What are OAEs (otoacoustic emissions)?
Otoacoustic emissions (OAEs) are sounds generated by the cochlea in response to auditory stimulation. They can be measured using specialized equipment and provide information about the health and function of the inner ear.
What are the two types otoacoustic emissions?
- Transient Evoked (TEOAE): Transient evoked otoacoustic emissions (TEOAEs) are evoked by a brief click or tone burst stimulus.
- Distortion Product (DPOAE): Distortion product otoacoustic emissions (DPOAEs) are generated when two tones of different frequencies are presented simultaneously to the ear.
What is the UNBHS program?
The UNBHS (Universal Newborn Hearing Screening) program is a comprehensive screening program aimed at identifying hearing loss in newborns. OAE screening is a part of this program and is performed in most pediatric well visits to ensure early detection and intervention for hearing loss.
Where are OAE's used as screeners?
Used as a screener at most pediatric well visits
Used as a screener in many educational settings
What is the significance of the law passed in New Jersey regarding newborn hearing screening?
In 2002, New Jersey passed a law mandating that all newborn babies receive a hearing screening before they leave the hospital. This ensures that every newborn has the opportunity for early detection of hearing loss and access to appropriate interventions.
What is EHDI (Early Hearing Detection and Intervention)?
EHDI stands for Early Hearing Detection and Intervention. It is a program that oversees newborn hearing screening efforts, follow-up services, and intervention programs for infants identified with hearing loss. In New Jersey, EHDI is responsible for managing the statewide newborn hearing screening program.
What are the "1-3-6" guidelines in newborn hearing screening?
The "1-3-6" guidelines are a set of recommended timeframes for newborn hearing screening and intervention. It suggests that infants should have their initial hearing screening before one month of age, receive a full evaluation by three months if they receive a referral on the initial screening, and be enrolled in early intervention services by six months of age if diagnosed with hearing loss.
What does EDHI stand for?
EDHI stands for Early Hearing Detection and Intervention.
Who does EDHI work with?
multiple state agencies
SLP
Social Workers
Pediatricians
OT
PT
What is the purpose of OAE testing?
OAE testing is a simple and non-invasive method used to obtain audiologic data, particularly in newborns. It helps determine if the outer hair cells of the inner ear are functioning properly, which is directly correlated to hearing ability.
Who first described Otoacoustic Emissions (OAE)?
Otoacoustic Emissions were first described by David Kemp in 1977.
What is an Otoacoustic Emission?
An Otoacoustic Emission is a low-intensity sound that is recorded in the external ear canal. It is produced within the cochlea in response to a sound stimulus.
How is an Otoacoustic Emission measured?
To measure an Otoacoustic Emission, a microphone is placed inside a probe tip, which is inserted into the external ear canal. The emission is recorded as a response to a sound stimulus presented to the ear.
What can the absence of an Otoacoustic Emission indicate?
If the middle ear is compromised or if there are issues with the sound transmission to the cochlea, the Otoacoustic Emission may be absent or reduced. Therefore, the absence of an Otoacoustic Emission can indicate problems in the middle ear or sound transmission pathway.
What information does the presence of an Otoacoustic Emission provide?
The presence of an Otoacoustic Emission tells us about the function of the cochlea and the outer hair cells. It does not provide information about the function of the auditory nerve (8th cranial nerve) or beyond.
What does TEOAE stand for?
TEOAE stands for Transient Evoked Otoacoustic Emissions.
What is the stimulus used in TEOAE?
The stimulus used in TEOAE is a very brief click or toneburst presented at a level of 80dB SPL (sound pressure level).
Why are high frequency responses elicited first in TEOAE?
High frequency responses are elicited first in TEOAE because of the tonotopic organization of the cochlea. The hair cells responsible for high-frequency hearing are located on the outermost part of the cochlea, so their responses are detected first.
When do mid- and low-frequency components of TEOAE occur?
Mid- and low-frequency components of TEOAE occur a bit later, at around 10 milliseconds (ms) after the stimulus presentation.
How many sweeps are typically used in TEOAE?
Typically, 2000 sweeps are used in TEOAE to obtain a reliable measurement.
What criteria are used to assess the TEOAE response?
The TEOAE response is assessed based on its stability and reproducibility, with a desired criterion of at least 70% reproducibility. Additionally, the emissions should be at least 6dB above the noise floor for reliable detection.
What does DPOAE stand for?
DPOAE stands for Distortion Product Otoacoustic Emissions.
How are DPOAEs generated?
DPOAEs are generated by presenting two different tones to the ear. The resulting emission is a third tone, which is a distortion product of the first two tones.
What is the relationship between the two primary tones and the resulting emission in DPOAE?
The resulting emission in DPOAE is a distortion product that occurs at a frequency corresponding to the mathematical relationship between the two primary tones.
How can OAEs assist in differential diagnosis?
OAEs can help differentiate between different types of hearing loss. If a patient has moderate to profound hearing loss but has present OAEs, it suggests that the outer hair cells are intact. This finding can be helpful in diagnosing conditions such as retrocochlear loss or pseudohypacusis.
What is retrocochlear loss?
Retrocochlear loss refers to hearing loss caused by issues beyond the cochlea, typically involving the auditory nerve or central auditory pathways. When OAEs are present in a patient with moderate to profound hearing loss, it suggests that the cochlea is functioning normally, pointing to a potential retrocochlear cause.
What is pseudohypacusis?
Pseudohypacusis, also known as functional hearing loss or nonorganic hearing loss, refers to a condition where individuals intentionally feign or exaggerate hearing loss. OAEs can help identify pseudohypacusis by demonstrating intact outer hair cell function despite behavioral tests suggesting hearing loss.
Why are OAEs so useful?
They can assist in differential diagnosis
Aids in determining cochlear implant candidacy
Do OAEs equal hearing thresholds?
No, OAEs do not directly indicate hearing thresholds. They are used as a pass/refer screening tool and are typically utilized alongside full audiometric batteries for a comprehensive assessment.
Can issues with the outer or middle ear affect OAE results?
Yes, if there is an issue with the outer or middle ear, such as a blockage or dysfunction, it can alter the OAE response. Therefore, OAEs may be affected in the presence of such conditions.
Are OAEs always present in individuals with moderate or greater hearing losses?
No, OAEs may not be present in individuals with moderate or greater hearing losses. The presence of OAEs is more likely in individuals with milder hearing losses.
At what frequency range can OAEs provide objective screening?
OAEs can provide objective screening specifically in the frequency range of approximately 1000-4000Hz. They are not as effective at evaluating other frequency regions.
How can OAEs be useful in monitoring cochlear function?
OAEs enable us to monitor changes in cochlear function over time. By comparing OAE responses at different points, we can assess any alterations or improvements in cochlear health.
What are the three categories that OAEs can typically fall into?
The three categories that OAEs can typically fall into are:
Normal: OAEs are present with strong emissions.
Present: OAEs are present but with low amplitudes.
Absent: No measurable OAE responses.
What does ABR stand for and what does it stand for?
ABR stands for Auditory Brainstem Response, and it refers to the electrical activity of the auditory system in response to an acoustic stimulus.
What is an auditory evoked potential?
Auditory evoked potentials are electrical responses generated by the auditory system in response to a sound stimulus.
When was ABR first reported?
ABR was first reported in the late 1960s.
What is the time frame of ABR testing?
ABR specifically looks at the first 10 milliseconds (ms) following the presentation of the stimulus.
When did ASHA release practice protocols for audiologists and ABR testing?
2003
What does ABR stand for in audiology?
Auditory Brainstem Response
At what time do the waves occur in the ABR test?
10ms post stimulus onset
Which waves are of particular interest in audiology ABR testing?
Waves I-V
Is the ABR test known for its sensitivity?
Yes, it is a very sensitive test.
What is the repeatability of the ABR test?
High repeatability
What does the patient wear during the ABR test?
Earphones
What is the typical stimulus level used in the ABR test?
80-90dB SPL (Sound Pressure Level)
What are the two types of stimuli used in the ABR test?
Click or tone burst
What is the steady rate at which the stimuli are presented in the ABR test?
27.7/61.1 (per second)
Which type of stimulus is typically used for threshold estimation in the ABR test?
Tone burst
Which neural structure is associated with Wave I in the ABR?
Auditory nerve
Which neural structure is associated with Wave II in the ABR?
Cochlear nucleus
Which neural structure is associated with Wave III in the ABR?
Superior olivary complex
Which neural structure is associated with Wave IV in the ABR?
Lateral lemniscus
Which neural structure is associated with Wave V in the ABR?
Inferior colliculus
Where are the electrodes placed on the patient's head during an ABR test?
One on each mastoid and two on the forehead.
How should the skin be prepared before applying the electrodes for ABR testing?
The skin should be cleaned using an alcohol prep.
What can be used to enhance the electrode-skin contact during ABR testing?
Abrasive cream can be applied to improve impedance.
What is the desired impedance level for the electrodes during ABR testing?
The impedance should be less than 5 mV.
What is encouraged for the patient during an ABR test?
Natural sleep is encouraged for the patient during this test.
How should the patient be positioned during an ABR test?
The patient should be seated in a comfortable chair or lying down.
What should be avoided during an ABR test to minimize artifacts?
Patients need to be as quiet and still as possible, avoiding eyeblinks, coughing, heavy breathing, and muscle movement.
What items should be avoided during an ABR test?
Baby bottles and pacifiers should be avoided as they can introduce artifacts.
What is a "sedated" ABR?
A sedated ABR is performed under anesthesia for patients who may not be able to cooperate or remain still during the test.
What are the uses of ABR testing?
ABR testing is used to test neural integrity, determine the presence of retrocochlear pathology, and estimate thresholds for individuals who cannot participate in traditional audiometry.
What frequencies can be used for tone burst presentation during ABR testing?
Frequencies such as 500 Hz, 1000 Hz, 2000 Hz, and 4000 Hz can be used for tone burst presentation during ABR testing.
Which specific wave is typically observed and analyzed in ABR testing?
Wave V is the specific wave that is typically observed and analyzed in ABR testing.
How can switching to a bone oscillator help in ABR testing?
Switching to a bone oscillator can help determine if the hearing loss is conductive (CHL) or sensorineural (SNHL).
What are some additional applications of ABR testing?
ABR testing is also used in newborn hearing screening (NBHS) and intraoperative monitoring.
What does VNG stand for?
VNG stands for Video Nystagmography.
What is the purpose of VNG testing?
VNG testing is used for balance assessment and to determine if the inner ear is responsible for dizziness.
What was VNG previously referred to as?
VNG was previously referred to as ENG, which stands for Electronystagmography.
What are the three portions of VNG testing?
The three portions of VNG testing are ocular motor testing, positional testing, and caloric testing.
What type of goggles does the patient wear during VNG testing?
The patient wears infrared video goggles during VNG testing.
Why is it important to visualize the patient's eye movements during VNG testing?
Visualizing the patient's eye movements is crucial because it allows the examiner to accurately assess and analyze the characteristics and patterns of nystagmus, which is an involuntary rhythmic eye movement. By observing the eye movements, the examiner can gather important information about the function of the vestibular system and diagnose any underlying vestibular disorders or abnormalities causing dizziness or balance issues.
What is nystagmus?
Nystagmus is an involuntary eye movement that can cause the eyes to move up and down, side to side, or torsionally (in a twisting motion).
What can cause nystagmus?
Nystagmus can be caused by various factors, including vestibular stimulation, intoxication, spinning in circles, and riding in the back seat of a car.
What does the presence of nystagmus indicate?
When nystagmus is observed, it suggests that the inner ear is involved in the underlying cause of the patient's dizziness.
Why is the case history important in assessing nystagmus?
The case history is vital in assessing nystagmus as it provides valuable information about the patient's symptoms, medical history, and potential triggers or contributing factors. This information helps in determining the possible causes and appropriate management of nystagmus.
What are some symptoms associated with nystagmus?
Some symptoms associated with nystagmus include double vision, blurry vision, and difficulty focusing. These visual disturbances can be experienced by individuals with nystagmus.
What are some important aspects to assess regarding the duration of dizziness?
It is important to determine whether the dizziness is episodic (occurring in discrete episodes) or constant (persisting continuously). Additionally, knowing the duration of each episode is valuable, such as whether it lasts for seconds, minutes, hours, or even days.
What information can be obtained by identifying what makes the dizziness stop?
Identifying the factors that alleviate or stop the dizziness can provide insights into potential triggers or alleviating measures. It can help determine if medication, closing the eyes, laying down, or other specific actions have an impact on the dizziness experienced by the patient.
What specific movements should be explored as potential triggers for dizziness?
It is important to inquire about specific movements that may trigger or worsen the dizziness. These can include getting up out of a chair, laying down, turning the head, or tilting the head back. Understanding the relationship between these movements and the onset or exacerbation of dizziness helps in the diagnostic process.
Why is it important to assess the frequency of dizziness in the case history?
Assessing the frequency of dizziness helps in understanding how often the episodes occur. This information provides insights into the impact on the patient's daily life and helps in determining the urgency of the evaluation and management.
Why is it important to inquire about changes in the severity of dizziness since onset?
Changes in the severity of dizziness can indicate a progression or improvement of the underlying condition. This information helps in monitoring the course of the condition and evaluating the effectiveness of any treatments or interventions.
Why is it concerning if the patient is on medication for dizziness on the day of the evaluation?
If the patient has taken medication to treat dizziness on the day of the evaluation, it may potentially affect the test results or mask the symptoms. It is important to obtain an accurate assessment of the patient's symptoms without the influence of medication.
Why is it important to ask about any changes in vision or hearing during the dizziness episode?
Changes in vision or hearing during dizziness episodes can provide valuable clues about the potential underlying causes. Symptoms such as aural fullness, pain, ringing in the ears, or changes in visual perception help in differentiating between various vestibular and auditory conditions.
How does assessing vision contribute to the case history for a dizzy patient?
Assessing vision helps in understanding if there are any visual symptoms associated with dizziness, such as blurred vision, double vision, or difficulty focusing. These visual symptoms can provide important information about the relationship between the vestibular system and visual processing, aiding in the diagnosis and management of the condition.
What are some ocular motor tasks?
Gaze
Saccades
Smooth pursuit
Optokinetics
What is gaze in the context of VNG testing?
Gaze refers to the ability to fixate and maintain a steady gaze on a stationary target. Assessing gaze helps determine if there are any abnormalities in the ability to maintain stable eye position, which can be indicative of vestibular or neurological disorder
What are saccades in the context of VNG testing?
Saccades are rapid eye movements that redirect the line of sight between different targets. Assessing saccades helps evaluate the accuracy, speed, and coordination of these eye movements, which can provide insights into the integrity of the ocular motor system and its interaction with the vestibular system.
What is smooth pursuit in the context of VNG testing?
Smooth pursuit refers to the ability to smoothly track a moving target with the eyes. Assessing smooth pursuit helps evaluate the coordination and accuracy of eye movements during tracking tasks, which can provide information about the integrity of the vestibular-ocular reflex and the smooth tracking system.
What are optokinetics in the context of VNG testing?
Optokinetics involve visual stimuli that move across the field of view to elicit eye movements. Assessing optokinetics helps evaluate the ability to visually track moving objects and the corresponding eye movements, providing information about the interaction between visual stimuli and the vestibular system.
Name positional tests
- Supine
- Dix Hallpike
- Head left
- Head right
- Body left
- Body right
What is the supine positional test in VNG testing?
The supine positional test involves lying the patient down flat on their back. It helps evaluate if changes in head position while lying down provoke nystagmus or dizziness
What is the Dix Hallpike maneuver in VNG testing?
It involves a quick movement of the patient's head from an upright sitting position to a head-hanging position, typically with the head turned to one side.
What are the head left, head right, body left, and body right positional tests in VNG testing?
Head left and head right refer to turning the head to the left or right, respectively, while body left and body right involve leaning the body to the left or right, respectively.
What is caloric testing?
A test in which the patient lies down with their head at a 30-degree angle and receives four separate irrigations of air.
What are the two types of air irrigations used in caloric testing?
Two cool and two warm air irrigations.
How long does the air remain in the patient's ear during caloric testing?
The air is in their ear for 60 seconds each time.
What is the purpose of caloric testing?
To induce dizziness and observe nystagmus in order to assess the functioning of the vestibular system.