2022-12-26T23:19:02+03:00[Europe/Moscow] en true Which of the following is a type of tissue forceps? A. brown-adson B. pean C. allis D. schnidt, Which endoscope is used to visualize the heart and major vessels? A. ventriculoscope B. bronchoscope C. mediastinoscope D. angioscope, The goal of the surgical scrub is to lower the population of which flora to an irreducible minimum? A. parasitic B. resident C. transient D. enteric, Which needle is used during the bladder suspension procedure for treating stress incontinence in women? A. stamey B. chiba C. dorsey D. tru-cut, Which procedure can be performed without making an incision to treat varicose veins? A. sclerotherapy B. varicocelectomy C. vein ligation D. vein stripping, When repairing a direct hernia, the surgeon works within the anatomical triangle formed by the inguinal ligament, inferior epigastric vessels and the lateral border of the rectus abdominis called: A. femoral B. anterior C. hesselbach's D. calot's, Which of the following is the correct postoperative sequence of actions completed by the aurgical technologist? 1. Assist with postoperative patient care. 2. Remove drapes. 3. Remove gown and gloves. 4. Break down sterile setup. A. 2,1,4,3 B. 2,3,1,4 C. 3,2,4,1 D. 4,2,1,3, What should be completed before the sterile items are opened for the first procedure of the day? A. lower temperature in the OR B. wipe down furniture and surfaces C. test sterilizer in substerile room D. test anesthesia machine, Cardiac muscles are controlled by which division of the nervous system? A. sympathetic B. somatic C. autonomic D. central, Oophor/o is the root word for which anatomical structure? A. ovary B. uterus C. cervical os D. fallopian tube, In which of the following would absorbable suture be contraindicator? A. peritoneum B. muscle C. intestinal anastomosis D. vascular anastomosis, During a cesarean section, which organ is freed from the uterus to prevent injury? A. pelvic ligaments B. ureters C. fallopian tubes D. bladder, Which of the following refers to the absence of pathogens? A. pathological B. aseptic C. septic D. nosocomial, Which surgical procedure would use the Sims uterine currettes? A. d&c B. colporrhaphy C. lavh D. myomectomy, What must be done prior to positioning a patient undergoing a posterior lumbar laminectomy? A. attachment of arm boards B. padding of knees C. endotracheal intubation D. skin prep, What is the name of the instrument shown below? ADD PICTURE A. carmalt B. ochsner C. adair D. pennington, Which of the following damages the mastoid air cells and ossicles of the ear? A. meniere's disease B. acoustic neuroma C. cholesteatoma D. otosclerosis, When placing a swaged needle onto a needle holder, the needle should be clamped: A. one-third distance from swaged end of needle B. one-fourth distance from the needle point C. at the junction of suture and needle D. half-way distance fromt he needle point, Which endoscope is used for the removal of foreign bodies from the airway of a pediatric patient? A. flexible esophagoscope B. flexible bronchosocpe C. rigid esophaoscope D. rigid bronchoscope, Which of the following elements primarily make up the body's mass? A. oxygen, carbon, magnesium, sodium B. oxygen, potassium, hydrogen, sulfur C. oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen D. oxygen, carbon, phosphorus, magnesium, Which instrument is used to contract the ribs for suturing purposes? A. bailey B. semb C. matson D. doyen, The largest muscle of the upper calf is the: A. tibialis B. peroneus C. gastrocnemius D. quadriceps, What is the length of time when thrombin loses its potency? A. 30 minutes B. 60 minutes C. 2 hours D. 3 hours, The function of the small intestine is: A. synthesis of vitamins B. absorption of nutrients C. production of bacteria D. excretion of bile, The teeth are composed primarily of: A. dentin B. cementum C. enamel D. pulp, The basis for the design of electrical equipment in the OR is: A. alternating current B. isolated circuit C. electron theory D. ohm's law, Which of the following procedures is performed to decrease gastric secretions? A. pyloroplasty B. vagotomy C. billroth I D. gastrostomy, A patient who underwent an appendectomy enters the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, constipation and vomiting. Which of the following is occuring? A. cholecystitis B. obstructed bowel C. diverticulitis D. strangulated hernia, Which organ shares the same blood supply with the pancreas and must be removed during a Whipple procedures? A. kidney B. duodenum C. bladder D. spleen, During a cleft palate procedure, which equipment should the surgical technologist be prepared to set up quickly? A. drill B. microscope C. nerve stimulator D. saw, The muscle that flexes and supinates the forearm and covers the anterior portion of the upper arm is the: A. flexor radialis B. biceps brachii C. brachioradialis D. teres major, A surgeon tells a patient she has terminal cancer but requires prophyactic surgery to prevent a bowel obstruction and the patient replies, "This can't be happening to me." Which stage of grief is the patient displaying? A. denial B. depression C. bargaining D. anger, What is the purpose of inserting a ureteral stent catheter? A. monitor urine output B. bypass calculi obstruction C. excise calculi D. prevent postoperative hemorrhage, Which of the follwoing is used to create the trough on the anterior glenoid rim during a Bankart procedure? A. periosteal elevator B. bone cutting forceps C. shaver with abrader tip D. reciprocating saw, Which of the following secretes hydrochloric acid? A. parietal cells B. salivary glands C. pancreas D. duodenum, Which of the following preoperative diagnostic tests would be administered to a patient with a brain injury? A. EEG B. EMG C. SAO2 D. TEE, Which of the following is a type of fenestrated drape? A. incise B. three-quater C. extremity D. split, The walls of the vagina are lined with: A. fascia B. mucosa C. serosa D. peritoneum, Which type of scalpel uses ultrasonic energy to cut and coagulate tissue? A. fulguration B. hemostatic C. hermonic D. plasma, A forgarty catheter is used during a/an: A. gastrectomy B. thoracotomy C. embolectomy D. craniotomy, Which of the following positioning devices is needed when placing the patient in the supine position? A. kidney rest B. elbow pads C. mayfield headrest D. beanbag, During a trabeculectomy, which teo layers are incised at the begining of the procedure? A. cornea, iris B. pupil, lens C. conjunctiva, tenon's capsule D. sclera, retina, What instrument set should the surgical technologist have available in the OR when preparing for an inguinal herniorraphy? A. rectal B. bowel C. vascular D. biliary, Which of the following is used to obtain specimens during a bronchoscopy? A. test tube B. suction container C. lukens tube D. 4x4 raytec sponges, Which suture material would be used in the presence of infection? A. polyglycolic acid B. silk C. chromic gut D. steel, Which surgical procedures uses Stevens tenotomy scissors? A. vulvectomy B. meniscectomy C. laminectomy D. blepharoplasty, Which surgical specialty uses Sims retractor? A. gynecologic B. genitourinary C. maxillofacial D. orthopedic, Which of the follwoing hernias can result in necrosis of the viscera? A. irreducible B. strangulated C. femoral D. sliding, When the surgeon makes a McBurney's incision, which muscle is encountered first and divided in the direction of its fibers? A. transverse abdominis B. rectus abdominis C. internal oblique D. external oblique, Which of the following maintains the position of the uterus? A. suspensory ligament B. levator muscle C. broad ligament D. pubic symphysis, Transverse colectomy is incised through which incision? A. upper midline B. oblique C. paramedian D. thoracoabdominal, Which kind of uterine tissues can grow in abnormal locations including the ovaries, pelvic peritoneum and small intestine? A. perimetrial B. cervical C. endometrial D. myometrial, Which preoperatve diagnostic exam is quickly completed to confirm ectopic pregnancy? A. colposcopy B. fluoroscopy C. ultrasound D. mri, How would you position a patient with an intertrochanteric fracture? A. lateral B. prone C. supine D. trendelenburg, What position allows optimal exposure of the retroperitoneal area of the flank? A. prone B. trendelenburg C. supine D. lateral, Which of the following is the correct sequence of instruments for placing a screw into bone? 1. Depth gauge 2. Drill 3. Screw driver 4. Tap A. 2,1,4,3 B. 1,2,4,3 C. 4,1,2,3 D. 2,4,1,3, The removal of fibrous thickening of the visceral pleura is: A. pericardiectomy B. poudrage C. decortication D. segmentectomy, The only depolarizing muscle relaxant in clinical use is: A. cisatracurium (Nimbex) B. vecuronium (Norcuron) C. rocuronium (Zemuron) D. succinylcholine (Anectine), What type of hernia involves a direct and indirect inguinal hernia? A. reducible B. umbilical C. epigastric D. pantaloon, How are the legs of the patient positioned for lateral position? A. lower leg straight, upper leg flexed B. lower leg flexed, upper leg straight C. both legs straight D. both legs flexed, The neuroglia of the nervous system: A. produce csf B. support and bind C. conduct impulses D. initiate reflexes, The method of inhalation anesthesia that allows complete rebreathing of expired gases is: A. mask inhalation B. closed C. semi-closed D. open, Which member of the surgical team is responsible for protecting an unsplinted fracture during positioning? A. circulator B. surgical technologist preceptor C. surgeon D. anesthesia provider, What personal protective equipment should the surgical technologist don prior to the start of an extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy procedure? A. fluid proof apron B. eye protection C. non-sterile gloves D. lead apron, Another name for tonsil suction is: A. poole B. baron C. frazier D. yankauer, Which muscles relax when a small pad is placed under a patient's head in the supine position? A. cremaster B. deltoid C. strap D. pyramidal, When medication or local anesthetic is passed to the surgeon, the surgical technologist should: A. show the surgeon the medicine bottle B. state how much medication the circulator dispensed C. hand the syringeto the surgeon with the cap on the needle for safety D. state the name and dosage of the medication, A type of bone-holding forceps is: A. dingman B. langenbeck C. smillie D. slocum, What surgical procedure would use the Satinsky vena cava clamp? A. endarterectomy B. thoracoscopy C. lobectomy D. coronary artery bypass, According to OSHA standards, protective eyewear of some form must be worn: A. only for known HIV and HBV cases B. only for cases when excessive bleeding is expected C. on orthopedic cases only D. on all cases, What pathological condition of the small intestine could be misdiagnosed as acute appendicitis? A. gastritis B. carcioma C. crohn's disease D. meckel's diverticulum, Which piece of equipment is required for administration of a bier block? A. pulse oximeter B. pain control anesthesia pump C. double-cuffed tourniquet D. electrosurgical unit, Whih subcategory of drug preparation is a combination of two liqueds that cannot mix? A. solution B. emulsion C. suspension D. semisolid, What is the average normal respiration rate for children? A. 10 to 17 B. 18 to 30 C. 30 to 40 D. 40 to 50, The introduction of radiopaque contrast medium into an artery or vein is called a/an: A. ultrasonography B. angiography C. cholangiography D. echocardiography, What anatomical structure must be approximated after a colectomy to prevent herniation of abdominal contents? A. omentum B. pylorus C. mesentery D. jejunum, To prevent density, instrument sets should not exceed: A. 15 lbs B. 20 lbs C. 25 lbs D. 10 lbs, When surgically treating hydrocephalus, where is the shunt placed? A. third ventricle B. lateral ventricle C. aqueduct of sylvius D. foramen of monro, Which of the follwoing is a type of uterine fibroid? A. endometrium B. cystocele C. leiomyoma D. rectocele, The ureters enter the bladder medially: A. at the distal aspect B. at the superior aspect C. form the posterior aspect D. from the anterior aspect, The pathogen that most often causes posstoperative surgical site infections is: A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Escherichia coli C. Candida albicans D. Staphylococcus aureus, Which organ is the most frequently injured during a motor vehicle accident? A. spleen B. liver C. kidney D. heart, Where would the surgical technologist find pertinent information for "pulling" a case? A. laboratory reports B. surgical consent C. preference card D. hospital medical records, Suture material that becomes encapsulated by fibrous tissue during the healing stage is: A. multifilament B. fascia lata C. ligatures D. non-absorbable, If a mentoplasty is being performed, the surgical technologist should confirm a prosthesis is available for the: A. ear B. chin C. forehead D. nose, Which of the following means cell "eating"? A. phagocytosis B. filtration C. pinocytosis D. osmosis, Which nerve could be damaged when the patient is placed in Fowler's position? A. ulnar B. femoral C. brachial D. sciatic, What is the correct order for donning OR attire? 1. Scrub suit 2. Shoe covers 3. Hair cover 4. Mask A. 4,3,1,2 B. 2,3,1,4 C. 1,3,4,2 D. 3,1,4,2, The cranial nerve responsible for hearing and balance is the: A. V B. VIII C. XI D. XII, Whiich of the following is not a hemostatic agent used in orthopedic surgery? A. bone wax B. gelfoam C. xeroform D. thrombin, Which of the following is responsible for disseminated intravascular coagulation? A. endotoxin B. exotoxin C. neurotoxin D. enterotoxin, The copper wire in the electrosurgical unit allows the flow of free electrons is called the: A. resistor B. ground wire C. conductor D. insulator, At the end of a procedure, the surgeon asks for the local anesthetic to inject intra-articular. Where is the surgeon injecting the local drug? A. subcutaneous B. dermal C. within joint D. intravenous, Which preoperative diagnostic test is useful in diabetic patients with small vessel arterial disease? A. plethysmography B. echocardiography C. capnography D. isotope scanning, Which of the following is the most effective method for sterilizing items that can be damaged by steam sterilization? A. plasma sterilization B. ethylene oxide C. glutaraldehyde D. peracetic acid, The mandible articulates with which bone? A. ethmoid B. maxillae C. temporal D. zygomatic, What could result from crossing the patient's arm across his/her chest in the supine position? A. interference with circulation B. interference with respiration C. postoperative discomfort D. pressure on the median nerve, Which of the following is incorrect when preparing a paper-plastic peel pack? A. ring hadles of clamps are placed at end B. instruments are held together with autoclave tape within the peel pack C. open end of peel pack sealed with autoclave tape D. inner peel pack of a double peel pack is not sealed, Which of the following degrees in Celsius equals 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit? A. 34 B. 37 C.30 D. 40, When the surgical technologist is preparing surgical instruments for transport to the decontamination room, which statement is incorrect? A. instruments with multiple parts should be assembled B. Instruments with ratchets should be unratcheted C. string instruments with ring handles D. heavy instruemtns should be placed on tray bottom flashcards

CST Final Practice Exam 2

68D Phase II Practice Exam B (Not correct version, but good practice).

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  • Which of the following is a type of tissue forceps? A. brown-adson B. pean C. allis D. schnidt
    A. The brown-adson tissue forceps are used during minor procedures to grasp tissue.
  • Which endoscope is used to visualize the heart and major vessels? A. ventriculoscope B. bronchoscope C. mediastinoscope D. angioscope
    D. The angioscope is used for visualization of the heart and major vessels.
  • The goal of the surgical scrub is to lower the population of which flora to an irreducible minimum? A. parasitic B. resident C. transient D. enteric
    B. Resident microbes habitually live in the epidermis, deep in the crevices and folds of the skin.
  • Which needle is used during the bladder suspension procedure for treating stress incontinence in women? A. stamey B. chiba C. dorsey D. tru-cut
    A. The Stamey procedure involves suspending the fascial attachments of the bladder to the rectus fascia with sutures placed through a Stamey needle.
  • Which procedure can be performed without making an incision to treat varicose veins? A. sclerotherapy B. varicocelectomy C. vein ligation D. vein stripping
    A. Sclerotherapy is the injection of sodium chloride, dextrose or saline solution into the small varicosities to destroy the lumen.
  • When repairing a direct hernia, the surgeon works within the anatomical triangle formed by the inguinal ligament, inferior epigastric vessels and the lateral border of the rectus abdominis called: A. femoral B. anterior C. hesselbach's D. calot's
    C. There are may anatomical triangles throughout the body to aid the surgeon and surgical team in describing the location of a pathology. A direct hernia presents through Hesselbach's triangle.
  • Which of the following is the correct postoperative sequence of actions completed by the aurgical technologist? 1. Assist with postoperative patient care. 2. Remove drapes. 3. Remove gown and gloves. 4. Break down sterile setup. A. 2,1,4,3 B. 2,3,1,4 C. 3,2,4,1 D. 4,2,1,3
    B. The sequence of actions completed by the surgical technologist is remove outer pair of sterile gloves, remove drapes, remove gown and gloves, don pair of non-sterile gloves, assist with immediate postoperative care of the patient, break down the mayo stand and backtable.
  • What should be completed before the sterile items are opened for the first procedure of the day? A. lower temperature in the OR B. wipe down furniture and surfaces C. test sterilizer in substerile room D. test anesthesia machine
    B. Prior to opening sterile supplies for the first case of the day the OR furniture, equipment, surfaces and lights should be wiped down ("damp dusting") with disinfectant solution.
  • Cardiac muscles are controlled by which division of the nervous system? A. sympathetic B. somatic C. autonomic D. central
    C. The autonomic nervous system (ANS) conducts impulses to the cardiac muscles.
  • Oophor/o is the root word for which anatomical structure? A. ovary B. uterus C. cervical os D. fallopian tube
    A. Oophor/o is the root word for ovary.
  • In which of the following would absorbable suture be contraindicator? A. peritoneum B. muscle C. intestinal anastomosis D. vascular anastomosis
    D. When a vascular anastomosis is being performed, it requires the ability to heal and have a long term, secure anatomosis; therefore, absorbable suture would not be used.
  • During a cesarean section, which organ is freed from the uterus to prevent injury? A. pelvic ligaments B. ureters C. fallopian tubes D. bladder
    D. Before the incision is made in the uterus, the bladder is dissected free from the uterus and retracted inferiorly
  • Which of the following refers to the absence of pathogens? A. pathological B. aseptic C. septic D. nosocomial
    B. Aseptic means without sepsis or no pathogens are present
  • Which surgical procedure would use the Sims uterine currettes? A. d&c B. colporrhaphy C. lavh D. myomectomy
    A. The sims uterine curettes have sharp ends that are graduated in size and used during a d&c to obtain endocervical and endometrial tissue specimens
  • What must be done prior to positioning a patient undergoing a posterior lumbar laminectomy? A. attachment of arm boards B. padding of knees C. endotracheal intubation D. skin prep
    C. Prior to positioning the patient undergoing a posterior lumbar laminectomy, endotracheal intubation is completed.
  • What is the name of the instrument shown below? ADD PICTURE A. carmalt B. ochsner C. adair D. pennington
    D. The pennington clamp may be used by a surgeon to grasp a hemorrhoid for excision or a small piece of the lung during a segmental resection.
  • Which of the following damages the mastoid air cells and ossicles of the ear? A. meniere's disease B. acoustic neuroma C. cholesteatoma D. otosclerosis
    C. Cholesteatoma is a benign tumor that invades the mastoid cavity and destroys the mastoid air cells and can also damage the ossicles
  • When placing a swaged needle onto a needle holder, the needle should be clamped: A. one-third distance from swaged end of needle B. one-fourth distance from the needle point C. at the junction of suture and needle D. half-way distance fromt he needle point
    A. The needle holder is clamped approximately one-third of the distance from the swaged end of the needle.
  • Which endoscope is used for the removal of foreign bodies from the airway of a pediatric patient? A. flexible esophagoscope B. flexible bronchosocpe C. rigid esophaoscope D. rigid bronchoscope
    D. Rigid bronchoscopy is usually performed for the removal of foriegn objects fromt he airway of children.
  • Which of the following elements primarily make up the body's mass? A. oxygen, carbon, magnesium, sodium B. oxygen, potassium, hydrogen, sulfur C. oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen D. oxygen, carbon, phosphorus, magnesium
    C. 96% of the body's mass is made up of oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen
  • Which instrument is used to contract the ribs for suturing purposes? A. bailey B. semb C. matson D. doyen
    A. The bailey rib contractor is positioned over two ribs and tightened to bring them together to facilitate suturing.
  • The largest muscle of the upper calf is the: A. tibialis B. peroneus C. gastrocnemius D. quadriceps
    C. The gastrocnemius is the muscle that forms the bulk of the upper calf.
  • What is the length of time when thrombin loses its potency? A. 30 minutes B. 60 minutes C. 2 hours D. 3 hours
    D. Thrombin should be immediately used when reconstituted with saline or discarded if not used within several hours because it loses potency.
  • The function of the small intestine is: A. synthesis of vitamins B. absorption of nutrients C. production of bacteria D. excretion of bile
    B. The functions of the small intestine are digestion and absorption.
  • The teeth are composed primarily of: A. dentin B. cementum C. enamel D. pulp
    A. Teeth are composed of dentin, a calcified connective tissue.
  • The basis for the design of electrical equipment in the OR is: A. alternating current B. isolated circuit C. electron theory D. ohm's law
    C. The principles that govern the movement of electrons is the electron theory that serves as the basis for the design of all types of electrical equipment.
  • Which of the following procedures is performed to decrease gastric secretions? A. pyloroplasty B. vagotomy C. billroth I D. gastrostomy
    B. To aid in controlling gastric secretions, a vagotomy is performed.
  • A patient who underwent an appendectomy enters the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, constipation and vomiting. Which of the following is occuring? A. cholecystitis B. obstructed bowel C. diverticulitis D. strangulated hernia
    B. The patient most likely is experiencing an obstructed bowel due to the formation of postoperative adhesions.
  • Which organ shares the same blood supply with the pancreas and must be removed during a Whipple procedures? A. kidney B. duodenum C. bladder D. spleen
    B. The head of the pancreas shares the same arterial supply with the dupdenum. Since the Whipple procedure is performed for cancer of the head of the pancreas, the duodenum must be removed.
  • During a cleft palate procedure, which equipment should the surgical technologist be prepared to set up quickly? A. drill B. microscope C. nerve stimulator D. saw
    A. To facilitate placement if the sutures in the hard palate, the surgeon ma use a drill with drill bit.
  • The muscle that flexes and supinates the forearm and covers the anterior portion of the upper arm is the: A. flexor radialis B. biceps brachii C. brachioradialis D. teres major
    B. The biceps brachii flexes and supinates the forearm and covers the anterior portion of the upper arm.
  • A surgeon tells a patient she has terminal cancer but requires prophyactic surgery to prevent a bowel obstruction and the patient replies, "This can't be happening to me." Which stage of grief is the patient displaying? A. denial B. depression C. bargaining D. anger
    A. Denial is the first stage of the five stages of grief when the patient doesn't accept what is happening to him/her.
  • What is the purpose of inserting a ureteral stent catheter? A. monitor urine output B. bypass calculi obstruction C. excise calculi D. prevent postoperative hemorrhage
    B. The ureteral catheter stent is implanted to bypass partial or total obstructions of the ureter due to the ureteral tumors, calculi or strictures.
  • Which of the follwoing is used to create the trough on the anterior glenoid rim during a Bankart procedure? A. periosteal elevator B. bone cutting forceps C. shaver with abrader tip D. reciprocating saw
    C. Once exposure is completed the repair of a rotator cuff begins by creating a bony through on the humerus near the tuberosity using a ronger, curette, curved osteotome or powered burr.
  • Which of the following secretes hydrochloric acid? A. parietal cells B. salivary glands C. pancreas D. duodenum
    A. Parietal cells are glands located in the stomach and secrete the digestive juice hydrochloric acid,
  • Which of the following preoperative diagnostic tests would be administered to a patient with a brain injury? A. EEG B. EMG C. SAO2 D. TEE
    A. Electroencephalography is a recording of the electrical activity of the brain used to help diagnose seizure disorders, brain tumors, epilepsy, and injuries to the brain.
  • Which of the following is a type of fenestrated drape? A. incise B. three-quater C. extremity D. split
    C. The extremity drape has an opening, called a fenestration, for placing over an extremity.
  • The walls of the vagina are lined with: A. fascia B. mucosa C. serosa D. peritoneum
    B. The vagina is a tubular, fibromuscular organ lined with mucous membrane.
  • Which type of scalpel uses ultrasonic energy to cut and coagulate tissue? A. fulguration B. hemostatic C. hermonic D. plasma
    C. The ultrasonic scalpel (Harmonic scalpel)uses a single-use titanium blade attached to a handpiece and connected to a generator that causes the blade to move by rapid utrasonic motion to cut and coagulate.
  • A forgarty catheter is used during a/an: A. gastrectomy B. thoracotomy C. embolectomy D. craniotomy
    C. The balloon-tipped Fogarty catheter is inserted through an anteriotomy to facilitate removal of an embolus.
  • Which of the following positioning devices is needed when placing the patient in the supine position? A. kidney rest B. elbow pads C. mayfield headrest D. beanbag
    B. One of the pressure points of the supine position is the elbows; gel pads or foam should be used for protection.
  • During a trabeculectomy, which teo layers are incised at the begining of the procedure? A. cornea, iris B. pupil, lens C. conjunctiva, tenon's capsule D. sclera, retina
    C. The layers initially incised during a trabeculectomy procedure are the conjunctiva and Tenon's capsule
  • What instrument set should the surgical technologist have available in the OR when preparing for an inguinal herniorraphy? A. rectal B. bowel C. vascular D. biliary
    B. The surgical technologist should always anticipate strangulated or incarcerated bowel when preparaing for an inguinal herniorraphy and have the bowel instruments in the room in case a bowel resection has to be performed.
  • Which of the following is used to obtain specimens during a bronchoscopy? A. test tube B. suction container C. lukens tube D. 4x4 raytec sponges
    C. The Lukens tube is connected to the suction system of the bronchoscope to collect the specimens
  • Which suture material would be used in the presence of infection? A. polyglycolic acid B. silk C. chromic gut D. steel
    D. Steel is the least inert material used as a suture material and is used in the presence of a wound infection.
  • Which surgical procedures uses Stevens tenotomy scissors? A. vulvectomy B. meniscectomy C. laminectomy D. blepharoplasty
    D. The stevens tenotomy scissors are used during delicate procedures, such as eye surgery.
  • Which surgical specialty uses Sims retractor? A. gynecologic B. genitourinary C. maxillofacial D. orthopedic
    A. The Sims retractor is used most often in gynecologic surgery
  • Which of the follwoing hernias can result in necrosis of the viscera? A. irreducible B. strangulated C. femoral D. sliding
    B. A strangulated hernia occurs when bowel is trapped within the hernia sac, and the blood supply is compromised.
  • When the surgeon makes a McBurney's incision, which muscle is encountered first and divided in the direction of its fibers? A. transverse abdominis B. rectus abdominis C. internal oblique D. external oblique
    D. When using the McBurney's incision for an appendectomy, the firstmuscle encountered is the external oblique which is bluntly divided in the direction of its fibers.
  • Which of the following maintains the position of the uterus? A. suspensory ligament B. levator muscle C. broad ligament D. pubic symphysis
    C. The broad, uterosacral and cardinal ligaments maintain the position of the uterus.
  • Transverse colectomy is incised through which incision? A. upper midline B. oblique C. paramedian D. thoracoabdominal
    A. A transverse colectomy is the excision of the transverse colon; an upper midline or transverse incision is made.
  • Which kind of uterine tissues can grow in abnormal locations including the ovaries, pelvic peritoneum and small intestine? A. perimetrial B. cervical C. endometrial D. myometrial
    C. The endometrium is the inner layer of the uterus; the abdominal growth and implantation of the tissue on the outside of the uterus is called endometriosis.
  • Which preoperatve diagnostic exam is quickly completed to confirm ectopic pregnancy? A. colposcopy B. fluoroscopy C. ultrasound D. mri
    C. An ultrasound is performed to confirm fluid in the peritoneal cavity.
  • How would you position a patient with an intertrochanteric fracture? A. lateral B. prone C. supine D. trendelenburg
    C. A fracture table is used to position that patient in the supine position to reduce the fracture.
  • What position allows optimal exposure of the retroperitoneal area of the flank? A. prone B. trendelenburg C. supine D. lateral
    D. The lateral kidney position provides optimal exposure to the retroperitoneal area of the flank for a transverse incision.
  • Which of the following is the correct sequence of instruments for placing a screw into bone? 1. Depth gauge 2. Drill 3. Screw driver 4. Tap A. 2,1,4,3 B. 1,2,4,3 C. 4,1,2,3 D. 2,4,1,3
    A. The correct sequence of instruments when a screw is placed in bone is drill, depth gauge, tap and screw driver; the same sequence is used for placement of all screws.
  • The removal of fibrous thickening of the visceral pleura is: A. pericardiectomy B. poudrage C. decortication D. segmentectomy
    C. When blood or pus from a chest injury is not properly drained from the pleural cavity, it coagulates and forms a fibrin layer over the pleura called empyema. Decortication is dissection of the fibrin.
  • The only depolarizing muscle relaxant in clinical use is: A. cisatracurium (Nimbex) B. vecuronium (Norcuron) C. rocuronium (Zemuron) D. succinylcholine (Anectine)
    D. Succinlycholine is the only depolarizing muscle relaxant in use; it acts rapidly but its effects must be allowed to wear off since there is no reversal agent currently available.
  • What type of hernia involves a direct and indirect inguinal hernia? A. reducible B. umbilical C. epigastric D. pantaloon
    D. A pantaloon hernia refers to the presence of a direct and indirect hernia.
  • How are the legs of the patient positioned for lateral position? A. lower leg straight, upper leg flexed B. lower leg flexed, upper leg straight C. both legs straight D. both legs flexed
    B. When placing a patient in the lateral position, the lower leg is flexed and the upper leg is straight with a pillow placed between the legs.
  • The neuroglia of the nervous system: A. produce csf B. support and bind C. conduct impulses D. initiate reflexes
    B. The neuroglia are specialized nerve cells that provide support and protection.
  • The method of inhalation anesthesia that allows complete rebreathing of expired gases is: A. mask inhalation B. closed C. semi-closed D. open
    B. A closed system allows complete rebreathing of expired gases; exhaled carbon dioxide is absorbed by soda lime.
  • Which member of the surgical team is responsible for protecting an unsplinted fracture during positioning? A. circulator B. surgical technologist preceptor C. surgeon D. anesthesia provider
    C. The surgeon is responsible for moving the unsplinted fracture to protect it from further injury when positioning the patient.
  • What personal protective equipment should the surgical technologist don prior to the start of an extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy procedure? A. fluid proof apron B. eye protection C. non-sterile gloves D. lead apron
    D. Fluoroscopy may be used to identify the exact location of the urinary stone; therefore, the surgical team should wear a lead apron.
  • Another name for tonsil suction is: A. poole B. baron C. frazier D. yankauer
    D. The yankauer is also referred to as the tonsil suction tip. The angle of the suction tip makes it ideal for pharyngeal suctioning during a tonsillectomy.
  • Which muscles relax when a small pad is placed under a patient's head in the supine position? A. cremaster B. deltoid C. strap D. pyramidal
    C. Placement of a small pad under the patient's head in the supine position allows the strap muscles to relax and avoids neck strain.
  • When medication or local anesthetic is passed to the surgeon, the surgical technologist should: A. show the surgeon the medicine bottle B. state how much medication the circulator dispensed C. hand the syringeto the surgeon with the cap on the needle for safety D. state the name and dosage of the medication
    D. Every time the surgical technologist passes a medication to the surgeon, he/she should be verbally provide the name of the drug, strength, and amount.
  • A type of bone-holding forceps is: A. dingman B. langenbeck C. smillie D. slocum
    A. There are several types of bone holding clamps that vary in size. One type is the Dingman that has a single tooth on the end for grasping the bone.
  • What surgical procedure would use the Satinsky vena cava clamp? A. endarterectomy B. thoracoscopy C. lobectomy D. coronary artery bypass
    D. The satinsky vena cava clamp, also called the satinsky partial occlusion clamp, is an atraumatic clamp available in various lengths used during major cardiothoracic procedures such as the CABG.
  • According to OSHA standards, protective eyewear of some form must be worn: A. only for known HIV and HBV cases B. only for cases when excessive bleeding is expected C. on orthopedic cases only D. on all cases
    D. An absolute requirement of standard precautions is the wearing of adequate protective eyewear on all surgical procedures.
  • What pathological condition of the small intestine could be misdiagnosed as acute appendicitis? A. gastritis B. carcioma C. crohn's disease D. meckel's diverticulum
    D. Meckel's diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum that presents as a small bulge in the small intestine and can present signs and symptoms that are the same as acute appendicitis.
  • Which piece of equipment is required for administration of a bier block? A. pulse oximeter B. pain control anesthesia pump C. double-cuffed tourniquet D. electrosurgical unit
    C. A double-cuffed tourniquet is used. One cuff is inflated, and if it becomes uncomfortable for the patient, the other cuff is inflated and the first deflated.
  • Whih subcategory of drug preparation is a combination of two liqueds that cannot mix? A. solution B. emulsion C. suspension D. semisolid
    B. A form of liqued medication is an emulsion; the medication is mixed with water and oil and held together by an emulsifier. A common emulsion used in surgery is propofol.
  • What is the average normal respiration rate for children? A. 10 to 17 B. 18 to 30 C. 30 to 40 D. 40 to 50
    B. The average normal respiration rate for children (1-7 years of age) is 18-30 per minute.
  • The introduction of radiopaque contrast medium into an artery or vein is called a/an: A. ultrasonography B. angiography C. cholangiography D. echocardiography
    B. Angiography is the primary diagnostic procedure performed for the evaluation of peripheral vascular disease.
  • What anatomical structure must be approximated after a colectomy to prevent herniation of abdominal contents? A. omentum B. pylorus C. mesentery D. jejunum
    C. The mesentary is appoximated to aid in keeping the intestine in normal anatomical position in order to prevent herniation and maintain the blood supply.
  • To prevent density, instrument sets should not exceed: A. 15 lbs B. 20 lbs C. 25 lbs D. 10 lbs
    C. The Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation recommends that instrument sets should not exceed 25 lbs.
  • When surgically treating hydrocephalus, where is the shunt placed? A. third ventricle B. lateral ventricle C. aqueduct of sylvius D. foramen of monro
    B. The multi-holed ventricular catheter is placed in the lateral ventricle of the brain.
  • Which of the follwoing is a type of uterine fibroid? A. endometrium B. cystocele C. leiomyoma D. rectocele
    C. Leiomyomas are a type of uterine fibroid that can cause lower abdominal pain, pelvic congestion, menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea and increased fertility. A myomectomy is a surgical procedure performed to remove the fibroids.
  • The ureters enter the bladder medially: A. at the distal aspect B. at the superior aspect C. form the posterior aspect D. from the anterior aspect
    C. The ureters enter the urinary bladder medially from the posterior aspect.
  • The pathogen that most often causes posstoperative surgical site infections is: A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Escherichia coli C. Candida albicans D. Staphylococcus aureus
    D. The pathogen that is most commonly associated with the cause of postoperative SSIs is staphylococcus aureus.
  • Which organ is the most frequently injured during a motor vehicle accident? A. spleen B. liver C. kidney D. heart
    A. The spleen is the number one organ injured during motor vehicle accidents.
  • Where would the surgical technologist find pertinent information for "pulling" a case? A. laboratory reports B. surgical consent C. preference card D. hospital medical records
    C. The surgeon's preference card lists the supplies, equipment, instrumentation, suture, dressing materials and surgeon's personal preferences for a procedure.
  • Suture material that becomes encapsulated by fibrous tissue during the healing stage is: A. multifilament B. fascia lata C. ligatures D. non-absorbable
    D. Non-absorbable sutures become encapsulated during the healing process and remain in the tissues for many years.
  • If a mentoplasty is being performed, the surgical technologist should confirm a prosthesis is available for the: A. ear B. chin C. forehead D. nose
    B. Mentoplasty is reconstruction of the chin which can involve placement of a prosthesis.
  • Which of the following means cell "eating"? A. phagocytosis B. filtration C. pinocytosis D. osmosis
    A. Phagocytosis is the engulfment of large particles and is sometimes called cell "eating".
  • Which nerve could be damaged when the patient is placed in Fowler's position? A. ulnar B. femoral C. brachial D. sciatic
    D. The sciatic nerve is a long nerve that extends through the muscles of the thigh, leg, and foot with numerous branches. When a patient is placed in Fowler's (sitting) position, adequate padding must be provided to prevent damage to the nerve.
  • What is the correct order for donning OR attire? 1. Scrub suit 2. Shoe covers 3. Hair cover 4. Mask A. 4,3,1,2 B. 2,3,1,4 C. 1,3,4,2 D. 3,1,4,2
    D. Hair covers are donned first to decrease the possibility of hair shedding on the scrub suit and decrease microbial shedding.
  • The cranial nerve responsible for hearing and balance is the: A. V B. VIII C. XI D. XII
    B. The vestibulocochlear (VIII) is the cranial nerve that contains special fibers for hearing as well as balance.
  • Whiich of the following is not a hemostatic agent used in orthopedic surgery? A. bone wax B. gelfoam C. xeroform D. thrombin
    C. Xeroform is a nonpermeable, occlusive dressing made of fine mesh gauze; it is commonly used as the first layer in a three-layer dressing.
  • Which of the following is responsible for disseminated intravascular coagulation? A. endotoxin B. exotoxin C. neurotoxin D. enterotoxin
    A. Endotoxins cause the overstimulation of coagulating proteins, which causes systemic intravascular clotting that, in turn, results in tissue necrosis.
  • The copper wire in the electrosurgical unit allows the flow of free electrons is called the: A. resistor B. ground wire C. conductor D. insulator
    C. Materials that allow the flow of free electrons are called conductors and include copper, aluminum, brass and carbon.
  • At the end of a procedure, the surgeon asks for the local anesthetic to inject intra-articular. Where is the surgeon injecting the local drug? A. subcutaneous B. dermal C. within joint D. intravenous
    C. Intra-articular refers to "within a joint" therefore, the surgeon will be injecting the local anesthetic inside the joint.
  • Which preoperative diagnostic test is useful in diabetic patients with small vessel arterial disease? A. plethysmography B. echocardiography C. capnography D. isotope scanning
    A. Plethysmography is useful in patients with small arterial vessel disease; it records variations in the amount of blood in an extremity.
  • Which of the following is the most effective method for sterilizing items that can be damaged by steam sterilization? A. plasma sterilization B. ethylene oxide C. glutaraldehyde D. peracetic acid
    B. EtO is the most effective sterilizing agent for items that can be eroded or corroded, because it is heat and/or moisture sensitive.
  • The mandible articulates with which bone? A. ethmoid B. maxillae C. temporal D. zygomatic
    C. The mandible articulates with the temporal bone.
  • What could result from crossing the patient's arm across his/her chest in the supine position? A. interference with circulation B. interference with respiration C. postoperative discomfort D. pressure on the median nerve
    B. In the supine position, crossing the patient's arms across his/her chest causes interference with respirations by tightening the thoracic region ad not allowing full expansion of the lungs.
  • Which of the following is incorrect when preparing a paper-plastic peel pack? A. ring hadles of clamps are placed at end B. instruments are held together with autoclave tape within the peel pack C. open end of peel pack sealed with autoclave tape D. inner peel pack of a double peel pack is not sealed
    B. Rubber bands, paper clips or tape should not be used to hold items together inside a peel pack; the binding material prevents the sterilizing agent from making contact.
  • Which of the following degrees in Celsius equals 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit? A. 34 B. 37 C.30 D. 40
    B. 98.6 - 32 = 66.6; 66.6 / 1.8 = 37C
  • When the surgical technologist is preparing surgical instruments for transport to the decontamination room, which statement is incorrect? A. instruments with multiple parts should be assembled B. Instruments with ratchets should be unratcheted C. string instruments with ring handles D. heavy instruemtns should be placed on tray bottom
    A. Instruments with multiple parts, such as the Balfour retractor, should be disassembled when breaking down the backtable and Mayo stand.