ADC Preliminary Examinations 7./8. September 2006
Paper 1
1.
The term abrasion best describes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Loss of substance by chemical agent
Loss of substance by external agent
Loss of substance by the movement of tooth against tooth
The rapid loss of substance that is seen in the movement of porcelain crowns aganist
natural teeth
2.
Some days after preparation and filling of a shallow class I amalgam cavity the patient
complains of pain on biting. You would:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Perform vitality test
Replace filling with lining
Check for premature contacts
Remove all occlusal contacts from this filling
Tell the patient to wait 2-4 weeks, the pain will go away
3.
In a composite filling, the matrix band is for
A. Help shaping and contouring the filling
B. Prevent material to be pushed under the gingival margin
4.
The advantage of guttapercha over silver points is
A. The possibility for lateral condensation
5.
When do you make a fixed-moveable bridge?
A. When the abutment teeth don’t have the same path of insertion
6.
In a class II.2 malocclusion, which bridge design would be contraindicated for a missing
lateral upper incisor?
A. Cantilever bridge
B. Maryland bridge
7.
Which is the best cantilever bridge design for missing maxillary canine? Abutment on
A. Both premolars
B. Lateral and central incisor
C. Lateral incisor
D. First premolar
8.
A 9 years-old child who has sustained a fracture of a maxillary permanent central
incisor in which 2 mm of the pulp is exposed, presents for treatment 30 minutes after
injury. Which of the following should be considered?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Remove 1-2 mm of the pulp tissue surface, place calcium hydroxide and fill with resin
Remove 1-2 mm of the pulp tissue surface and cover with ledermix
Place calcium hydroxide directly on the exposed pulp
Pulpotomy using formocresol
Pulpectomy and immediate root filling
9.
In a flouridated toothpaste with 0.304% sodium fluoride the amount of flouride ions is
A.
B.
C.
D.
400 ppm
1000 ppm
1500 ppm
4000 ppm
10. The most important diatary habit for caries development is
A. Amount of sugar intake
B. Frequency of sugar intake
C. Form of sugar intake
11. The normal unstimulated salivary flow rate is
A. 0.02 ml/min
B. 0.2 ml/min
C. 2 ml/min
12. Titanium is used in dentistry
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
In a very pure form in implants
In an alloy with aluminium in casting for crowns and bridges
In an alloy with nickel in orthodontic wires
A and B
A, B and C
13. What is the reason for a tooth to develop pulpitis several years after setting of a full
veneer gold crown?
A. Bacterial microleakage
14. How is the regeneration process after damage by injury to odontoblasts working?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Proliferation of the remaining odontoblasts
Differentiation from fibroblasts
Regeneration from undifferentiated mesenchymel cells
Histodifferentiation from ectodermal cells
Differentiation from the inflammation cells
15. In construction of full dentures, what does the term “too low vertical dimension” refer
to?
A. A situation in which there is too much interocclusal space between upper and lower
artificial teeth when the mandible is in rest position.
16. Reversible pulpitis is characterized by
A. Pain lasts longer on hot or cold stimulus than normally
B. Patient can’t localize pain
C. Will have periapical involvement in radiograph
17. Irreversible pulpitis is characterized by
A.
B.
C.
D.
There is often a history of spontanous pain
Sudden throbbing pain
Pain can’t be localised when it reaches the periapical area
There is pain which lingers for a short duration after romoval of stimulus
18. What are the symptoms of internal resorption?
A. Very painful
B. Symptom-free or only mild pain
19. What kind of root fracture in a tooth has the best prognosis? A fracture at the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Apical third
Coronal third
Middle third
Vertical fracture
20. What will develop after prophylaxis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Acellular pellicle is formed immediately after
Cellular pellicle is formed immediately after
Acellelar pellicle is formed after 48 hours
Cellular pellicle is formed after 48 hours
21. What is the purpose of making a record of protrusive relation and what function does it
serve after it is made?
A. To register the condylar path and to adjust the inclination of the incisal guidance.
B. To aid in determining the freeway space and to adjust the inclination of the incisal
guidance.
C. To register the condylar path and to adjust the condylar guides of the articulator so that
they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient.
D. To aid in establishing the occlusal vertical dimension and to adjust the condylar guides of
the articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient.
22. A 50 years-old patient presents with pain from time to time on light cervical abrasions.
What is your first management to help patient in preventing pain in the future?
A. Change diatary habits
B. Change brushing habits
C. GIC fillings
23. In planning and construction of a cast metal partial denture the study cast
A. facilitates the construction of custom trays
B. minimizes the need for articulating
C. provides only limited information about inter ridge distance, which is best assessed
clinically
D. can be used as a working cast when duplicating facilities are not available
24. What are the artificial teeth in removable dentures made of?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Porcelain
Cross-linked methyl-methacrylate
Ethyl-methacrylate
Acrylic
25. Following extraction of the molar teeth
A.
B.
C.
D.
The ridge height is lost more from the maxilla than from the mandible
The maxillary ridge will get more bone lost from the palatal aspect than the buccal
The mandibular arch is relatively narrower than the maxillary arch
Compared with the pre-resorption state, the mandibular ridge will lose more bone from
the lingual aspect than the buccal one.
26. Which anatomical landmark is important to include in impressions for lower full
dentures?
A. Mylohyoid ridge
B. Lower incisive papilla
27. Wrought metal is to be,
A. Marble
B. Quenched
C. Has undergone cold treatment during processing
28. Which of the following is ONE indication for indirect pulp capping?
A. When further excavation would lead to pulp exposure
B. Excavation of a very deep caries
29. How does fluoridation work in theory?
A. Fluoride ions are integrated by changing Hydoxylapatite to Fluorapatite
30. A major difference between light cured and chemical cured composite is that during
setting or in function the light cured materials tend to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Seal the margins better and completely
Exhibit less wear on time
Undergo greater colour change
Shrink more rapidly
Posses greater fracture toughness
31. What consideration is important in deciding if a bridge for upper missing incisors should
be made in pontic design or with gingiva imitation?
A. Wishes of patient
B. Bone resorption in edentoulos span
32. The most common cause of porosity in porcelain jacket crowns is,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Moisture contamination
Excessive firing temperature
Failure to anneal the platinum matrix
Excessive condensation of the porcelain
Inadequate condensation of the porcelain
33. How should the occlusion in partial removable dentures be designed?
A. Artificial teeth should be out of occlusion
B. Artificial teeth should not interfere with the incisal guidance established by the remainig
natural teeth.
34. The minimal labial tooth reduction for satisfactory aesthetics with porcelain fused to
metal crown is,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1mm
The full thickness of enamel
1.5 mm
2.5mm
One third of the dentine thickness
35. In removable partial denture, the principle of an indirect retainer is to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stabilise against lateral movement
Prevent settling of major connectors
Restrict tissue movement at the distal extension base of the partial denture
Minimise movement of the base away from the supporting tissue
36. When a removable partial denture is terminally seated the retentive clasps tips should:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Apply retentive force into the body of the teeth
Exert no force
Be invisible
Resist torque through the long axis of the teeth
37. Glass Ionomer Cement sets because of,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Acid-Base reaction
Addition polymerisation reaction
Growth of glass crystals
Slip plane locking
Solvent evaporation
38. The reflex in gagging patients is caused by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Trigeminal nerve
Glossopharyngeal
Facial nerve
Recurrent laryngeal
39. The use of nickel chromium in base plate should be judiciously considered because:
A. A significant number of females are allergic to nickel
B. A significant number of females are allergic to chromium
C. A significant number of males are allergic to nickel
40. Which of the following liquids is not suitable for prolonged immersion of cobalt
chrome partial dentures:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alkaline peroxidase
Sodium hypochlorite
Soap solutions
Water
41. In complete dentures, cheek biting is most likely a result of:
A. Reduced Overjet of posterior teeth
B. To high vertical dimension
C. Teeth have large cusp inclines
42. The most common cause of fracture at the isthmus of a class II dental amalgam
restoration is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Insufficient condesation
Fracture line developing from pulpal-axial angle of the cavity
Underconturing of the isthmus area
Moisture contamination of the amalgam during placement
Inadequate bulk of amalgam at pulpo-axial line angle
43. Why do you overpack amalgam fillings?
A. To remove excess mercury
44. What is CORRECT in regard to the periodontal surface area in maxillary teeth:
A.
B.
C.
D.
central incisor > first premolar> second premolar
Canine> first premolar> central incisor
Canine> lateral incisor> second premolar
Canine> central incisor> first premolar
45. When restoring with composite resins, why do we do the cavo-surface bevelling:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Aesthetic
To open enamel rods for acid attack
To smooth preparation
A and B
All of the above
46. A well constructed complete denture:
A. Needs little maintenance
B. Needs less than a week for adjustment and total success
C. Has adverse effects and decreases taste sensations
47. On examination of a composite restoration you find a dark attain:
A. Replace the composite
B. Repair with unfilled resin
C. Apply topical fluoride at the margin
48. A patient complains of sensitivity, on examination you find a composite filling
restoring a good cavity preparation without any secondary caries; what is your next
step:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Extirpate the pulp that is obviously inflamed
Place ZOE dressing to sedate the pulp
Ask patient to come back in six months
Repeat restoration
49. What is the best way to cement a Maryland bridge,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
GIC
Resin cement
Composite resin
Zinc Phosphate cement
Oxide Zinc and eugenol
50. The ideal length of a post in the fabrication of crown and core of endodontically
treated tooth is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
2/3 of tooth
the tooth length
1.5 times that of the crown
½ root length
The length of the crown
51. While you finish a class I cavity, the enamel is sound but you notice a thin brown line
in the dentine and on the dentino-enamel junction, what is your response,
A. You leave it and complete the final restoration
B. You extend your preparation and clean it
C. You apply a cover of varnish
52. Dental caries of the proximal surfaces usually starts at,
A.
B.
C.
D.
Somewhere between the ridge and the contact area
Just gingival to contact areas
Just above the gingival margin
At the contact point
53. The Frankfort plane is defined by which anatomocal landmarks,
A. Porion, orbitale
B. Sella, orbitale
C. Nasion, Tragus
54. The biting load of a denture base to the gingival tissues compared to teeth are,
A. Ten times more
B. Ten times less
C. Equal
55. The difference between normal stone and the dye stone is,
A. In the size and shape of the particles
B. The mixing
56. The advantage of the silicone in soft relining material over hard plastic acrylic
materials is,
A.
B.
C.
D.
Capability to flow
Prevents the colonization of Candida albicans
Resilient in long run
Better bond strength
57. A female patient comes to you complaining of persistent pain in a heavily restored
central incisor; you suspect irreversible pulpitis and you have been told that she is in
transit leaving by plane next day. Your treatment will be,
A.
B.
C.
D.
Remove filling and place a sedative dressing
Pulpectomy and Ledermix dressing
Pulpectomy and calcium hydroxide dressing
Prescribe analgesics and systemic antibiotic
58. The flexibility of the retentive clasp arm does not depend on:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Length of the arm
The cross section shape
The material used
Degree of taper
The exerted force
59. Following calcium hydroxide pulpotomy, the dentist would expect dentine bridge to
form at,
A. The exact level of amputation
B. Level somewhere below the amputation
C. Half way between amputation and apex
D. At the apical region of the tooth
60. In the construction of a full veneer gold crown, future recession of gingival tissue can
be prevented or at least minimised by,
A.
B.
C.
D.
Extension of the crown 1 mm under the gingival crevice
Reproduction of normal tooth incline in the gingival one third of the crown
Slight over contouring of the tooth in the gingival one fifth of the crown
Slight under contouring of the tooth in the gingival one fifth of the crown
61. What is correct in regard to high copper amalgam,
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reacts and strengthens the amalgam by its dispersion properties
Reacts to form copper-tin phase thereby eliminating the tin-mercury phase
Reacts to form copper-silver phase thereby eliminating the silver mercury phase
Reacts and strengthens the amalgam by its grain diffusion
62. The removable partial denture requires relining,what would be the most appropriate
action,
A. take an impression by asking the patient to occlude on it
B. Provide equal space between denture and gingival tissues.
C. Make sure the framework and retainers are seated in place before taking impression
63. Stiffness of material is measured by
A.
B.
C.
D.
Proportional unit
Modulus of elasticity
Stress/ strain
Ultimate tensile strength
64. Two central incisors on a radiograph are showing with what looks like eye drop
radiolucency. You decided to start endodontic treatment on these teeth but when you
tried to open access to the root canal you find clearly closed orifices with what look like
secondary dentine. What is your initial management?
A. Leave as it is and start a permanent restoration.
B. Start systemic antibiotic
C. Try to ream and file canals
65. After the initial development stage and in the absence of pathology, the size of the pulp
chamber has been reduced by,
A. Deposition of primary dentine
B. Deposition of secondary dentine
C. Reparative dentine
D. Pulp fibrosis
E. Deposition of reparative dentine
66. Denture stomatitis is commonly associated with,
A.
B.
C.
D.
The continuous wearing of removable orthodontic appliances in otherwise healthy patient
The proliferation of hypertrophic tissue at the denture periphery
The overgrowth of some constituents of oral normal microflora
Allergy to denture base material
67. The light emitted by the polymerization lamp has to be checked from time to time. The
meter used for this only measures light in the range of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
100-199 nm
200-299 nm
300-399 nm
400-499 nm
68. Which is correct in regard to shade selection of crowns:
A.
B.
C.
D.
It should be selected before starting preparation
Chroma is the lightness/darkness of colours
Value is the colour itself
Hue is the concentration of colours
69. Where would you expect to find the mylohyoid muscle in relation to the periphery of a
full lower denture:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mandibular buccal in the midline
Mandibular lingual in the first premolar area
Mandibular lingual in the midline
Mandibular disto buccal area
70. After reimplantation of an avulsed tooth the prognosis may be poor because of
A. External resorption
B. Internal resorption
71. 2.2 mg of NaF contains how many mg of fluoride ions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.5mg
1.0 mg
1.5mg
10mg
72. How would you treat denture stomatitis?
A. Nystatin
B. Tell the patient to leave the denture out for some days
73. What is true about third molar surgery?
A. Swelling is maximum after 24 - 48 hours
B. Mental paraesthesia indicates careless technique
74. ?
A. Extension of denture beyond mylohyoid ridge leads to pain in swallowing
75. ?
A. Plaque removal in case of exposed roots is important as plaque opens the dentinal tubules
and causes spread of caries.
Paper 2
1.
During swallowing, a) suprahyoid muscles relax b) masseter muscle contracts c)
tongue touches the palate d) teeth have contact
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
a and b
a, c and d
a, b and c
None of the above
All of the above
2.
In anaesthizing a 70 kg healthy man with Lignocaine 2% with 1:100,000
vasoconstrictor,what is correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The toxic threshold is 22 ml
2.2 ml is the maximum you can give in one session
Lignocaine has the same anaesthizing capacity as Benzocain and A...
Lignoscain is 5 times less potent than Bupivacain
Lignocain is more dangerous in Hypothyreodism than Bupivacain
3.
A suddenly swollen upper lip that lasts for 48 hours or more is most likely
A.
B.
C.
D.
Haemangioma
Agioneurotic oedema
Mucocele
Cyst
4.
What is the most important factor to reduce radiation in dental radiographs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Speed of film
Collimation
Filtration
Cone shape and length
Use of lead apron
5.
What is the best way for a permanent decline in caries of a population?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Change diatary habits
Topic and water fluoridation
Awareness of dental health matters
Better tooth brushing
6.
A patient in your dental chair shows chest pain, weak pulse and dysponea, what is your
initial management,
A. Administer nitro-glycerine and keep the patient up seated
B. Put the patient in supine position
C. Wait until the symptoms go away
7.
Developer was contaminated with other chemical and was not mixed properly. What is
the effect on the X-ray film?
A. Too dark film
B. Light film
C. Foggy
8.
Branchial Cleft cyst is located
A. In front of the neck
B. On anterior border of the Sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. Shows when swallowing
9.
What is the approximate unstimulated salivary flow rate,
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 ml/min
0.2 ml/min
0.02 ml/min
20 ml/min
10. Some hours after the extraction of a lower molar the patient complains of prolonged
post operation bleeding and pain, how would manage this,
A. Prescribe analgesics and ask the patient to follow a strict oral hygiene
B. Administer 5% Marcaine Local Anaesthetic, prescribe analgesics and pack the socket
with alvogyl
C. Administer 5% Marcaine Local Anaesthetic, suture the socket and prescribe analgesics
D. Suture and give pressure packs
11. A Gracey curette is characterized by
A.
B.
C.
D.
The blade and the shank form a 90º angle
Can be used on both sides
Can be used on any tooth surface
It is specific for each surface of the tooth
12. A patient with no positive history came along for scaling. The moment you pick up
your anterior scaler you punch your finger, what should you do?
A. Complete the procedure as if nothing has happened
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Check dentist’s blood for Hepatitis B antibody HBsAb
Check dentist’s blood for Hepatitis B antigen HBsAg
Check patient’s blood for Hepatitis B antibody HBsAb and HIV antigen HIVAg
Check patient’s blood for Hepatitis B antigen HBsAg and HIV antibody HIVAb
Dentist should go and take a HBsAb vaccine
13. A patient on the dental chair has cardiac arrest. What is INCORRECT,
A. Observing the vital signs and check that the air way is clear is at high importance
B. Expired air has 15% O2 only, and cardiac compressions achieve 30-40% of cardiac output
C. Intermittent positive pressure at the rate of 40/min will reduce the chances of cerebral
hypoxia
D. Intermittent positive pressure is better than mouth to mouth when it has been given at the
same rate.
E. You check the pulse and respiration of the patient before starting any resuscitation
14. The best radiograph for investigating the maxillary sinus is,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Periapical radiograph
Panoramic view
Lateral cephaloghraph
Occipitomental view
Reverse Towne’s view
15. Which is true in regard to osseointegration of implants in dentistry?
A. The osseointegration is directly between titanium and bone
B. Following insertion, implants can be immediately loaded without problem
C. The success of the implants is directly proportional to its area of contact with bone and
the bond is mechanical in nature
D. The success of the implants depends mostly on low torque preparation and insertion of
the fixture
E. The success of integration is accurately investigated by immediate radiographic
examination
16. Loss of sensation/paraesthesia in the lower lip may be produced by,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Bell’s palsy
Traumatic bone cyst
Trigeminal neuralgia
Osteomyelitis
Ludwig’s angina
17. In anxoius and psychologically stressed patients gingivitis is often more severe because
of
A. Stress causes histamine and serotonine release
B. Stress causes catecholamine and corticosteroid release
C. Stressed people neglect their oral hygiene
18. A retained lower primary incisor causes the permanent incisor to
A. erupt buccally
B. erupt lingually
C. ankylise
19. What is the least probable consequence in thumb-sucking?
A. Reclining of lower incisors
B. Protrusion of upper incisors
C. Formation of deep palate with big overbite
20. Ankylosis of teeth is often found after changes in the continuity of the occlusal plane.
These changes are caused by
A. Overeruption of opposing teeth
B. Localised growth inhibition of the alveolar bone
C. Sinking of ankylised tooth into the bone
21. What is not important in obduration materials for primary teeth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Good apical seal
Radioopacity
Antibacterial
Resorbable
22. What is your first consideration in the treatment of dry socket?
A. Prevention of osteomyelitis
B. Pain relief
23. A patient presents with pain in the upper left segment. On inspection you find a localized
alveolar abcess distal 27. What will be you management?
A. Drainage
B. Extraction of tooth
24. What does not help in establishing the caries risk in children?
A. History of caries
B. Lactobacillus count
C. Dietary habits
D. Brushing habits
E. Genetic predisposition
25. Opioid drugs are similar to which endogenous substances?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Bradykinins
Peptides
Prostaglandins
Serotonins
Enkephalins
26. Which of the following have a tendency to recur if not treated correctly?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Giant cell granuloma
Lipoma
Fibrous epulis
Haematoma
Pulp polyps
27. A 22 year old woman has acute gingival hypertrophy, spontaneous bleeding from the
gingiva and complains of weakness and anorexia. Her blood analysis was as follows:
HB=12gm, Neutrophils=90%, Monocytes=1%, Platelets=250000, WBC=100000,
Lymphocytes=9%, Eosinophils=0%. The most likely diagnosis is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Myelogenous leukaemia
Infectious mononucleosis /glandular fever/
Thrombocytopenic purpura
Gingivitis of local aetiological origin
Pernicious anaemia /Vitamin B12 deficiency/
28. When no radiation shield is available, the operator should stand out of the primary xray beam at a distance from the patient’s head of at LEAST:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
0.5 metres
1 metre
1.5 metres
2 metres
3 metres
29. Which of the following is a typical consequence of dental crowding, assuming no
primary tooth has been lost prematurely?
A. Overlapping of lower incisors
B. Palatal displacement of upper canines
C. Impaction of 15 and 25 between first premolars and first molars
D. Mesial tipping of 16 and 26
E. Rotation of 16 and 26
30. What is the dominant microflora in acute necrotic ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Spirochaetes and fusobacterium SP
Spirochaetes and eikenella corrodes
Polymorphs and lymphocytes
Actinobacillus actinomycetes comitans oral capnocytophaga
Porphyromonas gingivalis and prevotella intermedia
31. Which of the following is true regarding gingivosis (Desquamative gingivitis)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
It is caused by hormononal imbalance
Is seen only at or after menopause
Is frequently caused by lichen planus
Is a variant pregnancy gingivitis
Is related to nutritional disturbance
32. What are the points that determine the facial line in cephalometric points (The angle of
the convex facial line)?
A. Nasion, pronasale, pogonion.
B. Sella, nasion, pogonion
33. A 10 year old boy presents with small greyish white lesion surrounded by a red halos
on the soft palate and tonsillar pillars, small vesicles are found. He has fever and pain
in the ear and won’t eat. The MOST probable diagnosis is?
A. Herpangina
B. Measles
C. Primary herpetic stomatitis
34. A 12 years-old child presents with symptoms of widespread gingivitis with bleeding and
general malaise for several weeks. How would you manage this patient?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Prescribe Metronidazole 100mg
Locally debride, give oral hygiene instruction and prescribe H2O2 mouth wash.
Give a prophylaxis with ultra sonic scaling
Refer for haematological screening
Advise for bed rest with supportive and palliative treatment
35. What is the effect of office dental prophylaxis of regular six month intervals on
children’s oral health?
A. Reduced caries incidence by approximately 30%
B.
C.
D.
E.
Provide a long term improvement in oral hygiene
Provide a short term improvement in oral hygiene
Prevent gingivitis
Reduce the need for patient cooperation
36. What is the most frequent cause of pain which occurs several days after obturation?
A. Entrapped Bacteria in the periapical region
B. Underfilling the root canal system
C. Overfilled root canal
37. A diabetic patient with moist skin, moist mouth and weak pulse; what would you do:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Give glucose orally
Administer O2
Administer adrenaline
Inject insulin
38. The laboratory findings in Paget’s disease show:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Elevated calcium, elevated phosphate, and elevated alkaline phosphate.
Normal calcium, normal phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphate
Decreased calcium, increased phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphate
Increased calcium, normal phosphate and decreased alkaline phosphate
Normal calcium, increased phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphate
39. A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the
dental chair. Your initial response is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position
Patient has an acute episode of angina as demonstrated by curve in ECG
No treatment is required until confirmed as MI by ECG
Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG
40. In the case of malignant melanoma occurring intraorally, which of the following is
true:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Uncommon on the palate
Should not be biopsied, as this will increase metasis
The 5 years survival rate is 20%
The incidence of oral melanoma is the same as those on the skin
Commonly occurs intra orally
41. What is NOT TRUE in relation to the use of diazepam for sedation?
A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache
B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour
preoperatively
C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side effects
D. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post operatively
E. Can be used safely for children
42. Topical fluoridation in a 14 years-old boy will not lead to mottling because
A. Teeth are already calcified
43. Patient on anti-coagulant therapy requires an extraction to be performed. Which of the
following is NOT true:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Minor leedings bleeding can be reduced somehow by using tranexamic acid
Prothrombin value above 2.5 is required to perform extraction
It takes up to 12 hours for Vitamin K reverse effects of warfarin
Heparin can be administered sub-cutaneous and acts rapidly
44. A physician refers a nine year old boy to you to confirm diagnosis. The boy has a fever
of 40°C and coughing. When you focus your light into his eyes he turns away. Intraorally there are white spots surrounded by red margins. The disease and lesions are:
A. Measles and the spots are Koplik’s spots
B. AHGS vesicles
C. Rubella and the spots are Fordyce’s spots
45. What is true in TMJ dysfunction therapy?
A. Should be treated surgically
B. Appliances that raise the bite usually relief the symptoms and are used prior to any
surgery
46. What is true regarding pregnancy gingivitis?
A. It is due to increased gingival microcirculation
B. Elevated oestrogen and gestagen levels are directly responsible
C. Hormonal changes cause the growth of anaerobic bacteria (Prevotella intermedia)
47. 5 mm probing depth means:
A. Patient has periodontitis
B. Probe is 5 mm beyond gingival margin
C. Probe is 5 mm beyond dentino-enamel junction
48. A middle aged woman gives a history of intermittent unilateral pain in the sub
mandibular region, most probable cause is,
A.
B.
C.
D.
Calculus in the salivary duct resulting in sialolithiasis.
Ranula
Cyst
Mucocele
49. By which of the following mechanism reduces Aspirin pain:
A. It is anti inflammatory by the release of histamine
B. It blocks the cyclo-oxygenase pathway.
50. What is the danger of using air as a cooler during cavity cutting:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Hypersensitivity
Odontoblasts are drawn into the tubules
Dehydrates the tooth
A+B
A+B+C
51. The first forming microbial elements of plaque are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Aerobic gram positive G+
Aerobic gram negative GAnaerobic gram negative GSpirochetes
Anaerobic gram positive G+
52. A patient is resistant to caries but has a periodontal disease. In this case, sucrose in diet
is important because:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sucrose is greatly involved in plaque development
S. mutans produces Levans frictions which are used by periodontal pathogens
The streptococcus mutans cannot survive with a continual supply of sucrose
Existing plaque must continue to get sucrose in order to grow
53. In minor oral surgery, what is TRUE in regard to antibiotics:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Amoxil satisfactorily covers the dental spectrum
Metronidazole and Amoxil have the same penetrating power
It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling
There is convincing evidence that Prophylactic prescription of antibiotics will reduce
postoperative infections
E. Most oral infections get anaerobic after 2 to 3 days
54. A patient comes with a firm, painless swelling of lower lobe of parotid which has grown
progressively for the past year. He complains of paresthesia for the past 2 weeks. This
is most likely to be:
A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Carcinoma of the parotid
C. Lymphoma of parotid
55. What is true in treating a patient with secondary herpes simplex:
A. Acyclovir inhibits viral transcription when applied in the prodromal phase
B. Idoxuridine is better than acyclovir when applied topically
C. Antivirals are contraindicated in immuno-compromised patient
56. During extraction of a maxillary third molar the tuberosity is fractured; however, it
remains in place attached to the mucoperiosteum. Which of the following procedures
should be employed:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Remove the tuberosity and suture
Leave the tuberosity and stabilize if required
Remove the tuberosity and fill the defect with Gelfoam then suture.
If fractured tuberosity is greater than 2 cm, leave in place and suture
57. An incision biopsy of an ulcerated and intruded clinically suspicious lesion in a 50 year
old female reveals chronic inflammation; you would:
A. Inform the patient and her physician of your findings and instruct the patient to return in
six months
B. Surgically excise the entire lesion since you know it is not malignant
C. Dismiss the patient with instructions for warm saline rinses and re-examination
D. Repeat the biopsy
58. Reducing the size of the focal spot will:
A. increase sharpness
B. increase density
59. The initial priority in treatment of horizontal fractures is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Preservation of pulp
Immobilisation
Root canal treatment
Calcium hydroxide treatment
60. Which of the following has proven to be the MOST important in community preventive
program:
A. Dental awareness of the community
B. Institution of oral hygiene measures
C. Water fluoridation
61. What effect has placing a sealant over pits and fissures on the progression of caries?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Decreased new caries
Increased new caries
Progression of exististing caries
Decreased progression of existing caries
No effect on existing caries
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 1 and 5
62. In advanced periodontitis with marked mobility, teeth may be splinted:
A. To improve comfort for the patient
B. Splinting helps in transmitting the force to the adjucent teeth to reduce the load on the
involved teeth
63. Use of inhalation general anaesthesia:
A. Halothane should not be less than 5%
B. Oxygen must not be less than 30%
64. Swallowing will aid in the diagnosis of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
F.
Branchial cyst
Thyroglossal duct cyst
Ranula
Retention cyst
Glossothyroid cyst
65. Which of the following will increase sharpness:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Larger focal spot
Smaller focal spot
Increase object-film distance
Decrease patient-source distance
66. In severe periodontitis the probe will eventually be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
prevented to go deeper by calculus
beyond connective tissues in the junctional epithelium
at the end of the junctional epithelium
Touching the middle of junctional epithelium
Touching sulculuar epithelium
67. A 58 year old male has been treated with radiation for carcinoma of tongue. The
patient complains of pain associated with poor dentition. The dental management
would be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Immediate extraction of any poor teeth under local anaesthetic with antibiotic coverage
Segmental dental clearance and closure to eliminate problems
No dental treatment may be due to neuronic of neoplasms
Clearance of poor dentition followed by hyperbaric oxygen treatment plus a primary
closure of wounds under antibiotic coverage
E. No extraction as radionecrosis is an important sequelae
68. Which of the following is NOT true about anticoagulation therapy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction
Affects extrinsic system and increases prothrombin time
Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidly
It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin
69. In a radiograph the roots of the upper teeth are too short because of:
A. Inadequate horizontal angulation
B. Too high vertical angulation
C. Too small vertical angulation
70. Characteristic of Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the tongue
A. more in white skinned people
B. more in alcohol drinking smoking males
C. associated with Plummer-Wilson-Syndrome
71. Characteristic of Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the lips
A. It reacts far simply to radiotherapy
B. metastizes mainly by blood
C. relatively rare in Australia
72. Which type of dentin is not formed due to pulp pathology?
A. Reparative dentin
B.
C.
D.
E.
Secondary dentin
Primary dentin
Reaction dentin
Tertiary dentin
73. In children a disease with enzyme deficiency is
A. hypophosphatasia
B. Cyclic neutropenia
C. Juvenile periodontits
74. Which is not true in sickle cell anaemia?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Deformed cells with less oxygen transport capacity
Higher infarction risk
Have wide bone marrow spaces with narrow trabeculae in the alveolar bone of oral cavity
Resistant to malaria parasites
More common in mediterranean people
75. What is correct regarding Hydrocortisol therapy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
10 mg per day does not make a significant adrenergic depression
Hydrocortisone can be given parenterally only
Glucocorticoids have antiinflammatory action
Hydrocortisone has only glucocorticoid action
Corticosteroids cause a decrease in blood sugar
76. A patient reports to you with an exophytic lesion on the tongue and a raised white
blood cell count of 2 x 109 per ml. You would
A. Do a biopsy
B. Refer for serologic testing
C. Give acyclovir
77. Normal prothrombin time and elevated partial thromboblastin time is seen in
A.
B.
C.
D.
Factor VIII deficiancy (Haemophilia)
Thrombocytic pupura
Leukemia
Von Willebrand disease
78. Which of the following describes best a 9 years-old child permanent dentition?
A.
16 12 11 | 21 22 26
-----------------------46 42 41 | 31 32 36
B.
12 11 | 21 22
---------------42 41 | 31 32
79. What is the best reason to promote tooth brushing to the public?
A. Less fissure caries
B. Less gingivitis
C. Gingival massage
80. What is untrue about diabetes?
A. Hypoglycaemia is more common than hyperglycaemia
B. Insulin-dependend patients are of more concern than non insulin-dependend
C. Adrenalin causes a decrease in the blood glucose level
81. Which of the following is a feature of Streptococcus mutans?
A. It does not require a special environment to grow
B. It can be easily transported from one part of the oral cavity to another
C. It has the ability to restructure carbohydrates
82. What does the term “caries prevalence” mean?
A. The total number of carious areas affected and any present caries
B. The individual risk for a patient to acquire caries
83. Which of the following are features of herpetic gingivostomatitis?
1. Irritability
2. Fever
3. Occurs in teenagers
4. Vesicles occur only on buccal mucosa and tongue
A. 1+2+3
B. 1+2+4
C. 1+4
D. All of the above
84. What is the most important aspect of root canal treatment?
A. Complete debridement of the root canals
85. What is true about halothane?
A. It depresses the myocard
B. Reflex trigeminal stimulation is uncommon
86. What is true about nitrous oxide?
A. It is rapidly absorbed and rapidly eliminated
87. A patient in your dental chair suddenly becomes agitated with shallow breathing, full
pulse and a blood pressure of 150/80. You would
A. Give oxygen
B. Give insulin
C. Give glucose
D. Place patient in supine position
88. After periodontal surgery, the regeneration of the periodontal ligaments takes place by
A. Formation of long junctional ligament
___________________________________________________________________________
Actually, there were 80 MCQs in each of the two papers. I probably put some questions in the
wrong paper.
SAQ in September 2006 in Sydney
1) Patient gives history of Warfarin treatment in the assessment. What will be the
considerations in the dental management of such patient? ( compulsory )
2) Patient has missing upper lateral incisor. What are the different treatment options?
3) 55 years-old Patient has mobile upper anterior teeth and a diastema is starting to develop.
What will be the differential diagnosis and its management?
4) Patient has apical abscess in 46 and needs extraction. Already 4.4 ml. of 2% lignocaine
with adrenaline 1: 80.000 is injected, but when you try to extract tooth it is still painful.
Discuss the possible management options.
5) How do you manage a 2 ½ year old child patient who is visiting a dental clinic for the
first time, and what will you discuss with the parents?
Answers can be found in Odell: “Clinical Problem Solving in dentistry” (except 4)
Alternative SAQs in September 06 (other location)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
(compulsory) management of pregnant lady
smoking and its effects and how to motivate patient to leave the habit
management of tooth avulsion - mother calls you from home and only 20 mins have
elapsed since injury. advice on phone on long term and short term management (this one
is in Odell’s book, too)
your patient has read about tooth whitening. tell her about bleaching
management of female patient on bisphosphonates