What are the first steps in communication?
•Someone wants to speak and verbally express information in an oral format.
•A listener picks up the acoustic information provided by the talker.
•The listener takes that information and transfers it to a neural signal, which is processed by their brain.
For accurate decoding of the message, two important factors come into play:
1) effective language use by the speaker: proper grammar, vocabulary, and sentence structure
2) speech detection capability by the listener: ability to detect and perceive speech sounds. They should have intact auditory perception and processing.
What is the speech standpoint?
For a message to be discriminated and understood, the language used by the speaker needs to be comprehensible to the listener. They need to use the same language, grammar, syntax, and shared vocabulary.
What is the audiology standpoint?
Even if the language used by the speaker and listener is the same, a hearing impaired person can impede the listener's ability to understand the message.
It is crucial for equipment used by audiologists to meet the standards of who?
American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
What is ANSI?
private, nonprofit organization that develops and accredits standards across various industries. They calibrate the equipment to ensure accurate measurements and consistent results.
What is sound?
Sound is energy that is transmitted through pressure waves that are a byproduct of force applied to sound.
How is sound represented and analyzed as?
waveform and spectrograms
What axis is amplitude on?
vertical axis
What axis is time on?
horizontal axis
The waveforms and spectrograms show what?
frequency, time, intensity
What is intensity?
physical measurement of sound energy and it is objective.
How is sound measured?
in decibels (dB). It is a logarithmic scale.
Does 0db mean no sound?
No. It represents the reference level or threshold of human hearing.
What is loudness?
the subjective perception of sound intensity by an individual
What do audiologists look for when completing audiograms?
frequency or pitch
What is frequency?
The objective measurement predetermined according to the audiometer dial
What is pitch?
the psychological correlate to frequency. It is subjective of how high or low a sound is. It is affected by the individual's sensation, intensity, and patient's annoyance to the sound.
250 Hz frequency is associated with which sounds?
vowels, /m/, /n/
500 Hz frequency is associated with which sounds?
/l/, /r/, /w/, /j/
100 Hz frequency is associated with which sounds?
/sh/, /f/, /th/
What is the common thread between the sender of the spoken message and the intended receiver?
the speech signal
What are the two parts of the outer ear?
1. Pinna (auricle)
2. Ear canal (external auditory meatus)
What is the pinna?
the visible, external part of the outer ear.
What is the ear canal (EAM)?
tube-like structure that extends from the opening of the outer ear to the eardrum (TM)
Why should you not put cotton swabs in your ear?
1) Risk perforating the eardrum (TM)
2) Wax prevents bugs from entering the canal
What role does the outer ear play?
sound detection
What is the resonant frequency of the ear canal?
2500 Hz
What is the resonant frequency of the concha?
5000 Hz
What is the head shadow effect?
sounds coming from one side of the head are partially blocked by the head itself, resulting in difference of sound intensity between the two ears
What is the role of the pinna?
finding the sound
How does placing a hand in a cup position over the pinna help?
it helps them determine if the sound is in front or behind them
it can also aid in detecting the angle of origin in reference to the ear
What are the two portions of the EAM?
cartilaginous portion, which is a continuation of the pinna
the bony part which leads to the skull
What is the role of the EAM?
direct sound towards the eardrum and protection of the ear drum
What is the shape of the EAM?
S shape to protect against sand, bugs, etc.
What does the EAM help maintain?
a controlled temperature within the ear. It is an effective tool for identifying illness.
What does the ear canal produce?
wax
What are the parts of the middle ear?
1. tympanic membrane
2. ossicles
3. Eustachian tube
Why is the tympanic membrane important?
It is part of the chain of sound transmission
What does the TM look like?
thin, semitransparent membrane
How many layers is the TM composed of?
three layers
The TM vibrates in response to
sound pressure
What is an otoscopy?
helps examine the ear canal and ear drum. The cone of light is light that can be seen on the eardrum's surface.
What are the three bones of the middle ear?
malleus, incus, stapes
What is the malleus?
attached to the eardrum and it vibrates in response to sound waves then transfers sound to the incus and stapes
The Eustachian tube is normally...
closed
When does the Eustachian tube open?
to chew, yawn, or swallow or to maintain pressure on either side of TM
What are the parts of the inner ear?
1. cochlea
2. vestibular system
what does the perilymph do?
keeps the membranous labyrinth from bumping into the bony labyrinth
What is endolymph?
it is within the membranous labyrinth
What are the three sections of the labyrinth?
semicircular canals, vestibule, cochlea
What are the semicircular canals?
they are involved in balance
What are the three orientations of the semicircular canals?
superior, lateral, and posterior
What is the cochlea?
the sensory organ of hearing
What is the shape of the cochlea?
snail-shape
What are the three chambers of the cochlea?
scala vestibuli, scala media and scala tympani
The cochlea is home to?
the round and oval windows
How is the cochlea organized?
tonotopically, which means that some regions are sensitive to different frequencies of sound. low frequencies on the inside and high frequencies on the outside.
What is the chain of sound?
Sound enters the ear canal, then reaches the tympanic membrane. The sound waves cause the TM to vibrate which causes the ossicular movement of the incus, malleus, and stapes. The stapes bone hits the oval window, which is connected to the cochlea. Inside the cochlea is the organ of corti which has hair cells which turn the vibration of sound into electrical impulses. The electrical impulses are sent to the brain to be discriminated.
What is the passage of air conduction?
1) sound waves enter the pinna
2) They travel down the ear canal
3) They reach the tympanic membrane/ ear drum
4) They reach the ossicles and vibrate
5) They reach the cochlea
What is the purpose of the bone conduction pathway?
- it bypasses the outer and middle ear and sends sounds directly to the outer ear
- it does not go through the ear canal or vibrate the TM
- it directly stimulates the cochlea
If someone has middle ear fluid, they can hear by
directly stimulating the temporal bone
What is the peripheral hearing system?
anatomical structures involved in the transmission of sounds from the outer ear to the cochlea. Outer, middle, inner ear.
When an individual has difficulty discriminating or understanding sounds despite normal peripheral hearing, it suggests the possibility of
a central auditory processing deficit
a disruption along the pathway of the auditory nerve or a lesion in the auditory cortex can indicate a
central hearing loss
What is a central hearing loss?
the sound is being transmitted through the outer and middle ears effectively, but once it leaves the cochlea, the message gets disrupted
Why is central hearing loss difficult to diagnose?
a variety of tests need to be completed
Why are people with central hearing loss difficult to fit with hearing aids?
Hearing aids primarily amplify sound and enhance the audibility of speech and environmental sounds. However, individuals with central hearing loss may have challenges in processing and interpreting the amplified sounds effectively.
What is a peripheral hearing impairment?
hearing loss or disorders that occur in the outer, middle, or inner ear.
What are the three types of peripheral hearing impairments?
1. conductive
2. sensorineural
3. mixed
What is conductive hearing loss?
Occurs when sound is unable to pass efficiently through the outer or middle ear due to blockages, malformations, or other conditions.
Examples of conductive hearing loss
•Fluid
•Wax
•Foreign body
•Perforation
Are conductive hearing losses treatable?
yes they are often treatable
What is a sensorineural hearing loss?
a type of hearing loss that occurs due to problems in the cochlea, the neural pathways, or the sensory systems within the auditory system.
Sensorineural hearing loss involves sensory receptors (hair cells) in
the cochlea, or the neural pathway from the cochlea to the auditory cortex, or a combination of both.
Is sensorineural hearing loss curable?
no it is typically untreatable and therefore permanent
for snhl, If the pathology is cochlear in origin,
the damage typically begins with the sensory receptors within the cochlea, which are the hair cells
for snhl, what happens inside the organ of Corti?
•the hair cells (many many hair cells) are destroyed
•This is the first step- eventually, the destruction will continue along afferent nerve fibers, eventually rising up the pathway of the auditory system
Can you see damage with SNHL?
no If the damage went from the organ of Corti, up the ascending pathways towards the auditory cortex, these individuals now have RETROCOCHLEAR pathology
•BEYOND the cochlea
People with retrocochlear pathology with more damage than inside the cochlea will complain about:
•Dizziness
•Tinnitus
•Gait issues
what 3 cranial nerves are important to hearing?
VIII Auditory
IX Glossopharyngeal
XII Hypoglossal
What are the roles of the auditory nerve?
1) carrying auditory information from the cochlea to the auditory cortex for sound discrimination and understanding.
2) transmitting information related to balance and equilibrium from the vestibular system to the brain
What other testing would need to be performed to determine if the pathology extends beyond the cochlea?
•VNG – balance test
•MRI
ABR - Auditory Brainstem Response
High-frequency loss in the cochlea means
basal damage (outside of the cochlea)
Low-frequency loss in the cochlea means
apex damage (the inner portion of the cochlea)
Individuals with a hearing loss restricted (for the time being) to the cochlea may also experience
an abnormal sense of loudness growth and altered production of speech sounds
What factors contribute to conductive hearing loss?
•Infection
•Wax
•Perforation of TM
- Ossiculardysfunction
How can you assess a conductive hearing loss?
Pure-tone audiometry: Evaluates hearing sensitivity by measuring the softest sounds a person can hear at different frequencies.
Tympanometry: Assesses the movement of the eardrum and measures middle ear pressure.
Otoscopy: Visual examination of the ear canal and eardrum to identify blockages or abnormalities.
How do you treat a conductive hearing loss?
Medical intervention: In cases of earwax blockage or middle ear infections, appropriate medical treatment (e.g., earwax removal, antibiotics) may resolve the conductive hearing loss.
Surgical options: Some conditions, such as a perforated eardrum or ossicular chain abnormalities, may require surgical intervention (e.g., tympanoplasty, ossiculoplasty) to restore hearing.
Hearing aids: For persistent or permanent conductive hearing loss, hearing aids can amplify sound and improve auditory perception.
What is a mixed hearing loss?
a combination of both conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. It means that there is damage or dysfunction in both the middle ear and the inner ear (cochlea) or auditory nerve pathway.
What happens if the cochlea was independently stimulated in a mixed hearing loss?
If the cochlea is independently stimulated, for example, through direct sound presentation, it may still yield better results compared to when sound has to pass through the compromised middle ear. This is because the cochlea itself may be functioning relatively better than the middle ear in this scenario.
How would you assess mixed hearing loss?
Comprehensive audiological evaluation: Includes pure-tone audiometry to measure hearing thresholds, speech audiometry to assess speech understanding, and other tests such as tympanometry, otoacoustic emissions, or auditory brainstem response to determine the type and degree of hearing loss.
How would you treat a mixed hearing loss?
Medical intervention: In cases of conductive hearing loss components (e.g., earwax blockage, middle ear infections), appropriate medical treatment (e.g., earwax removal, antibiotics) may be necessary.
Surgical options: Some cases may require surgical intervention (e.g., tympanoplasty, ossiculoplasty, cochlear implant) to address conductive or sensorineural components.
Hearing aids or assistive listening devices: Depending on the degree of hearing loss and individual needs, amplification devices can help improve hearing and communication.
What is prelingual hearing loss?
hearing loss occurred before the development of language, may have limited or no exposure to spoken language during critical periods of language acquisition.
what is post lingual hearing loss?
knows how words should sound before losing hearing
A child born with hearing loss has a more difficult time than a post-lingual adult who loses their hearing because
it could cause them to be behind in school or cause a social and emotional boundary
Hearing loss in the elderly can lead to
•Isolation
•Depression
•Frustration
For young and middle-aged adults, hearing loss can affect
employment, family, and finance
What are audiologists?
They specialize in the study of hearing and disorders of hearing
What is the role of audiologists?
They play a crucial role in the assessment, diagnosis, and intervention of various hearing-related conditions
•Promote healthy hearing, quality of life
What do audiologists treat?
•Hearing, balance, tinnitus, auditory processing, newborn hearing screening
•Intraoperative monitoring, CI programming, hearing aids, assistive devices
What do pediatric audiologists do?
focuses on identifying the loss and then managing their educational needs
What do VA audiologists do?
work primarily with noise-induced losses, or age-related losses, and providing amplification to these individuals
What do Industrial audiologists do?
work for organizations such as OSHA to make sure that places of employment demonstrate safe listening levels
Where can audiologists work?
•Private practice
•ENT
•Hospitals
•Schools
•Manufacturer
•VA
University clinic
What does a single license state mean?
audiologists in New Jersey are no longer required to obtain a separate hearing aid dispensing license in addition to their audiology license in order to provide amplification services, such as fitting and dispensing hearing aids.
Prior to this change, audiologists had to hold both licenses and pay fees to two separate regulatory bodies:
the New Jersey Board of Consumer Affairs and the New Jersey Board of Hearing Aid Dispensers.
What qualifications are required to legally sell hearing aids in NJ as a Hearing Instrument Specialist (HIS)?
A high school diploma and passing a national HIS exam.
What does the acronym HIS stand for in the context of hearing healthcare?
Hearing Instrument Specialist
What are some factors that can contribute to the level of impairment in individuals with hearing loss?
Age of patient, cause of the loss, severity of loss
What is the difference between impairment and disability?
Impairment refers to a structural abnormality, while disability refers to a functional limitation
How does the concept of handicap differ from impairment and disability?
Handicap refers to the inability to function at the same level as peers
Why is the case history an important component of the appointment?
It provides valuable information about the patient's concerns and reasons for seeking help
What are some possible reasons for a patient to seek a hearing appointment?
Self-perceived difficulty, disgruntled family member, teacher complaints
What are some specific questions to ask during a pediatric case history?
Pre/postnatal history, NICU stay, newborn hearing screening (NBHS), ear infections, family history, speech/language development, developmental milestones
■Other diagnoses= ADHD, Autism, ODD, etc.
■Educational setting
–What questions are important for this topic?
■Other health history
–Vision
■Social skills
■Responses to sound
■Extra curricular activities
What are some specific questions to ask during an adult case history?
chief complaint, medical history, ear-related history (ear infections, ear surgeries, ear pain, dizziness, discharge), noise exposure, ototoxic medications, family history, communication difficulties, tinnitus
What can otoscopy tell us?
a) It allows us to visualize the external ear canal and assess its condition.
b) It helps identify any abnormalities, such as wax buildup, foreign objects, or inflammation, in the ear canal.
c) It provides a view of the tympanic membrane (eardrum) and helps evaluate its integrity and appearance.
what is tympanometry?
Tympanometry is a diagnostic test used to evaluate the mobility and function of the middle ear and eardrum (tympanic membrane). It provides valuable information about the middle ear's pressure, compliance, and overall health.
What point indicates that the pressure in the ear canal is equal to the middle ear pressure during tympanometry?
0 daPa
What are the essential components of immittance equipment?
Probe assembly - The probe goes into the eardrum
transducer - to give the probe tone output
air pump - to change the pressure in the ear canal
microphone - to measure the sound that is reflected back from the ear drum
Tympanometry aids in diagnosing conditions such as
middle ear effusion, otitis media, eustachian tube dysfunction, tympanic membrane perforations, or middle ear pathology.
Acoustic reflex
An acoustic reflex is an involuntary response of the stapedius muscle in the middle ear to an external sound stimulus.
What is the purpose of acoustic reflex testing?
Acoustic reflex testing is a diagnostic procedure that evaluates the integrity of the middle ear and the reflexive contraction of the middle ear muscles in response to loud sounds.
How does the acoustic reflex pathway work?
The sound is delivered through the probe into the ear canal and reaches the tympanic membrane (TM). The sound stimulation then travels through the middle ear, cochlea, and eighth nerve to the brainstem. Specifically, it reaches the ventral cochlear nucleus and the superior olivary complex. From there, the signal is transmitted to the facial nerve (CN VII), which ultimately controls the movement of the stapedius muscle.
what is the acoustic reflex threshold?
The acoustic reflex threshold is the lowest intensity (sound level) at which the acoustic reflex is elicited.
The ART is typically measured by presenting a loud sound (usually around 85-100 dB SPL) to one ear while monitoring the contraction of the stapedius muscle in the same ear or the contralateral ear.
Ipsilateral acoustic reflex:
The stimulus and the measurement are presented to the same ear. This test assesses the integrity of the middle ear reflex arc on the same side.
Contralateral acoustic reflex:
The stimulus is presented to one ear, while the measurement is taken from the contralateral ear. This test evaluates the reflex pathway from the stimulated ear to the brainstem and back to the stapedius muscle of the opposite ear.
How do conductive losses affect the acoustic reflex threshold?
Conductive losses may result in either no response or a higher than normal threshold in the acoustic reflex test. The increased mass and impedance of the middle ear system in conductive losses make it more challenging to stimulate the stapedial reflex.
How does sensorineural hearing loss affect the acoustic reflex?
In cases of sensorineural hearing loss, the acoustic reflex may be elevated or absent. Due to the elevated thresholds in sensorineural loss, higher presentation levels are required to elicit the reflex response. If the thresholds are already elevated, the intensity limits of the measurement equipment may be reached before a response can be obtained.
What is the purpose of audiometers?
Audiometric testing: Audiometers are used to measure a person's hearing thresholds at different frequencies (pitch) and intensities (loudness).
Diagnosis and evaluation: Audiometers help identify and characterize various types and degrees of hearing loss.
Treatment and intervention: They aid in the fitting and verification of hearing aids and assistive listening devices.
What is the advantage of having two channels in an audiometer?
The ability to send two different signals to each ear simultaneously. This allows for independent testing of each ear and enables binaural hearing assessments.
What kind of transducers do audiometers have?
–Inserts
–Supra aural
–Bone oscillator
–Speakers
What are the stimulus options available in an audiometer?
The stimulus options in an audiometer include pure tones, warbled tones, frequency modulated "FM" tones, speech signals, and the ability to connect external stimulus sources.
What is pure tone audiometry?
This test measures a person's hearing thresholds or the softest sounds a person can hear at various frequencies, typically ranging from 250 Hz to 8000 Hz. The individual responds to tones by indicating when they can hear the sound.
Diagnosis and classification of hearing loss: It helps identify the type and degree of hearing loss (conductive, sensorineural, or mixed) and its configuration (flat, sloping, or steeply sloping).
Treatment and intervention: Pure-tone audiometry aids in the selection and fitting of hearing aids and other hearing assistive devices.
what is speech audiometry?
Speech tests assess a person's ability to understand and repeat spoken words or sentences presented at different loudness levels.
where is pure tone audiometry performed?
in a booth with an audiometer
how can a patient respond to a pure tone audiometry test?
The individual undergoing the test indicates when they hear a sound by pressing a button, raising their hand, or giving a verbal response.
the pure tone audiometry test can use what types of conduction testing?
bone conduction testing and air conduction testing
Why is it important for the patient to know that the sounds will get softer and softer during the test?
To ensure they respond even if the sound is very faint.
Should the patient wait until the sound is very audible before responding?
No, they should respond even if the sound is very faint.
How long should the tones be in duration during pure tone audiometry?
1-2 seconds.
What is the recommended spacing between tones during pure tone audiometry?
More than 2 seconds.
What intensity should you begin with during pure tone audiometry?
An intensity that is audible to the patient, typically 30 dB.
What intensity should you use if the patient does not respond at the initial intensity?
Increase the intensity to 50 dB.
How much should you increase the intensity if the patient still does not respond?
Increase the intensity by 10 dB until the patient responds.
What is the recommended step size for presenting stimuli during pure tone audiometry?
Clinically, we use 5 dB steps (e.g., 35, 40, 45 dB, etc.).
What is the Hughson Westlake technique?
It involves a "down 10, up 5" procedure. The intensity is decreased by 10 dB after the patient responds and increased by 5 dB after the patient does not respond.
How many responses should be obtained during the ascending search in the Hughson Westlake technique?
The goal is to obtain 2 out of 3 responses on the ascending search.
What should be done once the patient responds to a tone during the Hughson Westlake technique?
The intensity should be decreased by 10 dB and the tone should be presented again.
What is done when the patient does not respond during the Hughson Westlake technique?
The intensity is increased by 5 dB to find the threshold.
What is interaural attenuation (IA) in audiometry?
Interaural attenuation refers to the reduction in sound energy when it crosses from one ear to the other. It typically ranges from 40 to 55 dB, depending on the type of transducer used.
How is masking noise used in audiometry?
Masking noise is introduced into the better ear at a level high enough to "mask" or prevent it from responding to sounds, but not so loud that it crosses back over to the worse ear.
When is masking typically necessary in audiometry?
When the responses from each ear are different or asymmetric.
What is the range of hearing loss for the mild classification?
25-40 dB HL
What is the main difficulty associated with mild hearing loss?
Difficulty hearing soft speech
At what dB HL range does moderate hearing loss fall?
40-55 dB HL
What can be challenging for individuals with moderate hearing loss?
Hearing everyday speech, especially in complicated listening situations
At what dB HL range does moderately severe hearing loss fall?
55-70 dB HL
How is hearing affected in the case of moderately severe hearing loss?
Difficulties hearing even very loud speech
What dB HL range characterizes severe hearing loss?
70-90 dB HL
How well can individuals with severe hearing loss hear speech without significant amplification?
They can only hear if speech sounds are significantly amplified
What level of hearing loss is classified as profound?
90 dB HL and above
What is the impact of profound hearing loss on speech understanding?
Individuals with profound hearing loss cannot understand speech at any intensity.
What is a flat hearing loss configuration?
A flat hearing loss configuration refers to a pattern where there is no significant change in hearing thresholds across frequencies.
What is a sloping hearing loss configuration?
In a sloping hearing loss, the severity of the hearing loss increases as the frequencies get higher, resulting in a more significant loss at higher pitches.
What is a rising hearing loss configuration?
In a rising hearing loss, the severity of the hearing loss decreases as the frequencies get higher, leading to better hearing ability at higher pitches.
What is a precipitous hearing loss configuration?
A precipitous hearing loss is characterized by a sharp decline in hearing sensitivity, often resulting in a severe to profound level of hearing loss.
What is a cookie bite hearing loss configuration?
A cookie bite hearing loss configuration refers to a pattern where there is a significant loss of hearing sensitivity in the mid-frequency range, resembling a "bite" taken out of the middle portion of an audiogram.
What is a notched audiogram in relation to hearing loss?
A notched audiogram refers to a specific pattern observed on an audiogram, where there is a significant drop in hearing sensitivity at a specific frequency or frequencies, creating a distinctive "notch" shape.
What is asymmetry in relation to hearing loss?
asymmetrical hearing loss can occur in both ears, meaning that each ear has a different degree or configuration of sensorineural hearing loss.
What are false responses in hearing testing?
False responses in hearing testing refer to inaccurate or incorrect patient responses during the evaluation. They can be categorized as false positives and false negatives.
What is a false positive response in hearing testing?
A false positive occurs when a patient responds to a sound stimulus even when they did not actually hear the tone. It may result from factors such as misunderstanding the instructions, guessing, or being overly attentive.
What is a false negative response in hearing testing?
A false negative occurs when a patient intentionally chooses not to respond even when they did hear the tone. It can be due to factors such as lack of cooperation, fatigue, or motivation to perform poorly.
What are some potential issues that can lead to false responses in hearing testing?
Issues such as collapsing canals, reduced elasticity of the outer ear and external auditory meatus, and supra aural headphones that press on the ear canal can contribute to false responses. Additionally, tactile responses, where the patient feels a response rather than hears it, can occur, especially at lower frequencies.
what is the speech reception threshold?
The purpose of SRT testing is to determine the minimum level at which the patient recognizes 50% of the speech material.
What type of words are typically used in SRT testing?
SRT testing typically uses a closed set of ten bisyllabic words known as spondees.
What is the procedure for conducting the SRT test according to the Ventry Chaiklin method?
The procedure for conducting the SRT test according to the Ventry Chaiklin method involves familiarizing the patient with visual cues, using 10 words at 30 dB re: PTA, and then proceeding with the actual test.
What does the WRS test measure?
an individual's ability to understand and repeat spoken words. It helps evaluate the clarity and discrimination of speech and is particularly useful in determining the impact of hearing loss on speech understanding.
At what level are the words presented during the WRS test?
The words are typically presented at a level that is 30-40dB above the Speech Reception Threshold (SRT).
How many words are typically presented to each ear during the WRS test?
Typically, 25 words are presented to each ear during the WRS test.
What type of words are used during the WRS test?
Monosyllabic words are commonly used during the WRS test.
What does MCL stand for in audiology?
MCL stands for Most Comfortable Level.
Why is it important to know the patient's MCL?
It is important to know the patient's MCL to understand their limit of comfort in reference to speech.
How can MCL help in hearing aid fittings?
MCL helps in hearing aid fittings by adjusting the maximum output of the hearing aid to match the patient's comfortable listening level.
What are the two methods used to determine MCL?
The two methods used to determine MCL are asking the patient if your voice is good, too loud, or too soft, and using a numeric scale to rate the loudness of your voice.
What does LDL-SRT represent?
LDL-SRT represents the dynamic range, which is the difference between the patient's Loudness Discomfort Level (LDL) and Speech Reception Threshold (SRT).
What types of stimuli are used in speech audiometry in noise?
Words or sentences.
What are some examples of background noise used in speech audiometry?
Multi-talker babble or broadband masking noise.
How is the Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) calculated?
By subtracting the background noise level from the speech level.
What are some methods used for pediatric testing?
VRA (Visual Reinforcement Audiometry), BOA (Behavioral Observation Audiometry), and play audiometry.
What is important to consider regarding the range of normal hearing in children?
Children have a smaller range of normal hearing, typically 15dB or lower, compared to adults.
What is play audiometry?
Play audiometry is a method of testing hearing in children where they are asked to perform a task when they hear a sound.
What are some examples of tasks used in play audiometry?
Examples of tasks used in play audiometry include putting a block in a bucket, placing a piece on Mr. Potato Head, or fitting a puzzle piece.
What is the purpose of conditioning the child during play audiometry?
The purpose of conditioning the child during play audiometry is to teach them to wait for the sound and perform the task only when they hear the specific sound.
Why is it important to keep the child quiet during play audiometry?
It is important to keep the child quiet during play audiometry to ensure they can hear the softest sounds and accurately respond to the auditory stimuli.
How can you create a suitable environment for play audiometry?
To create a suitable environment for play audiometry, set up a child-sized table and chairs, and ensure there is minimal stimulation or distractions.
Why is it beneficial to separate the child from their parents during play audiometry?
It is beneficial to separate the child from their parents during play audiometry to encourage independent engagement and minimize potential distractions.
What should be avoided during play audiometry to maintain the child's focus?
Activities that are too engaging or stimulating should be avoided during play audiometry to ensure the child's focus remains on the auditory stimuli being presented.
What is VRA (Visual Reinforcement Audiometry) and how does it work?
VRA is a method of testing hearing in children where they turn their head towards the origin of a sound stimulus in response to a visual reward. It helps determine the child's ability to localize sounds and is typically observed around 6 months of age.
What is BOA (Behavioral Observation Audiometry) and how does it differ from VRA?
BOA is a method of testing hearing in children where the audiologist observes the child's behavioral changes in response to the detection of a sound stimulus. These changes may include stopping sucking on a pacifier, opening the mouth, pointing, or showing signs of joy.
What is the recommended positioning of the child and speakers during VRA/BOA?
During VRA/BOA, it is important for the child to remain seated on a parent's lap facing forward so that the speakers are directly in front of them on the left and right sides. This positioning ensures that the child is in the optimal position to detect and respond to the sound stimuli from both sides.
Why are VRA and BOA tests preferred for pediatric audiometry?
VRA and BOA tests are preferred for pediatric audiometry because they take significantly less time compared to traditional audiometry. Children have shorter attention spans and may get bored of tone stimuli quickly, making these behavioral response tests more suitable.
What are some alternative stimuli that can be used during VRA/BOA testing?
Alternative stimuli that can be used during VRA/BOA testing include white noise, warbled tones, and speech stimuli. These stimuli help maintain the child's interest and engagement during the testing process.
Why is it important to consider the child's attention span and potential for boredom during testing?
It is important to consider the child's attention span and potential for fatigue during testing. Children tire more quickly than adults, so prioritizing the testing of important frequencies first, such as 500, 2000, 1000, and 4000 Hz, ensures that the essential information is captured within the child's optimal attention span. On an audiogram, soundfield testing results may appear as an "S" symbol to indicate that it was conducted using VRA or BOA methods in a soundfield environment.
Why is traditional speech audiometry challenging for young children?
Traditional speech audiometry can be challenging for young children because they may not have developed the language and cognitive skills necessary to understand and respond to specific speech stimuli.
What are some alternative methods used to assess speech detection threshold in pediatric testing?
Alternative methods used to assess speech detection threshold in pediatric testing include using vocalization tasks, such as repeating simple syllables like "babababa," and engaging the child in tasks that involve body part identification or pointing.
What can you use for modifications and alternative assessment techniques for people with lower intellectual abilities, language disorders, memory disorders, motor disorders?
–Spondee picture card
–NU-CHIPS
–WIPI
What are OAEs (otoacoustic emissions)?
sounds generated by the inner ear in response to auditory stimuli. They are commonly used in audiology to assess the integrity and function of the cochlea, the sensory organ responsible for hearing.
They are particularly useful in evaluating the hearing of infants, young children, and individuals who cannot provide reliable behavioral response
What are the two types otoacoustic emissions?
- Transient Evoked (TEOAE): Transient evoked otoacoustic emissions (TEOAEs) are evoked by a brief click or tone burst stimulus.
- Distortion Product (DPOAE): Distortion product otoacoustic emissions (DPOAEs) are generated when two tones of different frequencies are presented simultaneously to the ear.
What is the significance of the law passed in New Jersey regarding newborn hearing screening?
In 2002, New Jersey passed a law mandating that all newborn babies receive a hearing screening before they leave the hospital. This ensures that every newborn has the opportunity for early detection of hearing loss and access to appropriate interventions.
What is EHDI (Early Hearing Detection and Intervention)?
EHDI stands for Early Hearing Detection and Intervention. It is a program that oversees newborn hearing screening efforts, follow-up services, and intervention programs for infants identified with hearing loss. In New Jersey, EHDI is responsible for managing the statewide newborn hearing screening program.
What are the "1-3-6" guidelines in newborn hearing screening?
The "1-3-6" guidelines are a set of recommended timeframes for newborn hearing screening and intervention. It suggests that infants should have their initial hearing screening before one month of age, receive a full evaluation by three months if they receive a referral on the initial screening, and be enrolled in early intervention services by six months of age if diagnosed with hearing loss.
What is an Otoacoustic Emission?
An Otoacoustic Emission is a low-intensity sound that is recorded in the external ear canal. It is produced within the cochlea in response to a sound stimulus.
How is an Otoacoustic Emission measured?
To measure an Otoacoustic Emission, a microphone is placed inside a probe tip, which is inserted into the external ear canal. The emission is recorded as a response to a sound stimulus presented to the ear.
What can the absence of an Otoacoustic Emission indicate?
If the middle ear is compromised or if there are issues with the sound transmission to the cochlea, the Otoacoustic Emission may be absent or reduced. Therefore, the absence of an Otoacoustic Emission can indicate problems in the middle ear or sound transmission pathway.
What information does the presence of an Otoacoustic Emission provide?
The presence of an Otoacoustic Emission tells us about the function of the cochlea and the outer hair cells. It does not provide information about the function of the auditory nerve (8th cranial nerve) or beyond.
What does TEOAE stand for?
TEOAE stands for Transient Evoked Otoacoustic Emissions.
What is the stimulus used in TEOAE?
The stimulus used in TEOAE is a very brief click or toneburst presented at a level of 80dB SPL (sound pressure level).
Why are high frequency responses elicited first in TEOAE?
High frequency responses are elicited first in TEOAE because of the tonotopic organization of the cochlea. The hair cells responsible for high-frequency hearing are located on the outermost part of the cochlea, so their responses are detected first.
When do mid- and low-frequency components of TEOAE occur?
Mid- and low-frequency components of TEOAE occur a bit later, at around 10 milliseconds (ms) after the stimulus presentation.
What does DPOAE stand for?
DPOAE stands for Distortion Product Otoacoustic Emissions.
How are DPOAEs generated?
DPOAEs are generated by presenting two different tones to the ear. The resulting emission is a third tone, which is a distortion product of the first two tones.
How can OAEs assist in differential diagnosis?
OAEs can help differentiate between different types of hearing loss. If a patient has moderate to profound hearing loss but has present OAEs, it suggests that the outer hair cells are intact. This finding can be helpful in diagnosing conditions such as retrocochlear loss or pseudohypacusis.
What is retrocochlear loss?
Retrocochlear loss refers to hearing loss caused by issues beyond the cochlea, typically involving the auditory nerve or central auditory pathways. When OAEs are present in a patient with moderate to profound hearing loss, it suggests that the cochlea is functioning normally, pointing to a potential retrocochlear cause.
What is pseudohypacusis?
Pseudohypacusis, also known as functional hearing loss or nonorganic hearing loss, refers to a condition where individuals intentionally feign or exaggerate hearing loss. OAEs can help identify pseudohypacusis by demonstrating intact outer hair cell function despite behavioral tests suggesting hearing loss.
Why are OAEs so useful?
They can assist in differential diagnosis
Aids in determining cochlear implant candidacy
Do OAEs equal hearing thresholds?
No, OAEs do not directly indicate hearing thresholds. They are used as a pass/refer screening tool and are typically utilized alongside full audiometric batteries for a comprehensive assessment.
Can issues with the outer or middle ear affect OAE results?
Yes, if there is an issue with the outer or middle ear, such as a blockage or dysfunction, it can alter the OAE response. Therefore, OAEs may be affected in the presence of such conditions.
Are OAEs always present in individuals with moderate or greater hearing losses?
No, OAEs may not be present in individuals with moderate or greater hearing losses. The presence of OAEs is more likely in individuals with milder hearing losses.
How can OAEs be useful in monitoring cochlear function?
OAEs enable us to monitor changes in cochlear function over time. By comparing OAE responses at different points, we can assess any alterations or improvements in cochlear health.
What are the three categories that OAEs can typically fall into?
The three categories that OAEs can typically fall into are:
Normal: OAEs are present with strong emissions.
Present: OAEs are present but with low amplitudes.
Absent: No measurable OAE responses.
What does ABR stand for and what does it stand for?
ABR stands for Auditory Brainstem Response, and it refers to the electrical activity of the auditory system in response to an acoustic stimulus.
What is an auditory evoked potential?
Auditory evoked potentials are electrical responses generated by the auditory system in response to a sound stimulus.
Which waves are of particular interest in audiology ABR testing?
Waves I-V
What is the repeatability of the ABR test?
High repeatability
What does the patient wear during the ABR test?
Earphones
What are the two types of stimuli used in the ABR test?
Click or tone burst
Which type of stimulus is typically used for threshold estimation in the ABR test?
Tone burst
Where are the electrodes placed on the patient's head during an ABR test?
One on each mastoid and two on the forehead.
What is encouraged for the patient during an ABR test?
Natural sleep is encouraged for the patient during this test.
How should the patient be positioned during an ABR test?
The patient should be seated in a comfortable chair or lying down.
What should be avoided during an ABR test to minimize artifacts?
Patients need to be as quiet and still as possible, avoiding eyeblinks, coughing, heavy breathing, and muscle movement.
What items should be avoided during an ABR test?
Baby bottles and pacifiers should be avoided as they can introduce artifacts.
What is a "sedated" ABR?
A sedated ABR is performed under anesthesia for patients who may not be able to cooperate or remain still during the test.
Which specific wave is typically observed and analyzed in ABR testing?
Wave V is the specific wave that is typically observed and analyzed in ABR testing.
How can switching to a bone oscillator help in ABR testing?
Switching to a bone oscillator can help determine if the hearing loss is conductive (CHL) or sensorineural (SNHL).
What does VNG stand for?
VNG stands for Video Nystagmography.
What is the purpose of VNG testing?
diagnostic test used to evaluate and assess the function of the vestibular system, which is responsible for balance and spatial orientation
What was VNG previously referred to as?
VNG was previously referred to as ENG, which stands for Electronystagmography.
What are the three portions of VNG testing?
The three portions of VNG testing are ocular motor testing, positional testing, and caloric testing.
What type of goggles does the patient wear during VNG testing?
The patient wears infrared video goggles during VNG testing.
Why is it important to visualize the patient's eye movements during VNG testing?
Visualizing the patient's eye movements is crucial because it allows the examiner to accurately assess and analyze the characteristics and patterns of nystagmus, which is an involuntary rhythmic eye movement. By observing the eye movements, the examiner can gather important information about the function of the vestibular system and diagnose any underlying vestibular disorders or abnormalities causing dizziness or balance issues.
What is nystagmus?
Nystagmus is an involuntary eye movement that can cause the eyes to move up and down, side to side, or torsionally (in a twisting motion).
What can cause nystagmus?
Nystagmus can be caused by various factors, including vestibular stimulation, intoxication, spinning in circles, and riding in the back seat of a car.
What does the presence of nystagmus indicate?
When nystagmus is observed, it suggests that the inner ear is involved in the underlying cause of the patient's dizziness.
Why is the case history important in assessing nystagmus?
The case history is vital in assessing nystagmus as it provides valuable information about the patient's symptoms, medical history, and potential triggers or contributing factors. This information helps in determining the possible causes and appropriate management of nystagmus.
What are some symptoms associated with nystagmus?
Some symptoms associated with nystagmus include double vision, blurry vision, and difficulty focusing. These visual disturbances can be experienced by individuals with nystagmus.
What are some important aspects to assess regarding the duration of dizziness?
It is important to determine whether the dizziness is episodic (occurring in discrete episodes) or constant (persisting continuously). Additionally, knowing the duration of each episode is valuable, such as whether it lasts for seconds, minutes, hours, or even days.
What specific movements should be explored as potential triggers for dizziness?
It is important to inquire about specific movements that may trigger or worsen the dizziness. These can include getting up out of a chair, laying down, turning the head, or tilting the head back. Understanding the relationship between these movements and the onset or exacerbation of dizziness helps in the diagnostic process.
Why is it important to assess the frequency of dizziness in the case history?
Assessing the frequency of dizziness helps in understanding how often the episodes occur. This information provides insights into the impact on the patient's daily life and helps in determining the urgency of the evaluation and management.
What are some ocular motor tasks?
Gaze
Saccades
Smooth pursuit
Optokinetics
What is gaze in the context of VNG testing?
Gaze refers to the ability to fixate and maintain a steady gaze on a stationary target. Assessing gaze helps determine if there are any abnormalities in the ability to maintain stable eye position, which can be indicative of vestibular or neurological disorder
What are saccades in the context of VNG testing?
Saccades are rapid eye movements that redirect the line of sight between different targets. Assessing saccades helps evaluate the accuracy, speed, and coordination of these eye movements, which can provide insights into the integrity of the ocular motor system and its interaction with the vestibular system.
What is smooth pursuit in the context of VNG testing?
Smooth pursuit refers to the ability to smoothly track a moving target with the eyes. Assessing smooth pursuit helps evaluate the coordination and accuracy of eye movements during tracking tasks, which can provide information about the integrity of the vestibular-ocular reflex and the smooth tracking system.
What are optokinetics in the context of VNG testing?
Optokinetics involve visual stimuli that move across the field of view to elicit eye movements. Assessing optokinetics helps evaluate the ability to visually track moving objects and the corresponding eye movements, providing information about the interaction between visual stimuli and the vestibular system.
Name positional tests
- Supine - lying the patient down flat on their back. It helps evaluate if changes in head position while lying down provoke nystagmus or dizziness
- Dix Hallpike - quick movement of the patient's head from an upright sitting position to a head-hanging position, typically with the head turned to one side.
- Head left
- Head right
- Body left
- Body right
What is caloric testing?
A test in which the patient lies down with their head at a 30-degree angle and receives four separate irrigations of air.
What are the two types of air irrigations used in caloric testing?
Two cool and two warm air irrigations.
How long does the air remain in the patient's ear during caloric testing?
The air is in their ear for 60 seconds each time.
What is the purpose of caloric testing?
To induce dizziness and observe nystagmus in order to assess the functioning of the vestibular system.
What is the significance of experiencing dizziness during caloric testing?
Dizziness indicates a normal response of the vestibular system to the temperature-induced stimulation.
What does unilateral weakness refer to in caloric testing?
It is a reduced or weaker nystagmus response in one ear compared to the other, indicating a possible vestibular dysfunction
What is directional preponderance in caloric testing?
It involves comparing the nystagmus response between warm and cool irrigations in the same ear to assess the asymmetry of vestibular responses.
What is the purpose of rotary chair testing?
To assess the function of the semicircular canals in detecting rotational movement.
How does rotary chair testing evaluate the semicircular canals?
It measures the response of the canals to rapid acceleration, deceleration, and turns of varying speeds.
What type of movements are associated with the semicircular canals?
Rotational movements, such as turning the head or saying "no" with the head.
What is the purpose of posturography?
To assess how the body utilizes somatosensory, vestibular, and visual inputs for balance control.
Can posturography differentiate between central and peripheral vestibular impairments?
Yes, posturography can help determine whether a vestibular impairment is central (related to the central nervous system) or peripheral (related to the inner ear or vestibular nerve).
Who can benefit from posturography testing?
Individuals who have gait issues, a history of falls, or balance problems without experiencing dizziness can benefit from posturography assessment.
What are the potential courses of action determined based on posturography results?
The potential courses of action may include vestibular rehabilitation, medication, home exercises, and canalith repositioning maneuvers.
Will insurance companies reimburse for vestibular rehabilitation?
Insurance companies may not typically reimburse for vestibular rehabilitation when provided by audiologists. However, reimbursement may be possible when the services are provided by physical therapists (PTs).
Why is it important to refer back to an ENT physician regardless of recommendations?
Referring back to an ENT (Ear, Nose, and Throat) physician is important to ensure comprehensive evaluation and management of the patient's vestibular condition, as the ENT physician can provide medical expertise and necessary treatments.
What is the role of medication in the management of vestibular disorders?
Medication may be prescribed to manage symptoms associated with vestibular disorders, such as vertigo or nausea. The specific medication and dosage depend on the individual's condition and should be determined by a healthcare professional.
What are canalith repositioning maneuvers used for?
These maneuvers aim to reposition displaced calcium crystals in the inner ear to alleviate symptoms.
Which test is less frequently used for children in the assessment of balance and vestibular disorders?
VNG (Video Nystagmography) is less commonly used for children compared to other tests.
Why are pediatric case histories often less accurate?
Pediatric case histories can be less accurate due to the challenges in obtaining reliable information from young children, their limited ability to communicate symptoms accurately, and potential difficulty in recalling and describing their experiences.
What is the primary goal of screening for hearing impairment in children?
The primary goal of screening for hearing impairment in children is to identify those who have hearing loss that may impact their speech/language development and educational progress. By detecting hearing impairment early, appropriate interventions and support can be provided to minimize the impact of hearing loss on a child's communication skills and academic performance. It is crucial to ensure that follow-up assessments and interventions are implemented for children who do not pass the initial screening to address their specific needs effectively.
What is the purpose of a screening?
to identify those children with a hearing disorder who would not otherwise be identified
What can be the consequences of failing to identify individuals in a screening?
Failure to identify individuals may result in lifelong complications, such as difficulties in acquiring speech and language, articulation problems, issues with sound localization, poor academic performance, feelings of isolation and depression, and a negative self-concept.
What is the concept behind pass/fail in screening?
In a screening program, the children being screened are sorted into two groups: those who have the problem (fail) and those who don't have the problem (pass). It is a pass/fail situation where the goal is to identify individuals who may require further evaluation or intervention.
Does passing a screening guarantee that a child is free of the problem?
No, passing a screening does not guarantee that a child is free of the problem. The underlying problem, such as hearing loss, falls on a continuum, and the impact can range from no problem to a severe problem. Passing a screening simply indicates that the problem, if it exists, is not severe enough according to the screening protocol to warrant further testing.
What does passing a screening indicate?
Passing a screening indicates that the problem, if it exists, is not severe enough according to the screening protocol to warrant further testing. However, it does not guarantee the absence of the problem, as the disorder and its impact can vary in severity.
What does the tetrachoric table show in terms of screening principles?
The tetrachoric table shows the agreement between a screening test and a "gold standard" diagnostic test. This table is used to measure the validity of the screening test by comparing its results to the results of the diagnostic evaluation, which serves as the gold standard. The tetrachoric table allows for an examination of the agreement between the two tests, providing insight into the accuracy of the screening test in correctly identifying individuals with the problem.
How can the tetrachoric table be used to assess the reliability of the screening test?
The tetrachoric table can also be used to examine the reliability of the screening test. This can be done by studying the agreement between different examiners or the same examiner administering the test twice. By breaking down the results in the tetrachoric table and comparing the outcomes, the consistency and reliability of the screening test can be assessed. This helps ensure that the screening results are consistent and not influenced by factors such as examiner variability.
What is intratester reliability?
Intratester reliability refers to the consistency of the test when administered by the same person to the same individual on multiple occasions.
What is intertester reliability?
Intertester reliability assesses the consistency of the test when administered by different individuals to the same individual.
What is another term for test-retest reliability?
Test-retest reliability is another term for the consistency of the test across multiple administrations.
What is validity in relation to screening tools?
Validity refers to the extent to which the results of a screening tool align with the presence or absence of the disorder being screened for.
Why is using pure tones to screen for middle ear disease not the most valid approach?
Using pure tones to screen for middle ear disease is not the most valid approach because it has been shown to miss approximately half of the children with middle ear pathology. Mild hearing loss may not be detected by pure tone screening conducted at higher dB levels.
What does a true positive represent in the context of a screening test?
A true positive represents children who failed the screening and were found to have hearing loss.
Define false positives in relation to screening tests.
False positives refer to children who failed the screening but were found to have normal hearing.
What is the meaning of true negatives in the context of a screening test?
True negatives represent children who passed the screening and were found to have normal hearing.
Explain what false negatives represent in the context of a screening test.
False negatives represent children who passed the screening but were found to have hearing loss.
What are the potential outcomes or costs associated with a false positive in a screening test?
The outcomes or costs of a false positive include the cost of rescreening or retesting, distress associated with wrongly identifying a problem, the potential for unnecessary treatment, and increased costs for individuals due to unnecessary visits to healthcare professionals.
What is the impact of a false positive on the individuals being screened?
A false positive can cause distress and anxiety for individuals who are wrongly identified as having a problem when they don't.
Why is it important to keep false positives at a low rate in screening programs?
It is important to keep false positives at a low rate in screening programs to minimize unnecessary costs, avoid unnecessary treatments, and maintain public satisfaction with the screening process.
What are the potential costs associated with false negatives in a screening test?
The costs of false negatives include missing out on the benefits that come from early identification and intervention for a problem.
What are the consequences of false negatives in terms of early identification of a problem?
False negatives can delay the identification of a problem, which may prevent individuals from receiving timely support and intervention.
How can false negatives lead to misattributing certain behaviors to inappropriate causes?
False negatives can lead to the misattribution of certain behaviors to unrelated causes, as the presence of a problem may be overlooked or dismissed due to the false reassurance of a lack of problem.
How would the significance of false positives and false negatives change if the screened disease is contagious and fatal?
In the context of a contagious and fatal disease, the significance of false positives and false negatives increases.
In a screening program for a contagious and fatal disease, what trade-off might be acceptable in terms of false positives and false negatives?
In such screening programs, a higher false positive rate may be acceptable to ensure that more testing is conducted and potential cases are identified.
How does the prioritization of reducing false negatives in a screening program for a contagious and fatal disease impact the false alarm rate?
Prioritizing the reduction of false negatives in a screening program for a contagious and fatal disease will likely increase the false alarm rate, as more individuals are flagged for further testing or intervention.
How can the sensitivity of a screening test be increased?
Increasing the sensitivity of a screening test can be achieved by setting a stricter passing criterion.
What can be done to minimize the risk of missing individuals with a hearing problem in a screening program?
By setting the passing criterion at a lower threshold, such as 10 dB HL instead of 20 or 25 dB HL, the likelihood of identifying individuals with a hearing problem that could impact speech/language and academic development is increased.
How does adjusting the passing criterion of a screening test impact its sensitivity?
By setting the passing criterion at a lower threshold, such as 10 dB HL instead of 20 or 25 dB HL, the likelihood of identifying individuals with a hearing problem that could impact speech/language and academic development is increased. Answer: Adjusting the passing criterion to a lower threshold will result in more individuals failing the screening (increased false positives) and fewer individuals passing the screening. This trade-off is necessary to enhance the sensitivity of the screening test.
What are the key characteristics desired in a screening tool?
The desired characteristics in a screening tool include sensitivity, specificity, and a low number of false positives and false negatives.
What is the goal when selecting a screening tool?
The goal when selecting a screening tool is to find a test that is valid and reliable, meaning it accurately identifies individuals with the condition (validity) and consistently produces consistent results (reliability).
What should be considered when selecting screening procedures?
When selecting screening procedures, it is important to consider the goal of the screening. For example, if the goal is to identify hearing loss, using tympanometry may not be appropriate. Similarly, if the goal is to identify middle ear pathology, using a pure tone screening test may not be effective. The choice of screening procedures may involve a combination of impedance or immittance screening and pure tone screening, depending on the goals of the screening protocol.
How does the goal of the screening impact the choice of screening procedures?
The goal of the screening can vary depending on the population being served. For example, children in Head Start programs may be screened using both immittance and pure tones, while in the grade school age group, only pure tone screening may be used. The screening procedures may be tailored to the specific needs and characteristics of the population being screened.
What is the first line of screening for neonatal and infant populations?
The first line of screening for neonatal and infant populations is usually done by examining the baby, the mother's pregnancy, the delivery, and the immediate post-natal period. These observations can be made at any time, but it is more effective to provide some structure to the observations. This is where a High Risk Register comes in.
What is a High Risk Register used for in screening procedures?
A High Risk Register is a formal screening tool used to identify children who are at risk for hearing impairment. It consists of categories that are associated with hearing loss, and children with these problems are considered to be at risk for hearing problems.
How does a High Risk Register help in reducing the pool of candidates for further screening?
A High Risk Register helps in reducing the pool of candidates for further screening by identifying those children who are at a higher likelihood of having a hearing problem. By categorizing and flagging children with specific risk factors, the High Risk Register helps prioritize their screening and ensures that those who are most likely to have hearing impairment receive further assessment and intervention, while reducing unnecessary screening for those who are not at high risk.
How is ABR used for infant screening?
ABR is commonly used for infant screening. In this method, automated ABR is employed where click stimuli are presented at a fixed intensity level, typically around 30 to 40 dBnHL. If a response is detected, indicating normal hearing function, the infant passes the screening. If no response is observed, the infant is referred for further evaluation to assess their hearing status.
Where is ABR screening typically conducted for newborns?
ABR screening is typically conducted in the NICU (Neonatal Intensive Care Unit) or newborn nursery.
What is the general false-positive and false-negative rate associated with ABR screening?
ABR screening has a somewhat high false-positive rate (where a child fails the screening when they should not), but a very low false-negative rate (where a child passes the screening when they actually have a hearing impairment).
What is the advantage of using evoked OAE testing for newborn hearing screening?
The advantage of using evoked OAE testing for newborn hearing screening is that it is quick, taking as little as 15-20 seconds per ear, and does not require sedation.
Can evoked OAE testing be used in newborns of any gestational age?
Evoked OAE testing can be used in newborns of any gestational age because it is not affected by neuromaturation.
What is one limitation of OAE testing when it comes to detecting hearing loss in newborns?
One limitation of OAE testing is that it may not be effective if there are outer or middle ear problems, even if there is no sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL).
How long should the infant be asleep prior to signal presentation in behavioral observation audiometry?
The infant should be asleep for at least 15 seconds prior to the presentation of the signal in behavioral observation audiometry.
How many responses are required for a positive result in behavioral observation audiometry?
In behavioral observation audiometry, at least 2 out of 8 responses are required, and there should be agreement by 2 independent observers.
Are the expected responses in behavioral observation audiometry the same for all age groups?
No, the expected responses in behavioral observation audiometry vary according to the age of the child.
What is the goal of screening children aged 2-4 years?
The goal of screening children aged 2-4 years is to look for medical problems that may be the cause of hearing loss, assuming that severe/profound hearing losses have already been identified.
What are the recommended screening methods for 2-4 year olds?
The recommended screening methods for this age group are immittance testing (90-95% significant ear pathology) and pure tone screening (50%).
Which test method is likely to be used for screening children aged 2-4 years?
The test method likely to be used for screening children aged 2-4 years is play audiometry.
Which state has a hearing screening protocol for students?
The state of New Jersey has a hearing screening protocol for students.
Who is required to conduct audiometric screening according to the protocol?
Each district board of education is required to conduct audiometric screening according to the protocol.
Which grade levels are included in the screening protocol?
The screening protocol includes students enrolled in pre-school programs, grades kindergarten through 4, grades 6, 8, and 10, as well as students entering the district with no recent record of audiometric screening.
What are some criteria for students to be included in the screening?
Students may be included in the screening if they are at risk for hearing impairments, referred to the child study team for evaluation, or referred for screening by a teacher, parent, or at the student's own request.
Who is responsible for conducting the audiometric screening according to the protocol?
The medical inspector, certified school nurse, or health care personnel are responsible for conducting the audiometric screening.
What is the next step if a pupil fails the first screening?
If a pupil fails the first screening, the school nurse may examine the external ear canal with an otoscope to identify any condition that could interfere with hearing. If a problem is suspected, the pupil and parent will be notified, and a recommendation for a medical examination will be made.
How long should the school nurse wait before conducting the second screening for a pupil who fails to respond to any one frequency?
A pupil who fails to respond to any one frequency in either ear should be screened again in four to six weeks.
What is the criteria for considering a pupil to have failed the screening after the second valid screening?
If a pupil fails to respond to the same frequency or frequencies in the same ear on the second valid screening, the pupil is considered to have failed the screening and should be referred for further evaluation.
What is the recommended action for a pupil who fails to respond at a different frequency on the second screening?
A pupil who fails to respond at a different frequency or different frequencies on the second screening should be screened a third time within two weeks.
What is the outcome if a pupil fails to respond at any one frequency on the third screening?
If a pupil fails to respond at any one frequency on the third screening, they shall be considered to have failed the screening and will be referred for further evaluation.
What is the responsibility of the school nurse regarding notifying parents or guardians of pupils who fail audiometric screening?
The school nurse is responsible for notifying in writing the parents or guardians of pupils who fail audiometric screening about the necessity for additional evaluation by a physician or family health care provider.
What are the first steps in the step-by-step procedures for audiometric screening in the State of New Jersey?
•Prepare test area – table for equipment, chair for student (with back to audiometer)
•Listening check (to be sure equipment is working properly & noise levels are not too high)
•Tell the student to raise his/her hand if he/she hears the tone
How long should the tone be left on during a NJ audiometric screening?
The tone should be left on for about 1 second during audiometric screening.
Which ear is tested first during audiometric screening in the State of New Jersey?
The right ear is tested first during audiometric screening in the State of New Jersey.
At what intensity level and frequency is the tone presented during audiometric screening in the State of New Jersey?
The tone is presented at 20 dB HL at 1000 Hz during audiometric screening in the State of New Jersey.
In what order are the frequencies tested in the right ear during audiometric screening in the State of New Jersey?
The frequencies are tested in the following order in the right ear: 2000 Hz, 3000 Hz, 4000 Hz, and 500 Hz (in that order), all at 20 dB HL.
What should the examiner do when switching from testing the right ear to testing the left ear during audiometric screening?
The examiner should inform the student that they are changing ears when switching from testing the right ear to testing the left ear.
What should the examiner do if a student fails the NJ screening?
If a student fails the screening, the examiner should indicate the frequencies on the form and do an otoscopic exam
What should the examiner do after completing the otoscopic exam during a NJ audiometric screening?
If a student fails the screening, the examiner should indicate the frequencies on the form.
What do the ASHA guidelines for audiologic screening provide?
The guidelines provide background information, principles, definitions, program development, and specific screening guidelines.
What population do the ASHA guidelines for audiologic screening cover?
The ASHA guidelines cover both the pediatric population (birth through 18 years) and the adult population.
How is the pediatric section of the ASHA guidelines further divided?
The pediatric section is further divided into guidelines for screening for outer and middle ear disorder among older infants and children, as well as guidelines for screening for hearing impairment in different age ranges.
What does DPOAE stand for in the context of otoacoustic emissions?
DPOAE stands for distortion product otoacoustic emission.
What is the significance of otoacoustic emissions in a normally functioning ear?
Otoacoustic emissions originate from the outer hair cells of the inner ear. The presence of these emissions indicates the normal functioning of the ear's outer hair cells.
What is a common challenge when using otoacoustic emissions in school-aged children?
The main challenge is the influence of external noise in a school setting, which can interfere with the accuracy of OAE measurements.
Who can administer otoacoustic emissions screening?
Otoacoustic emissions screening can be conducted by a speech-language pathologist (SLP), school nurse, audiologist, or any other trained professional.
How are the results of otoacoustic emissions screening interpreted?
The results are typically categorized as "pass" or "refer," making it relatively easy to determine whether further evaluation is needed.
Who is often responsible for developing a protocol for SLPs and nurses to use in otoacoustic emissions screening?
An audiologist is often responsible for developing a protocol that outlines the procedures and guidelines for SLPs and nurses to follow in otoacoustic emissions screening.
Why is otoacoustic emissions screening considered a useful tool for hard-to-test children?
Otoacoustic emissions screening can be particularly beneficial for children who have sensory disorders preventing the use of supra-aural headphones, are too young to provide accurate responses, have cognitive impairments, are non-verbal, or may attempt to fake their responses.
What type of hearing impairment may otoacoustic emissions screening potentially miss?
Otoacoustic emissions screening may miss mild impairments, as they may not produce detectable emissions.
How does otoacoustic emissions screening differ in sensitivity to external and internal noise compared to other screening methods?
Otoacoustic emissions screening is generally less sensitive to external noise, making it useful in environments with ambient noise. However, it can be more sensitive to internal noise, such as fidgeting, breathing, or chewing sounds.
What is a practical advantage of using otoacoustic emissions screening in terms of portability?
Otoacoustic emissions screening equipment is easier to carry around, which can be beneficial for screenings conducted in various locations or settings.
What are some considerations regarding the cost and power source of otoacoustic emissions screening equipment?
Otoacoustic emissions screening equipment can be expensive to purchase. However, it typically operates on batteries, eliminating the need to be near an electrical outlet during screenings.
otoacoustic emissions procedure
A complete otoscopic or visual inspection should be performed to check for impacted cerumen, drainage, foreign bodies, infection, or structural abnormalities of the pinna, canal, or tympanic membrane.
The next step is to place a small probe in the ear canal to deliver the sound stimuli for otoacoustic emissions testing.
Automated OAE screening units will analyze the emissions and provide a result of either "pass" or "fail/refer." Diagnostic units require interpretation by audiologists, and screeners who are not audiologists should not independently change test parameters or interpret findings.
What is the role of speech-language pathologists (SLPs) in hearing screening?
The role of SLPs in hearing screening includes collaborating with audiologists in the development of screening protocols, equipment selection, and quality improvement. They also perform hearing screenings, refer children who do not pass screenings for further evaluation, and refer difficult-to-test children to an audiologist. SLPs communicate screening results to families, provide recommendations for timely follow-up, and share results with relevant program/school representatives and healthcare professionals. They also provide counseling and education for families, educators, and other service providers, and collaborate with audiologists, school nurses, teachers, physicians, and other professionals to ensure appropriate follow-up and outcomes.
What is the rationale for the 6- to 8-week timeline between initial failed hearing screening and rescreening when using a pure tone or pure tone and tympanometry protocol?
The timeline is based on the timeline for spontaneous recovery of middle ear effusions and the prevalence of middle ear effusions in children.
According to the AAP (2004), how long can a child with otitis media with effusion (OME) and no other significant risk be managed with watchful waiting?
A child with OME and no other significant risk can be managed with watchful waiting for up to 3 months from the date of onset or diagnosis.
Why is the 6- to 8-week timeline important for clinicians?
It allows the clinician to provide information about the persistence of possible middle ear effusion to the primary care provider or other medical professional.
When children with OME are referred for evaluation, what additional information should the referring clinician provide?
The referring clinician should document the effusion duration, history of acute otitis media (AOM), and developmental status of the child.
What is a potential drawback of using a shorter 2- to 4-week timeline for rescreening?
The possible over-referral of children who may have a middle ear effusion in the process of resolution.
What is one of the most common health care concerns prompting childhood visits to a doctor?
Otitis media, including otitis media with effusion (OME).
How often should exhaustive electroacoustic calibrations be performed on audiometric equipment?
Exhaustive electroacoustic calibrations should be performed annually.
Who should conduct calibration activities for audiometric equipment?
Calibration activities should be conducted by a trained audiologist or an external company/individual who is properly trained in performing such tasks.
What checks should be conducted prior to each use of audiometric equipment?
Functional inspection, performance checks, and bioacoustic checks should be conducted to verify equipment performance.
What is required when documenting screenings involving minors?
Parental permission is required before conducting the screening.
What should be provided to parents/legal guardians prior to the screening?
The date of the screening should be provided, giving them the opportunity to opt out if desired.
How should the results of the screening be documented?
The results should be documented in the client's chart or record.
What should be done with the results of the screening?
The results should be provided to the legal guardians or parents of the child.