2023-03-22T23:49:39+03:00[Europe/Moscow] en true <p>c</p>, <p>c</p>, <p>b</p>, <p>a</p>, <p>neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils</p>, <p>antigen A; antibody-B</p>, <p>antigen A &amp; B; no antibodies</p>, <p>no antigens; Anti A- &amp; Anti-B antibodies</p>, <p>o-</p>, <p>AB +</p>, <p>apheresis </p>, <p>EPO</p>, <p>binds and promotes survival, proliferation, and differentiation to mature erythorocytes</p>, <p>interstitial cells in kidney; hypoxia </p>, <p>hepcidin </p>, <p>HIV, chemotherapy, renal failure, CKD, iron deficiency</p>, <p>ESA and IV iron supplementation </p>, <p>Hb &lt; 10g/dl</p>, <p>&gt;11g/dl</p>, <p>lowest</p>, <p>Mircera </p>, <p>d</p>, <p>c</p>, <p>d</p>, <p>folate &amp; vitamin B12</p>, <p>PEG modification</p>, <p>a</p>, <p>avoid strong CYP2C8 inhibitors</p>, <p>inhibits PHD2 &amp; activates the expression of EPO</p>, <p>HIF2a is hydroxylated and ubiquitinated by E3 ligase; it is then destroyed by the proteasome which results in no EPO produced. </p>, <p>an enzyme; catalyzes hydroxlation of proline residue on HIF2a</p>, <p>EGLN1 missense</p>, <p>polycythemia </p>, <p>exhibits a lower Km value; increased oxygen affinity; increased HIF degradation</p>, <p>immature; mature</p>, <p>febrile neutropenia</p>, <p>Granulocyte colony stimulating factors</p>, <p>cancer patients receiving myelosuppressive chemo or bone marrow transplant; patients with myeloid leukemia; patients with severe neutropenia </p>, <p>b</p>, <p>a</p>, <p>CIN</p>, <p>d</p>, <p>fluroquinolone antibiotics</p>, <p>c</p>, <p>IL-5 blockers</p>, <p>patients with severe asthma age 6 &amp; up</p>, <p>selectively inhibits eosinophilic airway inflammation and significantly reduces asthma exacerbations regardless of IgE levels in blood </p>, <p>false</p> flashcards
Intro/ Hematopoiesis

Intro/ Hematopoiesis

  • c

    Hematopoiesis occurs in the ________ pathway.

    a) lymphoid

    b) myeloid

    c) both

  • c

    Cell contains a bilobed nucleus; stains orange-red or bright red.

    a) neutrophils

    b) basophils

    c) eosinophils

  • b

    Cell contains a nucleus with two distinct lobes; stained blue-purple.

    a) neutrophils

    b) basophils

    c) eosinophils

  • a

    Cell contains a nucleus with 2-4 lobes connected by thin filaments; light pink or reddish purple.

    a) neutrophils

    b) basophils

    c) eosinophils

  • neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils

    Order the Leukocytes in order from Most abundant to least abundant.

  • antigen A; antibody-B

    What antigens and antibodies are present in a person with A blood type?

  • antigen A & B; no antibodies

    What antigens and antibodies are present in a person with AB blood type?

  • no antigens; Anti A- & Anti-B antibodies

    What antigens and antibodies are present in a person with O blood type?

  • o-

    Who is our universal donor?

  • AB +

    Who is our universal recipient?

  • apheresis

    the removal of blood plasma from the body by the withdrawal of blood, its separation into plasma and cells, and the reintroduction of the cells, used especially to remove antibodies in treating autoimmune diseases.

  • EPO

    - is a glycoprotein that regulates the daily production of 200 red blood cells every day.

  • binds and promotes survival, proliferation, and differentiation to mature erythorocytes

    How does EPO interact with erythroid progenitor cells?

  • interstitial cells in kidney; hypoxia

    EPO production occurs in ________ & occurs because of _______.

  • hepcidin

    Increased levels of ______ block intestinal iron absorption.

  • HIV, chemotherapy, renal failure, CKD, iron deficiency

    What conditions are indicated for ESA's?

  • ESA and IV iron supplementation

    What is the current standard of care in CKD patients with anemia?

  • Hb < 10g/dl

    At what Hb levels do we support partial treatment with ESA's?

  • >11g/dl

    At what Hb levels do ESA's begin to become dangerous?

  • lowest

    The ________ ESA dose is sufficient to reduce the need for transfusions.

  • Mircera

    -continuous erythropoietin receptor activator

    -long half-life

  • d

    How is Mircera administered? And how often?

    a) IV; once a month

    b) SQ; every other month

    c) IV; twice a month

    d) SQ; once a month

  • c

    Which drug is a synthetic peptide-based ESA that was recalled due to causing anaphylaxis?

    A) Mircera

    B) EXONDYS

    C) OMONTYS

    D) Daprodustat

  • d

    Which drug is a hypoxia-inducible factor propyl hydroxylase inhibitor (HIF-PHI)?

    A) Mircera

    B) EXONDYS

    C) OMONTYS

    D) Daprodustat

  • folate & vitamin B12

    Besides iron, what else do RBC's require to develop?

  • PEG modification

    What makes MICERA more stable?

  • a

    Daprodustat is ______ compared to ESA in regards to hemoglobin levels & MACE.

    a) non-inferior

    b) inferior

    c) superior

  • avoid strong CYP2C8 inhibitors

    What is the contraindication associated with Daprodustat?

  • inhibits PHD2 & activates the expression of EPO

    Explain Daprodustat MOA.

  • HIF2a is hydroxylated and ubiquitinated by E3 ligase; it is then destroyed by the proteasome which results in no EPO produced.

    What happens if PHD2 is active?

  • an enzyme; catalyzes hydroxlation of proline residue on HIF2a

    What is PHD2? What is its function?

  • EGLN1 missense

    What type of mutation allows Tibetans to avoid altitude sickness?

  • polycythemia

    -a disease state in which the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells increases; usually occurs at high altitudes.

  • exhibits a lower Km value; increased oxygen affinity; increased HIF degradation

    How does the EGLN mutation work in hypoxic conditions?

  • immature; mature

    Band neutrophils are considered _______ while segmented are ______.

  • febrile neutropenia

    -neutropenia accompanied with a fever > 101

  • Granulocyte colony stimulating factors

    -stimulates production of neutrophil precursors, enhances differentiation & maturation of neutrophil precursors, activates & enhances mature neutrophils

  • cancer patients receiving myelosuppressive chemo or bone marrow transplant; patients with myeloid leukemia; patients with severe neutropenia

    What are the indications for Filgrastim & Pegfilgrastim?

  • b

    Which medication is a covalently linked analog recombinant of filgrastim with a longer half life?

    A) Mircera

    B) Pegfilgrastim

    C) Filgrastim

    D) Daprodustat

  • a

    Which chemotherapy cycle has the greatest risk of CIN?

    a) 1st

    b)2nd

    c)3rd

    4)4th

  • CIN

    -major dose-limiting toxicity of systemic cancer chemotherapy–Increases risk of infection, prompts dose delays/reductions, impacts effectiveness and impairs quality of life

  • d

    When trying to prevent CIN in cancer patients, when do we administer Filgrastim & Pegfilgrastim?

    a) 24-72 hours before chemotherapy

    b) during chemotherapy

    c) 2 hours after chemotherapy

    d) 24-72 hours after chemotherapy

  • fluroquinolone antibiotics

    In patients at high risk for infection-related morbidity and mortality, ______ use is recommended with CSF agents.

  • c

    Which plays a critical role in eosinophil differentiation, maturation, recruitment, and activation in tissues?

    a) IL-3

    b) IL-4

    c) IL-5

    d) IL-6

  • IL-5 blockers

    -are indicated as an add-on maintenance treatment of patients with severe asthma with an eosinophilic phenotype.

  • patients with severe asthma age 6 & up

    Mepolizumab indication?

  • selectively inhibits eosinophilic airway inflammation and significantly reduces asthma exacerbations regardless of IgE levels in blood

    Mepolizumab MOA?

  • false

    Patients should stop their inhaled glucocorticoid steroid therapy while taking Mepolizumab (NUCALA). True or false?