MODULE 4
PHARMACOLOGY AND
BIOPHARMACEUTICS
1. A drug that causes significant delay in the
absorption of acetaminophen by reducing the
rate of gastric emptying:
a. Anticholinergic
b. Digoxin
c. Levodopa
d. Propantheline
2. Histabloc® is a:
a. H1 agonist
b. H1 antagonist
c. H2 agonist
d. H2 antagonist
Histabloc is Famotidine (H2 antagonist)
3. Schilling test is used for the detection of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pernicious anemia
Megaloblastic anemia
Iron deficiency anemia
Folate deficiency
Pernicious anemia is caused by loss of gastric parietal cells,
and subsequent inability to absorb vitamin B12.
Megaloblastic anemia is an anemia (of macrocytic
classification) that results from inhibition of DNA synthesis in
red blood cell production.
4. Ambenonium, Neostigmine, and Pyridostigmine
are most commonly used for which condition:
a. Atropine overdose
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Bronchial asthma
d. COPD
Tacrine, Donepezil, Rivastigmine and Galantamine, all
of which are anticholinesterase are indicated for
Alzheimer’s Disease
5. A new drug is currently being developed whose
mechanism of action is stimulation of the beta-3
receptors. In which condition will this drug have
most likely usefulness?
a. Obesity
b. Bronchial asthma
c. shock
d. Acute Renal failure
Obesity as beta-3 receptor plays in lipolysis
6. Among diabetic patients using insulin or oral
hypoglycemic agents (OHAs), why are betablockers used with special caution if not
totally avoided?
a. Beta- blocker can induce hyperglycemia
b. Beta-blocker can mask hypoglycemic
symptoms
c. Beta-blocker can attenuate effect of
insulin and OHAs
d. Beta-blocker can induce insulin or OHA
failure
7. The effects of muscarinic receptor activation
in tissues like the exocrine glands and the
extravascular smooth muscles have been
linked with the generation of which second
messenger molecule?
a. IP3
b. cAMP
c. ATP
d. cGMP
IP3, leading to an increase in intracellular calcium
8. In schizophrenic syndrome there is primarily:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Decreased cholinergic activity
Decreased dopaminergic activity
Increased dopaminergic activity
Increased cholinergic activity
•psychosis and schizophrenia - abnormally high
dopaminergic transmission
•Parkinson’s disease - decreased dopamine activity
9. Chloramphenicol can cause:
a. Diarrhea
b. Blindness
c. emesis
d. bone marrow depression
10. A broad spectrum gram-negative cephalosporin:
a. Cefalexin
b. Cefotaxime
c. Cefamandole
d. AOTA
Cefotaxime – 3rd generation cephalosporins have a
broad spectrum of activity and further increased
activity against Gram-negative organisms
Cefamandole – second generation
Cefalexin-first generation
11. What is the most important mechanism of
termination of effects of released
Norepinephrine which is the target action of
TCA’s and cocaine:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Degradation by COMT
Sequestration into cells
Degradation by MAO
Reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
12. A given adrenergic agent induces uterine
relaxation and bronchial muscle relaxation
and bronchial muscle relaxation. These effect
can be attributed to:
a. Alpha-1 stimulation
b. Alpha-2 stimulation
c. Beta-1 stimulation
d. Beta-2 stimulation
13. In combination therapy for tuberculosis, the
following are commonly administered orally
EXCEPT:
a. Ethambutol
b. INH
c. Streptomycin
d. Rifampicin
Streptomycin - IM
14. Furosemide is useful for the treatment of all
the following EXCEPT:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Acute pulmonary edema
Hypertensive crisis
Hypoglycemia
Congestive heart failure
15. What is the dominant adrenergic receptor in
the heart?
a. Alpha – 1
b. Alpha – 2
c. Beta – 1
d. Beta – 2
16. In terms of mechanism of action, which of
the following drugs most closely resembles
that of clonidine:
a. Phenylephrine
b. Reserpine
c. Methyldopa
d. Amlodipine
17. In the adrenal medulla, Norepinephrine is
converted to epinephrine by the action of
which enzyme?
a.
b.
c.
d.
DOPA decarboxylase
Phenylethylamine N-methyl transferase
COMT
MAO
18. At what dose should Dopamine be given as
IV infusion to produce a predominantly
dopaminergic effect?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0.5 – 5 ug/kg/min
5-10 ug/kg/min
10-20 ug/kg/min
20-50 ug/kg/min
19. Prolonged therapeutic administration of
cortisone induces:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hypoglycemia
Hypofunction of the adrenal cortex
Hyperfunction of the pituitary gland
Hypofunction of the adrenal medulla
20. What is the mechanism of skeletal muscle
paralysis produced by succinylcholine?
a. Competitively inhibits binding of acetylcholine to the NM
receptor
b. Increase the inward chloride conductance leading to
hyperpolarization of the neuromuscular endplate membrane
c. Sustained depolarization of the motor end plate making it
unresponsive to other impulses and upon repolarization
cannot easily be depolarized
d. Repeated short depolarization of the motor end plate leading
to a prolonged state of sodium channel inactivation
e. Irreversible and non-competitive inhibition of the NN receptor
in both the ganglia and motor end plate with attenuation of
depolarization impulse
21. Which of the following inhalational
anesthetics produces the greatest
augmentation of the effect of neuromuscular
blockers?
a. Isoflurane
b. Sevoflurane
c. Halothane
d. Desflurane
22. Anaphylactoid reaction may be seen as a
side effect with which of the following
neuromuscular blockers?
a. Pancuronium
b. Vecuronium
c. Tubocurarine
d. Rocuronium
Tubocurarine induces a non-immune mediated
histamine release by mast cells which can
manifest as an anaphylaxis like reaction
23. This can decrease gastric emptying time:
a. Stress
b. Metoclopramide
c. None of these
d. Vigorous exercise
Stress – increase stomach contractions and
emptying rate
Metoclopramide – gastroprokinetic agent
24. What is the primary mechanism of action of
the drug Indapamine?
a. Inhibition of the 2Cl-Na-K contransporter in the
distal convoluted tubule
b. Inhibition of the Na-Cl cotransporter at the distal
convoluted tubule
c. Inhibition of the Na-Cl cotransporter at the
collecting duct
d. Competitive inhibition of Aldosterone binding to its
receptor
e. Competitive inhibition of Vasopressin binding to V2
receptor
25. What is considered as the toxic plasma
concentration of Digoxin?
a. >0.5 mg/ml
b. >150 ng/ml
c. >10 ng/ml
d. >2 ng/ml
26. The drug of choice in the treatment of
arrhythmia caused by digitalis intoxication:
a. Methyldopa
b. Phenytoin
c. Hydralazine
d. Phenylephrine
27. Inotropic activity of the heart in congestive
heart failure can be increased by which of the
following agents?
I. Bipyridines
II. ACE inhibitors
III. Beta-1 Agonist
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
I only
II only
I and III
II and III
I, II and III
28. Which of the following anti-arrhythmic
agents has been associated with lupus-like
side effect?
a. Quinidine
b. Lidocaine
c. Amiodarone
d. Procainamide
29. Which of the following calcium channel
blocker is most useful in arrhythmia therapy?
a. Verapamil
b. Diltiazem
c. Nifedipine
d. Lidocaine
Verapamil is the ONLY CCB with proven clinical
role in arrhythmia therapy
30. Chinese patients are most likely to be more
sensitive to the effects of which of the
following drugs for hypertension that lower
doses may have to be used?
a. Prazosin
b. Amlodipine
c. Metoprolol
d. HCTZ
Chinese patients are most likely to be more
sensitive to the effects of beta blocker
31. Which of the following benzodiazepines has
the shortest half-life and a rapid onset of
action?
a. Lorazepam
b. Triazolam
c. Oxazepam
d. Diazepam
Triazolam and Midazolam have the shortest halflives with a rapid onset of action
32. Which of the following findings in a patient
taking Phenytoin would warrant reduction in
the dose?
a. Gingival hyperplasia
b. Nystagmus
c. Osteomalacia
d. Ataxia
Ataxia and diplopia are early manifestations
of toxicity
33. Which of the following drugs for seizure is
metabolized to yield Phenobarbital?
a. Lamotrigine
b. Vigabatrin
c. Primidone
d. Topiramate
Phenobarbital is one of the two active
metabolites of Primidone
34. When Phenytoin is given intravenously, what
is the maximum rate by which the drug can
be administered?
a. 10mg/min
b. 20mg/min
c. 30mg/min
d. 50mg/min
When Phenytoin is given intravenously, the
maximum rate by which the drug can be
administered is 50mg/min
35. What is Entacapone?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A selective MAO-A inhibitor
A selective MAO-B inhibitor
A Dopamine-3 receptor agonist
COMT inhibitor
Entacapone is an inhibitor of COMT which can
convert levodopa to 3-O-methyldopa, a metabolite
which can interfere with the transport of Levodopa
across the blood brain barrier
36. Which of the following drug is most useful in
controlling the bradykinesia of Parkinsonism?
a. Levodopa
b. Bromocriptine
c. Selegeline
d. Entacapone
37. What type of protein is primarily targeted by
Digitalis glycosides when they exert their
effect on the heart?
a. Receptor
b. Ion channels
c. transporters
d. structural proteins
Cardiac glycosides inhibit Na+/K+ ATPase, the
membrane bound transporter often called the
sodium pump.
38. Biotransformation of orally administered drugs
occurring primarily in the liver that reduces the
amount of drug finally entering the systemic
circulation is often referred to as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Enterohepatic recirculation
Gastric emptying
First pass effect
Enzyme induction
39. What neurotransmitter is released by the
preganglionic fibers as a response to
sympathetic stimulation?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Serotonin
d. Dopamine
Acetylcholine is the preganglionic
neurotransmitter in both the sympathetic and
parasympathetic nervous system
40. A 55 year old male with kidney stones has been
placed on a diuretic to decrease calcium
excretion. However, after a few weeks, he
develops an attack of gout. Which diuretic was
he taking?
a. Furosemide
b. HCTZ
c. Spironolactone
d. d. Triamterene
HCTZ can also inhibit the excretion of uric acid
and cause its accumulation, leading to an attack
of gout
41. A 45-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with
hypertension and started on monotherapy designed to
reduce peripheral resistance and prevent NaCl and
water retention. He has developed a persistent cough.
Which of the following drugs would have the same
benefits but would not cause cough?
a. Losartan
b. Nifedipine
c. Prazosin
d. Propranolol
Losartan is an ARB that will have the same
beneficial effects but will not produce cough.
42. What is the amino acid precursor in the
synthesis of catecholamines?
a. Phenylalanine
b. Glycine
c. Tyrosine
d. Tryptamine
Tryptamine for 5HT/Serotonin
43. Which of the following beta-blockers is
cardioselective?
a. Labetalol
b. Propranolol
c. Pindolol
d. Esmolol
BEAM = Bisoprolol, Esmolol, Atenolol,
Metoprolol
44. Bethanechol is clinically used for which of the
following conditions?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Urinary retention in neurogenic bladder
Intestinal obstruction
Chronic glaucoma
Supraventricular tachycardia
Due to its acetylcholine-like effect on the
genitourinary tract
45. Which of the following findings may be
consistent with an overdose of or accidental
exposure to an organophosphate?
a. Constipation
b. Mydriasis
c. Emesis
d. Peripheral vasodilation
DUMBBELSS ( diarrhea, urination, miosis,
bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, emesis,
lacrimation, sweating, salivation)
46. Ipratropium, Oxytopium, and Tiotropium are
antimuscarinic agents that are most useful as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Mydriatics
Cycloplegic agents
Relaxant of bronchial smooth muscles
Inhibitors of involuntary muscle
contractions
e. Inhibitors of bronchial gland secretions
47. Which of the following anti hypertensive agents
is most appropriate for elderly male patients
with benign prostatic hyperplasia?
a. Prazosin
b. Metoprolol
c. HCTZ
d. Enalapril
- alpha blocker, which can also relax the
prostatic smooth muscles providing relief of
urinary retention
48. Which of the following drugs classified as
NSAIDs inhibit/s the COX-2 more than the COX-1
isozymes?
a. Indomethacin
b. Ibuprofen
c. Mefenamic acid
d. Celecoxib
Coxibs and Meloxicam inhibit the COX 2 more
than the COX 1 isozymes
49. The most common prophylactic measure used
worldwide to prevent tuberculosis:
a.
b.
c.
d.
INH
Bacillus calmette guerine vaccine
Ethambutol
Streptomycin
50. Which of the following agents is a strong full
agonist of opioid receptors?
a. Hydromorphone
b. Propoxyphene
c. Hydrocodone
d. Pentazocin
Hydromorphone, Oxymorphone, Methadone
and Morphine are the strong full agonist of
opioid receptor
51. The activity of regular heparin when given
intravenously is best monitored at least every 6
hours for the first 24 hours of therapy using
what parameter?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Protime
Platelet count
Activated Partial thromboplastin time
Bleeding time
52. Which of the following benzodiazepines has the
shortest half-life and a rapid onset of action?
a. Lorazepam
b. Triazolam
c. Oxazepam
d. Diazepam
Triazolam and Midazolam have the shortest half
lives with rapid onset of action
53. Which of the following findings in a patient
taking Phenytoin would warrant reduction in
dose?
a. Gingival hyperplasia
b. Nystagmus
c. Ataxia
d. Hirsutism
Ataxia and diplopia are early manifestations of
toxicity.
54. Parenteral calcium is used as an antidote for
which of the following situations?
a. Verapamil overdoses
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Cocaine intoxication
d. Verapamil overdoses and hyperkalemia
Parenteral calcium is used to reverse the cardiac effects
of calcium channel blocker overuse and hyperkalemia.
55. Which of the following antibiotics belong to the
ureidopenicillin class of agents?
a. Carbenicillin
b. Ticarcillin
c. Piperacillin
d. Pivampicin
Piperacillin and Mezlocillin are ureidopenicillins.
56. Methotrexate is an/a:
a. Antimetabolite
b. Nitrourea
c. alkylating agent
d. antibiotic
57. Which of the following antibiotics reversibly
binds to the 50S subunit of the bacterial
ribosome?
a. Orimed
b. Gerafen
c. Zyvox
d. Inoflox
50S (Macrolide, Chloramphenicol, Clindamycin)
• Gerafen is Chloramphenicol
•Orimed is Gentamycin(Aminoglycoside)
•Zyvox is Linezolid
•Inoflox is Ofloxacin (Quinolones)
58. Which of the following new Insulin preparations has a
characteristic release pattern that shows no peak and a
plateau serum Insulin level that is maintained for about
24 hours?
a. Lantus
b. Humalog
c. Apidra
d. Novomix 70/30
Lantus is Insulin Glargine “peakless insulin”
59. What is considered as the most common cause of air
pollution?
a. Sulfur oxide
b. Nitrogen oxide
c. Hydrocarbons
d. Carbon monoxide
60. A diabetic on oral hypoglycemic drug, chlorpropamide,
suffered from enteric fever and was prescribed
chloramphenicol. He developed severe hypoglycemia.
This is because:
a. Chloramphenicol itself has mild hypoglycemic effect
b. Chloramphenicol increases the absorption of
chlorpropamide
c. Chloramphenicol inhibits the metabolism of
chlorpropamide
d. Chloramphenicol causes release of insulin
61. Use of Yerba buena:
a. Antiseptic
b. Mouthwash
c. Analgesic
d. Diuretic
62. Use of Quisqualis indica:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Intestinal worm
Lowers blood pressure
Arthritis
Antifungal
63. Which of the following is not employed in the
treatment of depression?
a. Venlafaxine
b. Sertraline
c. Paroxetine
d. Zolpidem
Zolpidem is used as a sedative hypnotic
64. Lioresal® is used primarily as a/an:
a. Sympathomimetic c. muscle relaxant
b. Anti-anxiety
d. Anti-spasmodic
LIORESAL is baclofen
For questions 65-67: A 58-year –old white male
who has a history of essential hyper tension and
bronchial asthma has recently been diagnosed
with prostatic hypertrophy. His medication
history includes the following drugs:
65. Which of these agents and uses could worsen the
urinary retention he is experiencing as a result of his
prostate problems?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Propranolol
Ipratropium
Metaproterenol
Finasteride
Prazosin
66. Which agent and use could worsen or cause an
acute asthma attack?
a. Propranolol
b. Ipratropium
c. Metaproterenol
d. Finasteride
e. Prazosin
Because this is a nonselective β-blocker , there could be some
inhibit ion of β2 -receptors in the bronchial tree, causing
bronchoconstriction and possible complication of the patient 's
asthma.
67. Which agent acts selectively at β2 - receptors?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Propranolol
Ipratropium
Metaproterenol
Finasteride
Prazosin
•Propranolol is a nonselective β-blocker
•Prazosin is a selective α1 -blocker
•Neither ipratropium nor Proscar works through the
adrenergic system.
For quest ions 68-70: A 55-year –old black female
has a history of moderate hyper tension,
glaucoma, and mild osteoarthritis. Her
medication history includes the following drugs:
68. Which of her glaucoma medicines acts via an
indirect mechanism?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
Metoprolol
Pilocarpine gel
Epinephrine drops
Isoflurophate
Timolol
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
III only
I and V only
II and V only
IV only
II and IV only
-Pilocarpine acts directly at the muscarinic receptor
- Epinephrine and timolol both act directly at β- receptors
-Isoflurophate inhibits the metabolism of acetylcholine,
indirectly increasing levels of the endogenous neurotransmitter .
69. Which two agents could have an additive effect
to produce excessive bradycardia?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
Metoprolol
Pilocarpine gel
Epinephrine drops
Isoflurophate
Timolol
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
III only
I and V only
II and IV only
IV only
II and V only
Metoprolol , a β1 -selective agent, can cause bradycardia.
The addition of topical timolol , while limiting systemic absorption,
could have an additive β-blocking effect to decrease hear t rate
(negative chronotropy) .
70. Which two glaucoma agents could lessen the
effects of the other?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
Metoprolol
Pilocarpine gel
Epinephrine drops
Isoflurophate
Timolol
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
III only
I and V only
II and IV only
IV only
II and V only
- Pilocarpine and isoflurophate both act via cholinergic
receptors
-Pilocarpine - acts directly on the receptor
-Isoflurophate – indirectly increases acetylcholine levels
-Epinephrine - β-agonists
-Timolol - β-antagonists
71. A patient on oral anticoagulant therapy is
commenced on sulfamethoxaole-trimethoprim,
double-strength twice daily. One may expect to
see the international normalized ratio:
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. remain unchanged
d. AOTA
72. An unconscious patient is brought into the emergency
department. The patient is given 50 mL of 50%
dextrose in water, thiamine 100 mg IV, followed by
naloxone 1 mg, at which point he awakens. This patient
most likely has overdosed on which of the following
substances?
a. Amitriptyline
b. Cocaine
c. Haloperidol
d. Heroin
73. Contraindications to the administration of
syrup of ipecac include which of the following?
a. an unconscious patient
b. a patient who is experiencing a generalized tonicclonic seizure
c. a patient who has ingested a caustic substance
d. Al l of the above
e. none of the above
74. Ethyl alcohol (EtOH) is administered to patients
who have ingested ei ther ethylene glycol or
methanol because EtOH:
a. helps sedate patients.
b. increases the metabolism of ethylene glycol and methanol.
c. blocks the format ion of the toxic metabolites of ethylene
glycol and methanol.
d. increases the renal clearance of ethylene glycol and
methanol .
e. is not an antidote for ethylene glycol or methanol overdoses.
75. A 75 year old woman with hypertension is being
treated with a thiazide. Her blood pressure responds
and reads at 120/76mmHg. After several months on
the medication, she complains of being tired and weak.
An analysis of the blood indicates low values for which
of the following?
a. Calcium
b. Potassium
c. Uric acid
d. Sodium
Hypokalemia is a common adverse effect of the thiazides and
causes fatigue and lethargy in the patient.
Calcium, uric acid and glucose are usually elevated by thiazide.
The sodium loss does not weaken the patient.
76. Drugs may be considered as chemicals which
are not synthesized in the body.
a. Drugs
b. Poisons
c. hormones
d. Xenobiotics
77. Symbol for bioavailability
a. F
b. f
c. AUC
d. BA
F is the Symbol for bioavailability. BA is
abbreviation for it.
78. Extent of absorption of oral drugs as compared
to the absorption of a marketed drug product
a.
b.
c.
d.
Relative bioavailability
Absolute bioavailability
Peak concentration
Max AUC
79. When tissue concentration high, plasma concentration
is:
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Unchange
d. Either A or B
Tissue and plasma concentration are inversely
proportional
80. Which of the following pairs is correct in
reference to the physical nature of drugs at room
temperature?
a. Aspirin – gaseous c. Nicotine - liquid
b. Nitric oxide – solid d. Atropine - liquid
Nicotine is liquid a room temperature. (A) &
(D) is solid and (D) is gaseous.
81. Which of the following affects drug activity?
a. Drug size
b. Physical nature
c. Drug reactivity
d. AOTA
e. NOTA
82. Reaction of drug to the body.
a. Pharmacodynamics c. Biopharmaceutics
b. Pharmacokinetics d. Pharmacology
83. Reaction of body to drug
a. Pharmacodynamics c. Biopharmaceutics
b. Pharmacokinetics d. Pharmacology
84. Drugs bound to receptors should bear the
following to exert pharmacologic action
a. Affinity
b. Intrinsic action
c. AOTA
d. A only
(A) & (B) are required for drugs to exert effect.
Affinity is for attachment to the receptor and
intrinsic affinity is for signaling the intended
effect of drug.
85. The process by which the drug is engulfed by
the cell membrane and carried into the cell by
pinching off the newly formed vesicle inside the
membrane.
a. Exocytosis
b. Endocytosis
c. Membrane
permeation
d. Transmembrane
transport
86. The passive flux of molecule down a concentration
gradient is given by which equation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Fick’s law
Henderson-Hasslebach Equation
Charles’ law
Michealis-Menten Equation
87. Rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to
which of the following?
a. Surface area
b. membrane
thickness
c. Concentration
d. NOTA
88. Which of the following is the membrane
receptor for cardioactive digitalis glycosides?
a. Na+/K+ ATPase
b. Na+/ Cl- ATPase
c. K+ ATPase
d. PO4 ATPase
89. Time to achieve maximum plasma concentration
a. Tmax
b. Cmax
c. Half-life
d. Shelf-life
90. Transduction process that links drug occupancy
of receptor and pharmacologic response is
termed:
a. Binding
b. Coupling
c. Drug activity
d. Drug attachment
91. Volume of distribution is used to:
a. Relate drug amount and plasma concentration
b. Guide to know if the drug is free or bound to
plasma proteins
c. AOTA
d. B Only
Both are possible areas where volume of
distribution is used
92. Time it takes for a drug to exert its first
observable effect.
a. Onset
b. Duration
c. MEC
d. MTC
93. All exist in the gastric gland, except;
a. Mucous secreting cells
b. Chief cells
c. Parietal cells
d. NOTA
All exist in the gastric glands and aids in the
possible metabolism of drugs
94. Metabolism of the following drugs is delayed
with food, except;
a. Cephalexin
b. K+ ion
c. Propranolol
d. Acetaminophen
Food increases propranolol absorption
95. Which of the following can be done if
dissolution is slow, except;
a.
b.
c.
d.
Use salts
Use pH control
use crystalline solids
use rapidly dissolving polymorph
Instead of crystalline use AMORPHOUS solids
96. Which of the following is given with food to
reduce irritation?
a. Iron salts
b. NSAIDS
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
Both and erythromycin as well are given with
food to reduce irritation
97. Drugs that interact with solvents forming
crystals.
a. Solvates
b. Solvates
c. Liquid Crystals
d. Poly morphs
98. The equation which was developed from the
observation of dissolution behaviour of solids in
solvents systems
a.
b.
c.
d.
Noyes-Whitmann equation
Noyes-Whatmann equation
Noyles-Whitney equation
Noyes-Whitney equation
Definition of Noyes-Whitney equation
Dc/dt = KDS/ h (Cs-C)
Where:
K =disso constant
D=diffusion rate
S= surface area
h=thickness of diffusion stagnant layer
Cs= conc at diffusion/stagnant layer
C=conc at bulk solvent
99. In dissolution systems, increase agitation result
to?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Reduce thickness of stagnant layer
Decrease dissolution
No effect
Either A or B
Increase dissolution and decrease
thickness of stagnant layer
100. Measured by comparing AUC of oral and IV
administration
a.
b.
c.
d.
Relative bioavailability
Absolute bioavailability
Peak concentration
Max AUC
€$