogen atom?
A) N with three single dots and one pair C) N with three single dots
B) N with four single dots D) N with four pair of dots
80. Electron-dot symbols consist of the symbol representing the element and an arrangement of dots which
usually show the
A) atomic number B) atomic mass
C) number of neutrons D) electrons in the outermost energy level or valance.
Semester 1 Chemistry Final Review Part III
Chapter 6 – The Periodic Table
81. The properties of elements are periodic functions of their
A) atomic mass; B) atomic number; C) atomic diameter;
D) oxidation number; E) atomic and ionic radii.
82. The elements in the periodic table are arranged
A) in order of increasing atomic mass; B) with all the gases first, followed by the solids;
C) according to the volume of the atoms; D) in order of increasing atomic number.
83. Helium, neon, argon and krypton are in the same family of elements. This means that they
A) have similar chemical properties; B) were discovered by the same person;
C) can be decomposed into similar substances; D) have the same melting and boiling points.
84. The elements of the Noble Gas Family, except helium, have an outer shell of
A) 1 electron; B) 2 electrons; C) 8 electrons; D) 18 electrons; E) 32 electrons.
85 A vertical column of elements in the Periodic Table is known as a(n)
A) octave; B) period; C) series; D) group; E) triad
86. In the same group of elements the ionization energy tends to decrease with increasing atomic number. This is due
partially to the
A) decreasing size of the atom itself.
B) increasing forces of attraction.
C) outer electrons being closer to the nucleus.
D) outer electrons being farther from the nucleus
.
87. Which group of elements in the ground (non-energized) state would have electrons with an s2p3 configuration in
the outermost shell?
A) VA B) IIA C) IIIA D) IVA
88. The element having atomic number 9 most closely resembles in physical and chemical properties the element
having atomic number A) 10; B) 11; C) 17; D) 35.
89. The element having atomic number 11 most closely resembles the element having atomic number
A) 10; B) 12; C) 13; D) 18; E) 19.
90. A characteristic of all noble gases is that they all
A) have eight electrons in the outer shell; B) have low stability;
C) form many compounds; D) have stable outer electron shells.
91. Elements which are most closely similar in chemical properties
A) occur in only one period in the Periodic Table.
B) have the same number of protons.
C) have identical numbers of neutrons.
D) have the same number of electrons in their outer shells.
92. A horizontal row of elements in the Periodic Table is known as a
A) group; B) periods; C) family; D) octave; E) none of these.
93. What element in the fourth period has 2 valence electrons?
A) calcium B) iron C) arsenic D) selenium E) none of these
94. In Period 3, as the atomic numbers increase, the properties of the elements change in what order?
A) metal to non-metal to noble gas to metalloid
B) metal to metalloid to non-metal to noble gas
C) non-metal to metalloid to metal to noble gas
D) non-metal to metal to noble gas to metalloid
95. The number of the row of elements is the same as the number of
A) the energy level of the valence electrons.
B) electrons in an atom of that element.
C) protons and neutrons in an atom of that element.
D) elements in that particular row of the table.
96. Which of the following is the atomic number of a transition metal?
A) 20 B) 27 C) 33 D) 35 E) 92
97. The majority of the elements in the Periodic Table are
A) metals; B) non-metals; C) metalloids; D) noble gases.
98. In the periodic table, elements known as metals are
A) in one row; B) in one column; C) on the left side; D) on the right side; E) scattered evenly throughout.
99. Which element in Period 3 has both metallic and non-metallic properties?
A) Na B) Mg C) Si D) Ar E) B
100. The atomic number of a metalloid in Period 4 is A) 19; B) 26; C) 33; D) 36; E) 82.
101. An element which is definitely nonmetallic has the atomic number
A) 11; B) 9; C) 3; D) 4; E) 20.
102. An element with an atomic number 12 has an ionic charge of
A) zero; B) +1; C) +2; D) -2; E) none of these
103. A certain element has an atomic number of 84. What would be its ionic charge?
A) –1 B) –2 C) –3 D) +2 E) none of these
104.. An atom needs to gain 3 electrons to become noble-like. It has 16 neutrons. Identify this atom.
A) Al B) Bi C) P D) Li E) Sr
105. The periodic table contains:
A) 2 short periods; B) 2 unfinished periods; C) 7 periods; D) 18 periods.
106. The sodium atom contains 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 11 electrons. The sodium ion consists of
A) 12 protons, 11 neutrons, and 11 electrons; B) 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 12 electrons;
C) 12 protons, 12 neutrons, and 11 electrons; D) 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 10 electrons;
E) 12 protons, 9 neutrons, and 13 electrons.
107. The atomic number of copper is 29. The next element to the right in the periodic table is zinc. An neutral atom of
zinc has how many electrons?
A) 65 B) 30 C) 95 D) 35
108. The element with atomic number 7 is likely to have properties similar to the element whose atomic number is
A) 3; B) 11; C) 15; D) 17; E) none of these
109. How many elements would one expect in a row of the “d” block of the periodic table?
A) 5 B) 6 C) 10 D) 14 E) none of these
110. Which atom has the largest radius? A) Li B) Mg C) Fr D) Ga E) Ne
Chapter 7 and 8: Ionic and Covalent Bonding
111. When elements combine to form compounds
A) only the outermost electrons of the atoms are involved;
B) all the electrons of the atoms are involved;
C) the protons and electrons are involved;
D) only the protons are involved.
112. To indicate the number of atoms of an element in a compound, we use
A) a subscript to the right of the symbol; B) an exponent to the right of the symbol;
C) a subscript to the left of the symbol; D) a coefficient to the left of the symbol.
113. When the atom gains an electron, the resulting particle is
A) an ion; B) a molecule; C) an isotope; D) a neutron.
114. The ionic formula for calcium bromide is
A) CaBr2; B) CaBr; C) Ca2Br; D) Ca2Br2.
115. Which one of the following is a polyatomic ion?
A) Li3PO4 B) N-3 C) Ca+2 D) SO4-2 E) none of these
116. Identify the polyatomic ion in the list.
A) As+3 B) P2O5 C) Br2 D) NaCl E) NH4+
117. The symbol K+ represents one
A) atom of krypton; B) atom of potassium; C) ion krypton; D) ion of phosphorus; E) none of these.
118. Metallic atoms become ions by
A) losing protons; B) losing electrons; C) gaining protons; D) gaining electrons.
119. An example of a cation is
A) Ca+2; B) SO4-2; C) NO3-; D) Cl0; E) CH4.
120. Which is the correct formula for the combining of Ca with P?
A) CaP2 B) Ca3P2 C) Ca2P3 D) CaP3 E) none of these
121. The number of atoms of oxygen indicated by the formula Ca3(PO4)2 is:
A) 8; B) 7; C) 3; D) 4; E) 12.