2022-12-26T23:11:16+03:00[Europe/Moscow] en true 1. During a laparoscopic appendectomy, the appendix is perforated, and contents begin spilling into the abdomen. Which of the following should the surgical technologist anticipate as the NEXT step? A. Suction the fluid from the abdomen. B. Continue removing the appendix as planned. C. Place a Kelly clamp over the perforation. D. Close the wound and terminate the procedure., 2. A carotid endarterectomy has just been finished and the dressing is on. The surgical technologist begins removing all sharps and non-disposables from the drapes before pushing everything back. According to best practice, which of the following should be the NEXT step? A. Push the back table, mayo, and basin back and tear it down. B. Pull the drapes off and put them on the back table in case they are needed again. C. Push the back table, mayo, and basin back and keep sterile until the patient is transported to PACU. D. Leave the back table, mayo, and basin close to patient in case they are needed again., 3. Which of the following should be prepared for a mastoid dressing? A. several squared gauze sponges B. rolled gauze and an abdominal pad C. several fluffed sponges and rolled gauze D. gauze sponges and a Velcro strap, 4. Which of the following is the FIRST step in applying the pneumatic tourniquet? A. wrapping the limb sequentially with an Esmarch bandage from distal to proximal B. applying the pneumatic tourniquet to the limb and immediately inflating it C. prepping the limb with ChloraPrep, including the determined location of the tourniquet D. padding the limb where the tourniquet is to be wrapped with Webril, 5.When performing a dilation and curettage, which of the following instruments is used to grasp the cervix? A. Sims B. Auvard C. Schroeder D. Bozeman, 6. How many lobes do the right and left lungs have, respectively? A. three, two B. two, three C. three, three D. two, two, 7. When a break in aseptic technique occurs, the surgical technologist should FIRST notify the A. circulating nurse. B. contaminating team member. C. OR supervisor. D. anesthesia provider., 8. Which of the following pathological conditions may be caused by an excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain? A. hydrocephalus B. encephalocele C. cranial bifida D. craniosynostosis, 9. If unexpected heavy blood loss occurs during an abdominal procedure, a surgical technologist should request additional A. lap sponges. B. Raytec sponges. C. Kitners. D. cottonoids., 10. Growth in the length of a long bone occurs at the A. diaphysis. B. medullary canal. C. epiphyseal plate. D. articular cartilage., 11. In which of the following situations can a DNR order be continued in an unconscious patient for a surgical procedure? A. The patient's durable POA requests it be continued. B. The patient's family requests it be continued. C. The surgeon requests its be continued. D. The CRNA requests it be continued., 12. A surgeon asks for warm irrigation after a right hemicolectomy. Which of the following BEST describes the reason for irrigating at this point in the procedure? A. to clean out the area of any loose tissue B. to maintain the core body temperature C. to eliminate any infection-causing microbes D. to aid visual inspection for leakage, 13. The rate per hour in air exchanges in a standard OR suite is A. 5-10. B. 15-25. C. 30-35. D. 40-50., 14. If there is any question related to handling a specific type of specimen, which of the following departments should be consulted? A. histology B. laboratory C. pathology D. radiology, 15. A patient's dentures are removed in the operating room. Which of the following is the proper procedure for the care of the dentures? A. Return them to the patient's unit and leave them at the nurses' station. B. Place them in a labeled cup and keep them with the patient's chart. C. Wrap them in a paper towel and give them to the anesthesiologist. D. Ask the circulator to return them to the patient's room., 16. A patient is scheduled for laser removal of condyloma acuminata. As a safety precaution, the surgical technologist should have which of the following special equipment open and available? A. smoke evacuator B. suction tip C. pulse lavage D. endo-catch bag, 17. Apart from trauma cases, which of the following incisions would be BEST for sigmoid surgery? A. vertical midline B. vertical paramedian C. oblique subcostal D. lower transverse, 18. The kidneys help regulate the blood levels of several ions, including A. bicarbonate, water, and protein. B. protein, sodium, and bicarbonate. C. potassium, protein, and sodium. D. sodium, potassium, and calcium., 19 .Which of the following is the MOST effective mechanical method of controlling bleeding occurring from needle holes in vessel anastomoses? A. pledget B. suction C. ligature D. clamp, 20. Which of the following tags indicates the least critical of patients in a triage situation? A. yellow B. black C. red D. green, 21. During a craniotomy, removal of the bone flap is followed by A. incision of the dura mater. B. opening the galea aponeurotica. C. application of the Raney clips. D. repairing the dura mater., 22. After gowning and gloving, a surgeon activates the DuraPrep applicator and performs the initial skin prep for surgery. Which of the following is the BEST action to take at this time? A. Assist the surgeon in draping the patient. B. Regown and reglove the surgeon. C. Pass off Bovie and suction. D. Inform the supervisor., 23. A specimen obtained for frozen section is generally removed from the sterile field intraoperatively because it A. needs to be labeled by the circulator. B. is sent to pathology immediately. C. will contaminate the sterile field. D. needs to be placed in formalin solution., 24. A surgeon is preparing to close the abdomen. Which of the following closing supplies should the surgical technologist have ready for closing the fascial layer? A. 0 suture and toothed tissue forceps B. 7-0 Vicryl and toothed tissue forceps C. retention sutures and toothed tissue forceps D. staples and Adson with teeth, 25.During a procedure, a hole is noticed in the surgical technologist's glove. What should the surgical technologist do NEXT? A. Continue the case. B. Change the glove using the open-gloving technique. C. Change the glove using the closed-gloving technique. D. Break scrub, rescrub, gown, and glove., 26. Which of the following instruments should be included in a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) setup? A. lithotrite B. urethrotome C. resectoscope D. Randall Stone, 27. Which of the following terms describes airway assessment by listening with a stethoscope? A. observation B. perfusion C. auscultation D. palpation, 28. Which of the following techniques promotes safety and protection of the surgical technologist during the intraoperative phase? A. securing the electrosurgical pencil to the drapes with a Kelly clamp after every use B. recapping hypodermic needle C. establishing a neutral zone D. using PPE, except in endoscopic procedures, 29. Which of the following verifies that autoclave sterilization has occurred? A. chemical indicator B. Julian date C. heat-sensitive tape D. biological indicator, 30. Which of the following instruments is used in otorhinolaryngology surgery? A. Heaney B. Baron C. Doyen D. Poole, 31. An organization that regulates the production of biological sterilization test packs in-house is A. CDC. B. ANSI. C. AAMI. D. SDS., 32. For an open hemicolectomy, a surgical technologist is preparing a second mayo stand for the placement of dirty surgical instruments. Which of the following instruments is MOST likely to be placed on the second mayo stand? A. Penrose drain B. Bakes dilator C. Allis forceps D. Richardson retractor, 33. When loading items in a gravity-displaced steam sterilizer, heavy packs should be placed A. at the periphery of the load. B. on their sides. C. on the top rack. D. centered on the middle rack., 34. A liver laceration is identified during an emergency exploratory laparotomy. A surgical technologist should prepare a suture attached to which of the following types of needles? A. tapered B. reverse cutting C. blunt D. conventional cutting, 35. Which of the following instruments is used to thread a vascular graft from one incision to another? A. hemostat B. tunneler C. DeBakey vascular forceps D. Randall Stone forceps, 36. Which of the following combination of medications are commonly used during a MAC? A. nerve conduction blockades with supplemental analgesics, sedatives, or amnesics B. induction agents, anticholinergics, and antiemetics C. hemostatics, ringer's solution, analgesics, amnesics or sedatives D. tranquilizers, gastric acid management, or lubricants, 37. Which of the following items must the surgical technologist have available after a thyroidectomy? A. lap sponges, hemostatic clamps, and electrocautery. B. endotracheal tube, hemostatic clamps, and scalpel. C. knife handle, scalpel blade, and nasogastric tube. D. scalpel, hemostatic clamps, and tracheostomy tube., 38. Which of the following is the name of the avascular strip of tissue at the midline which runs from the xiphoid process to the pubis? A. linea semilunaris B. linea alba C. arcuate line D. midaxillary line, 39. A three-way Foley catheter is inserted following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) in order to A. irrigate and aid in hemostasis. B. prevent the patient from getting out of bed. C. maintain accurate input and output records. D. keep the perineal area dry., 40. A patient is in the supine position for a procedure. After the arms are placed on arm boards, padding is placed under the elbows to decrease pressure on which of the following nerves? A. brachial B. ulnar C. axillary D. median, 41. Which of the following supplies should be pulled by the surgical technologist for a thoracic procedure? A. water-sealed drainage system B. passive drainage system C. Jackson-Pratt drainage system D. Andrews-Pynchon suction, 42. The FIRST sign of malignant hyperthermia is A. muscle twitching. B. change in blood pressure. C. unexplained tachycardia. D. hemorrhage., 43. Prior to the closure of an arteriotomy, which of the following solutions should the surgical technologist have ready for irrigation of the operative site? A. lactated Ringer's B. protamine sulfate C. sterile water D. heparinized saline, 44. Herniation of the rectum through a weakened posterior vaginal wall is known as A. a rectocele. B. a cystocele. C. a varicocele. D. an enterocele., 45. If a surgeon requests Gelfoam soaked with thrombin, the method to maintain hemostasis is A. thermal. B. mechanical. C. chemical. D. electrical., 46.Immediately before a hemorrhoidectomy, which of the following procedures might be performed on the patient in the OR? A. cystoscopy B. culdoscopy C. proctoscopy D. laparoscopy, 47. During which of the following phases of infection do pathogens actively replicate, but the host shows no symptoms? A. convalescence B. prodromal phase C. acute phase D. incubation, 48. Which of the following conditions should be treated FIRST? A. obstructed airway B. closed cerebral injury C. shock due to hemorrhage D. sucking chest wound, 49. During a partial nephrectomy, the surgeon asks for a large chromic suture and Gelfoam. The surgeon would like the Gelfoam to be cut into pledget squares and loaded onto the suture. The MAIN purpose for the use of the Gelfoam and suture is to A. cauterize the tissue. B. cause a fibrin clot to form. C. seal or close tissue. D. topically stop bleeding., 50. Which of the following is a tonsillolith? A. a stone within the tonsil B. inflammation within the tonsil C. removal of the tonsil D. an abscess of the tonsil, 51. Which of the following should be the MINIMUM exposure time in an immediate use sterilizer for unwrapped instruments? A. 1 minute B. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 7 minutes, 52. The anesthesia care provider (ACP) is gathering supplies to initiate a Bier block for the surgical patient. Which of the following items does the surgical technologist give to the ACP to assist in displacing the blood? A. pneumatic tourniquet B. stockinette C. Esmarch bandage D. Coban, 53. Which of the following hormones regulates urine concentration based on reabsorption? A. ADH B. PTH C. ANP D. GFR, 54. A surgeon has just completed an incisional biopsy and would like to have an immediate diagnosis. The MOST appropriate NEXT step is to send the specimen to pathology in a A. dry specimen container so that a frozen section can be completed. B. container containing normal saline so that a frozen section can be completed. C. dry specimen container so that a permanent section can be completed. D. specimen container containing normal saline so that a permanent section can be completed., 55. In the break room, a precepting surgical technologist is overheard discussing a student's lack of instrument knowledge. The precepting surgical technologist just committed A. tort. B. libel. C. malpractice. D. slander., 56. Which of the following must be done before sterilizing an instrument with a lumen? A. Allow the instrument to dry completely. B. Ensure the stylet is still within the lumen. C. Inject a small amount of distilled water into the lumen. D. Wrap the instrument separately in a peel pack pouch and place in the tray., 57. Which of the following should occur after a Veress needle is inserted? A. Place a trocar in the umbilical area. B. Provide the camera to the surgeon. C. Verify the white balance of the camera. D. Connect the insufflation tubing., 58. Prions are unique from other infectious agents because they lack which of the following? A. cytoplasm B. nucleus C. DNA D. cell membrane, 59. In metastatic cancer, which of the following systems allows for tumors to extend beyond the regional area? A. skeletal B. lymphatic C. endocrine D. respiratory, 60. For which of the following procedures is Gelfoam MOST commonly used? A. TVH B. cataract extraction C. TURP D. myringotomy, 61. Which of the following is the receiving nerve end of all transmission? A. cell body B. dendrite C. axon D. trigger zone, 62. A surgical "time out" must be performed prior to A. leaving the pre-op holding area. B. making the initial incision. C. placing the grounding pad. D. intubating the patient., 63. The opening in the occipital bone which the spinal cord passes through is the foramen A. of Monro. B. magnum. C. rotundum. D. of Bochdalek., 64. When preparing cannulated instruments for steam sterilization, the instrument lumen should be A. dry for dynamic air removal and wet for gravity displacement. B. wet for dynamic air removal and dry for gravity displacement. C. dry for both dynamic air removal and for gravity displacement. D. wet for both dynamic air removal and for gravity displacement., 65. When steam comes into an autoclave from an outside source, the steam is heated in the A. vacuum system. B. chamber. C. thermostatic trap. D. jacket., 66. Which of the following structures form major parts of the brain? A. pituitary gland, thalamus, cerebrum, cerebellum B. brain stem, cerebellum, diencephalon, cerebrum C. cerebrum, cerebellum, pons, medulla oblongata D. brain stem, midbrain, hypothalamus, thalamus, 67. Which of the following wound classes is assigned to a surgery in which the bowel was accidently perforated during the procedure? A. I B. II C. III D. IV, 68. A Javid shunt is used for which of the following procedures? A. carotid endarterectomy B. femoral-popliteal bypass C. abdominal aneurysmectomy D. saphenous vein ligation, 69. During a laparoscopic appendectomy, which of the following types of staplers should the surgical technologist have ready on the back table for removing the appendix and ensuring no spillage of bowel content? A. intraluminal B. linear C. skin D. purse-string, 70. During a transurethral resection of the prostate, bleeding is controlled by A. Gelfoam. B. irrigation. C. cauterization. D. suture ligature., 71. During the intraoperative phase, which of the following activities can be completed by both sterile and non-sterile members of the surgical team? A. handling of the specimen B. maintaining the patient's operative record C. clearing residual blood from the surgical field D. maintaining the sterile field and neutral zone, 72. When using an ultrasonic cleaner, which of the following should be done FIRST? A. Visible debris and biologic matter should be removed. B. Instruments should be closed and assembled. C. All instruments should be checked to be the same metal type. D. Cleaning solution should be changed., 73. Which of the following important considerations should be taken by the surgical technologist when it comes to the suture material for third intention closure? A. A low-capillary action suture will not retain moisture. B. Choosing the proper tensile strength of the suture can aid in healing. C. The handling of suture is more important than the suture material. D. The size of the suture is more important than the suture material., 74. Which of the following is the name of the biological indicator used for hydrogen peroxide gas plasma? A. Geobacillus stearothermophilus B. Bacillus atrophaeus C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Escherichia coli, 75.Which of the following is MOST likely to be used when applying a sterile dressing to a skin graft recipient site? A. bolster B. ABD pad C. 4x4s D. Steri-Strips, 76. Which of the following surgical instruments will a surgeon use in dissection of a breast tumor? A. Potts scissors B. electrosurgical unit C. Metzenbaum scissors D. #11 blade, 77. A surgical incision that is sutured together so that the wound edges are in direct contact with one another is referred to as which of the following types of closure? A. granulation B. primary intention C. secondary intention D. delayed closure, 78. The anterior chamber of the eye is located between the cornea and the A. posterior chamber. B. lens. C. pupil. D. iris., 79. After completion of a procedure, the nurse notices that the arms were extended beyond 90 degrees. This may have caused injury to the A. brachial plexus. B. humeral head. C. femoral nerve. D. supraspinatus., 80. Which of the following types of connective tissue fastens muscle to bone? A. cartilage B. ligament C. synovium D. tendon, 81. What does the acronym TM stand for in otorhinolaryngology surgery? A. tympanic membrane B. transurethral meatus C. total myomectomy D. total metastasis, 82. A surgeon requests a patient to be placed into the lithotomy position for the surgical procedure. Which of the following positioning devices must be obtained? A. leg stirrups B. chest rolls C. bean bags D. axillary rolls, 83. When using a laparoscopic set-up, potential hazards associated with the equipment include A. non-ionizing radiation. B. nitrogen embolus. C. pneumoperitoneum. D. fiberoptic beam fire., 84. When performing a parotidectomy, which of the following nerves is identified and preserved with the use of a nerve stimulator? A. facial B. recurrent laryngeal C. acoustic D. vagus, 85. A patient is undergoing a laser vocal cord nodule ablation. During the procedure, the anesthetist calls for all action to cease due to an airway fire that has suddenly occurred. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the fire? A. The draping near the patient's face was compromised. B. Wet sponges were used around the endotracheal tube cuff. C. The laser-specific endotracheal tube was not used. D. The draping was ignited by the heat near the surgical site., 86. During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the surgeon determines that the procedure will convert to an open case. Which of the following incisions is preferred for access? A. subcostal B. vertical C. transverse D. thoracoabdominal, 87. Which of the following is a heavy, curved, tapered needle? A. Mayo B. Keith C. Ferguson D. Arterial, 88. During a procedure, a major piece of equipment malfunctions and causes a patient's death. Which of the following is this situation MOST likely to be classified as? A. defamation B. sentinel event C. malpractice D. abandonment, 89. Which of the following items should be disposed of in an appropriate sharps container? A. skin rake B. drill pin C. damaged instrument D. arthroscopy trocar, 90. Which of the following is used to cross-clamp the intestine during a bowel resection? A. Allen B. Lahey C. Heaney D. Duval, 91. During a Nissen fundoplication, after the pneumoperitoneum is established and trocars are placed, which of the following is the NEXT step? A. The stomach is mobilized and divided from the omentum. B. The upper portion of the fundus is wrapped around the esophagus. C. The phrenoesophageal membrane is dissected free. D. The surgeon performs a saline drop test., 92. Which of the following should be included on an orthopedic set-up? A. Smith perforator B. Potts scissors C. Key elevator D. Heaney clamp, 93. A surgeon is performing a procedure to repair damage from a gunshot wound to the chest. Which of the following types of drains should the surgical technologist have available at the end of the procedure? A. passive B. suction C. gravity D. underwater, 94. A thyroidectomy that was done earlier in the day is being brought back for excessive bleeding from the incision. Which of the following items are needed for this case? A. Monocryl suture and harmonic scalpel B. laps, silk ties, and hemoclips C. Vicryl ties, pledgets, and Alexis D. nylon suture, Raytec, and Geralds, 95. A plastic surgeon performs surgery PRIMARILY on which of the following anatomical systems? A. vascular B. genitourinary C. endocrine D. integumentary, 96. An effective packaging material used for steam sterilization of a Balfour retractor A. permits penetration by the sterilant. B. allows for condensation that produces wet packs. C. allows for exposure to peracetic acid. D. is dictated by the surgeon's preference., 97. Which of the following wounds is MOST likely in the inflammatory phase of wound healing? A. a Bankart repair, one week post-procedure B. a laparotomy incision with a cicatrix C. an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) of a finger, two weeks post-procedure D.√ an abdominal incision, 20 minutes post-closure, 98. Preparing instrument sets and packages for sterilization requires a label indicating the A. sterilization date, sterilizer ID, load number, and preparer's initials. B. preparation date, preparer's initials, and department to which the package belongs. C. preparer's initials, manufacturer ID, and cycle number. D. department code, date of expiration, and sterilizer time parameters., 99. A surgeon repeatedly asks the surgical technologist to refill the 10 cc syringe with local anesthetic. If the surgical technologist refilled the syringe three times and there was 5 cc left in the syringe, how much anesthetic was used? A. 15 B. 25 C. 30 D. 35, 100. At the conclusion of a surgical case, how should the surgical technologist aid in reducing bioburden on instruments as the FIRST step in the sterilization cycle? A. hand cleaning B. disinfection C. sorting D. sterilization flashcards

CST Prep Exam 2020 A

68D Phase II CST Prep Exam 2020 A

  • 1. During a laparoscopic appendectomy, the appendix is perforated, and contents begin spilling into the abdomen. Which of the following should the surgical technologist anticipate as the NEXT step? A. Suction the fluid from the abdomen. B. Continue removing the appendix as planned. C. Place a Kelly clamp over the perforation. D. Close the wound and terminate the procedure.

    A. Suctioning the fluid from the abdomen as soon as possible will help limit postoperative complications such as infection or peritonitis.

  • 2. A carotid endarterectomy has just been finished and the dressing is on. The surgical technologist begins removing all sharps and non-disposables from the drapes before pushing everything back. According to best practice, which of the following should be the NEXT step? A. Push the back table, mayo, and basin back and tear it down. B. Pull the drapes off and put them on the back table in case they are needed again. C. Push the back table, mayo, and basin back and keep sterile until the patient is transported to PACU. D. Leave the back table, mayo, and basin close to patient in case they are needed again.

    C. The back table must remain sterile until the vascular patient leaves the room.

  • 3. Which of the following should be prepared for a mastoid dressing? A. several squared gauze sponges B. rolled gauze and an abdominal pad C. several fluffed sponges and rolled gauze D. gauze sponges and a Velcro strap

    C. Complex ear procedures require the use of a mastoid dressing, the surgical technologist will prepare several fluffed sponges along with Kerlix and/or Kling (rolled gauze).

  • 4. Which of the following is the FIRST step in applying the pneumatic tourniquet? A. wrapping the limb sequentially with an Esmarch bandage from distal to proximal B. applying the pneumatic tourniquet to the limb and immediately inflating it C. prepping the limb with ChloraPrep, including the determined location of the tourniquet D. padding the limb where the tourniquet is to be wrapped with Webril

    D. Webril is wrapped first in order to provide protection to the area in which the tourniquet is placed and inflated.

  • 5.When performing a dilation and curettage, which of the following instruments is used to grasp the cervix? A. Sims B. Auvard C. Schroeder D. Bozeman

    C. Schroeder is a tenaculum with a single tooth used to grasp the cervix.

  • 6. How many lobes do the right and left lungs have, respectively? A. three, two B. two, three C. three, three D. two, two

    A. The right lung has an upper, lower, and middle lobe. The left lung has only an upper and lower lobe because of the position of the heart.

  • 7. When a break in aseptic technique occurs, the surgical technologist should FIRST notify the A. circulating nurse. B. contaminating team member. C. OR supervisor. D. anesthesia provider.

    B. Any break in technique must be corrected, and each person is responsible for taking appropriate action to correct the error.

  • 8. Which of the following pathological conditions may be caused by an excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain? A. hydrocephalus B. encephalocele C. cranial bifida D. craniosynostosis

    A. Hydrocephalus is excessive production or build-up of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain or ventricles.

  • 9. If unexpected heavy blood loss occurs during an abdominal procedure, a surgical technologist should request additional A. lap sponges. B. Raytec sponges. C. Kitners. D. cottonoids.

    A. Lap sponges are used to provide pressure on bleeding vessels or to absorb excess blood.

  • 10. Growth in the length of a long bone occurs at the A. diaphysis. B. medullary canal. C. epiphyseal plate. D. articular cartilage.

    C. The epiphyseal plate, or growth plate, is the center for ossification at each extremity of a long bone.

  • 11. In which of the following situations can a DNR order be continued in an unconscious patient for a surgical procedure? A. The patient's durable POA requests it be continued. B. The patient's family requests it be continued. C. The surgeon requests its be continued. D. The CRNA requests it be continued.

    A. Many hospitals have a policy to rescind the DNR during surgery. The patient's assigned Power of Attorney is legally permitted to make medical decisions when incapacitated.

  • 12. A surgeon asks for warm irrigation after a right hemicolectomy. Which of the following BEST describes the reason for irrigating at this point in the procedure? A. to clean out the area of any loose tissue B. to maintain the core body temperature C. to eliminate any infection-causing microbes D. to aid visual inspection for leakage

    D. A watertight seal of all anastomoses is essential to prevent peritonitis. Irrigation aids in visually inspecting the seal.

  • 13. The rate per hour in air exchanges in a standard OR suite is A. 5-10. B. 15-25. C. 30-35. D. 40-50.

    B. The standard rate of air exchanges is a minimum of 15 and a maximum of 25 per hour in a standard OR suite.

  • 14. If there is any question related to handling a specific type of specimen, which of the following departments should be consulted? A. histology B. laboratory C. pathology D. radiology

    C. The pathology department receives all tissue samples and other specimens from surgery.

  • 15. A patient's dentures are removed in the operating room. Which of the following is the proper procedure for the care of the dentures? A. Return them to the patient's unit and leave them at the nurses' station. B. Place them in a labeled cup and keep them with the patient's chart. C. Wrap them in a paper towel and give them to the anesthesiologist. D. Ask the circulator to return them to the patient's room.

    B. Using this method, the dentures will be returned to the correct patient because they will be sent to the PACU.

  • 16. A patient is scheduled for laser removal of condyloma acuminata. As a safety precaution, the surgical technologist should have which of the following special equipment open and available? A. smoke evacuator B. suction tip C. pulse lavage D. endo-catch bag

    A. Smoke plume contains intact or fragmented bacteria and viruses; disease transmission through smoke plume is a known risk. Smoke evacuators remove smoke at a rate of 100 to 150 feet per minute at the site of generation.

  • 17. Apart from trauma cases, which of the following incisions would be BEST for sigmoid surgery? A. vertical midline B. vertical paramedian C. oblique subcostal D. lower transverse

    B. Vertical paramedian incisions, similar to median incisions, are used to provide access to any organ in the abdominal cavity; however, in cases of trauma, a median incision would be used. Lower left paramedian incisions are excellent for use in sigmoid surgery.

  • 18. The kidneys help regulate the blood levels of several ions, including A. bicarbonate, water, and protein. B. protein, sodium, and bicarbonate. C. potassium, protein, and sodium. D. sodium, potassium, and calcium.

    D. Sodium, potassium, and calcium are all regulated by renal excretion.

  • 19 .Which of the following is the MOST effective mechanical method of controlling bleeding occurring from needle holes in vessel anastomoses? A. pledget B. suction C. ligature D. clamp

    A. A pledget is a small square of Teflon sutured over a hole in a vessel; it exerts external pressure over any small needle holes to prevent bleeding and to promote clotting.

  • 20. Which of the following tags indicates the least critical of patients in a triage situation? A. yellow B. black C. red D. green

    D. Green indicates minor injuries.

  • 21. During a craniotomy, removal of the bone flap is followed by A. incision of the dura mater. B. opening the galea aponeurotica. C. application of the Raney clips. D. repairing the dura mater.

    A. The dura mater is the first protective membranous layer over the brain and lies immediately beneath the bone (cranium).

  • 22. After gowning and gloving, a surgeon activates the DuraPrep applicator and performs the initial skin prep for surgery. Which of the following is the BEST action to take at this time? A. Assist the surgeon in draping the patient. B. Regown and reglove the surgeon. C. Pass off Bovie and suction. D. Inform the supervisor.

    B. The surgeon should be regowned and regloved. The surgeon walked up to a non-sterile area and prepped the patient.

  • 23. A specimen obtained for frozen section is generally removed from the sterile field intraoperatively because it A. needs to be labeled by the circulator. B. is sent to pathology immediately. C. will contaminate the sterile field. D. needs to be placed in formalin solution.

    B. Special preparation and examination of the tissue can determine whether it is malignant, if nodes are involved, and if margins are clear of malignant cells. Sending a frozen section will give the physician an immediate diagnosis and will be able to treat the patient correctly.

  • 24. A surgeon is preparing to close the abdomen. Which of the following closing supplies should the surgical technologist have ready for closing the fascial layer? A. 0 suture and toothed tissue forceps B. 7-0 Vicryl and toothed tissue forceps C. retention sutures and toothed tissue forceps D. staples and Adson with teeth

    A. During closure of the fascia, a 0 or 2-0 suture is most often used on patients who are not obese, and a toothed tissue forceps is also used.

  • 25.During a procedure, a hole is noticed in the surgical technologist's glove. What should the surgical technologist do NEXT? A. Continue the case. B. Change the glove using the open-gloving technique. C. Change the glove using the closed-gloving technique. D. Break scrub, rescrub, gown, and glove.

    B. The open-gloving method is preferred as the gown cuffs are considered non-sterile.

  • 26. Which of the following instruments should be included in a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) setup? A. lithotrite B. urethrotome C. resectoscope D. Randall Stone

    C. The resectoscope is used to cut and coagulate prostate tissue.

  • 27. Which of the following terms describes airway assessment by listening with a stethoscope? A. observation B. perfusion C. auscultation D. palpation

    C. Auscultation is listening to the lungs, heart, or abdomen through the stethoscope.

  • 28. Which of the following techniques promotes safety and protection of the surgical technologist during the intraoperative phase? A. securing the electrosurgical pencil to the drapes with a Kelly clamp after every use B. recapping hypodermic needle C. establishing a neutral zone D. using PPE, except in endoscopic procedures

    C. Neutral zones are established to provide hands-free passing of sharps and instruments.

  • 29. Which of the following verifies that autoclave sterilization has occurred? A. chemical indicator B. Julian date C. heat-sensitive tape D. biological indicator

    D. A biological indicator is a test using living spores resistant to heat. It is the best method to check effectiveness of sterilization.

  • 30. Which of the following instruments is used in otorhinolaryngology surgery? A. Heaney B. Baron C. Doyen D. Poole

    B. A Baron suction tip is very small and is used for ear procedures.

  • 31. An organization that regulates the production of biological sterilization test packs in-house is A. CDC. B. ANSI. C. AAMI. D. SDS.

    C. Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation (AAMI) controls regulation of sterile processing.

  • 32. For an open hemicolectomy, a surgical technologist is preparing a second mayo stand for the placement of dirty surgical instruments. Which of the following instruments is MOST likely to be placed on the second mayo stand? A. Penrose drain B. Bakes dilator C. Allis forceps D. Richardson retractor

    C. Allis forceps would be most likely of the listed instruments to be placed on the second mayo designated for dirty instruments because the Allis forceps would be used at the start of anastomosis by holding onto a tubular structure that has been severed and is ready for anastomosis.

  • 33. When loading items in a gravity-displaced steam sterilizer, heavy packs should be placed A. at the periphery of the load. B. on their sides. C. on the top rack. D. centered on the middle rack.

    A. Heavy packs should be placed at the periphery of the load where steam enters the chamber.

  • 34. A liver laceration is identified during an emergency exploratory laparotomy. A surgical technologist should prepare a suture attached to which of the following types of needles? A. tapered B. reverse cutting C. blunt D. conventional cutting

    C. A blunt needle is the least traumatic of all suture needles. It has a round shaft and blunt tip so rather than puncturing the tissue, it pushes it aside as it slides through it. It is primarily used for soft and spongy tissue such as the liver, kidneys, and spleen.

  • 35. Which of the following instruments is used to thread a vascular graft from one incision to another? A. hemostat B. tunneler C. DeBakey vascular forceps D. Randall Stone forceps

    B. A variety of tunnelers exist that are specific for tunneling vascular grafts that don't allow twisting or kinking.

  • 36. Which of the following combination of medications are commonly used during a MAC? A. nerve conduction blockades with supplemental analgesics, sedatives, or amnesics B. induction agents, anticholinergics, and antiemetics C. hemostatics, ringer's solution, analgesics, amnesics or sedatives D. tranquilizers, gastric acid management, or lubricants

    A. Monitored anesthesia care is accomplished with the use of nerve conduction block, pain relief, and sedation.

  • 37. Which of the following items must the surgical technologist have available after a thyroidectomy? A. lap sponges, hemostatic clamps, and electrocautery. B. endotracheal tube, hemostatic clamps, and scalpel. C. knife handle, scalpel blade, and nasogastric tube. D. scalpel, hemostatic clamps, and tracheostomy tube.

    D. The CST must have a knife handle, scalpel blade, and tracheostomy tube available in case of patient airway compromise to prepare for an emergency tracheotomy.

  • 38. Which of the following is the name of the avascular strip of tissue at the midline which runs from the xiphoid process to the pubis? A. linea semilunaris B. linea alba C. arcuate line D. midaxillary line

    B. The linea alba stretches from xiphoid process to pubis and is the joining of rectus muscles at the midline.

  • 39. A three-way Foley catheter is inserted following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) in order to A. irrigate and aid in hemostasis. B. prevent the patient from getting out of bed. C. maintain accurate input and output records. D. keep the perineal area dry.

    A. A three-way Foley catheter is used for irrigation and drainage of the bladder. The inflated balloon helps with hemostasis.

  • 40. A patient is in the supine position for a procedure. After the arms are placed on arm boards, padding is placed under the elbows to decrease pressure on which of the following nerves? A. brachial B. ulnar C. axillary D. median

    B. Pressure on the medial aspect of the elbow can increase pressure on the ulnar nerve.

  • 41. Which of the following supplies should be pulled by the surgical technologist for a thoracic procedure? A. water-sealed drainage system B. passive drainage system C. Jackson-Pratt drainage system D. Andrews-Pynchon suction

    A. The water-sealed drainage is used to pull fluid or air from the thoracic cavity after thoracic surgery or trauma to the thorax.

  • 42. The FIRST sign of malignant hyperthermia is A. muscle twitching. B. change in blood pressure. C. unexplained tachycardia. D. hemorrhage.

    C. Unexplained tachycardia (heart rhythm over 100 beats per minute) is the first sign of malignant hyperthermia.

  • 43. Prior to the closure of an arteriotomy, which of the following solutions should the surgical technologist have ready for irrigation of the operative site? A. lactated Ringer's B. protamine sulfate C. sterile water D. heparinized saline

    D. Heparinized saline would be used to irrigate the inside of an artery.

  • 44. Herniation of the rectum through a weakened posterior vaginal wall is known as A. a rectocele. B. a cystocele. C. a varicocele. D. an enterocele.

    A. A rectocele is herniation of the rectum through the posterior vaginal wall.

  • 45. If a surgeon requests Gelfoam soaked with thrombin, the method to maintain hemostasis is A. thermal. B. mechanical. C. chemical. D. electrical.

    C. Pharmaceutical or biochemical methods of hemostasis uses an array of different chemicals such as Gelfoam, thrombin, epinephrine, silver nitrate, Surgicel etc.

  • 46.Immediately before a hemorrhoidectomy, which of the following procedures might be performed on the patient in the OR? A. cystoscopy B. culdoscopy C. proctoscopy D. laparoscopy

    C. Proctoscopy is often done before a hemorrhoidectomy to look for a pathology in the rectum.

  • 47. During which of the following phases of infection do pathogens actively replicate, but the host shows no symptoms? A. convalescence B. prodromal phase C. acute phase D. incubation

    D. Pathogens actively replicate during the incubation phase. This may be a short or long period of time, but the host will show no symptoms. This period is affected by the physical status of the host.

  • 48. Which of the following conditions should be treated FIRST? A. obstructed airway B. closed cerebral injury C. shock due to hemorrhage D. sucking chest wound

    A. The first priority is to have an unobstructed airway.

  • 49. During a partial nephrectomy, the surgeon asks for a large chromic suture and Gelfoam. The surgeon would like the Gelfoam to be cut into pledget squares and loaded onto the suture. The MAIN purpose for the use of the Gelfoam and suture is to A. cauterize the tissue. B. cause a fibrin clot to form. C. seal or close tissue. D. topically stop bleeding.

    D. Gelfoam is a hemostatic coagulant agent that promotes the stoppage of bleeding with pressure.

  • 50. Which of the following is a tonsillolith? A. a stone within the tonsil B. inflammation within the tonsil C. removal of the tonsil D. an abscess of the tonsil

    A. A tonsillolith is a stone inside of a tonsil. The suffix -lith translates to stone.

  • 51. Which of the following should be the MINIMUM exposure time in an immediate use sterilizer for unwrapped instruments? A. 1 minute B. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 7 minutes

    B. Three minutes is the LEAST amount of time needed for proper immediate use sterilization.

  • 52. The anesthesia care provider (ACP) is gathering supplies to initiate a Bier block for the surgical patient. Which of the following items does the surgical technologist give to the ACP to assist in displacing the blood? A. pneumatic tourniquet B. stockinette C. Esmarch bandage D. Coban

    C. The Esmarch bandage is used to displace blood by it being wrapped around the arm distally to proximal.

  • 53. Which of the following hormones regulates urine concentration based on reabsorption? A. ADH B. PTH C. ANP D. GFR

    A. Anti diuretic hormone (ADH) is responsible for the dilution of urine. ADH may be secreted by the posterior pituitary gland and may be released if fluid levels shift as little as 1% due to dehydration or blood loss.

  • 54. A surgeon has just completed an incisional biopsy and would like to have an immediate diagnosis. The MOST appropriate NEXT step is to send the specimen to pathology in a A. dry specimen container so that a frozen section can be completed. B. container containing normal saline so that a frozen section can be completed. C. dry specimen container so that a permanent section can be completed. D. specimen container containing normal saline so that a permanent section can be completed.

    A. The specimen should be sent to pathology in a dry specimen container so that a frozen section can be completed.

  • 55. In the break room, a precepting surgical technologist is overheard discussing a student's lack of instrument knowledge. The precepting surgical technologist just committed A. tort. B. libel. C. malpractice. D. slander.

    D. Slander is spoken defamation.

  • 56. Which of the following must be done before sterilizing an instrument with a lumen? A. Allow the instrument to dry completely. B. Ensure the stylet is still within the lumen. C. Inject a small amount of distilled water into the lumen. D. Wrap the instrument separately in a peel pack pouch and place in the tray.

    C. During the sterilization process, the water within the lumen turns to steam and forces the air out of the lumen. This is important, because the air trapped within lumens can interfere with the sterilization process.

  • 57. Which of the following should occur after a Veress needle is inserted? A. Place a trocar in the umbilical area. B. Provide the camera to the surgeon. C. Verify the white balance of the camera. D. Connect the insufflation tubing.

    D. The insufflation tubing must be connected to the Veress needle to establish pneumoperitoneum.

  • 58. Prions are unique from other infectious agents because they lack which of the following? A. cytoplasm B. nucleus C. DNA D. cell membrane

    C. Prions are non-living protein strands which lack DNA and RNA.

  • 59. In metastatic cancer, which of the following systems allows for tumors to extend beyond the regional area? A. skeletal B. lymphatic C. endocrine D. respiratory

    B. Malignant tumors can migrate from the primary focus to distant tissues via lymphatic or vascular systems.

  • 60. For which of the following procedures is Gelfoam MOST commonly used? A. TVH B. cataract extraction C. TURP D. myringotomy

    D. Gelfoam is used in myringotomies to inhibit surface bleeding.

  • 61. Which of the following is the receiving nerve end of all transmission? A. cell body B. dendrite C. axon D. trigger zone

    B. Dendrites contain numerous receptors which bind chemical messengers from other cells.

  • 62. A surgical "time out" must be performed prior to A. leaving the pre-op holding area. B. making the initial incision. C. placing the grounding pad. D. intubating the patient.

    B. A surgical "time out" must be performed prior to the incision being made.

  • 63. The opening in the occipital bone which the spinal cord passes through is the foramen A. of Monro. B. magnum. C. rotundum. D. of Bochdalek.

    B. The foramen magnum is a large opening at the base of the skull for passage of the spinal cord.

  • 64. When preparing cannulated instruments for steam sterilization, the instrument lumen should be A. dry for dynamic air removal and wet for gravity displacement. B. wet for dynamic air removal and dry for gravity displacement. C. dry for both dynamic air removal and for gravity displacement. D. wet for both dynamic air removal and for gravity displacement.

    A. Dynamic air removal sterilization removes residual air from instruments with lumens, whereas with gravity displaced air can interfere with the steam contact. For gravity displacement, instilling a little distilled water will heat up and ensure full steam contact within the cannula/lumen.

  • 65. When steam comes into an autoclave from an outside source, the steam is heated in the A. vacuum system. B. chamber. C. thermostatic trap. D. jacket.

    D. The jacket heats the steam, then it is forced into the chamber.

  • 66. Which of the following structures form major parts of the brain? A. pituitary gland, thalamus, cerebrum, cerebellum B. brain stem, cerebellum, diencephalon, cerebrum C. cerebrum, cerebellum, pons, medulla oblongata D. brain stem, midbrain, hypothalamus, thalamus

    B. The adult brain consists of four major parts: brain stem, cerebellum, diencephalon, and cerebrum. Posterior to the brain stem is the cerebellum. Supported on the diencephalon and the brain stem is the cerebrum. Superior to the brain stem is the diencephalon.

  • 67. Which of the following wound classes is assigned to a surgery in which the bowel was accidently perforated during the procedure? A. I B. II C. III D. IV

    C. Class III indicates that gross spillage from the gastrointestinal tract occurred during the procedure.

  • 68. A Javid shunt is used for which of the following procedures? A. carotid endarterectomy B. femoral-popliteal bypass C. abdominal aneurysmectomy D. saphenous vein ligation

    A. A Javid shunt is used only for this procedure due to the small size of the shunt and the incision.

  • 69. During a laparoscopic appendectomy, which of the following types of staplers should the surgical technologist have ready on the back table for removing the appendix and ensuring no spillage of bowel content? A. intraluminal B. linear C. skin D. purse-string

    B. A linear stapler is most commonly used for removing appendixes.

  • 70. During a transurethral resection of the prostate, bleeding is controlled by A. Gelfoam. B. irrigation. C. cauterization. D. suture ligature.

    C. Cauterization is the method for controlling bleeding during a TURP.

  • 71. During the intraoperative phase, which of the following activities can be completed by both sterile and non-sterile members of the surgical team? A. handling of the specimen B. maintaining the patient's operative record C. clearing residual blood from the surgical field D. maintaining the sterile field and neutral zone

    A. Following proper procedures, the specimen can be cared for by both the sterile and the non-sterile members of the surgical team.

  • 72. When using an ultrasonic cleaner, which of the following should be done FIRST? A. Visible debris and biologic matter should be removed. B. Instruments should be closed and assembled. C. All instruments should be checked to be the same metal type. D. Cleaning solution should be changed.

    A. Visible debris and biologic matter should be removed because it will dirty the water quicker and ultrasonic cleaning only works on smaller particles.

  • 73. Which of the following important considerations should be taken by the surgical technologist when it comes to the suture material for third intention closure? A. A low-capillary action suture will not retain moisture. B. Choosing the proper tensile strength of the suture can aid in healing. C. The handling of suture is more important than the suture material. D. The size of the suture is more important than the suture material.

    A. If a wound is to be sutured, a low-capillary action suture is advised for utilization.

  • 74. Which of the following is the name of the biological indicator used for hydrogen peroxide gas plasma? A. Geobacillus stearothermophilus B. Bacillus atrophaeus C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Escherichia coli

    B. Bacillus atrophaeus is the biological indicator used for hydrogen gas plasma.

  • 75.Which of the following is MOST likely to be used when applying a sterile dressing to a skin graft recipient site? A. bolster B. ABD pad C. 4x4s D. Steri-Strips

    A. A pressure dressing or bolster is most often used over a skin graft. Slight pressure on the graft site prevents serous fluid from lifting the skin graft away from the recipient site.

  • 76. Which of the following surgical instruments will a surgeon use in dissection of a breast tumor? A. Potts scissors B. electrosurgical unit C. Metzenbaum scissors D. #11 blade

    C. Metzenbaum scissors would be the instrument of choice to dissect a breast mass, as they would not distort the margins of the mass.

  • 77. A surgical incision that is sutured together so that the wound edges are in direct contact with one another is referred to as which of the following types of closure? A. granulation B. primary intention C. secondary intention D. delayed closure

    B. Primary intention, or first intention, is the desired closure of wounds. It promotes quicker wound healing and leaves a less noticeable scar.

  • 78. The anterior chamber of the eye is located between the cornea and the A. posterior chamber. B. lens. C. pupil. D. iris.

    D. The anterior chamber is located between the cornea and the iris.

  • 79. After completion of a procedure, the nurse notices that the arms were extended beyond 90 degrees. This may have caused injury to the A. brachial plexus. B. humeral head. C. femoral nerve. D. supraspinatus.

    A. The brachial plexus is a group of nerves that run through the shoulder and can be injured when the arms are hyperextended.

  • 80. Which of the following types of connective tissue fastens muscle to bone? A. cartilage B. ligament C. synovium D. tendon

    D. Tendon is a type of connective tissue that connects muscle to bone.

  • 81. What does the acronym TM stand for in otorhinolaryngology surgery? A. tympanic membrane B. transurethral meatus C. total myomectomy D. total metastasis

    A. The acronym TM means tympanic membrane in otorhinolaryngeal surgery.

  • 82. A surgeon requests a patient to be placed into the lithotomy position for the surgical procedure. Which of the following positioning devices must be obtained? A. leg stirrups B. chest rolls C. bean bags D. axillary rolls

    A. The patient's legs are raised simultaneously into leg stirrups and secured; this is used for the lithotomy position.

  • 83. When using a laparoscopic set-up, potential hazards associated with the equipment include A. non-ionizing radiation. B. nitrogen embolus. C. pneumoperitoneum. D. fiberoptic beam fire.

    D. The intense fiberoptic beam can ignite the patient's drapes and cause fires. Therefore, cameras should be turned off when not in use and should be appropriately placed during procedures.

  • 84. When performing a parotidectomy, which of the following nerves is identified and preserved with the use of a nerve stimulator? A. facial B. recurrent laryngeal C. acoustic D. vagus

    A. The facial nerve splits the parotid gland into superficial and deep lobes, and must be identified and retracted to avoid injury during the removal of parotid tissue.

  • 85. A patient is undergoing a laser vocal cord nodule ablation. During the procedure, the anesthetist calls for all action to cease due to an airway fire that has suddenly occurred. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the fire? A. The draping near the patient's face was compromised. B. Wet sponges were used around the endotracheal tube cuff. C. The laser-specific endotracheal tube was not used. D. The draping was ignited by the heat near the surgical site.

    C. Using a laser-specific endotracheal tube will prevent a fire at the patient's face during laser surgery.

  • 86. During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the surgeon determines that the procedure will convert to an open case. Which of the following incisions is preferred for access? A. subcostal B. vertical C. transverse D. thoracoabdominal

    A. Subcostal incisions are generally used for an open cholecystectomy because it provides better visualization.

  • 87. Which of the following is a heavy, curved, tapered needle? A. Mayo B. Keith C. Ferguson D. Arterial

    A. The Mayo is a heavy, curved, tapered needle used for general closure.

  • 88. During a procedure, a major piece of equipment malfunctions and causes a patient's death. Which of the following is this situation MOST likely to be classified as? A. defamation B. sentinel event C. malpractice D. abandonment

    B. A sentinel event is an event that results in injury or death indicative of a process malfunction.

  • 89. Which of the following items should be disposed of in an appropriate sharps container? A. skin rake B. drill pin C. damaged instrument D. arthroscopy trocar

    B. A drill pin (used or unused) would be disposed in a sharps container because it is sharp and are a common source of injury.

  • 90. Which of the following is used to cross-clamp the intestine during a bowel resection? A. Allen B. Lahey C. Heaney D. Duval

    A. The Allen clamp is an intestinal clamp.

  • 91. During a Nissen fundoplication, after the pneumoperitoneum is established and trocars are placed, which of the following is the NEXT step? A. The stomach is mobilized and divided from the omentum. B. The upper portion of the fundus is wrapped around the esophagus. C. The phrenoesophageal membrane is dissected free. D. The surgeon performs a saline drop test.

    A. After pneumoperitoneum is established and trocars are placed, the stomach is mobilized and divided from the omentum.

  • 92. Which of the following should be included on an orthopedic set-up? A. Smith perforator B. Potts scissors C. Key elevator D. Heaney clamp

    C. A Key elevator is used to separate the periosteum from the bone.

  • 93. A surgeon is performing a procedure to repair damage from a gunshot wound to the chest. Which of the following types of drains should the surgical technologist have available at the end of the procedure? A. passive B. suction C. gravity D. underwater

    D. An underwater drain is used to pull fluid or air from the thoracic cavity after surgery or trauma to the thorax. It is used to restore negative pressure to the thoracic cavity.

  • 94. A thyroidectomy that was done earlier in the day is being brought back for excessive bleeding from the incision. Which of the following items are needed for this case? A. Monocryl suture and harmonic scalpel B. laps, silk ties, and hemoclips C. Vicryl ties, pledgets, and Alexis D. nylon suture, Raytec, and Geralds

    B. Laps, silk ties, and hemoclips are all used for acute hemostasis.

  • 95. A plastic surgeon performs surgery PRIMARILY on which of the following anatomical systems? A. vascular B. genitourinary C. endocrine D. integumentary

    D. A plastic surgeon's primary anatomical system that is focused on is the integumentary system, because it has to do with the skin and subcutaneous tissue.

  • 96. An effective packaging material used for steam sterilization of a Balfour retractor A. permits penetration by the sterilant. B. allows for condensation that produces wet packs. C. allows for exposure to peracetic acid. D. is dictated by the surgeon's preference.

    A. An effective packaging material would permit penetration by the steam.

  • 97. Which of the following wounds is MOST likely in the inflammatory phase of wound healing? A. a Bankart repair, one week post-procedure B. a laparotomy incision with a cicatrix C. an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) of a finger, two weeks post-procedure D.√ an abdominal incision, 20 minutes post-closure

    D. The inflammatory phase is the first phase of wound healing and begins within minutes of injury and lasts for 3 to 5 days.

  • 98. Preparing instrument sets and packages for sterilization requires a label indicating the A. sterilization date, sterilizer ID, load number, and preparer's initials. B. preparation date, preparer's initials, and department to which the package belongs. C. preparer's initials, manufacturer ID, and cycle number. D. department code, date of expiration, and sterilizer time parameters.

    A. The label must include date of sterilization, sterilizer ID, cycle or load number, employee initials who prepared and processed the package, and the department for where the item is directed.

  • 99. A surgeon repeatedly asks the surgical technologist to refill the 10 cc syringe with local anesthetic. If the surgical technologist refilled the syringe three times and there was 5 cc left in the syringe, how much anesthetic was used? A. 15 B. 25 C. 30 D. 35

    D. D. The syringe had 10 cc initially. Three refills occurred thereafter. 10 + (3 * 10 - 5) = 35

  • 100. At the conclusion of a surgical case, how should the surgical technologist aid in reducing bioburden on instruments as the FIRST step in the sterilization cycle? A. hand cleaning B. disinfection C. sorting D. sterilization

    A. Hand cleaning is utilized at the point of use to prevent drying of blood, feces, or respiratory secretions, which can harbor embedded microorganisms and prevent penetration of the disinfecting agent.