Final tests.
1. Give the description of «facies nephritica»:
A) A face is bloated, cyanotic; sharp swelling of veins of the neck, marked
cyanosis and neck edema is observed
B) Marked cyanosis of lips, a nose tip, a chin, ears and cyanotic blush of cheeks is
observed
C) A face is deathly pale with a grayish shade, eyes are sunken, the nose is
pinched, there are drops of profuse sweat on a forehead
D) A face is bloated, pale, there are swollen eyelids and edema under eyes, the
eye-slits are narrow
I) A face is bloated, yellowish and pale with marked cyanotic shade, a mouth is
constantly half-opened, lips are cyanotic, eyes are sticking together and dim.
2. What is the reason of occurrence of pleural rub murmur?
A) Small amount of an exsudate or transudate in alveoluses
B) Inflammation of pleura leaves («dry» pleurisy)
С) Alveoluses are completely filled by exsudate or transudate
D) Viscous sputum in large bronchi
E) Viscous sputum in fine bronchi and (or) their spasm.
3. What percussion sound occurres at the initial stage of an inflammation?
A) Dull or blunted sound
B) The clear pulmonary sound
C) The tympanic sound
D) Dullness with a tympanic shade
E) The bandbox sound.
4. Choose the most correct conclusion for the data of a palpation – the expressed
cardiac beat and epigastric pulsation:
A) Hypertrophy of the left ventricle without its expressed dilatation
B) Hypertrophy and dilatation of the left ventricle
C) Hypertrophy and dilatation of the right ventricle
D) Adnation of pericardium leaves (adhesive pericarditis)
E) Postinfarction aneurysm of the front wall of the left ventricle.
5. Specify the most typical changes of a thorax at the obturative atelectasis:
A) Reduction of half of thorax, its retraction and backlog in breath
B) Backlog in breath, enlargement of half of thorax and deletion of intercostal
spaces
C) Only backlog of half of thorax in breath
D) Hypersthenic chest
E) Enlargement of front-back and transverse sizes of a thorax, indrawing of
intercostal spaces in lower- lateral portions from both sides.
6. Explain the reason of decrease of the skin turgor, revealed at the general survey:
A) Hemorrhagic syndrome
B) Organism dehydration
C) Hyperestrogenemia
D) Sideropenic syndrome
E) Disturbance of synthetic function of a liver.
7. Specify the most typical changes of a thorax at inflammatory consolidation of a
lung lobe:
A) Reduction of a half of thorax, its retraction and backlog in breath.
B) Backlog in breath, enlargement of half of thorax and deletion of intercostal
spaces
C) Only backlog of half of thorax in breath
D) Hypersthenic chest
E) Enlargement of front-back and transverse sizes of a thorax, indrawing of
intercostal spaces in lower- lateral portions from both sides.
8. How are the pathological rhythms, represented on cardiophonography, called?
A) Protodiastolic “gallop”
B) “Quail” rhythm
C) Summatic “gallop”
D) Presystolic “gallop”
E) Systolic “gallop”
9. What methods can reveal a dilatation of ventricles? a) heart palpation; b) heart
percussion; c) ECG; d) EchoCG. Choose a correct combination of answers:
A) a,c,d
B) b,d
C) c,d
D) a,b,c,d
E) a,b,d.
10. Specify the most typical changes of a thorax at the closed pheumothorax:
A) Reduction of a half of thorax, its retraction and backlog in breath
B) Backlog in breath, enlargement of half of thorax and deletion of intercostal
spaces
C) Only backlog of half of thorax in breath
D) Hypersthenic chest
E) Enlargement of front-back and transverse sizes of a thorax, indrawing of
intercostal spaces in lower- lateral portions from both sides.
11. The patient has daily fluctuations of body temperature from 37,0C up to 39,0С.
Specify the type of temperature curve:
A) febris intermittens
B) febris remittens
C) febris hectica
D) febris continua
E) febris reccurens.
12. Explain the reason of concave nail, revealed at the general survey:
A) Hemorrhagic syndrome
B) Organism dehydration
C) Hyperestrogenemia
D) Sideropenic syndrome
E) Disturbance of synthetic function of a liver.
13. Give the description of “Korvizar’s face”
A) A face is bloated, cyanotic; sharp swelling of the neck veins, marked cyanosis
and neck edema is observed
B) Marked cyanosis of lips, a nose tip, a chin, ears and cyanotic blush of cheeks is
observed
C) A face is deathly pale with a grayish shade, eyes are sunken, the nose is
pinched, there are drops of profuse sweat on a forehead
D) A face is bloated, pale, there is edema under eyes and swollen eyelids, the eyeslits are narrow
E) A face is bloated, yellowish and pale with marked cyanotic shade, a mouth is
constantly half-opened, lips are cyanotic, eyes are sticking together and dim.
14. What basic respiratory murmur is most often sounded at narrowing of small
bronchi?
A) Weakened vesicular respiration
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
E) Mixed bronchus-vesicular respiration.
15. Specify the most typical changes of a thorax at the fibrothorax (fusion of a
pleural cavity):
A) Reduction of a half of thorax, its retraction and backlog in breath.
B) Backlog in breath, enlargement of half of thorax and deletion of intercostal
spaces
C) Only backlog of half of thorax in breath
D) Hypersthenic chest
E) Enlargement of front-back and transverse sizes of a thorax, indrawing of
intercostal spaces in lower- lateral portions from both sides.
16. Explain the reason of symptoms of “Vascular asterisks” and “Hepatic palms”,
revealed at the general survey:
A) Hemorrhagic syndrome
B) Organism dehydration
C) Hyperestrogenemia
D) Sideropenic syndrome
E) Disturbance of synthetic function of a liver.
17. What basic respiratory murmur is most often listened at initial stage of lobar
(croupous) pneumonia?
A) Weakened vesicular respiration and crepetacio indux
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
E) Mixed bronchus-vesicular respiration.
18. What kind of dyspnea is the most typical at spasms of small bronchi?
A) Stridulous respiration
B) Expiratory dyspnea
C) Kussmaul respiration or Cheyne-Stokes respiration
D) Cheyne-Stokes respiration or Biot’s respiration
E) Inspiratory dyspnea.
19. What is the reason of moist fine bubbling non-sonorous rales?
A) Viscous sputum in large bronchi
B) Viscous sputum in fine bronchi and (or) their spasm
C) Liquid sputum in large bronchi or cavities, linked with a bronchus
D) Liquid sputum in small bronchi at kept airiness of a surrounding pulmonary
tissue
E) Liquid sputum in small bronchi and inflammatory consolidation of a
surrounding pulmonary tissue.
20. Give the description of “Hippocratic face”
A) A face is bloated, cyanotic; sharp swelling of veins of the neck, marked cianosis
and neck edema is observed
B) Marked cyanosis of lips, nose tip, a chin, ears and cyanotic blush of cheeks is
observed
C) A face is deathly pale with a grayish shade, eyes are sunken, the nose is
pinched, there are drops of profuse sweat on a forehead
D) A face is bloated, pale, there are edemas under eyes and swollen eyelids, the
eye-slits are narrow
E) A face is bloated, yellowish and pale with marked cyanotic shade, a mouth is
constantly half-opened, lips are cyanotic, eyes are sticking together and dim.
21. What basic respiratory murmur is most often listened at the closed
pheumothorax?
A) Weakened vesicular respiration and crepetacio indux
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
E) Mixed bronchus-vesicular respiration.
22. The patient has daily fluctuations of body temperature from 36,6C up to
40,2C.The rise in temperature is preceded by strong chill; the fall in temperature is
accompanied by exhausting sweating.Define the type of temperature curve:
А) febris intermittens
B) febris continua
C) febris remittens
D) febris reccurens
E) febris hectic.
23. The Kurvuaze symptom can occur at:
А) Cirrhosis of the liver
B) Cancer of the liver
C) Cancer of the pancreas head
D) Chronic cholangitis
E) Chronic hepatitis.
24. What is the reason of dry buzzing (humming) rales?
A) Small amount of exsudate or transudate in alveoluses
B) Inflammation of pleura leaves («dry» pleurisy)
С) Alveoluses are completely filled by exsudate or transudate
D) Viscous bronchial secret in large bronchi
E) Viscous bronchial secret in fine bronchi and (or) their spasm.
25. What kind of dyspnea is most typical at reduction of sensitivity of the
respiratory center due to primary lesions of brain (insult, wet brain, agony)?
A) Stridulous respiration
B) Expiratory dyspnea
C) Kussmaul respiration or Cheyne-Stokes respiration
D) Cheyne-Stokes respiration or Biot’s respiration
E) Inspiratory dyspnea.
26. What main respiratory murmur is most often sounded at compression
atelectasis?
A) Weakened vesicular respiration
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
E) Mixed bronchus-vesicular respiration.
27. What does the urine analysis represent according to Nechiporenko? Definition
of quantity of leucocytes, erythrocytes and casts, excreted with urine:
A) For days
B) In an hour
C) For a minute
D) Definition of quantity of urine, excreted for a minute
E) In 1 ml of urine.
28. Give the description of Stoke’s collar:
A) A face is bloated, cyanotic; sharp swelling of veins of the neck, marked cianosis
and neck edema is observed
B) Marked cyanosis of lips, a nose tip, a chin, ears and cyanotic blush of cheeks is
observed
C) A face is deathly pale with a grayish shade, eyes are sunken, the nose is
pinched, there are drops of profuse sweat on a forehead.
D) A face is bloated, pale, there are edemas under eyes and swollen eyelids, the
eye-slits are narrow.
E) A face is bloated, yellowish and pale with marked cyanotic shade, a mouth is
constantly half-opened, lips are cyanotic, eyes are sticking together and dim.
29. What methods can reveal the hypertrophy of myocardium of auricles? a)Heart
palpation; b) Heart percussion; c) ECG; d) EchoCG. Choose the correct
combination of answers:
A) a,c,d
B) b,d
C) c,d
D) a,b,c,d
E) a,b,d.
30. What changes are typical for Kurvuaze’s symptom?
A) Enlarged, painless, elastic and mobile gallbladder when the patient has a
mechanical icterus.
B) Enlarged, painless, elastic gallbladder, absence of icterus.
C) Mechanical icterus, gallbladder is not enlarged, there is tenderness in Shoffar's
zone.
31. What kind of dyspnea is the most typical at reduction of sensitivity of the
respiratory center due to toxic influences on central nervous system?
A) Stridulous respiration
B) Expiratory dyspnea
C) Kussmaul respiration or Cheyne-Stokes respiration
D) Cheyne-Stokes respiration or Biot’s respiration
E) Inspiratory dyspnea.
32. What percussion sound occurs at the compression atelectasis?
A)Dull or blunted sound
B)The clear pulmonary sound
C) The tympanic sound
D)Dullness with a tympanic shade
E)The bandbox sound
33.Explain the origin of gynecomastia for male patients, revealed at general
survey:
A) Hemorrhagic syndrome
B) Organism dehydration
C) Hyperestrogenemia
D) Sideropenic syndrome
E) Disturbance of synthetic function of a liver.
34. What main respiratory murmur is most often sounded at obstructive
atelectasis?
A) Weakened vesicular respiration
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
E) Mixed bronchus-vesicular respiration.
35. Give the definition of the following murmur. The patient has a mitral stenosis
with signs of expressed pulmonary arterial hypertension, in II-IV intercostal space
the soft murmur is sounded to the left of breastbone beginning right after the II
heart sound.
A) Phlint’s murmur.
B) Murmur of whirligig
C) Kumb’s murmur
D) Graham-Stills murmur.
36. The megalocytes, megaloblasts, ”Kebot’s rings”, “Jolly’s corpuscles” are
observed at:
A) Acute posthemorrhagic anemia.
B) A chronic aciderotic anemia.
C) В12- deficiency anemia.
D) Vakez’s disease.
37. Specify the most typical changes of a thorax at the unilateral hydrothorax :
A) Reduction of a half of thorax, its retraction and backlog in breath.
B) Backlog in breath, enlargement of half of thorax and deletion of intercostal
spaces.
C) Only backlog of half of thorax in breath.
D) Hypersthenic chest.
E) Enlargement of front-back and transverse sizes of a thorax, indrawing of
intercostal spaces in lower- lateral portions from both sides.
38. What is the reason of splashing sound in epigastrium, revealed in 5-6 hours
after food taking:
A) The symptom is considered to be normal.
B) There is a free fluid in the abdominal cavity.
C) There is a pyloric stenosis.
D) There is a big quantity of gases in the large intestine (meteorism when the
patient has colitis)
E) There is an accumulation of liquid and gases in the large intestine (for example,
when the patient has acute enteritis).
39. What percussion sound occurs at the pulmonary emphysema?
A) Dull or blunted sound
B) The clear pulmonary sound
C) The tympanic sound
D) Dullness with a tympanic shade
E) The bandbox sound.
40. Explain the origin of angular stomatitis and skin fissures, revealed at the
general survey:
A)Hemorrhagic syndrome
B) Organism dehydration
C) Hyperestrogenemia
D) Sideropenic syndrome
E) Disturbance of synthetic function of a liver.
41. Specify the most typical changes of thorax at the pulmonary emphysema:
A) Reduction of a half of thorax, its retraction and backlog in breath.
B) Backlog in breath, enlargement of half of thorax and deletion of intercostal
spaces.
C) Only backlog of half of thorax in breath.
D) Hypersthenic chest.
E) Enlargement of front-back and transverse sizes of a thorax, indrawing of
intercostal spaces in lower- lateral portions from both sides.
42. What cardiac defect reveals the following changes of borders of relative heart
dullness: the right border is 3 sm to the right of the sternum edge, the left is 1 sm
medial to the left mid-clavicular line, the upper is along the upper edge of the II
rib.
A) Mitral stenosis
B) Mitral incompetence
C) Tricuspid valve incompetence
D)Aortal valvular diseases
E) Norm
43.There are 7 most important factors, taking part in formation of heart sounds.
Choose those ones, that are significant in the formation of II sound: a) Fluctuations
of ventricles’ walls at the moment of auricles’ systole. b) ) Fluctuations of
ventricles’ walls at the moment of their rapid filling. c) The position of cusps of
AV- valves before isometric contraction. d) Fluctuations of semilunar valves of
aorta and pulmonary artery at their closing. e) Rapid isometric contraction of
ventricles. f) Fluctuations of AV- valves at their closing. g) Vibration of the aorta
walls and pulmonary artery after closing of semilunar valves.
A) b
B) b,c,e,f.
C)
D) c,e,f,g
E) d,g.
44. What method of research allows to examine a mucosa of rectum?
A) Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B) Proctosigmoidoscopy
C) Laparoscopy
D) Bronchoscopy
E) Thoracoscopy.
45. Edema at liver cirrhosis can be the result of:
A) Increase of protein content in blood serum
B) Increase of hyaluronidical activity in blood serum
C) Reduction of content of albumins in blood
D) Reduction of quantity of aldosteron in blood serum
E) Increase of content of bilirubin in blood.
46. What is a hypoglycemia?
A) Increase of level of glucose in blood
B) Reduction of level of glucose in blood
C) A normal level of glucose in blood
D) Reduction of level of insulin in blood.
47. What percussion sound occurs at the dry pleurisy?
A) Dull or blunted sound
B) The clear pulmonary sound
C) The tympanic sound
D) Dullness with a tympanic shade
E) The bandbox sound.
48. What main respiratory murmur is most often sounded at fusion of the pleural
cavity?
A) Weakened vesicular respiration
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
E) Mixed bronchus-vesicular respiration.
49. Will the colour of skin change when the patient has severe right-ventricular
cardiac insufficiency with expressed anemia ( Hb is 50 gr/l)
A) Paleness of skin and moderate cyanosis will occur.
B) Paleness of skin and expressed cyanosis will occur.
C) Paleness of skin will occur, but the cyanosis won’t occur.
D) The colour of skin won’t change.
E) Paleness of skin and cyanotic blush of cheeks will occur.
50. Specify the most typical changes of thorax at the unilateral hydrothorax:
A) Reduction of a half of thorax, its retraction and backlog in breath.
B) Backlog in breath, enlargement of half of thorax and deletion of intercostal
spaces.
C) Only backlog of half of thorax in breath.
D) Hypersthenic chest.
E) Enlargement of front-back and transverse sizes of a thorax, indrawing of
intercostal spaces in lower -lateral portions from both sides.
51. A carrier of soaked up iron is:
A) Ferritin
B) Hemosiderin
C) Transferrin
D) Catalase
E) Peroxidase
52. What percussion sound occurs at the pneumothorax?
A) Dull or blunted sound
B) The clear pulmonary sound
C) The tympanic sound
D) Dullness with a tympanic shade
E) The bandbox sound.
53. What kind of dyspnea is the most typical when there are obstacles in upper
respiratory tract?
A) Stridulous respiration
B) Expiratory dyspnea
C) Kussmaul respiration or Cheyne-Stokes respiration
D) Cheyne-Stokes respiration or Biot’s respiration
E) Inspiratory dyspnea.
54. What main respiratory murmur is most often sounded at hydrothorax?
A) Weakened vesicular respiration
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
E) Mixed bronchus-vesicular respiration.
55. What kind of dyspnea is the most typical at exsudative pleurisy or
hydrothorax?
A) Stridulous respiration
B) Expiratory dyspnea
C) Kussmaul respiration or Cheyne-Stokes respiration
D) Cheyne-Stokes respiration or Biot’s respiration
E) Inspiratory dyspnea.
56. What percussion sound occurs at the inflammatory consolidation of pulmonary
tissue?
A) Dull or blunted sound
B) The clear pulmonary sound
C) The tympanic sound
D) Dullness with a tympanic shade
E) The bandbox sound.
57. What is the purpose of additional method at the pulmonary auscultation
(imitation of inhalation when the true glottis is closed)?
A) To differ the pleural rub murmur from crepitation and rales.
B) To reveal latent bronchial obstruction.
C) To differ the dry rales from moist rales.
D) To differ the rales from crepitation or pleural rub murmur.
E) To sound better the pathological bronchial respiration.
58.What percussion sound occurs at the hydrothorax?
A) Dull or blunted sound
B) The clear pulmonary sound
C) The tympanic sound
D) Dullness with a tympanic shade
E) The bandbox sound.
59. What cardiac defect reveals the following changes of borders of relative heart
dullness: the right border is 1 sm to the right of the sternum edge, the left is 1 sm
medial to the left mid-clavicular line, the upper is along the upper edge of the III
rib.
A) Mitral stenosis
B) Mitral incompetence
C) Tricuspid valve incompetence
D) Aortal valvular diseases
E) Norm
60. What is the purpose of additional method at the pulmonary auscultation (the
forced exhalation)?
A) To differ the pleural rub murmur from crepitation and rales.
B) To reveal latent bronchial obstruction.
C) To differ the dry rales from moist rales.
D) To differ the rales from crepitation or pleural rub murmur.
E) To sound better the pathological bronchial respiration.
61. What percussion sound occurs at the fibrothorax?
A) Dull or blunted sound
B) The clear pulmonary sound
C) The tympanic sound
D) Dullness with a tympanic shade
E) The bandbox sound.
62. What percussion sound occurs at the obstructive atelectasis?
A) Dull or blunted sound
B) The clear pulmonary sound
C) The tympanic sound
D) Dullness with a tympanic shade
E) The bandbox sound.
63. Specify the most typical changes of arterial pulse at the mitral stenosis:
А) pulsus dificiens
B) pulsus filiformis
C) pulsus differens
D) pulsus plenus
E) pulsus durus
64. What is the purpose of additional method at the pulmonary auscultation
(pressing with stethoscope on thorax)?
A) To differ the pleural rub murmur from crepitation and rales.
B) To reveal latent bronchial obstruction.
C) To differ the dry rales from moist rales.
D) To differ the rales from crepitation or pleural rub murmur.
E) To sound better the pathological bronchial respiration.
65. What percussion sound occurs at the acute nonobstructive bronchitis?
A) Dull or blunted sound
B) The clear pulmonary sound
C) The tympanic sound
D) Dullness with a tympanic shade
E) The bandbox sound.
66. What is the reason of murmur at the palpation of cecum?
A) The symptom is considered to be normal.
B) There is a free fluid in the abdominal cavity.
C) There is a pyloric stenosis.
D) There is a big quantity of gases in the large intestine (meteorism when the
patient has colitis)
E) There is an accumulation of liquid and gases in the large intestine (for example,
when the patient has acute enteritis).
67. What is the purpose of additional method at the pulmonary auscultation
(hacking cough)?
A) To differ the pleural rub murmur from crepitation and rales.
B) To reveal latent bronchial obstruction.
C) To differ the dry rales from moist rales.
D) To differ the rales from crepitation or pleural rub murmur.
E) To sound better the pathological bronchial respiration.
68. What main respiratory murmur is most often sounded at lobular inflammatory
consolidation?
A) Weakened vesicular respiration
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
E) Mixed bronchus-vesicular respiration.
69. During heart palpation there reveals a tremor at apex, which doesn’t coincide
with pulsation of a.carotis. For what cardiac defect is it typical?
A) Aortal incompetence
B) Mitral incompetence
C) Aortal stenosis
D) Mitral stenosis
E) Tricuspid valve incompetence.
70. Specify the most typical signs of the arterial pulse “pulsus filifornis”:
A) Sudden weakening or absence of pulsation on one of radial arteries.
B) Sudden weakening of pulsation on both radial arteries.
C) The quantity of pulsation waves on a radial artery exceeds the quantity of
cardiac contractions.
D) The quantity of pulsation waves on a radial artery is less than the quantity of
cardiac contractions.
71. Specify the main mechanism of occurrence of pathological bronchial
respiration:
A) Remission of elasticity of a pulmonary tissue.
B) The carrying out of laryngo-tracheal respiration to the thorax surface (with
changing its timbre) at the pulmonary consolidation or presence of cavity in it,
linked with bronchus.
C) Narrowing of bronchi ( spasm, viscid sputum)
D)Occurrence of small focus of consolidation of a pulmonary tissue, surrounded
by nonchanged alveoles.
E) Intensification of fluctuations of alveoles’ walls at respiration.
72. There are 7 most important factors, taking part in formation of heart sounds.
Choose those ones, that are significant in the formation of III sound: a)
Fluctuations of ventricles’ walls at the moment of auricles’ systole. b) )
Fluctuations of ventricles’ walls at the moment of their rapid filling. c) The
position of cusps of AV- valves before isometric contraction. d) Fluctuations of
semilunar valves of aorta and pulmonary artery at their closing. e) Rapid isometric
contraction of ventricles. f) Fluctuations of AV- valves at their closing. g)
Vibration of the aorta walls and pulmonary artery at the very beginning of the
sphygmic interval .
A) b
B) b,c,e,f
C) a
D) c,e,f,g
E) d.
73. What basic respiratory murmur is most often sounded at the occurrence of
cavity, linking with bronchus ( less than 5 sm in diameter) ?
A) Weakened vesicular respiration
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
E) Mixed bronchus-vesicular respiration
74. Specify the main mechanism of occurrence of bronchial-vesicular respiration:
A) Remission of elasticity of a pulmonary tissue.
B) The carrying out of laryngo-tracheal breath to the thorax surface (with
changing its timbre) at the pulmonary consolidation or presence of cavity in it,
linked with bronchus.
C) Narrowing of bronchi ( spasm, viscid sputum)
D) Occurrence of small focus of consolidation of a pulmonary tissue, surrounded
by nonchanged alveoles.
E) Intensification of fluctuations of alveoles’ walls at respiration.
75. What cardiac defect reveals the following changes of borders of relative heart
dullness: the right border is 1 sm to the right of the sternum edge, the left is 2 sm
entoectad to the left mid-clavicular line, the upper is along the upper edge of the II
rib.
A) Mitral stenosis
B) Mitral incompetence
C) Tricuspid valve incompetence
D) Aortal valvular diseases
E) Norm.
76. What basic respiratory murmur is most often sounded at the interstitial
pulmonary edema?
A) Weakened vesicular respiration
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
E) Mixed bronchus-vesicular respiration
77. Explain the origin of the following symptom, revealed during examination and
palpation of abdomen (absence of abdominal wall excursion at respiration):
A) Reduction of abdominal type of respiration as the result of diaphragm
paresis, caused by inflammatory process, transferring to it.
B) Considerable increase of intraabdominal pressure.
C) Expressed consolidation of parietal peritoneum at its inflammation.
D) Reflex origin of the symptom alike with viscero-motor reflex, as a result of
process “transferring” to parietal peritoneum.
E) Reflex origin of the symptom alike with viscero-motor reflex, as a result of
inflammation “transferring” to the visceral peritoneum (pericholecystitis.,
perigastritis and etc.)
78. There are 7 most important factors, taking part in formation of heart sounds.
Choose those ones, that are significant in the formation of IV sound: a)
Fluctuations of ventricles’ walls at the moment of auricles’ systole. b) )
Fluctuations of ventricles’ walls at the moment of their rapid filling. c) The
position of cusps of AV- valves before isometric contraction. d) Fluctuations of
semilunar valves of aorta and pulmonary artery at their closing. e) Rapid isometric
contraction of ventricles. f) Fluctuations of AV- valves at their closing. g)
Vibration of the aorta walls and pulmonary artery after at the very begining of the
sphygmic interval .
.
A) b
B) b,c,e,f.
C) a
D) b,e,f,g.
E) d.
79. Specify the main mechanism of occurrence of rough respiration:
A) Remission of elasticity of a pulmonary tissue.
B) The carrying out of laryngo-tracheal respiration to the thorax surface (with
changing its timbre) at the pulmonary consolidation or presence of cavity in it,
linked with bronchus.
C) Narrowing of bronchi ( spasm, viscid sputum)
D)Occurrence of small focus of consolidation of a pulmonary tissue, surrounded
by nonchanged alveoles.
E) Intensification of fluctuations of alveoles’ walls at respiration.
80. How is the stopping of urine formation called?
A) Pollakisuria
B) Strangury
C) Ischuria
D) Anuria
E) Polyuria.
81. What changes, revealed during heart percussion, are most typical for mitral
configuration of heart?
A) “Triangular” shape of heart
B) Removal of the right border to the right
C) Removal of the left border to the left with an expressed “waist” of the heart
D) Removal of the upper border upwards and deletion of “waist” of the heart
E) Removal of the left border to the left and the right border to the right.
82. What is the reason of moist coarse bubbling rales?
A) Viscous bronchial secret in large bronchi
B) Viscous bronchial secret in fine bronchi and (or) their spasm.
C) Liquid bronchial secret in large bronchi or cavities, linked with a bronchus
D) Liquid bronchial secret in small bronchi at kept airiness of a surrounding
pulmonary tissue.
E) Liquid bronchial secret in small bronchi and inflammatory consolidation of a
surrounding pulmonary tissue.
83. Choose the symptoms and syndroms for the acute nephritic syndrome:a)
Arterial hypertension; b) Acute intensive back pains; c) Edematous syndrome;
d) Expressed hypoalbuminemia; e) Macrohematuria; f) Strangury; g) Pollakisuria;
h) Proteinuria is more than 3 gr/l; i) Proteinuria is less than 3 gr/l; j) Hyaline and
granular casts; k) Hyperlipidemia:
A) a,c,e,i,j
B) b,c,d,e,h,j,k
C) b,d,f,g,h,j
D) a,b,c,d,f,h,j
E) a,c,d,e,h,j.
84. Choose 3 main signs (consequences) of syndrome of portal hypertension: a)
Vascular asterisks and hepatic palms; b) Ascites; c) Pains in right hypochondrium;
d) Enlargement of liver; e) Enlargement of spleen; f) Venous collaterals; g) Icterus:
A) b,d,f
B) b,d,g
C) a,e,f
D) b,e,f
E) b,c,d.
85. Choose the signs, that are most typical for the syndrome of hypersplenism: a)
Anemia; b) Leukocytosis; c) Leukopenia; d) Lymphocytosis; e) Lymphopenia; f)
Thrombocytosis; g) Thrombocytopenia:
A) a,d,g
B) a,b,e,g
C) a,c,d,f
D) a,b,g
E) a,c,g.
86. What basic respiratory murmur is most often sounded at the occurrence of
smoothwalled cavity, linking with bronchus ( more than 5 sm in diameter) ?
A) Weakened vesicular respiration
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
E) Mixed bronchus-vesicular respiration
87. The sign of lesion of small intestine is:
A) Stool is 3-4 times for days
B) Blood-streaked feces
C) Abundant semi-liquid feces
D) “Bolus-like” feces
E) Intestinal cancer.
88. What methods can reveal a dilatation of auricles? a) heart palpation; b) heart
percussion; c) ECG; d) EchoCG. Choose a correct combination of answers:
A) a,c,d
B) b,d
C) c,d
D) a,b,c,d
E) a,b,d.
89. What basic respiratory murmur is most often sounded at exsudative pleurisy?
A) Weakened vesicular respiration
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
E) Mixed bronchus-vesicular respiration.
90. What basic respiratory murmur is most often sounded at pulmonary
emphysema?
A) Weakened vesicular respiration
B) Amphoric respiration
C) Bronchial respiration
D) Rough respiration
E) Mixed bronchus-vesicular respiration.
91. What methods can reveal a hypertrophy of myocardium of ventricles? a) heart
palpation; b) heart percussion; c) ECG; d) EchoCG. Choose a correct combination
of answers:
A) a,c,d
B) b,d
C) c,d
D) a,b,c,d
E) a,b,d.
92. What is the reason of whistling rales?
A) Viscous bronchial secret in large bronchi
B) Viscous bronchial secret in fine bronchi and (or) their spasm.
C) Liquid bronchial secret in large bronchi or cavities, linked with a bronchus
D) Liquid bronchial secret in small bronchi at kept airiness of a surrounding
pulmonary tissue.
E) Liquid bronchial secret in small bronchi and inflammatory consolidation of a
surrounding pulmonary tissue.
93.What forced position is typical for acute pancreatitis:
A)Lying on a back
B)Lying on the left side with pulled up feet
C)Lying on the right side with pulled up right foot
D)Lying on a stomach
E)Squatting
94. Choose the most correct conclusion for the data of a palpation –diffuse (domeshaped) apex beat in VI intercostal space, which is 2 sm entoectad to the midclavicular line:
A) Hypertrophy of a left ventricle without its expressed dilatation
B) Hypertrophy and dilatation of a left ventricle.
C) Hypertrophy and dilatation of a right ventricle.
D) Adnation of pericardium leaves (adhesive pericarditis).
E) Postinfarction aneurysm of a front wall of a left ventricle.
95. Choose the most correct conclusion for the data of a palpation –concentrated
reinforced apex beat in V intercostal space along the mid-clavicular line:
A) Hypertrophy of a left ventricle without its expressed dilatation
B) Hypertrophy and dilatation of a left ventricle.
C) Hypertrophy and dilatation of a right ventricle.
D) Adnation of leaves of a pericardium (adhesive pericarditis).
E) Postinfarction aneurysm of a front wall of a left ventricle.
96. What is the reason of moist fine bubbling sonorous rales?
A) Viscous bronchial secret in large bronchi
B) Viscous bronchial secret in fine bronchi and (or) their spasm.
C) Liquid bronchial secret in large bronchi or cavities, linked with a bronchus
D) Liquid bronchial secret in small bronchi at kept airiness of a surrounding
pulmonary tissue.
E) Liquid bronchial secret in small bronchi and inflammatory consolidation of a
surrounding pulmonary tissue.
97. How is the data of abdominal auscultation changed at enteritis?
A) Normal intestinal peristalsis
B) Suddenly increased intestinal peristalsis
C) Remission of intestinal peristalsis
D) Absence of intestinal peristalsis ( “Death silence”)
E) Vascular tones.
98. Left borders of absolute and relative heart dullness can coinside at:
A) Aortal stenosis
B) Aortal incompetence
C) Mitral stenosis
D) Mitral incompetence
E) Acute myocardial infarction.
99. Choose the most correct conclusion for the data of a palpation –negative apex
beat (systolic retraction):
A) Hypertrophy of a left ventricle without its expressed dilatation
B)Hypertrophy and dilatation of a left ventricle.
C) Hypertrophy and dilatation of a right ventricle.
D) Adnation of leaves of a pericardium (adhesive pericarditis).
E) Postinfarction aneurysm of a front wall of a left ventricle.
100. What is the reason of occurrence of crepitation?
A) Small amount of exsudate or transudate in alveoluses
B) Inflammation of pleura leaves («dry» pleurisy)
С) Alveoluses are completely filled by exsudate or transudate
D) Viscous sputum in large bronchi
E) Viscous sputum in fine bronchi and (or) their spasm.
101. Specify the most typical signs of the arterial pulse “pulsus dificiens”:
A) Sudden weakening or absence of pulsation on one of radial arteries.
B) Sudden weakening of pulsation on both radial arteries.
C) The quantity of pulsation waves on a radial artery exceeds the quantity of
cardiac contractions.
D) The quantity of pulsation waves on a radial artery is less than the quantity of
cardiac contractions.
102. The right cardiac border of relative dullness is formed by:
A) Right auricle
B) Right ventricle
C) Left ventricle
D) Ear of the right auricle and conus pulmonalis
E) Aorta (ascending part).
103. Give the definition of the following murmur. Presystolic intensification of
diastolic murmur is revealed when the patient has an aortal incompetence.
A) Phlint’s murmur.
B) Murmur of whirligig
C) Kumb’s murmur
D) Graham-Stills murmur.
E) Functional murmur of relative incompetence of mitral valve.
104. What reveals the inflammatory process in the lower portion of small intestine:
A) Constipation
B) Diarrhea with frequency less than 10 times for days
C) Diarrhea with frequency more than 10 times for days
D) Abdominal distension
E) Tenesmus.
105. Explain the origin of the following symptom, caused during examination and
palpation of abdomen ( Local moderate intensification of abdominal wall in the
area of projection of the affected organ):
A) Reduction of abdominal type of respiration as the result of diaphragm
paresis, caused by inflammatory process, transferring to it.
B) Substantial increase of intraabdominal pressure.
C) Expressed consolidation of parietal peritoneum at its inflammation.
D) Reflex origin of the symptom alike with viscero-motor reflex, as a result of
process “transferring” to parietal peritoneum.
E) Reflex origin of the symptom alike with viscero-motor reflex, as a result of
inflammation “transferring” to the visceral peritoneum (pericholecystitis.,
perigastritis and etc.)
106. The upper cardiac border of relative dullness is formed by:
A) Right auricle
B) Right ventricle
C) Left ventricle
D) Ear of the right auricle and conus pulmonalis
E) Aorta (ascending part).
107. What is typical for the toxic goiter?
A) Thyroid hyperplasia
B) Thyroid hypoplasia
C) The size of gland doesn’t matter.
108. What symptom is not typical for the syndrome of portal hypertension?
A) Splenomegaly
B) Ascites
C) Varicose dilatation of esophageal veins.
D) Tenesmus
E) Hemorrhoidal bleedings.
109. Peripheric edema at liver diseases is the symptom of:
A)Occurrence of duodeno-gastral reflux
B)Increase of bile acids in blood on the background of the expressed cholestasia
C)Disturbance of synthetic (protein producing) function of liver
D)Cardiac insufficiency on the background of the expressed accompanying
myocardial dystrophy
E)Remission of disintoxication function of liver in relation to the decay products of
proteins
110. How are the pathological rhythms, represented on cardiophonography, called?
A) Protodiastolic “gallop”
B) “Quail” rhythm
C) Summatic “gallop”
D) Presystolic “gallop”
E) Systolic “gallop”
111. The admissible excretion of erythrocytes for days by Nechiporenko’s test is:
A) 1000
B) 2000
C) 3000
112. The left cardiac border of relative dullness is formed by:
A) Right auricle
B) Right ventricle
C) Left ventricle
D) Ear of the right auricle and conus pulmonalis
E) Aorta (ascending part).
113.What changes, revealed during the research and percussion of the abdomen,
are most typical for the syndrome of portal hypertension?
A)The abdomen is scaphoid (carinate), hardly participates in respiration, there is an
expressed muscular tension of abdominal wall
B)The abdomen is enlarged,has a dome-shaped distension,participates in
respiration,a navel is scaphoid,there is a percussionly-loud thympanitis
C) The abdomen is enlarged; in horizontal position-it is spread,in vertical-it looks
pendulous,a napel gets evaginated,there is an extended venous network on lateral
regions of the abdomen
D) The emaciate patient has an evagination in epigastrium and periodic waves of
retrograde peristalsis.
E)At the abdominal survey there is an increased rough intestinal peristalsis,the
abdomine is distended.
114. What cardiac defect reveals the following changes of borders of relative heart
dullness: the right border is 1 sm to the right of the right sternum edge, the left is
along the front axillary line, the upper is along the III rib.
A) Mitral stenosis
B) Mitral incompetence
C) Tricuspid valve incompetence
D) Aortal valvular diseases
E) Norm.
115. What methods of research allow to diagnose chronic gastritis more correctly?
A) Inquiring the patient
B) Abdominal palpation
C) The research of secretory function of the stomach
D) X-rayed research of the stomach
E) Fibrogasrtoscopy with the biopsy of mucosa.
116. The development of nephrotic syndrome is not typical for:
A) Acute glomerulonephritis
B) Urolithiasis
C) Chronic glomerulonephritis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
E) Diabetic glomerulonephritis.
117. What changes are typical for obturation by calculus of common bile duct?
A) Enlarged, painless, elastic and mobile gallbladder when the patient has a
mechanical icterus.
B)Enlarged, painless, elastic gallbladder, absence of icterus.
C)Mechanical icterus, gallbladder is not enlarged, there is tenderness in Shoffar's
zone.
118. Specify the most typical change for arterial pulse at the following heart
disease: cardiac fibrillation or frequent extrasystole:
А) pulsus dificiens
Б) pulsus filiformis
В) pulsus differens
Г) pulsus plenus
Д) pulsus durus
119. What changes are typical for hydrop of the gallbladder?
A) Enlarged, painless, elastic and mobile gallbladder when the patient has a
mechanical icterus.
B)Enlarged, painless, elastic gallbladder, absence of icterus.
C)Mechanical icterus, gallbladder is not enlarged, there is tenderness in Shoffar's
zone.
120. Specify the most typical signs of the arterial pulse “pulsus differens”:
A) Sudden weakening or absence of pulsation on one of radial arteries.
B) Sudden weakening of pulsation on both radial arteries.
C) The quantity of pulsation waves on a radial artery exceeds the quantity of
cardiac contractions.
D) The quantity of pulsation waves on a radial artery is less than the quantity of
cardiac contractions.
121. “The leukemic failure” is:
A)Absence of myeloblasts at the presence of all other myeloid forms
B)Absence of polymorphonuclear granulocytes at the presence of their
predecessors
C)Absence of promyelocytes, myelocytes, metamyelocytes at the presence of
myeloblasts and polymorphonuclear granulocytes
D)Absence of monocytes at the presence of all generations of granulocytes
E)Considerable reduction or total absence of neutrophil leucocytes
122. Specify the most typical change for arterial pulse at the following heart
disease: shock, collapse:
А) pulsus dificiens
Б) pulsus filiformis
В) pulsus differens
Г) pulsus plenus
Д) pulsus durus.
123. When the patient has an ulcerative disease of the pyloric portion of the
stomach, the pains are most often located in epigastric area:
A) Near the xiphoid process
B) To the right of the median line
C) To the left of the median line
D) In the area of the left hypochondrium..
124. What is not typical for the portal cirrhosis of the liver:
A) Icteric discolouration of the skin
B) Dilatation of esophageal veins
C) The spleen has normal size
D) “Caput Medusae”
E) Ascites.
125. What changes, revealed during the research and percussion of the abdomen,
are most typical for the pyloric stenosis?
A)The abdomen is scaphoid (carinate), hardly participates in respiration, there is an
expressed muscular tension of abdominal wall
B)The abdomen is enlarged,has a dome-shaped distension,participates in
respiration,a navel is scaphoid,there is a percussionly-loud thympanitis
C) The abdomen is enlarged; in horizontal position-it is spread,in vertical-it looks
pendulous,a napel gets evaginated,there is a extended venous network on lateral
regions of the abdomen
D) The emaciate patient has an evagination in epigastrium and periodic waves of
retrograde peristalsis.
E)At the abdominal survey there is an increased rough intestinal peristalsis,the
abdomine is extended.
126. Specify the most typical change for arterial pulse at the following heart
disease: compression of the large arterial trunks by the aortic aneurysm, by
mediastinum tumor, by enlarged left auricle:
А) pulsus dificiens
Б) pulsus filiformis
В) pulsus differens
Г) pulsus plenus
Д) pulsus durus.
127. What is not typical for diarrhea as result of the disease of colon distal
portions:
A) Small single stool
B) Mucus in feces
C) Imperative and frequent desires for stool
D) Relief of abdominal pain after defecation
E) Diarrhea only in the morning.
128. There are 7 most important factors, taking part in formation of heart sounds.
Choose those ones, that are significant in the formation of I sound: a) Fluctuations
of ventricles’ walls at the moment of auricles’ systole. b) ) Fluctuations of
ventricles’ walls at the moment of their rapid filling. c) The position of cusps of
AV- valves before isometric contraction. d) Fluctuations of semilunar valves of
aorta and pulmonary artery at their closing. e) Rapid isometric contraction of
ventricles. f) Fluctuations of AV- valves at their closing. g) Vibration of the aorta
walls and pulmonary artery after at the very begining of the sphygmic interval.
A) b
B) b,c,e,f
C) a
D) c,e,f,g
E) d.
129. How is the data of abdominal auscultation changed at mechanical obstruction
of large intestine?
A) Normal intestinal peristalsis
B) Suddenly increased intestinal peristalsis
C) Remission of intestinal peristalsis
D) Absence of intestinal peristalsis ( “Death silence”)
E) Vascular tones.
130. What complaint is typical for the syndrome of hyperthyrosis?
A) Drowsiness
B) Heartbeating
C) Obesity
D) Bleeding
E) Chilliness
131. How are the pathological rhythms, represented on cardiophonography, called?
A) Protodiastolic “gallop”
B) “Quail” rhythm
C) Summatic “gallop”
D) Presystolic “gallop”
E) Systolic “gallop”
132. How are the pathological rhythms, represented on cardiophonography, called?
A) Protodiastolic “gallop”
B) “Quail” rhythm
C) Summatic “gallop”
D) Presystolic “gallop”
E) Systolic “gallop”
133. What changes, revealed during the research and percussion of the abdomen,
are most typical for the peritonitis?
A)The abdomen is scaphoid (carinate), hardly participates in respiration, there is an
expressed muscular tension of abdominal wall
B)The abdomen is enlarged,has a dome-shaped distension,participates in
respiration,a navel is scaphoid,there is a percussionly-loud thympanitis
C) The abdomen is enlarged; in horizontal position-it is spread,in vertical-it looks
pendulous,a napel gets evaginated,there is a distended venous network on lateral
regions of the abdomen
D) The emaciate patient has an evagination in epigastrium and periodic waves of
retrograde peristalsis.
E)At the abdominal survey there is an increased rough intestinal peristalsis,the
abdomine is distended.
134. How will the II heart sound be changed at pressure rising in the pulmonary
artery and expressed hypertrophy of the right ventricle?
A) Remission of the II heart sound on the pulmonary artery
B) Only accent of the II heart sound on the pulmonary artery
C) Accent and splitting of the II heart sound on the pulmonary artery
D) Only the splitting of the II heart sound on the pulmonary artery
135. The enlarged, dense, painless liver, with the pinched edge, is palpated at:
A) Hepatitis
B) Cardiac insufficiency
C) Cancer of liver
D) Cirrhosis of liver
D) Cholecystitis.
136. Can the sudden tension of muscles of anterior abdominal wall and positive
rebound tenderness symptom be revealed at the ulcerative disease:
A) No, it can’t
B) If “yes”, then in the exacerbation phase
C) During the bleeding
D) During the malignancy
E) During the perforation.
137. How are the pathological rhythms, represented on cardiophonography, called?
A) Protodiastolic “gallop”
B) “Quail” rhythm
C) Summatic “gallop”
D) Presystolic “gallop”
E) Systolic “gallop”
138.
What is most significant in making diagnosis of the chronic hepatitis:
A) Virus hepatitis in the anamnesis
B) Icteric discoloration of the skin, the pains in the right hypochondrium
C) The data of the histological research of liver
D) Revealing of HBS- antigen in blood serum.
139. What is the reason of splashing sound in epigastrium, revealed in 5-6 hours
after food taking.
A) The symptom is considered to be normal.
B) There is a free fluid in the abdominal cavity.
C) There is a pyloric stenosis.
D) There is a big quantity of gases in the large intestine (meteorism when the
patient has colitis)
E) There is an accumulation of liquid and gases in the large intestine ( for
example, when the patient has acute interitis).
140. What is the reason of murmur during palpation of ascending and transverse
colon?
A) The symptom is considered to be normal.
B) There is a free fluid in the abdominal cavity.
C)There is a pyloric stenosis.
D) There is a big quantity of gases in the large intestine (meteorism when the
patient has colitis)
E) There is an accumulation of liquid and gases in the large intestine ( for
example, when the patient has acute interitis).
141. . How are the pathological rhythms, represented on cardiophonography,
called?
A) Protodiastolic “gallop”
B) “Quail” rhythm
C) Summatic “gallop”
D) Presystolic “gallop”
E) Systolic “gallop”.
142. Hepatic smell out of the mouth at liver diseases is the symptom of:
A)Occurrence of duodeno-gastral reflux
B)Increase of bile acids in blood on the background of the expressed cholestasia
C)Disturbance of synthetic (protein producing) function of liver
D)Cardiac insufficiency on the background of the expressed accompanying
myocardial dystrophy
E)Remission of disintoxication function of liver in relation to the decay products of
proteins
143. Give the definition of the following murmur. The patient with an expressed
anemia (Hb is 50 gr/l) has a murmur, that is sounded on the jugular vein during
systole and diastole ( it is louder during diastole):
A) Phlint’s murmur.
B) Murmur of whirligig
C) Kumb’s murmur
D) Graham-Stills murmur.
D) Functional murmur of the relative incompetence of the mitral valve.
144. Choose the main etiological factor of the acute nephritis:
A) Staphylococcus
B) β- hemolytic streptococcus of group A
C) Pneumococcus
145. How is an impossibility to empty a bladder (retention of urine) called?
A) Pollakisuria
B) Strangury
C) Ischuria
D) Anuria
E) Polyuria.
146. What changes, revealed during the research and percussion of the abdomen,
are most typical for the mechanical obstruction of large intestine ?
A)The abdomen is scaphoid (carinate), hardly participates in respiration, there is an
expressed muscular tension of abdominal wall
B)The abdomen is enlarged,has a dome-shaped distension,participates in
respiration,a navel is scaphoid,there is a percussionly-loud thympanitis
C) The abdomen is enlarged; in horizontal position-it is spread,in vertical-it looks
pendulous,a napel gets evaginated,there is a distended venous network on lateral
regions of the abdomen
D) The emaciate patient has an evagination in epigastrium and periodic waves of
retrograde peristalsis.
E)At the abdominal survey there is an increased rough intestinal peristalsis,the
abdomine is distended.
147.What is not typical for the syndrome of cholestasia:
A) Total blood bilirubin is increased
B) Combined blood bilirubin is increased
C) Urinary urobilin- sharply negative reaction
D) Urinary bilirubin- sharply positive reaction
E) Stercobilinogen in feces- sharply positive reaction.
148. Enlarged, dense (often painless) lymph nodes are revealed at:
A) Acute posthemorrhagic anemia
B) Chronic asiderotic anemia
C) Lymphogranulomatosis
D) Chronic lymphoid leukosis
D) Erythremia.
149. What complication of the ulcerative disease causes late splashing sound and
increased peristalsis in epigastrium?
A) The bleeding
B) Perforation
C) Penetration
D) Pyloric stenosis
E) Malignancy
150. What is the reason of positive wave symptom (fluctuation) during bimanual
percutory palpation of abdomen?
A) The symptom is considered to be normal.
B) There is a free fluid in the abdominal cavity.
C)There is a pyloric stenosis.
D) There is a big quantity of gases in the large intestine (meteorism when the
patient has colitis )
E) There is an accumulation of liquid and gases in the large intestine (for example,
when the patient has acute enteritis).
151. For what purpose is Zimnitsky’s test prescribed?
A) For identify the character of kidneys’ diseases
B) To solve the question of etiology of kidneys’ diseases
C) To solve the question of pathogenesis of kidneys’ diseases
D) To evaluate the concentration function of kidneys
E) To reveal the latent lesion of glomerules.
152. Explain the origin of the following symptom, caused during examination and
palpation of abdomen (an expressed diffuse muscular tension of abdominal wall):
A) Reduction of abdominal type of breath as the result of diaphragm paresis,
caused by inflammatory process, transferring to it.
B) Substantial increase of intraabdominal pressure.
C) Expressed inspissation of parietal peritoneum at its inflammation.
D) Reflex origin of the symptom alike with viscero-motor reflex, as a result of
process “transferring” to parietal peritoneum.
E) Reflex origin of the symptom alike with viscero-motor reflex, as a result of
inflammation “transferring” to the visceral peritoneum (pericholecystitis.,
perigastritis and etc.)
153. The patient has a threat of hepatic coma. What should be limited in a diet?
A) Fats
B) Protein
C) Carbohydrates
D) Fluid
E) Salt.
154. Choose the symptoms and syndroms for the nephrotic syndrome: a) Arterial
hypertension; b) Dull aching back pains; c) Diffuse edemas on the face, trunk,
upper and lower extremity; d) Small edemas under eyes and swollen eyelids, a face
is bloated, absence of other swellings; e) Hypoalbuminemia; f) Microhematuria; g)
Strangury; h) Pollakisuria; i) Proteinuria is more than 3 gr/l; j) Proteinuria is less
than 3 gr/l; k) Hyperlipidemia; l) Hyaline and granular casts; m) Hyaline, granular
and waxy casts:
A) a,b,c,e,i,k,l
B) b,d,e,f,j,l
C) c,e,f,g,i,m
D) a,c,i,h,j,k,m
E) c,e,i,k,m.
155. What criterion is not typical for exacerbation of chronic hepatitis?
A) Increase of ESR
B) Hyperenzymemia
C) Potassemia
D) Hyperbilirubinemia.
156. Choose the signs, that are most typical for the mechanical icterus: a) Increase
of combined (direct) blood bilirubin; b) Increase of free (indirect) blood bilirubin;
c) Presence of bilirubin in urine; d) Absence of bilirubin in urine; e) Presence of
urobilin in urine; f) Absence of urobilin in urine; g) Absence of stercobilin in
feces; h) Presence of stercobilin in feces;
A) b,d,i,h
B) a,c,f,g
C) b,c,e,g
D) a,c,e,h
E) a,b,c,e,h.
157. To diagnose the lesion of pancreas, it is necessary to examine the feces for:
A) Stercobilin
B) Occult blood
C) Kreatorrhea
D) Bilirubin.
158. A splashing sound in stomach on an empty stomach is often typical for:
A) Acute gastritis
B) Chronic gastritis with the remitted secretory function
C) Ulcerative disease of the stomach
D) Carcinoma of the cardia
E) Ulcerative disease of duodenum with development of stenosis.
159. How is the data of abdominal auscultation changed at the diffuse peritonitis?
A) Normal intestinal peristalsis
B) Suddenly increased intestinal peristalsis
C) Depression of intestinal peristalsis
D) Absence of intestinal peristalsis ( “Death silence”)
E) Vascular tones.
160. Palmar erythema occurs at the following disease:
A) Myxedema
B) Chronic bronchitis
C) Rheumatic fever
D) Cirrhosis of the liver
E) Chronic cholecystitis.
161. What symptom is not typical for cirrhosis of the liver:
A) Concave nail.
B) “Parchment-like skin”
C) “Vascular asterisks”
D) ”Hepar palms”
E) Xanthelasmas.
162. The Mendel’s symptom is typical for:
A) Simple acute gastritis.
B) Chronic gastritis A
C) Ulcerative disease of the stomach
D) Cancer of stomach.
E) Chronic gastritis C.
163. What changes, revealed during the research and percussion of the abdomen,
are most typical for the meteorism?
A)The abdomen is scaphoid (carinate), hardly participates in respiration, there is an
expressed muscular tension of abdominal wall
B)The abdomen is enlarged,has a dome-shaped distension,participates in
respiration,a navel is scaphoid,there is a percussionly-loud thympanitis
C) The abdomen is enlarged; in horizontal position-it is spread,in vertical-it looks
pendulous,a napel gets evaginated,there is a distended venous network on lateral
regions of the abdomen
D) The emaciate patient has an evagination in epigastrium and periodic waves of
retrograde peristalsis.
E)At the abdominal survey there is an increased rough intestinal peristalsis,the
abdomine is distended.
164. What is a rubeosis of face?
A) Permanent hyperemia of facial skin
B) Cyanosis of facial skin
C) Paleness of facial skin.
165. Choose the signs, that are most typical for the parenchimatous icterus: a)
Increase of combined (direct) blood bilirubin; b) Increase of free (indirect) blood
bilirubin; c) Presence of bilirubin in urine; d) Absence of bilirubin in urine; e)
Presence of urobilin in urine; f) Absence of urobilin in urine; g) Absence of
stercobilin in feces; h) Presence of stercobilin in feces;
A) b,d,i,h
B) a,c,f,g
C) b,c,e,g
D) a,c,e,h
E) a,b,c,e,h.
166. How is the data of abdominal auscultation changed at enteritis?
A) Normal intestinal peristalsis
B) Suddenly increased intestinal peristalsis
C) Depression of intestinal peristalsis
D) Absence of intestinal peristalsis ( “Death silence”)
E) Vascular tones.
167. To diagnose the lesion of pancreas, it is necessary to examine the feces for:
A) Stercobilin
B) Occult blood
C) Kreatorrhea, Steatorrhea
D) Bilirubin.
168. What symptom is not typical for cirrhosis of the liver with portal
hypertension:
A) “Parchment-like skin”
B) Hepatosplenomegaly
C) “Caput Medusae”
D) Ascites
E) Dysphagia.
169. At what icterus is the free and combined blood bilirubin simultaneously
increased?
A) Suprahepatic icterus
B) Hepatic icterus
C) Subhepatic icterus
D) All is correct.
170. What methods of research allow to diagnose ulcerative disease more
correctly?
A) Inquiring the patient
B) Superficial abdominal palpation
C) Deep abdominal palpation
D) The research of secretory function of the stomach
E) Fibrogasrtoduodenoscopy.
171. The patient has a threat of hepatic coma. What should be limited in a diet?
A) Fats
B) Protein
C) Carbohydrates
D) Fluid
E) Salt.
172. Itch of skin at liver diseases is the symptom of:
A) Occurrence of duodeno-gastral reflux
B) Increase of bile acids in a blood on the background of the expressed cholestasia
C) Disturbance of synthetic (protein producing) function of liver
D) Cardiac insufficiency on the background of the expressed accompanying
myocardial dystrophy
E) Remission of disintoxication function of liver in relation to the decay products
of proteins
173. Choose the signs, that are most typical for the hemolytic icterus: a) Increase
of combined (direct) blood bilirubin; b) Increase of free (indirect) blood bilirubin;
c) Presence of bilirubin in urine; d) Absence of bilirubin in urine; e) Presence of
urobilin in urine; f) Absence of urobilin in urine; g) Absence of stercobilin in
feces; h) Presence of stercobilin in feces;
A) b,d,h
B) a,c,f,g
C) b,c,e,g
D) a,c,e,g
E) a,b,c,e,h.
174. The syndrome of cholestasia is typical for:
A) Chronic cholecystitis
B) Portal cirrhosis of liver
C) Cholelithiasis (obturation of the common bile duct)
D) Chronic persistent hepatitis
175. What is not typical for the subhepatic icterus:
A) Total blood bilirubin is increased
B) Combined blood bilirubin is increased
C) Urinary bilirubin- negative reaction
D) Urinary urobilin- negative reaction
E) Stercobilinogen in feces- negative reaction.
176.What method of research is used for diagnosis of motor function disturbance
of the intestine?
A)X-rayed research of the intestine
B) Proctosigmoidoscopy
C) Roentgenography of the stomach
D)Colonoscopy
E) Cholecystography
177.What is not typical for the cirrhosis of liver:
A) “Vascular asterisks”
B)Hepatic palms
C)Gynecomastia
D)Hair fallout in the armpits
D) Lemonly-yellowish colour of skin.
178. The appearance of teleangiectasia is typical for:
A) Virus hepatitis
B) Chronic cholecystitis
C) Cirrhosis of the liver
D) Metastatic lesion of the lungs.
E) Cholelithiasis.
179. What endoscopic method allows to examine all the portions of large intestine:
A) Laparoscopy
B) Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
C) Proctosigmoidoscopy
D) Colonoscopy
180. When the patient has cirrhosis of the liver, the paracentesis at ascites should
be carried out:
A) Only on vital indications and at the presence of considerable quantity of
liquid
B) In all cases of liquid detection in abdominal cavity
C) In all cases of ascites without hypoproteinosis
D) In all cases of ascites without anemia and thrombocytopenia
E) At the absence of the arterial hypotonia.
181. Which of the following syndroms most early occurs at the biliary cirrhosis of
liver?
A) Dyspeptic
B) Asthenic
C) Portal hypertension
D) Cholestasis
E) Hepatic insufficiency.
182. Tenderness in the Shoffar’s zone tells about:
A) A lesion of stomach body
B) A lesion of pyloric portion of the stomach
C) A lesion of duodenum
D) A lesion of duodenum and pyloric portion of the stomach
E) A lesion of pyloric portion of the stomach and (or) the head of the pancreas.
183. Bitterness in a mouth at the hepatic diseases tells about:
A) Duodeno- gastric reflux
B) Increase of bile acids in blood at the expressed cholestasis
C) Disturbance of synthetic (protein-forming) function of liver.
D) Cardiac insufficiency at the expressed accompanying myocardial dystrophy.
E) Reduction of the hepatic disintoxication function in relation to the decay
products of proteins.
184. The occurrence of teleangiectasia is typical for:
A) Virus hepatitis
B) Chronic cholecystitis
C) Cirrhosis of the liver
D) Metastatic lesion of the lungs.
E) Cholelithiasis.
185. How is the painful urination called?
A) Pollakisuria
B) Strangury
C) Ischuria
D) Anuria
E) Polyuria.
186. Loss of weight and muscular atrophy at the hepatic diseases tell about:
A) Duodeno- gastric reflux
B) Increase of bile acids in blood at the expressed cholestasis
C) Disturbance of synthetic (protein-forming) function of liver.
D) Cardiac insufficiency at the expressed accompanying myocardial dystrophy.
E) Reduction of the hepatic disintoxication function in relation to decay
products of proteins.
187. What is a “hyposthenuria”?
A) A reduction of minute dieresis
B) A monotony of specific density of urine
C) A reduction of specific density of urine
D) An increase of specific density of urine
E) A reduction of minute dieresis at the increased specific density of urine.
188. What is most significant in the diagnosis of cirrhosis:
A) Level of albumins
B) Level of bilirubin
C) Thymol turbidity test
D) Level of transaminases
E) Nothing is correct.
189. Choose the signs that are most typical for the syndrome of hepatocellular
insufficiency: a) Hepatic encephalopathy; b) Syndrome of the portal hypertension;
c) Parenchimatous icterus; d) Hepatolienal syndrome; e) “Hepatic” smell out of
the mouth; f) Hemorrhagic syndrome; g) Syndrome of hypersplenism; e) Acholic
feces:
A) a,b,c,e,f
B) a,c,d,e,g
C) a,c,e,f
D) a,b,c,e,h
E) a,b,c,d,e,g.
190. Choose the main etiological factor of the glomerulonephritis:
A) Staphylococcus
B) β- hemolytic streptococcus of group A
C) Pneumococcus.
191. During the examination of the patient, there were the hyperemia of palms,
tongue, “vascular astericks” revealed. Define the disease:
A) Chronic cholecystitis
B) Echinococcus of the liver
C) Alcoholic hepatosis
D) Cirrhosis of the liver
E) Ulcerative disease of the stomach.
192. What is not typical for the hemolytic icterus:
A) Total blood bilirubin is increased
B) Combined blood bilirubin is increased
C) Urinary bilirubin- sharply positive reaction
D) Urinary urobilin- positive reaction
E) Stercobilinogen in feces- sharply positive reaction.
193. How is the increase of daily urinary output called?
A) Pollakisuria
B) Strangury
C) Ischuria
D) Anuria
E) Polyuria.
194. When the patient has an ulcerative disease of duodenum, the pains are
most often localized in epigastric area:
A) Near the xiphoid process
B) To the left of the median line
C) To the right of the median line.
195.What is a pituitary dwarfism?
A)Lack of growth, weight and development
B)Normal height and weight
C) Acceleration in height and development
196. How is frequent urination called?
A) Pollakisuria
B) Strangury
C) Ischuria
D) Anuria
E) Polyuria.
197. At what icterus is the free and combined blood bilirubin simultaneously
increased?
A) Suprahepatic icterus
B) Hepatic icterus
C) Subhepatic icterus
D) All is correct.
198.The most significant laboratory index in diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis
exacerbation is:
A) Leukocytosis
B) Level of aminotransferases
C) Level of blood and urine amylase
D) Level of alkaline phosphatase
E) Hyperglycemia
199. What is typical for the syndrome of “cytolysis of hepatocytes”
A)Positive sublimate test
B)Increase of activity of blood transaminases(AST,ALT)
C)Reduction of activity of blood transaminases(AST,ALT)
D) Reduction of albumin / globulin coefficient
E)Increase of prothrombin level in blood
200.What is not typical for chronic renal insufficiency:
A)Ammonia smell out of the mouth
B) Diarrhea
C) Cachexia
D) Anemia
E) Hyperstenuria
201. Low colour index is observed at:
A)Acute posthemorrhagic anemia
B) Chronic asiderotic anemia
C) B12- deficient anemia
D) Hemolytic anemia
E) Vakez’s disease.
202. What is most typical for the diseases of pancreas.
A) Liquid black feces
B) Colorless feces
C) “Greasy”, glossy, badly washed off feces
D) Black formed stool.
203. What does the urine analysis represent according to Nechiporenko? Definition
of quantity of leucocytes, erythrocytes and casts, excreted with urine:
A) For days
B) In an hour
C) For a minute
D) Definition of quantity of urine, excreted for a minute
E) In 1 ml of urine
204. Scanning of kidneys allows to define:
A) Rate of accumulation of the radioactive isotope in kidneys
B) The rate of release of the radioactive isotope from the kidneys
C) Sizes, form and localization of kidneys
D) Sizes, form and localization of pelvicalyceal system
E) Rate of glomerular filtration.
205. The patient takes recumbent position on stomach and genucubital position at
the following disease:
A) Acute appendicitis
B) Nephrolithiasis
C) Pancreas cancer
D) Hepatic colic
E) Ulcerative disease of stomach.
206. What clinical-laboratory signs tell about reduction of concentration function
of the kidneys? a) Pollakisuria; b) Nocturia; c) Azotemia; d) Isosthenuria; e)
Ischuria; f) Hyposthenuria; g) Polyuria; h) Anuria; i) Proteinuria:
A) b,d,f,g
B)b,d,f,h
C) b,c,f,h,i
D) a,b,f,g
E) b,c,e.h.
207. What is the reason of ascites at the cirrhosis of the liver:
A) Secondary aldosteronism
B) Hypoalbuminemia and depression of oncotic pressure of a blood plasma
C) Portal hypertension
D) Everything is correct
E) Nothing is correct.
208. What is not typical for the acute glomerulonephritis:
A) Oliguria
B) Proteinuria
C) Hematuria
D) Leukocyturia
E) Cylindruria.
209. What disease is inherited:
A) Acute posthemorrhagic anemia
B) Chronic asiderotic anemia
C) Hemophilia
D) Agranulocytosis
E) Symptomatic hyperglobulia.
210. What is not typical for the cirrhosis of the liver:
A) Palmar erythema
B) Teleangiectasias on the skin
C) “Lion’s face”
D) Parchment-like skin
E) “Caput Medusae”.
211. What signs are typical for hypertonic variant of chronic nephritis?
A) Urinary syndrome
B) Hypertonic syndrome
C) Edematous syndrome.
212. What is the most reliable sign of the chronic renal insufficiency:
A) Arterial hypertension
B) Potassemia
C) Increase of the level of blood creatinine
D) Oliguria
E) Anemia.
213. What does the urine analysis represent according to Kakovsky-Addis?
Definition of quantity of leucocytes, erythrocytes and casts, excreted with urine:
A) In an hour
B) In 1 ml of urine
C) Definition of quantity of urine, excreted for a minute
D) For days.
214. The symptom of “parchment-like skin” is typical for:
A) Scleroderma
B) Myasthenia
C) Rheumatism
D) Stomach cancer
E) Cirrhosis of the liver.
215.How many portions of urine is taken according to Zimnitsky’s test?
A) 5
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12
216. What mechanism is not significant in the pathogenesis of edemas at the
nephrotic syndrome:
A) Increase of vascular permeability
B) Increase of aldosteronum secretion
C) Increase of arterial pressure
D) Reduction of oncotic pressure of blood serum
E) Increase of natrium reabsorption
217.What is not typical for the chronic glomerulonephritis:
A) Facial edemata in the morning
B) Increase of arterial pressure
C) Polyuria
D) Nocturia
E) Increase of relative density of urine.
218. What is a pituitary dwarfism?
A)Lack of height, weight and development
B)Normal height and weight
C) Acceleration in height and development
219. What is not typical for the nephrotic syndrome:
A) Hyposthenuria
B) Granular casts
C) Edemata
D) Hypoproteinosis
E) Hypocholesterinemia.
220. What symptom is the most typical for the glomerulonephritis?
A) Abdominal pain
B) Edemata
C) Joint pain
D) Chills
E) Constipations.
221.Reduction of thrombocytes in the blood analysis is the symptom of:
A) Acute leukosis
B) Chronic lymphoid leukosis
C) Myelosis
D) Lymphogranulomatosis
E) Thrombocytopenic purpura (Werlhof's disease)
222.What index is not significant for defining the gravity level of functional renal
insufficiency:
A) The level of blood creatinine
B) The level of blood urea
C)The rate of glomerular filtration
D)Expression of edematous syndrome
E) Expression of anemia.
223. What nutrition is necessary for asiderotic anemia:
A) Vegetables and fruit
B) Cereals and flour products
C) Liver of animals
D) Milk and dairy products
E) Meat.
224. What syndrome is characterized by the following signs: edemas, high level of
proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, disproteinemia, hyperlipidemia?
A) Nephrotic syndrome
B) Urinary syndrome
C) Hypertensive syndrome
D) Syndrome of infectious complications
E) Chronic renal insufficiency.
225. The slightly yellowish (waxy) skin colour is the symptom of:
A) B12-deficient anemia
B) Juvenile chlorosis
C) Chronic lymphoid leukosis
D) Erythremia
E) Myelosis.
226. What is an erythropenia?
A) Depression of total blood volume
B) Depression of circulating blood volume
C) Reduction of the number of erythrocytes in blood
D) Reduction of concentration of hemoglobin in blood
E) Reduction of total level of hemoglobin in blood.
227. The excretory anuria is the consequence of:
A) Acute glomerulonephritis
B) Urolithiasis
C) Chronic pyelonephritis
D) Coma
E) Poisoning with bismuth.
228. What are the main and typical changes of marrow that are observed at acute
leukosis:
A) Leukocytosis
B) Leukopenia
C) Thrombocytosis
D) Thrombocytopenia
E) A considerable quantity of blasts (dozens of percents).
229. The main lesions at acute leukosis are localized in:
A) The skin; a hypoderm cellulose
B) The lymph nodes
C) The internal organs
D) The nervous system
E) The osteomuscular system
F) The marrow.
230. The kidneys are palpated at:
A) Pyelonephritis
B) Hydronephrosis
C) Glomerulonephritis
D) Kidney amyloidosis.
231. Percussion of the spleen is carried out along:
A) The adsternal line
B) The median-clavicular line
C) The line, that is 4 sm more lateral than linia costoarticularis sinistra ( the line,
linking the sternal-clavicular union with the free end of XI rib)
D) The scapular line
E) The back axillary line.
232. A considerable increase of mature lymphocytes in blood analyses is most
often observed at:
A) Myelosis
B) Chronic lymphoid leukosis
C) Acute leukosis
D) Acute posthemorrhagic anemia
E) Chronic asiderotic anemia.
233. Greff’s symptom is characterized by:
A) Darkening of eyelids’ skin
B) Backlog of the upper eyelid from iris edge at the sight downwards
C) Extraordinary shine of eyes.
234. What is an “anemia”?
A) Depression in the total blood volume
B) Depression in the circulating blood volume
C) Reduction of concentration of erythrocytes in a blood
D) Reduction of concentration of hemoglobin in a blood
E) Depression of total number of erythrocytes and (or) hemoglobin level in the unit
of volume due to their general reduction in the organism.
235.What systems are mainly
A) Circulation
B) Hemopoiesis
C) Digestion
D) Excretorion
E) Nervous.
236. What is the glucosuria?
A) Glucose occurrence in the urine
B) Absence of glucose in the urine
C) Reduction of the glucose in urine.
237. What is the hyperglycemia?
A) Depression of the glucose level in blood
B) Rising of the glucose level in blood
C) Rising of the insulin level in a blood.
238. What complaint is most typical for the hypothyroidism syndrome?
A) Irritability
B) Nervousness
C) Sweating
D) Heartbeat
E) Drowsiness.
239. Dryness and peeling of the skin,increased fragility of hair is observed at:
A) Acute posthemorrhagic anemia
B) В12-deficient anemia
C) Chronic asiderotic anemia
D) Hemolytic anemia
E) Erythremia.
240. Normal glucose level in blood is:
A) 2,55-4,5 mmol/l
B) 3,88-4,9 mmol/l
C) 3,3-5,5 mmol/l.
241. What changes are observed in urine at diabetes mellitus:
A) Proteinuria
B) Leukocyturia
C) Glucosuria.
242.Sharp pains in left hypochondrium are often observed at:
A) Acute leukosis
B) Myelosis
C) Acute posthemorrhagic anemia
D) Addison-Birmer’s anemia
E) Lymphogranulomatosis.
243. What is observed in first hours of acute blood loss?
A) The decreased number of erythrocytes
B) The increased number of erythrocytes
C) Normal number of erythrocytes
D) Increase of number of reticulocytes
E) Reduction of number of reticulocytes.
244.What is most typical for the syndrome of hyperthyroidism?
A)Quiet heart sounds
B) Bradycardia
C)Tachycardia
D)Sound of mitral valve opening
E)Diastolic murmur above the heart apex
245.Increased angiostaxis is observed at:
A) Acute posthemorrhagic anemia
B)Addison-Birmer’s anemia
C) Hemolitic anemia
D) Lymphogranulomatosis
E)Acute leukosis
246. Acromegalia is characterized by:
A) Preferential increase of particular body parts
B)Increase of all body parts
C)Reduction of particular body parts
247.What is typical for hypothyroidism:
A)Rise in body temperature
B)Increase of ESR
C)Expressed painful syndrome
D)Decrease of T3,T4
248.What complaint is most typical for diabetes mellitus?
A) Giddiness
B)Twinkle of flies in front of eyes
C)Dyspnea
D)Rise in temperature
E)Dryness in mouth
249.What auscultatory sign is not typical for the syndrome of hypothyroidism?
A)Loud heart sounds
B) Systolic murmur
C) Arrhythmia
D)Bradycardia
250.What procedure is held to examine the functions of thyroid?
A)Scanning of thyroid
B)Determination of Т3, Т4, ТТГ in blood
C) Lymphography
251.What is a therapy(internal Medicine)?
A) The field of clinical medicine,that studies the etiology, pathogenesis,
semiotics,diagnostics, treatment (except for surgical and radiative), the prognosis
and prophylaxis of diseases of internal organs
B) The field of clinical medicine,that studies the mechanisms of occurrence of
symptoms and syndromes of internal organs' diseases and methods of their
revealing
252.The task of propedeutics of internal Medicine is:
A) Study of methods of inquiry,survey, palpation, percussion and auscultation
B)Study of laboratory, instrumental and radial methods of patients' examination.
C)Study of semiotics of internal organs' diseases
D)Everything is correct
253.Necessity of keeping in secret by the doctor the data about the patient and
character of his/her disease is one of the demands of:
A)Professional ethics
B)Medical deontology
C)Medical psychology
254.The principles of doctor's morality,a set of norms of his behavior,a sense of
professional duty, honor, conscience and dignity are defined by:
A)Medical duty
B)Medical deontology
C)Medical ethics
255. In translation from Greek the term "symptoma" means:
A)A sign
B) A coincidence
C)A painful sensation
256. The sign of pathological condition or disease is called:
A)A symptom
B)A syndrome
257. The signs of disease,that occur in the form of unpleasant sensations of the
patient (a pain,sickness, giddiness,increased fatigability), are defined as:
A)Subjective symptoms
B)Objective symptoms
258. The reveal of icterus,dermal rashes and enlargement of liver indicates that the
patient has:
A)Subjective symptoms
B)Objective symptoms
259. In translation from Greek the term “syndromos”means:
A)A sign
B) A joint run
C)A painful sensation
260.A collection of symptoms that is specified by a single pathogenesis is called:
A)A syndrome
B)A disease
261. Evaluate a consciousness condition, if the patient is motionless (has been
sitting, lying, or standing for hours, without changing a pose),doesn't answer the
questions absolutely or answers slowly, all types of sensitivity are depressed
A)Consciousness is clear
B) Stupor
C)Sopor
D)Coma
262. Evaluate a consciousness condition, if the patient is lying motionlessly,eyes
are closed,a face is unmimic, doesn't answer the questions, reacts to strong stimuli
by undifferentiated stereotypic protective motor, sometimes not articulated vocal
reactions.
A)Consciousness is clear
B) Stupor
C)Sopor
D)Coma
263. Evaluate a consciousness condition, if there is a deep inhibition of higher
nervous activity,accompanied by full loss of consciousness, sensitivity and
motions.
A)Consciousness is clear
B) Stupor
C)Sopor
D)Coma
264.What disease makes the patient take a forced position(orthopnea):
A)Bronchopneumonia
B)Cholecystitis
C)Cardiac asthma
D) Cholelithiasis
E)Gastritis
265. The bronze coloring of skin and mucosas, especially of open body parts , and
also in the places ,exposed to friction, on palmar lines, in postoperative cicatrixes
is observed at:
A)Diabetes mellitus
B)Hepatitis
C)Adrenal insufficiency
266. Sharp development of superciliary arches, disproportionately big sizes of
nose, lips, tongue and chin, the excessive increase of the sizes of mandible is
observed at:
A)Nanocephalia
B)Congenital syphilis
C)Hydrocephaly
D)Acromegalia
267. The face has the appearance of "a waxy doll" at:
A)Grave diseases of abdominal cavity (general peritonitis,perforation of stomach
or duodenum ulcer,intestinal obstruction)
B)Addison-Birmer's anemia
C)Leprosy
D)Cardiac insufficiency
E)Tetanus
268. "Korvizar's face" (is bloated, with yellowish-pale skin, with an expressed
cyanosis of lips, ears,tip of the nose, with dim eyes and a half-opened mouth) is
observed at:
A)Grave diseases of abdominal cavity (general peritonitis,perforation of stomach
or duodenum ulcer,intestinal obstruction)
B)Addison-Birmer's anemia
C)Leprosy
D)Expressed cardiac insufficiency
E)Tetanus
269.Risus sardonicus is developed at:
A)Grave diseases of abdominal cavity (general peritonitis,perforation of stomach
or duodenum ulcer,intestinal obstruction)
B)Addison-Birmer's anemia
C)Leprosy
D)Cardiac insufficiency
E)Tetanus
270. Facies Hyppocratica (the deathly-pale face with a cyanotic shade, sharply
pointed features,deeply sunk down suffering eyes and drops of cold sweat on a
forehead) can be observed at:
A)Grave diseases of abdominal cavity (general peritonitis,perforation of stomach
or duodenum ulcer,intestinal obstruction)
B)Addison-Birmer's anemia
C)Leprosy
D)Cardiac insufficiency
E)Tetanus
271. In Latin a dyspnea is called:
A) apnoe
B) orthopnoe
C) dyspnoe
D) dysphonia
E) obstipatio
F) ileus.
272.What is not the reason of pathological dyspnea:
A) Obstacle in respiratory tract
B) Lung compression at accumulation of liquid or air in a pleural cavity
C) Emotional stress
D) Inspissation of a lung part at inflammation.
273. Expiratory dyspnea is most typical for:
A) Exudative pleuritis
B) Attack of a bronchial asthma
C) Cardiac asthma
D) Bronchoectatic disease.
274. A respiratory rate of a healthy person in rest is:
A) 10-12 respiratory movements per minute
B) 14-20 respiratory movements per minute
C) 20-25 respiratory movements per minute
D) More than 25 respiratory movements per minute.
275. In Latin a cough is called:
A) vomitus
B) icterus
C) rubeosis
D) tussis
E)pyrosis
F) nausea.
276. Dry cough is most typical for:
A) The second stage of croupous pneumonia
B) The period after perforation of pulmonary abscess
C) Exacerbation of chronic bronchitis
D) Laryngitis.
277.A cough with mucous-purulent sputum is most typical for:
A) The first stage of croupous pneumonia
B) Dry pleuritis
C) Exacerbation of a chronic bronchitis.
278. In Latin a pneumorrhagia is called:
A) haematemesis
B) haemathoma
C) haemothorax
D) haemophilia
E) haemoptoe .
279. A pneumorrhagia can be observed at:
A)The increased airiness of a pulmonary tissue
B) The accumulation of liquid in pleural cavity
C) The accumulation of liquid and gas in pleural cavity
D) The destruction of a pulmonary tissue.
280.Chest pains,increasing at movements of the body,breathing and
coughing,decreasing in position on aching side,occur at:
A) Dry pleuritis
B) Bronchoectatic disease
C) Lung abscess
D) Chronic bronchitis.
281.The main mechanism of formation of vesicular breathing is:
A)Air passage through a true glottis at breathing in and out
B)Air whirls at transition from trachea into bronchi
C)Fluctuations of alveolar walls at their air filling when breathing in and out
D)Fluctuations of alveolar walls at their air filling in the end of breathing out
282. Vesicular breathing is sounded:
A) At inhalation
B) At exhalation
C) At inhalation and 1/3 of exhalation
D) At inhalation and at first 2/3 of exhalation
E)During inhalation and exhalation
283. Vesicular breathing is sounded in all areas,except:
A)Front surface of lungs lower than II rib
B) Axillary areas
C)Lower than scapulae angles
D) In interscapular space at level of III-IV thoracal vertebrae
284. Physiological depression of vesicular breathing occurs in all conditions,
except:
A)Intensive development of thorax muscles
B)Persons with the increased nutrition
C) At accumulation of liquid in pleural cavity
D)At shallow breathing
285. Pathological depression of vesicular breathing isn't caused by:
A)Inflammatory swelling of alveoles' walls
B)Insufficient inflow of air to alveoles by pneumatic tract because of their
partial obstruction
C)Inflammation of mucosa of large bronchi
D) Accumulation of liquid in pleural cavity
286.Which respiration is not the type of vesicular breathing:
A)Rough
B) Interrupted
C)Amphoric
287. The main mechanism of formation of bronchial breathing is:
A)Air whirls in larynx and trachea at transition through a true glottis when
breathing in and out
B)Fluctuations of alveolar walls at their air filling when breathing in and out
C)Fluctuations of alveolar walls at their air filling in the end of breathing out
288. Bronchial breathing is sounded:
A) At inhalation
B) At exhalation
C) At inhalation and 1/3 of exhalation
D) During breathing in and out
E) At inhalation and at first 2/3 of exhalation
289. If the person is healthy,then bronchial breathing is not sounded:
A)Along the front surface of lungs lower than II rib
B)In the area of presternum
C) In interscapular space at level of III-IV thoracal vertebrae
D)Above larynx
290. Pathological bronchial breathing occurs at the following syndrome:
A)Bronchial obstruction
B)Inspissation of a pulmonary tissue
C)Pheumothorax
D)Increase of airiness of a pulmonary tissue
291. The syndrome of inspissation of a pulmonary tissue is not observed at:
A)Inflammatory infiltration of lungs
B)Pulmonary atelectasis
C)Pulmonary emphysema
D)Pulmonary cancer
E)Extensive pneumocirrhosis
F)Pulmonary infarct
292. The syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue is defined by the
following data of physical examination:
A) The increase of vocal tremor, tympanic percussion sound, amphoric
respiration, moist coarse bubbling rales
B) The increase of vocal tremor, blunted percussion sound, bronchial
respiration
C) Depression of vocal tremor, bandbox percussion sound, depression
vesicular respiration
D) Vocal tremor is not observed, dull percussion sound, the respiration is not
sounded.
293. The focal pneumonia is not usually observed in the following clinical
variant:
A)Like an acute pneumonia with fever, intoxication, coughing, dyspnea,
chest pains
B)Like an acute or exacerbation of a chronic bronchitis (a subfebrilitet,
coughing, dyspnea, sometimes signs of bronchial obstruction)
C)With a severe,fulminant course
D)With oligosymptomatic course
294. What is essential in the pathogenesis of focal pneumonia:
A) Local bronchial obstruction
B) The remission of general resistance of the organism
C) The transfer of inflammatory process from bronchi to pulmonary tissue
D) Everything is correct.
295. Patients with a focal pneumonia don't have the symptoms of:
A)Coughing
B)Dyspnea
C)Diffusive cyanosis
D)Rise in temperature
296. What data is not usually observed at the examination of the patient with
focal pneumonia:
A) Shortening of percussion sound, bronchial respiration, increase of
bronchophony along all lung fields.
B) Percussion sound is not changed, vesicular-bronchial respiration, moist
rales and crepitation above affected pulmonary patch
C) Shortening of percussion sound, bronchial respiration, increase of
bronchophony above the limited pulmonary patch
D) Blunted percussion sound, vesicular-bronchial respiration, dry and moist
rales above the limited pulmonary patch.
297. What is usually observed at X-ray examination of the patient with a
focal pneumonia:
A)Enlightenment with horizontal level of liquid
B)Local shadowing of a pulmonary tissue
C)Increase of transparency of a pulmonary tissue
D)Homogeneous shadowing with the upper border, slunting downwards and
inwards
298. The most typical infecting agent of a croupous pneumonia is:
A)Staphilococcus
B) Streptococcus
C)Pneumococcus
D)Klebsiella
E)Viruses
299. The main way of becoming infected by a croupous pneumonia is:
A)Bronchogenic
B)Hematogenic
C)Lymphogenous
300. The hyperemia of a pulmonary tissue, blood stasis in pulmonary
capillaries, an inflammatory edema of alveoluses’ mucosa is typical for:
A)Inflow stage
B)Stage of red hepatization
C)Stage of grey hepatization
D)Resolution stage
301. The syndrome of bronchial obstruction is most typical for:
A)Lung abscess
B)Acute pneumonia
C)Bronchial asthma
D)Acute pleuritis
302.The most typical auscultatory signs for the syndrome of bronchial
obstruction are:
A)Bronchial respiration and crepitation
B)Respiration with the prolonged exhalation, occurrence or increase of
whistling rales at forced exhalation
C)Vesicular- bronchial respiration and moist rales
D)Depressed vesicular respiration
303. The functional sign of bronchial obstruction is:
A)Change of respiratory volume
B)Reduction of Tiffno's index
C)Reduction of
D)Increase of residual volume
304.What factor is not essential at acute bronchitis?
A)Frigorism
B)Industrial pollution of atmosphere
C)Viruses and bacteries
D)Disturbance of dietary regime
305.What symptoms are most typical for acute bronchitis:
A)Strong fever, intoxication,chest pains at respiration,dyspnea
B)Malaise, rise in temperature, "soreness in chest", caughing, at first dry,
and then with sputum excretion.
C)Subfebrile condition, dyspnea, pneumorrhagia
D)Chest pain,increasing at coughing and deep breathing, dry
coughing,general weakness
306.What symptom is observed at acute bronchitis:
A)Coughing
B)Pneumorrhagia
C)Chest pains
307.What analysis of sputum is observed at acute bronchitis:
A)”Rusty” sputum of viscous consistency, leucocytes - 30-40 are in vision
field , erythrocytes are on 1/3 of vision field
B)Sputum of white color, viscous, vitreous, odourless; at microscopy of
leucocytes - 2-4 are in vision field , eosinocytes - 10-15 are in vision field,
Kurschmann's spirals.
C)Sputum of yellowish-white color, mucous - purulent, at microscopy of
leucocytes - 40-60 are in vision field, erythrocytes - 4-6 are in vision
field,single macrophages
308. Risk factors of chronic bronchitis are:
A)Smoking
B)Atmospheric pollutants
C)Infectious agents
C)Genetic factors
D)Everything is correct
309. The most important criterion for diagnostics of chronic bronchitis is:
A)Presence of bronchial obstruction
B)Coughing with sputum not less than 3 months in a year during last two
years
C)Change of gas content of blood
D)Occurrence of a dyspnea at usual exercises
310.Which is not the morphological feature of chronic bronchitis:
A)Increase of number of goblet cells
B)Reduction of number of ciliary cells and their villuses
C) Sclerotherapy of bronchial patches
D)Obliteration of alveolus
311. Increase of a vocal tremor, tympanic sound, bronchial, sometimes
amphoric respiration,an abundance of moist sonorous rales on the limited
patch, an abundant purulent sputum is observed at the following syndrome:
A)The raised airiness of lungs
B)Consolidation of a pulmonary tissue
C) The accumulation of liquid in pleural cavity
D) The accumulation of air in pleural cavity
E)Lung cavity
312. The syndrome of lung cavity is not typical for:
A) Pulmonary abscess
B)Acute and chronic bronchitis
C)Tuberculosis of the lungs(with lung cavity formation)
D)Pulmonary cancer with disintegration
E)Bronchoectatic disease
313.What condition is not necessary for clinical revealing of the lung cavity
syndrome:
A)Diameter of cavity is more than 4,5-5 sm
B)Deep location
C)Superficial location
D)Occurrence of the formed capsule
E) The accumulation of air and link with bronchus
314. What sign is not typical for the syndrome of lung cavity:
A) Increase of vocal tremor
B)Remission of bronchophony
C)Tympanic sound at percussion
DBronchial or amphoric respiration
E)Moist coarse - and fine bubbling rales
F)Increase of bronchophony
315. The expansion of the affected side of chest, smoothing of intercostal
spaces, remission or absence of vocal tremor, tympanic percussion
sound,depressed vesicular respiration is typical for the following syndrome:
a) Increased airiness of lungs
b) Consolidation of lung tissue
c) Accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
d) Accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
e)Lung cavity
316.What sign is not typical for the syndrome of accumulation of air in a
pleural cavity:
A)Asymmetry of thorax
B)The vocal tremor is sharply depressed or absent
C)Tympanic percussion sound
D)Respiration and bronchophony are sharply depressed
E)by X-ray examination- shadowing in the zone of accumulation of air
317.What symptom is not typical for clinical characteristics of the first
period of lung abscess:
A)Dyspnea,cyanosis of face and extremities
B) Tenderness at palpation of intercostal space on the affected side
C)Backlog of the affected side in respiration
D) Bluntness of the percussion sound on the affected side
E)Crepitation.
318. What kind of cough is observed at the first period of lung abscess:
A)Dry
B)Moist
C)Is absent
319. During the first period of the lung abscess at its superficial location,a
percussion sound at a comparative percussion is:
A)Clear pulmonary
B)Bandbox
C)Tympanic
D)Blunted
E)Dullness with slanting upper border, above which - the blunted
thympanitis
320. What kind of cough is observed at the second period of lung abscess:
A)Dry
B)Moist
C) Is absent.
321. External respiration doesn’t include the following process:
A) Transfer of gas by blood
B) Ventilation of alveoles
C) Diffusion of gas through alveolar-capillary membrane
D) Blood flow through the capillaries of lungs (alveoles).
322. Insufficiency of function of external respiration can cause:
A) Discrepancy between pulmonary ventilation and blood perfusion
B) Intrapulmonary shunting from right to left
C) Reduction of partial pressure О2 in the inhaled air
D) Alveolar hypoventilation
E) Disturbance of diffusion of gases
F) Everything is correct.
323. The most typical complaint for the disturbance of functions of external
respiration is:
A) Coughing
B) Pneumorrhagia
C) Dyspnea
D) Chest pains
E) Weakness.
324. What sign, revealed at the general survey, is typical for the disturbance of
external respiration:
A) Change of the form of a thorax
B) Paleness of the skin
C) Cyanosis
D) Facial hyperemia
E) Erythematic eruption.
325. The typical change of blood content at respiratory insufficiency is:
A) Reduction of the amount of erythrocytes and hemoglobin
B) Increase of the amount of a residual nitrogen
С) Anoxemia and hypercapnia
В) Hyperlipidemia.
326. What is not observed at respiratory insufficiency:
A) Remission of pulmonary ventilation
B) Increase of CO2 tension in blood
C) Increase of respiratory dead space due to alveolar dead space
D) Increase of O2 content in blood
E) Lesion of muscles and peripheric nerves.
327. The level of regenerated hemoglobin, in which cyanosis is observed, is:
A) > 50 gr/l
B) > 40 gr/l
C) > 30 gr/l
D) > 20 gr/l.
328. What is not typical for the central cyanosis:
A) Diffusion
B) Ash-gray shade of the skin
C) Cold skin to the touch
D) Warm skin to the touch.
329. Peripheric cyanosis is characterized by all signs, except:
A) It is expressed on hands and feet
B) Has diffusive character
C) Skin is cold to the touch
D) It is expressed on ear lobules and nose tip
E) It is caused by blood flow remission in tissues.
330. What is not the sign of respiratory insufficiency:
A) Reduction of О2 tension in blood to less than 60 mm hg at inhalation of
atmospheric air
B) Partial СО2 tension in blood is less than 50 mm hg
C) Reduction of blood рН to less than 7,35
D) Increase of СО2 tension in blood to more than 50 mm hg.
331. What is not typical for cardiac asthma:
A) Suffocation attack
B) Position in orthopnee
C) Occurrence or increase of moist coarse bubbling rales in the back-lower
portions of lungs
D) Occurrence of rapidly spreading edema.
332. The complaints of coughing, dispnea, sometimes like suffocation,
pneumorrhagia are the symptoms of:
A) Coronaritis
B) Pericarditis
C) Arrhythmias
D) Arterial hypertonia
E) Congestion in lesser circulation
F) Congestion in greater circulation.
333. Which is not the important sign of chronic systolic dysfunction of the left
ventricle:
A) Capillary pulse
B) Coughing
C) Sometimes pneumorrhagia
D) Dyspnea.
334. What symptom is typical for the congestion in lesser circulation:
A) cardialgia
B) palpitatio cordis
C) asthma cardiale
D) hepatomegalia.
335. What is the most typical sign of the congestion in greater circulation:
A) Pain in the heart area, weakness
B) Cardiac asthma
C) Acrocyanosis, enlargement of liver, edema on legs, a cardiomegaly
D) Pulsation of cervical veins
E) High arterial pressure.
336. What is not typical for the chronic right-ventricular insufficiency:
A) Cyanosis
B) Edema
C) Positive venous pulse
D) Normal borders of heart
E) Enlargement of liver.
337.What is not typical for the cardiac pain, caused by acute insufficiency of
coronary circulation at stenocardia:
A)Location behind a breastbone or to the left of it
B)Radiation under the left scapula,to the left arm, to the neck
C)Is quickly relieved by nitroglycerinum
D) Is relieved by a cold compress
338.What is not typical for the edema, caused by right-ventricular
insufficiency:
A) Initial occurrence on feet and shins
B)Combination with the expressed peripheric acrocyanosis
C)Combination with the diffusive cyanosis
D)Increase or occurrence of edema in the evening
339.Normally the apex beat is visually observed as:
A)Pulsation to the left of a breast bone, extending to anticardium
B)Pulsation in II-III intercostal spaces to the left of a breastbone
C)The limited rhythmic pulsation in V intercostal space on the left,1-2 sm
medial of a midclavicular line
D)Pulsation in II intercostal space to the right of a breastbone
340.Visually the cardiac beat can have the following signs:
A)Difffuse pulsation to the left of a breast bone, extending to anticardium
B)Pulsation in II-III intercostal spaces to the left of a breastbone
C)The limited rhythmic pulsation in V intercostal space on the left to the
middle of a median-clavicular line
D)Pulsation in II intercostal space to the right of a breastbone
341. What component of I heart sound occurs at the end of a diastole:
A) The atrial
B) The valval
C) The muscular
D) The vascular.
342. What component doesn’t participate in the formation of II heart sound:
A) The atrial
B) The valval
C) The vascular.
343. Which valve is projected in the area of III rib attachment (to the left
of the breastbone):
A) Aortal
B) Mitral
C) Tricuspid
D) Pulmonary.
344. Which valve is projected in the II intercostal space on the left near the
breastbone edge:
A) Aortal
B) Mitral
C) Tricuspid
D) Pulmonary.
345. Which valve is projected in the middle between the place of attachment to the
breastbone the III rib cartilage on the left and the V rib cartilage on the right
A) Aortal
B) Mitral
C) Tricuspid
D) Pulmonary.
346. Which valve is projected in the middle of the breastbone at the level of third
costal cartilages:
A) Aortal
B) Mitral
C) Tricuspid
D) Pulmonary.
347. Where is the mitral valve sounded best:
A) Second intercostal space to the left of the breastbone
B) Second intercostal space to the right of the breastbone
C) Apex beat area
D) At the bottom of the xiphoid process.
348. Where is the tricuspid valve sounded best:
A) Second intercostal space to the left of the breastbone
B) Second intercostal space to the right of the breastbone
C) Apex beat area
D) At the bottom of the xiphoid process.
349. Where is the pulmonary valve sounded best:
A) Second intercostal space to the left of the breastbone
B) Second intercostal space to the right of the breastbone
C) Apex beat area
D) At the bottom of the xiphoid process.
350. Where is the aortal valve sounded best:
A) Second intercostal space to the left of the breastbone
B) Second intercostal space to the right of the breastbone
C) Apex beat area
D) At the bottom of the xiphoid process.
351. What sign is not typical for the functional murmurs:
A)Are often systolic
B) Are often diastolic
C) Arise and disappear after exercises
D) Are most often sounded over a pulmonary trunk and along the left edge of
breastbone
E)Are soft, brief
F) Are sounded on the limited patch
352. The murmur arising at expansion of a fibrous ring of atrioventricular valves at
dilatation of ventricles, is defined as:
A) The organic
B) The functional.
353. The organic murmurs, caused by a whirl of a blood, arise at:
A) Blood flows in valval openings, heart cavities at valves’ deformation, the
magistral vessels at their narrowing or expansion
B) Change of swiftness of a blood flow
C) Change of blood viscosity
354. The expulsion murmur arises at the following cardiac defect:
A) Aortal stenosis
B) Aortic valve incompetence
C) Mitral valve incompetence
D) Tricuspid valve incompetence.
355. Regurgitation murmur arises at the following cardiac defect:
A) Aortal stenosis
B) Aortic valve incompetence
C) Mitral valve stenosis
D) Tricuspid valve stenosis
E) Mitral valve incompetence
F) Wright answers are B and E
G) Wright answers are A and C.
356. The murmur, occupying the whole time interval between I and II heart
sounds, is called:
A) The systolodiastolic
B) The pansystolic
C) The diastolic
D) The mid-systolic
E) The presystolic.
357. The murmur, occupying the whole time interval between II and I heart
sounds, is called:
A) The pansystolic
B) The systolodiastolic
C) The pandiastolic
D) The presystolic.
358. The murmur, arising right after II tone, occupying approximately 1/3 of
diastole, is called:
A) The presystolic
B )The protodiastolic
C)The mid-diastolic.
359. The murmur, arising in the medial 1/3 of a diastole, is called:
A) The presystolic
B) The protodiastolic
C) The mid-diastolic.
360. The murmur, arising in the end of a diastole before I tone, is called:
A) The presystolic
B) The protodiastolic
C) The mid-diastolic.
361. The ECG-research allows to study the following function of a cardiac muscle:
A) Automatism
B) Conductivity
C) Excitability
D) Contractility
E) Tonicity
F) Refractoriness
G) Aberrantness
H) Wright answers are A,C,D,G
I) Wright answers are A,B,C,F,G.
362. The automatism center is:
A) The left auricle
B) A-V-connection
C) Bundle of His
D) Venkebah's bundle
E) Node of Keith- Flack
F) Purkinje's fibers
G) Wright answers are B,E,F.
363. How does the depolarization wave extend?
A) From an epicardium to an endocardium
B) From an endocardium to an epicardium.
364. What is the basis for ECG registration?
A) Contractive ability of myocardium
B) Biochemistry of a cardiac muscle
C) Functioning of ionic pumps and presence of a concentration gradient of ions K
+ and Nа + on both sides of a cellular membrane
D) The difference of potentials, created by a current source.
365. Source of electromotive force is:
A) Impulses of excitation in sinus node
B) Impulses of excitation in conducting system
C) Electric system of ventricles
D) Summation of excitation vectors of muscular fibers of auricles and ventricles.
366.Does the data of ECG always correspond to a certain cardial pathology?
A) Yes
B) No.
367. The lead at the location of electrodes on forearms is defined as:
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) аVL
E) аVR
F) аVF.
368. The lead at the location of electrodes on the right hand and left leg is defined
as:
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) аVL
E) аVR
F) аVF.
369. The lead at the location of electrodes on the left hand and left leg is defined
as:
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) аVL
E) аVR
F) аVF.
370. Configuration of ECG ( form and amplitude of ECG waves) in different leads
depends on:
A) Disturbance of sinus node functions
B) Change of valval apparatus of heart
C) Level of remission of contracting ability of myocardium
D) Direction of a dipole vector in relation to lead electrodes.
371. Sinus tachycardia is not observed at:
A) Food taking
B) Physical and emotional stress
C) Well-trained sportsmen in rest
D) Hyperthermia
E) Anemia
F) Arterial hypotension.
372. Sinus bradycardia is often observed at:
A) Food taking
B) Well-trained sportsmen in rest
C) Hypotension
D) Emotional stress.
373. What sign is not typical for sinus arrhythmia:
A) Presence of positive P wave in front of every QRS complex in I,II,V2-V6
leads
B) Form of P wave is constant in one lead
C) Form of P wave is different in one lead, PQ intervals are different
D) R-R and T-P distances are different ( the difference exceeds 0,15 seconds)
E) P-Q intervals are the same.
374. What is not typical for atrial extrasystole:
A) Premature occurrence of non changed cardiac complex with preceding P
wave
B) Incomplete compensatory pause after extrasystolic contraction
C) Presence of premature P wave and following it deformed QRS complex.
375. What is typical for upper-nodal extrasystole:
A) Occurrence of premature non changed QRS complex with preceding
negative P wave
B) The deformation of extrasystolic QRS complex
C) Absence of P wave in front of extrasystolic complex
D) Positive P wave, preceding QRS.
376. What is typical for lower-nodal extrasystole:
A) Absence of ECG P- wave
B) Registration of negative P wave and compensatory pause after extraordinary
normal or slightly changed QRS complex
C) Increase of duration of QRS complex.
377. What is not typical for ventricular extrasystole:
A)Occurrence of premature P wave with following deformation of QRS
complex
B)Absence of P wave in extrasystolic complex
C)Occurrence of premature, enlarged (>0,11 sec) and deformed ventricular
complex.
D) Discordant removal of ST segment and T wave in relation to the biggest
ECG wave of extrasystolic QRS complex
E)Usually full compensatory pause.
378. What is most typical for polytopic extrasystole:
A) Different shape of extrasystolic complexes
B) Occurrence of several identical extrasystoles in succession.
379. What is not typical for allorhythmia:
A) Occurrence of several identical extrasystoles in succession.
B) Correct alternation of extrasystoles with normal sinus complexes
C) Occurrence of extrasystole after two normal impulses.
380. What is typical for quadrigeminia:
A) Occurrence of several identical extrasystoles in succession
B) Alternation of extrasystole with each sinus complex
C) Occurrence of extrasystole after two normal impulses
D) Occurrence of extrasystole after three normal impulses
E) Occurrence of extrasystole after four normal impulses.
381. Left ventricle overload is developed at:
A) Pulmonary hypertension
B) Tricuspid valve incompetence
C) Mitral valve incompetence.
382. Right ventricle overload is developed at:
A) Narrowing of aortic isthmus
B) Pulmonary hypertension
C) Aortic valve incompetence.
383. Adaptive reaction, increasing the minute circulatory volume, is observed as
the following symptom:
A) Dyspnea
B) Dropped heart work
C) Heart pains
D) Orthopnea
E) Tachycardia.
384. Low cardiac output and decrease of compensatory abilities of heart are typical
for:
A) Systolic heart insufficiency
B) Diastolic heart insufficiency.
385. What is not the sign of left-ventricular cardiac insufficiency:
A) Dyspnea at exercises
B) Fatigability, reduction of tolerance to exercises
C) Edema
D) Night suffocation attacks
E) Orthopnea.
386. What is not the sign of right-ventricular cardiac insufficiency:
A) Reduction of cardiac output
B) Increase of final diastolic pressure
C) Myogenic dilatation
D) Blood congestion in venous course of greater circulation
E) Suffocation attacks
F) Cyanosis.
387. What is not the compensatory mechanism of cardiac insufficiency:
A) Increase of volume and hyperthrophy of the left ventricle
B) Increase of total peripheral vascular resistance as a result of activity
intensification of sympathetic nervous system
C) Activation of the renin-angiotonic system and vasopressin
D) Remission of the activity of the renin-angiotonic system.
388.What is the sign of blood congestion in venous course of greater circulation:
A) Pulsation of carotid arteries
B)Swelling of cervical veins
C)Positive venous pulse
389.The increase of pulmonary venous pressure, pressure in pulmonary capillaries
and their permeability is observed,when:
A)The output of right ventricle is more than the output of left ventricle
B) The output of right and left ventricles is identical
C) The output of right ventricle is decreased
390. Increase of final diastolic pressure in the left ventricle,progress of myogenetic
dilatation of the left ventricle,blood congestion in lungs occurs at the following
cardiac insufficiency:
A) Right-ventricular
B)Left-ventricular
C)Total
391.The occurance of rheumatism is connected with the past infection,caused by:
A) Aurococcus
B) Blue pus bacillus
C)Beta- hemolitic streptococcus of group "A"
D)Koksaki’s virus
392. The latent period between the progress of streptococcal infection and the first
attack of rheumatism is often:
A)Less than one week
B)About 18 days
C)More than 6 weeks
393. What signs are not typical for rheumatic polyarthritis:
A)As a rule large joints are effected
B)Seldom backbone joints, coxofemoral,small joints of hands and feet are affected
C)Inflammatory changes of joints are unstable, disappear completely, quickly
transfer from one joint to another
D)Cause a firm deformation of joints
394. What objective signs are not typical for rheumatic myocarditis :
A)Expansion of heart borders
B)Muffled heart sounds
C)Soft systolic apical cardiac murmur
D)Growing diastolic murmur
395.What are the most essential symptoms of myocarditis:
1) The expressed asthenia
2) Increase of activity of sarcoplasmic ferments
3) Increase of heart sizes
4) The circulatory unsufficiency
5) Pathological changes on ECG(a low voltage, prolongation of Р-Q, change of
repolarization processes with depression of S-T segment and inversion of T-wave
6) Flapping I apical heart sound
7)Aortic accent of II sound
A)1,2,4,7 is correct
B)1,3,5,6 is correct
C)2,3,4,5 is correct
D)2,4,6,7 is correct
396. What auscultatory phenomena is the most typical for myocarditis:
1) Various disturbances of rhythm and conductivity
2)Quiet heart sounds
3)Splitting of I apical heart sound and at Botkin’s spot
4) Trinomial rhythm
5) Accent of II heart sound on a.pulmonalis
6) Systolic murmur over the whole surface of heart
A)1,2,4,5 is correct
B)1,3,5,6 is correct
C)2,3,4,6 is correct
D)2,4,5,6 is correct
397. What laboratory test doesn’t help to diagnose the activity of rheumatic
process:
A) Increase of ESR, leukocytosis
B) Increase of level of alpha2 - gamma-globulins, seromucoids, fibrinogen
C) Reduction of T- lymphocytes amount
D) Progressing reduction of titers of antistreptococcal antibodies
E) Occurrence of C-reactive protein.
398.In Latin cardiac defects are called:
A) meijopragia cordis
B) insufficientia cordis
C) angina pectoris
D) asthma cardiale
E) vitia cordis
F) gibbus cardiacus
399.The most frequent reasons of cardiac defects are:
1) Bacterial endocarditis
2) Trauma
3) Myocardial dystrophy
4) Syphilis (a syphilitic mesaortitis)
5) Myocardiopathy
6) Rheumatism
7) Atherosclerosis;
A)1,2,3,6 is correct
B)1,3,4,5 is correct
C)1,3,5,6 is correct
D)1,4,6,7 is correct.
400. The longest period of compensation is observed at the load on:
A) The left auricle
B) The right auricle
C) Left ventricle
D) Right ventricle.
401.Etiological factors of infectious endocarditis are:
1) Aurococcus
2) White staphylococcus
3) α-hemolytic streptococcus
4) Escherichia, Proteus, Salmonella, Blue pus bacillus, Rickettsia, Viruses,
Fungi.
A) 1, 2 is correct
B) 1, 3 is correct
C) 1, 2, 3 is correct
D) 1, 2, 3, 4 is correct.
402. At the onset of a bacterial endocarditis, fever is called:
A) Remittent
B) Hectic
C) Of irregular type
D) Inverse
E) Subfebrile with periodic rises in the form of “candles”
F) Everything is correct.
403. The typical skin colouring at infectious endocarditis is:
A) Paleness
B) Icterus
C) Limited cyanotic blush
D) Focal pigmentation
E) Unilateral hyperemia of cheeks.
404. The sings of vasculitis at infectious endocarditis are revealed in the following
test:
1) Pinch test
2) Positive Rumpel- Leede- Konchalovsky’s test
3) Positive Bittorf-Tushinsky’s test
A) 1, 2 is correct
B) 1,3 is correct
C) 2,3 is correct
D) 1, 2, 3 is correct.
405. Libman-Lukin’s symptom, hemorrhagic eruption on skin, linear hemorrhages
under nails, hemorrhages in retina, Osler’s nodules are referred to the following
syndrome:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Intoxication
Mesenchymal -inflammatory syndrome
Immunodeficient condition
Immunocomplex vasculitis.
406. Choose the most reliable data of laboratory-instrumental researches, typical
for infectious endocarditis:
1) Low content of low-dispersion proteins
2) Low voltage of main ECG-waves and ventricular complex on ECG
3) Neutrophile leukocytosis with expressed eosinophilia, increase of ESR
4) Neutrophile leukocytosis with deviation to the left , aneosinophilia,
monocytopenia, lymphopenia.
5) Bacteriemia- positive hemoculture at 2-3-fold examination
6) Vegetations on the valves by EchoCG data
7) Expressed leukocyturia
8) Mycotic aneurysms of vessels at retrobulbar microscopy.
A) 1,3,7 is correct
B) 2,4,5,6 is correct
C) 4,5,6 is correct
D) 1,4,5,6,7,8 is correct
E) 4,5,6,8 is correct
407. What valves are most often affected at the bacterial endocarditis:
A) Mitral valve
B) Aortic valve
C) Tricuspid valve
D) Aortic or (and) mitral valve with parietal endocarditis and lesion of
endothelium of aortic mouth.
408. Choose the most typical clinical criteria for the diagnosis of infectious
endocarditis:
A) Fever
2) Thromboembolic syndrome
3) Meningitis
4) A combination of fever of unknown origin with the occurrence of cardiac
murmurs
5) Vasculitis with intraorganic and peripheric lesions
6) Acute cardiac insufficiency
7) Firm disturbances of rhythm and conductivity.
A) 1,3,5,6 is correct
B) 1,2,7 is correct
C) 4,6,7 is correct
D) 2,4,5 is correct
E) 2,4,5,7 is correct.
409. The etiological factors of aortic incompetence are:
1) Syphilitic aortic lesion
2) Aortic atherosclerosis
3) Infectious endocarditis
4) Rheumatic endocarditis.
A) 3, 4 is correct
B) 1,3,4 is correct
C) 2,3,4 is correct
D) 1,2,3,4 is correct.
410. What typical signs of aortal regurgitation are revealed at the general survey:
A) No typical signs
B) Cyanotic blush
C) Vascular asterisks
D) Inlargement of vasculature
E) Expressed paleness, “Carotid shudder”.
411. The most atherogenic lipoproteins are:
A) Of low density
B) Of very low density
C) Of high density
D) Of low and very low density.
412. What lipoproteins have the antiatherogenic effect:
A) Of low density
B) Of very low density
C) Of high density
413. Which disease doesn’t refer to the group of illnesses of ischemic heart
disease:
A) Stenocardia
B) Myocarditis
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Cardiosclerosis.
414. Attack of retrosternal pains, caused by suddenly occurring and passing
disturbance of coronary circulation, is the symptom of:
A) Stenocardia
B) Myocarditis
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Cardiosclerosis.
415. What sign is not typical for painful syndrome at stenocardia:
A) Retrosternal pain observed as pressing, tightening, burning, sometimes
cutting or acute pain.
B) Radiation of pain into the left shoulder, left hand, left half of neck, lower
jaw, interscapular space, sometimes into upper abdominal part, right hand,
scapula, legs.
C) Duration of pain is from several seconds to 20-30 minutes
D) Duration of pain is from 40 minutes to several hours
E) Quickly stopped by nitroglycerine.
416. What is not observed at painful syndrome at stenocardia:
A) Sense of fear
B) Weakness, increased sweating
C) Tachycardia, extrasystole
D) Rise of temperature
E) Rise of arterial pressure.
417. ECG- signs of myocardial ischemia at testing with exercises are:
A) Horizontal shift of ST-segment 1 mm and more over the isoelectric line
B) Formation of negative T-wave
C) Occurrence of blockade of the bundle of His
D) Occurrence of extrasysrole.
418. The form of ischemic heart disease, caused by occurrence of one or several
focuses of ischemic necrosis in cardiac muscle due to absolute or relative
insufficiency of coronary blood flow, is:
A) Cardiosclerosis
B) Acute myocardial infarction
C) Stenocardia.
419. The main and frequent reason of myocardial infarction is:
A) Atherosclerosis of the coronary vessels, complicated by thrombosis
B) Spasm of the coronary vessels
C) Embolism of the coronary vessels
D) Compression of the coronary vessels by the dissecting aortic aneurysm.
420. The most frequent localization of the myocardial infarction is:
A) The front wall of a left ventricle
B) The back wall of the left ventricle
C) Ventricular septum.
421. The humoral pressor systems are:
1) Catecholamines
2) Angiotonin II
3) Bradykinin
4) Aldosterone
5) Aortic arch pressoreceptors
A) 1,2,3 is correct
B) 1,2,4 is correct
C) 2,4,5 is correct
D) 1,2,5 is correct.
422. The humoral depressor systems are:
1) Angiotonin II
2) Kallikrein-kinin system of kidney
3) Aldosterone
4) Prostaglandins of renal and endothelial origin
5) Vasopressin
6) Atrial natriuretic hormone.
A) 1,2,3 is correct
B) 5,6 is correct
C) 2,4,6 is correct
D) 2,3,5 is correct
E) 1,3,4 is correct.
423. Criteria of arterial hypertension is:
A) The level of systolic pressure is 140 mm hg and more, or diastolic pressure
is 90 mm hg and more
B) Increase of systolic pressure is more than 120 mm hg and diastolic pressure
is more than 80 mm hg
C) Increase of systolic pressure is more than 160 mm hg and diastolic pressure
is more than 95 mm hg.
424. The systolic pressure is:
A) A minimal pressure in arteries during the diastole of heart, predominantly
defined be the tonus of peripheric arterioles
B) A maximal pressure in arterial system during the systole of left ventricle,
caused by the stroke output and elasticity of aorta and large arteries.
425. The upper border of a normal systolic pressure is:
A) 130-139 mm hg
B) 140-159 mm hg
C) 160-179 mm hg.
426. The diastolic pressure is:
A) A minimal pressure in arteries during the diastole of heart, predominantly
defined be the tonus of peripheric arterioles
B) A maximal pressure in arterial system during the systole of left ventricle,
caused by the stroke output and elasticity of aorta and large arteries.
427. The upper border of a normal diastolic pressure is:
A) 75-80 mm hg
B) 85-89 mm hg.
C) 90-99 mm hg.
428. The level of arterial pressure is defined by:
A) Cardiac output
B) Peripheric resistance
C) By both factors.
429. The main reason of rise of diastolic pressure is:
A) Increase of the general peripheric resistance of vessels as a result of tonus
rise of arterioles
B) Increase of cardiac output
C) Decrease of elasticity of aortic wall.
430. Which factor doesn’t lead to a hypertensive disease:
A) Heredity
B) Smoking
C) Active way of life
D) Obesity.
431. What is typical for renal colic:
A) Back pain
B) Dysuria
C) Positive Pasternatsky’s symptom
D) Radiation of pain in the lower abdomen or inguinal area
E) Everything is correct.
432. Unilateral back pains are typical for:
A) For acute glomerulonephritis
B) For acute cystitis
C) For acute pyelonephritis
D) For amyloidosis of kidneys.
433. The back pains at pathology of kidneys are caused by:
A) Necrosis of canaliculi
B) Tension of capsules by enlarged kidneys
C) Spastic contractions of ureters
D) Ischemia of kidney parenchyma.
434. What does ischemia of kidney parenchyma cause:
A) Back pain
B) Renal hypertension
C) Edematous syndrome
D) Azotemia
E) Anuria.
435. Normally what percent should make the diurnal urine excretion from the
volume of the drunk liquid:
A) 45-60%
B) 65-75%
C) 80-95%.
436. How is a daily urinary output less than 500 ml defined?
A) Polyuria
B) Oliguria
C) Normal diuresis
D) Anuria.
437. How is a daily urinary output less than 200 ml defined?
A) Polyuria
B) Oliguria
C) Normal diuresis
D) Anuria.
438. Define what admissible fluctuations of relative urine density does a
healthy person have in one day:
A) 1005-1025
B) 1005-1010
C) 1026-1028
D) 1030-1040.
439. What substance in 10 gr/l concentration increases a relative urine density
by 0,004?
A) Urea
B) Residual nitrogen
C) Glucose
D) Protein.
440. What substance in 4 gr/l concentration increases a relative urine density
by 0,001?
A) Urea
B) Residual nitrogen
C) Glucose
D) Protein.
441. The typical triad of symptoms for the glomerulonephritis is:
A) Hypertonia, edema, changes in urine
B) Back pains, fever, changes in urine
C) Hypertonia, dysuria, changes in urine.
442. What syndrome is characterized by sudden occurrence of extending edema,
hematuria, proteinuria, arterial hypertonia and signs of renal function disturbance
(reduction of glomerular filtration swiftness, azotemia):
A) Nephrotic
B) Acute-nephritic
C) Acute renal insufficiency
D) Eclampsia.
443. Acute glomerulonephritis is not characterized by the following sign:
A) Occurrence of the disease in 2-3 weeks after past infection, more often
streptococcal.
B) Manifestation of a disease by any sign of acute-nephritic syndrome (edema,
arterial hypertension, hematuria, proteinuria)
C) Absence of anamnestic data about changes in the urine analyses, rise in
pressure, edema.
D) Data about past diseases of kidneys, manifested in changes of urine.
444. What helps to differentiate the acute glomerulonephritis from acute-nephritic
syndrome at the exacerbation of chronic glomerulonephritis:
A) Ultrasonic renal scanning
B) Intravenous urography
C) Scintigraphy of kidneys
D) Biopsy of kidneys.
445. What complication of acute glomerulonephritis is manifested in decrease of
daily urinary output to 200 ml or total failure of urinary output:
A) Acute renal insufficiency
B) Eclampsia
C) Cardiac insufficiency.
446. What sign is not typical for the pathology of glomerular apparatus of kidneys:
A) Hematuria
B) Bacteriuria
C) Cylindruria
D) Proteinuria
E) Renal insufficiency of different degrees of expressiveness.
447. Specify the variant of chronic glomerulonephritis, manifested in minimal
changes of urine ( proteinuria, hematuria, slightly expressed leukocyturia):
A) Latent
B) Nephrotic
C) Hematuric
D) Hypertensive
E) Mixed.
448. Specify the variant of chronic glomerulonephritis, characterized by expressed
edema, oliguria, massive proteinuria, high hypertension.
A) Latent
B) Nephrotic
C) Hematuric
D) Hypertensive
E) Mixed.
449. Specify the variant of chronic glomerulonephritis, characterized by
hypoalbuminemia (less then 30 gr/l), expressed proteinuria ( more than 3,5 gr of
protein in a day):
A) Latent
B) Nephrotic
C) Hematuric
D) Hypertensive
E) Mixed.
450. What variant of chronic glomerulonephritis is seldom occurred, is
characterized by favourable course ( rare development of chronic renal
insufficiency):
A) Latent
B) Nephrotic
C) Hematuric
D) Hypertensive
E) Mixed.
451. What questions should be asked for the dysphagia analysis:
A)What kind of food taking causes it(solid,liquid)
B) The character of dysphagia(periodic,constant, progressing)
C)Is dysphagia accompanied by chest pains
D)Everything is correct
E) Everything is correct, except “C”
452.The constant, progressing dysphagia at solid food taking is typical for:
A) Reflux-esophagitis
B)Esophagus cancer
453. The periodic dysphagia at solid food taking,accompanied by heartburn, is
typical for:
A) Reflux-esophagitis
B)Esophagus cancer
454. The progressing esophagus dysphagia at solid and liquid food taking,without
accompanying heartburn, is typical for:
A) Reflux-esophagitis
B) Esophagus diverticulum
C)Scleroderma and other sclerosing processes
D)Esophagus achalasia
455. The occurrence of heartburn at esophagus dysphagia is most typical for:
A) Reflux-esophagitis,scleroderma and other sclerosing processes
B)Esophagus achalasia
C) Esophagus cancer
456.Disease of what organ of a gastroenteric tract is manifested by retrosternal
pains or pains in the interscapular space, arising at swallowing:
A)Esophagus
B)Subcardial portion of stomach
C)Stomach body
D) Pyloric part of stomach or duodemum
457.What portion of gastroenteric tract is affected,when a pain occurs under the
xiphoid process in a few minutes after food taking?
A)Esophagus
B)Subcardial portion of stomach
C)Stomach body
D) Pyloric part of stomach or duodemum
458.The affection of what stomach portion is characterized by occurrence of pains
in epigastrium area in 30-40 minutes after food taking(early pains)?
A)Subcardial portion
B)Stomach body
C) Pyloric portion
459. What is the location of pathological process at the occurrence of late pains in
1,5-2 hours after food taking or occurrence of pain in epigastrium on an empty
stomach?
A)Esophagus
B)Subcardial portion of stomach
C)Stomach body
D) Pyloric part of stomach or duodemum
460.What disease is characterized by occurrence of pains in umbilical region,often
not connected with food taking?
A)Gastritis
B)Duodenitis
C)Enteritis
D)Colitis
461. What is not the sign of gastric dyspepsia:
A)Sense of fullness in the stomach
B) Aerogastria
C)Aerophagia
D)Meteorism
E)Appetite change, nausea, vomiting
462. What is not related to intestinal dyspepsia:
A)Aerophagia
B)Meteorism
C)Constipations
D)Diarrheas
463.The syndrome of sour dyspepsia is characterized by:
A)An acid belching,a sour regurgitation,a heartburn
B)Basal acid production is 1,2 mEq/h, stimulated acid production is 2,2 mEq/h
C)Achlorhydria
D)Tendency to diarrheas
464. What kind of syndrome it is, if the basal acid production is 13 mEq / h, and
stimulated acid production is 36 mEq / h:
a) Syndrome of acid-peptic aggression
b)Achyliac syndrome
465.The syndrome of “flaccid stomach” is characterized by:
A)Disturbance of gastric motility,hypotonia,heterochylia
B) An acid belching, a heartburn, local pain in epigastrium
C)Sodofagia, citofobia
466.What signs are typical for achyliac syndrome:
A)Basal acid production is 2 mEq/h, stimulated acid production is 10 mEq/h
B)Heartburn, constipations
C)Bad smell out of mouth, a bitter belching, belching of "rotten egg", intolerance
of milk, diarrheas
D)bulimia
467.What disease is clinically characterized by symptoms of stomach dyspepsia,
morphologically by inflammatory and dystrophic changes of stomach mucosa
with disturbance of processes of cell renewal:
A)Acute gastritis
B)Chronic gastritis
C) Ulcerative disease of the stomach
468.The results of what investigation methods define the diagnosis of chronic
gastritis:
A)РН-metry and scatological investigation
B)Fractional gastric intubation and general analysis of blood
C)Endoscopic and morphological investigation with tests on НР
469. Pain occurrence in epigastric area in 10-15 min after food taking is the
symptom of:
A) Pangastrit
B)Gastritis of subcardial and cardial portions of stomach
C)Gastritis of stomach body
D)Gastritis of antral portion of stomach
470.Occurrence of painful sensations in the anticardium in 40-50 min after food
taking is typical for:
A) Pangastrit
B)Gastritis of subcardial and cardial portions of stomach
C)Gastritis of stomach body
D)Gastritis of antral portion of stomach
471. Revealing of leucocytes, erythrocytes,mucus,intestinal epithelium at
microscopy of feces is typical for:
A)Intestinal dyspepsia
B) Pancreatogenic dyspepsia
C)Hepatogenic dyspepsia
D)Distal colitis
472. Semi-liquid or liquid feces, with sharply alkaline reaction, smelly odour, a
considerable amount of connective tissue, a vegetative cellulose, cross-striate
muscular fibers, bacteria, is observed at:
A)Gastrogenic dyspepsia
B)Hepatogenic dyspepsia
C)Pancreatogenic dyspepsia
D)Intestinal fermentative dyspepsia
473. The moderate polyfecalia, formed or semi-liquid feces, greyish-white
coloured, with a musty smelly odour, acidic reaction, an abundance of fatty acids
and soaps, a small amount of neutral fat, is observed at:
A)Gastrogenic dyspepsia
B)Hepatogenic dyspepsia
C)Pancreatogenic dyspepsia
D)Intestinal fermentative dyspepsia.
474. Feces is semi-liquid, foamy, light-yellow, with sourish odour, acidic reaction,
considerable amount of digested and undigested cellulose, iodophilic flora,
intracellular starchy granules, is typical for:
A)Gastrogenic dyspepsia
B)Hepatogenic dyspepsia
C)Pancreatogenic dyspepsia
D)Intestinal fermentative dyspepsia.
475. Polyfecalia, grey or yellow-green feces, oily, with rancid oil odour, alkaline
reaction, considerable amount of neutral fat, muscular fibers of II and III digestion
degree, accumulation of extracellular starch, is observed at:
A)Gastrogenic dyspepsia
B)Hepatogenic dyspepsia
C)Pancreatogenic dyspepsia
D)Intestinal fermentative dyspepsia.
476. Normally what is observed at the X-ray film of small intestine with
suspension of barium sulfate :
A) Plumose pattern of mucosa
B) Limited evaginations- diverticulums
C) Defect of filling.
477. The proctosigmoidoscopy allows to make immediate examination of mucosa
of:
A) Rectum
B) Rectum and sigmoid intestine
C) Rectum, sigmoid and descending transverse intestines
D) Any portion of a large intestine.
478. Colonoscopy allows to examine:
A) Rectum
B) Rectum and sigmoid intestine
C) Rectum, sigmoid and descending transverse intestines
D) Any portion of a large intestine.
479. What is not typical for diarrhea:
A) Increase of intestinal peristalsis and movement of its contents
B) Disturbance of intestinal absorption of liquid
C) Increase of pathological secretion of liquid in the intestine
D) Intestinal atony.
480. What is the name of symptom-complex of clinical manifestations, occurring
as a result of disturbance of absorption in small intestine:
A) Exudative enteropathy
B) Syndrome of malabsorption
C) Maldigestive syndrome.
481. The most important factor at liver diseases is:
A) Hepatomegaly
B) Splenomegaly
C) Tenderness at palpation in the right hypochondrium
D) Ascites.
482. What complaint is not typical for liver diseases:
A) Pain in the hypochondrium
B) Dyspeptic disturbances
C) Icterus
D) Headache
E) Itch of the skin.
483. Paroxysmal pains in the right hypochondrium are most often observed at:
A) Cirrhosis of liver
B) Cholelithiasis
C) Hereditary benign hyperbilirubinemia
D) Abscess of liver.
484. What is not the reason of pains in right hypochondrium at cirrhosis of liver:
A) Tension of the Glisson’s capsule by enlarged liver
B) Accompanying inflammatory diseases of the bile tract
C) Focuses of necrosis in the depth of hepatic tissue.
485. What changes of skin are not typical for cirrhosis of liver:
A) Smooth, thin, parchment-like skin (skin as paper monei)
B) Icteric shade of the skin and mucosa of various intensity
C) Xanthelasmas and xanthomas
D) Palmar erythema, “vascular asterisks”, “cardinal tongue”
E) Cyanosis.
486. The typical palpation sign of cirrhosis of liver is:
A) Dense consistency, a sharp margin, a surface is even or small-nodular
B) Margin is even, of soft consistency
C) Surface is nodular, margin is not even
D) Nothing is correct.
487. The reason of mechanical (subhepatic) icterus is:
A) Stones of common bile duct
B) Stricture of Vater’s papilla
C) Cancer of the pancreatic head
D) Everything is correct
E) Nothing is correct.
488. The hemolytic icterus is not accompanied by the following sign:
A) Increase of content of indirect blood bilirubin
B) Urobilinuria
C) Bilirubinuria
D) Anemia with reticulocytosis.
489. What is typical for the syndrome of cytolysis, progressing at virus hepatitis
and other acute injuries of liver:
A) High activity of AST, ALT, LDH, increase of activity of hepatic-specific
enzymes
B) Increase of activity of alkaline phosphatase, hypercholesterinemia,
hyperbilirubinemia
C) Reduction of level of albumin, thrombinogen, cholesterine, hyperbilirubinemia
D) Increase of level of gamma-globulines and immunoglobulins.
490. What laboratory tests don’t display the synthetic function of liver:
A) The level of albumines in blood
B) Content of thrombinogen, proconvertin and other factors of blood clotting
C) Content of cuprum
D) Content of cholesterine, phospholipid.
491. What sign is not typical for chronic persistent hepatitis:
A) Painful syndrome
B) Dyspeptic syndrome
C) Asthenovegetative syndrome
D) Expressed syndrome of hepatocellular insufficiency
492.The syndrome of cytolysis is most expressed at the following disease:
A) Hereditary microspherocytosis
B)Cholelithiasis
C)Chronic active hepatitis
D)Chronic persistent hepatitis
493.What disease is characterized by itch and considerable pigmentation of
skin,occurrence of xanthomas and xanthelasmas,enlarged liver with dense margin,
hyperbilirubinemia due to direct function, considerable increase of cholesterine,
alkaline phosphatase,moderate increase of ALT?
A)Portal cirrhosis
B) Chronic active hepatitis
C)Hemolytic icterus
D)Biliary cirrhosis of liver
494.The patient with cirrhosis of liver became concerned about
drowsiness,intensified icterus,decreased liver,sweet hepatic smell out of the
mouth.In some period of time- loss of consciousness and Kussmaul
respiration.What complication did the patient have?
A) Cholestasia
B)Hepatic coma
C)Gastroenteric bleeding
D)Portal hypertensia.
495. What is not typical for the alcoholic cirrhosis:
A) Skin pigmentation
B) Early lesion of CNS
C) Early progress of portal hypertension and late progress of icterus
D) Early progress of icterus and late progress of portal hypertension.
496. What is the difference of liver cirrhosis from chronic hepatitis:
A) Cytolytic syndrome
B) Cholestatic syndrome
C) Syndrome of portal hypertension
D) Parenchimatous icterus
E) Morphological changes (formation of false lobes, progressing of fibrosis with
intralobular and interlobular………
497. What early symptom is not typical for portal hypertension at cirrhosis of liver:
A) Increase of pressure in portal system and v. lienalis
B) Dyspepsia with expressed meteorism
C) Increase of isotope capture by spleen during the scintigraphy
D) Varicose dilatation of veins of esophagus and stomach, of hemorrhoidal
veins with relapsing bleedings.
498. Hepatocellular insufficiency at the cirrhosis is manifested in:
A) Hemorrhagic diathesis
B) Icterus
C) Hepatic encephalopathy
D) Everything is correct
E) Nothing is correct.
499. When the patient has cirrhosis of liver, the most reliable index for revealing
the syndrome of portal hypertension at the endoscopic examination of stomach and
esophagus is:
A) Varicose dilatation of veins of esophagus and cardiac portion of stomach
B) Puffiness of stomach mucosa, pyloric stenosis
C) Multiple defects of stomach mucosa in antral portion.
500. What is typical for the patient, who has encephalopathy at the background of
hepatocellular insufficiency:
A) A sudden reduction of level of procoagulants (prothrombin index), reduction
of cholinesterase, albumines of blood serum
B) Augmentation of hyperbirubinemia due to conjugated bilirubin
C) The drowsiness, inadequate behavior, disorientation in time
D) Clapping tremor, hepatic smell out of the mouth
E) Everything is correct
F) Nothing is correct.
501. Where is the bile excreted by hepatocytes:
A) Interlobular bile ducts
B) Intercellular bile tubules
C) Perilobular bile ducts ( cholangioles)
D) Septal bile ducts.
502. What is the reason of the attack of bile colic:
A) Inflammation of the wall of gallbladder
B) Irritation by the stone and spasm of bile duct
C) Inflammation of mucosa of gallbladder neck
D) Dyskinesia of billiary ducts.
503. What is the cause of the attack of bile colic:
A) Diet error
B) Exertion, work in the bent position
C) Shaking riding
D) Infection
E) Everything is correct.
504. What is the name of the symptom, observed as pain during effleurage along
the lower edge of right costal arch by palm edge:
A) Kehr’s symptom
B) Ortner -Grekov’s symptom
C) Vasilenko’s symptom
D) Zakharyin's symptom
E) Mussi-Georgievsky's symptom
F) Murphy’s symptom.
505. What is the name of the symptom, observed as tenderness during finger
pressing between branches of right sternal-clavicular-mastoidal muscle near the
upper edge of clavicle:
A) Kehr’s symptom
B) Ortner -Grekov’s symptom
C) Vasilenko’s symptom
D) Zakharyin's symptom
E) Mussi-Georgievsky's symptom (“phrenic” symptom)
F) Murphy’s symptom.
506. What is the name of the symptom, observed as interruption of respiration at
the phase of deep inhalation as a result of thumb pressing on the projection of
gallbladder:
A) Kehr’s symptom
B) Ortner -Grekov’s symptom
C) Vasilenko’s symptom
D) Zakharyin's symptom
E) Mussi-Georgievsky's symptom
F) Murphy’s symptom.
507. What is the name of the symptom, observed as occurrence of pain during
effleurage or pressing in the projection of gallbladder area:
A) Kehr’s symptom
B) Ortner -Grekov’s symptom
C) Vasilenko’s symptom
D) Zakharyin's symptom
E) Mussi-Georgievsky's symptom (phrenic symptom)
F) Murphy’s symptom.
508. What is the name of the symptom, observed as occurrence of pain during
effleurage along the gallbladder area at inhalation:
A) Kehr’s symptom
B) Ortner -Grekov’s symptom
C) Vasilenko’s symptom
D) Zakharyin's symptom
E) Mussi-Georgievsky's symptom (phrenic symptom)
F) Murphy’s symptom.
509.
What is the name of the symptom, observed in the case of obstruction of
common bile duct by tumor, when the gallbladder is palpated as the elastic pearshaped bag:
A) Kehr’s symptom
B) Ortner -Grekov’s symptom
C) Vasilenko’s symptom
D) Zakharjin's symptom
E) Mussi-Georgievsky's symptom (phrenic symptom)
F) Murphy’s symptom.
510. What is typical for calculus-free cholecystitis:
A) Aching pains in the right hypochondrium, occurring in 1-3 hours after food
taking
B) Dyspeptic disturbances
C) Tenderness during the palpation in gallbladder area
D) Thickening of gallbladder wall, revealed during ultrasonic and X-ray
examination
E) Everything is correct
F) A,B answers are correct
511. Specific changes of marrow are observed at:
A) B12- deficient anemia
B) Leukosis
C) Multiple myeloma
D) Aplastic conditions
E) Everything is correct
F) Everything is correct, except “A”.
512. What diagnostic sign is not typical for hemolysis:
A) Indirect hyperbilirubinemia
B) Increase of stercobilin excretion with feces, urobilinuria
C) Direct hyperbilirubinemia
D) Remission of osmotic resistance of erythrocytes
E) Reticulocytosis.
513. What symptom is caused by effection of decay products of leukocytes:
A) Skin itch
B) Fever
C) Asthenia
D) Increased bleeding.
514. A prolonged non-controlled bleeding is typical for:
A) Leukosis
B) Anemia
C) Hemophilia.
515. The reason of blood diseases, like colic, in the right hypochondrium is:
A) Hepatomegaly
B) Dyskinesia of biliary tracts
C) Pigmental stones in gallbladder.
516. Evidence of anemisation is:
A) Earthy- grey shade of skin
B) Icteric shade of skin
C) Paleness of mucosa.
517. What disease is characterized by plethoric cherry-red skin colour of face, neck
and hands, scleral injection, high hematocrit:
A) Lymphogranulomatosis
B) Erythremia
C) Hemolytic anemia.
518. What disease of blood is characterized by Hunter's glossitis:
A) Hemolytic anemia
B) B12-deficient anemia
C) Lymphogranulomatosis.
519. What disease is characterized by necrotic-ulcerous angina and stomatitis:
A) Hemolytic anemia
B) Acute myeloleukemia
C) Chronic lymphoid leukosis
D) Lymphogranulomatosis.
520. What marrow cells are capable to renewal and maximal differentiation:
A) Cells of I class
B) Cells of II class
C) Cells of III class.
521. What is the name of the syndrome, characterized by reduction of hemoglobin
content in the unit of blood volume:
A) Polycythemia
B) Hyperglobulia
C) Anemia.
522. The increase of hemoglobin content in relation to the upper normal border is
not typical for:
A) True polycythemia
B) Inhabitants of high mountains
C) Pilots after high-rise flights
D) Leukosis.
523. Specify a normal content of erythrocytes in peripheric blood of healthy males:
A) 4,0-5,0 х 1012 / l
B) 3,9-4,7 х 1012 / l
C) 3,0-4,0 х 1012 / l
D) 5,0-6,0 х 1012 / l
524. Specify a normal content of erythrocytes in peripheric blood of healthy
females:
A) 4,0-5,0 х 1012 / l
B) 3,9-4,7 х 1012 / l
C) 3,0-4,0 х 1012 / l
D) 5,0-6,0 х 1012 / l.
525. A normal content of hemoglobin of males is:
A) 120-140 gr/l
B) 130-160 gr/l
C) 150-170 gr/l.
526. Increase of hematocrit number is typical for:
A) Leukosis
B) Anemia
C) Compensatory hyperglobulias.
527. What kind of anemia is characterized by increase of colour index to more
than 1,05:
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Normochromic anemia
D) В12-deficient anemia
E) Asiderotic anemia.
528. What kind of anemia is characterized by reduction of colour index to less
than 0,8:
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Normochromic anemia
D) В12-deficient anemia
E) Asiderotic anemia.
529. Normochromic character of anemia is not observed at:
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Leukosis
C) Chronic renal insufficiency
D) B12-defecient anemia.
530. Normochromic character of anemia is observed at:
A) Acute posthemorrhagic anemia
B) Folic acid-deficient anemia
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) Chronic posthemorrhagic anemia
E) A,C answers are correct.
531. The increase of leukocytes’ number at infectious diseases is most often
connected with the increase of:
A) Eosinophils
B) Lymphocytes
C) Neutrophils
D) Monocytes.
532. The reveal of hyperleukocytosis (50-200 x 109 ) is typical for:
A) Pneumonia
B) Carbuncle
C) Leukosis
D) Acute cholecystitis.
533. Eosinophilia ( less than 20% in leukogram) is not typical for :
A)Bronchial asthma
B) Eczema
C) Purulent-septic process
D) Lambliasis.
534. The neutrophil leukocytosis with sudden deviation to the left is not typical for
the following disease:
A) Helminthic invasion
B) Acute gangrenous cholecystitis
C) Severe medicinal dermatitis
D) Peritonitis.
535. What disease is characterized by extensive, deep, painful hematoma in the
region of right hip after a slight contusion:
A) Hemorrhagic vasculitis
B) Verlhof’s disease
C) Hemophilia
D) Randu-Osler’s disease.
536. What diseases is characterized by nasal, gingival, uterine bleedings, bruises,
thrombocytopenia:
A) Hemolytic anemia
B) Thrombocytopenic purpura
C) Hemophilia
D) Shanlane-Genoh’s disease.
537. Hemoblastoses are not characterized by the following sign:
A) Progressing cellular hyperplasia in a red marrow, with predomination of
proliferation processes
B) Metaplasia of normal hemopoietic cells by leukosis cells
C) Occurrence of the pathological focuses of hemopoiesis in other organs
D) Anemia with reticulocytosis and hyperbilirubinemia.
538. What is the criteria of acute leukosis:
A) Transformation of hemopoiesis due to the poorly differentiated
predecessors-cells of II, III and IV classes
B) Transformation of hemopoiesis due to the maturing and mature cells
C) Metaplasia of normal hemopoietic cells by leukosis cells
D) Anemic, hemorrhagic septic-necrotic syndromes.
539. Specify the most reliable diagnostic sign of acute leukosis:
A) Occurrence of hemorrhagic, anemic, feverish syndromes
B) Revealing of Botkin-Gumpreht's cells
C) Revealing of 30 and more blast cells in a myelogram
D) Complaints on fatigability, weakness, fever, bleeding of gingivas.
540. Specify the hematological signs of chronic lymphoid leukosis:
A) Leukocytosis (40х109) with shift of count to the left up to myelocytes
B) Moderate leukocytosis, anemia with a high reticulocytosis
C) Leukocytosis (60х109), an absolute lymphocytosis, reveal of Gumpreht's shades
D) Anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia.
541. What pathology of endocrine system is characterized by sudden development
of superciliary arches, disproportionately large sizes of nose, lips, tongue and chin:
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Thyrotoxicosis
C) Hypophysial hyperfunction
D) Hypofunction of front lobe of hypophysis
E) Diabetes mellitus.
542. What syndrome is characterized by enlargement of thyroid, exophthalmia,
emaciation, tachycardia, increase of arterial pressure:
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Thyrotoxicosis
C) Hypocorticoidism
D) Hypercorticoidism.
543. What syndrome is characterized by dry, wrinkled, cold, thickened skin,
anemia, narrowing of eye- slits, thickening of lips, tongue, constipations,
bradycardia, hypothermia:
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Thyrotoxicosis
C) Hypophysial hyperfunction
D) Hypofunction of front lobe of hypophysis.
544. What pathology is characterized by dwarfism, child’s proportions of body,
underdevelopment of sexual apparatus, absence of secondary sexual signs:
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Thyrotoxicosis
C) Hypophysial hyperfunction
D) Hypofunction of front lobe of hypophysis.
545. What syndrome is characterized by fallout of eyelashes, eyebrows, mustache,
hair, massive dense edema:
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Thyrotoxicosis
C) Hypophysial hyperfunction
D) Hypofunction of front lobe of hypophysis.
E) Chronic adrenal insufficiency.
546. What pathology is characterized by smooth, warm, tender to touch skin with
hyperhidrosis:
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Thyrotoxicosis
C) Hypophysial hyperfunction
D) Hypofunction of front lobe of hypophysis
E) Diabetes mellitus.
547. What pathology is characterized by psychical excitation, disbalance, fast
change of mood, constant anxiety:
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Thyrotoxicosis
C) Hypophysial hyperfunction
D) Hypofunction of front lobe of hypophysis
E) Diabetes mellitus.
548.Thin hands and feet, excessive fat deposition on face and trunk,”moon-like”
hyperemic face is typical for:
A)Simond’s syndrome
B) Hypophysial obesity
C)Itzenko-Kushing’s syndrome and disease
D)Sexual obesity
549. What genesis of obesity is characterized by fat deposition in the pelvic girdle
area:
A) Hypophysial and sexual obesity
B) Adrenal pathology
C) Thyroid pathology.
550. Pathology of what gland is characterized by growth disturbance:
A) Epiphysis
B) Parathyroid glands
C) Adrenals
D) Hypophysis
E) Thymus.
551. What cells of pancreas produce insulin:
A) Alpha-cells
B) Beta-cells
C) Delta-cells
D) Cells of acinuses.
552. What hormone is not related to contrinsular hormones:
A) Glucagon
B) Catecholamines
C) Vasopressin
D) Somatotrophic hormone
E) Glucocorticoids.
553. What symptom is not typical for obvious diabetes mellitus:
A) Polydipsia
B) Polyuria
C) Normoglyсemia on an empty stomach
D) Glucosuria.
554.The main pathogenetic mechanism of polyuria development at diabetes
mellitus is:
A) Rising of osmotic pressure in tubules as a result of glycosuria
B) Reduction of osmotic pressure in tubules as a result of glycosuria
C) Rising of a glomerular filtration.
555. What is not typical for diabetes mellitus:
A) Polydipsia
B) Polyuria
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Glycosuria
E) Increased appetite
F) Increased appetite to salty food.
556. What is not typical for insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus:
A) Hereditary predisposition
B) The onset of the disease is usually acute at young age
C) The onset of the disease is often occurred at advanced age with people with
obesity
D) Is occurred with expressed symptoms (thirst, polyuria, loss of weight).
557. Normally what level of glycemia is observed in 2 hours after glucose taking :
A) Considerably increased in relation to the initial level
B) Decreased up to the initial level.
558. Specify the level of glycemia in 2 hours after glucose taking at obvious
diabetes mellitus:
A) 4,6 mmol/l
B) 5,5 mmol/l
C) 6,4 mmol/l
D) 11,1 mmol/l.
559. Specify the level of glycemia at which glucose starts excreting with
urine:
A) 8 mmol/l
B) 9 mmol/l
C) 10 mmol/l.
560. What complication of diabetes mellitus is characterized by the
expansion of retina venules, development of microaneurysms, hemorrhages
and exsudates in it:
A) Arterial hypertension
B) Macroangiopathy
C) Retinopathy
D) Neuropathy.
561. What hormone is not produced in the adrenal cortex:
A) Cortisol
B) Progesterone
C) Adrenaline
D) Aldosterone.
562. Absence or considerable reduction of what adrenal hormone leads to
arterial hypotonia:
A) Testosterone
B) Estradiole
C) Aldosterone.
563. Considerable reduction or absence of what adrenal hormone leads to
absence of hair growth on a pubis:
A) Cortisol
B) Testosterone
C) Adrenaline
D) Aldosterone.
564. What is not the reason of acute adrenal insufficiency:
A) Decompensation of metabolic processes when patients have chronic
adrenal insufficiency
B) Cancel of beta-blockers when patients have been treated for a long time
by these preparations
C) Cancel of glucocorticoids when patients have been treated for a long
time by these preparations
D) Acute hemorrhage into adrenals.
565. The production decrease of what hormone leads to the decrease of Na+,
HCO3-, Cl- content in blood and increase of К+ consistency:
A) Cortisol
B) Testosterone
C) Adrenaline
D) Aldosterone.
566. The occurrence of skin pigmentation is connected with the absence or
considerable reduction of:
A) Cortisol
B) Testosterone
C) Adrenaline
D) Aldosterone.
567. The development of achlorhydria and anorexia is connected with the
absence or reduction of:
A) Cortisol
B) Testosterone
C) Adrenaline
D) Aldosterone.
568. Potassium delay, hyperkalemia and disturbance of cardiac rhythm is caused
by insufficiency of:
A) Aldosterone
B) Testosterone
C) Cortisolю
569. Secondary adrenal insufficiency is caused by:
A) Autoimmune processes in adrenals
B) Destruction of adrenals by tuberculous process
C) Iatrogenic influences (a bilateral adrenalectomy, long steroid therapy)
D) Hypophysial pathology
E) Destruction of adrenals at amyloidosis, syphilis, metastatic malignant
neoplasms.
570. Primary adrenal insufficiency is caused by:
A) Autoimmune processes in adrenals
B) Destruction of adrenals by tuberculous process
C) Iatrogenic influences (a bilateral adrenalectomy, long steroid therapy)
D) Destruction of adrenals at amyloidosis, syphilis, metastatic malignant
neoplasms
E) Everything is correct.
571. The main reason of Quincke's edema development is:
A) Increase of permeability of a vascular wall
B) Spasm of vessels of a microcirculatory course
C) Hemolysis of erythrocytes
D) Reduction of oncotic blood pressure.
572. What procedure is not needed at treatment of urticaria and
angioneurotic edema:
A) Administration of glucocorticosteroid preparations (prednisolone,
hydrocortisone)
b) Administration of alpha-adrenomimetics (noradrenaline)
c) Elimination of causal factors
d) Administration of the H1-histaminoblockers.
573. The initial symptoms of anaphylactic shock are:
A) Feeling of tightness in the chest, dyspnea
B) Tachycardia
C) Anxiety, sense of fear
D) Everything is correct
E) Nothing is correct.
574. Anaphylactic shock can occur:
A) At parenteral administration of medicinal preparations
B) At contact of medicinal remedies with mucosas
C) From insect bites
D) Everything is correct.
575. The first action of medical aid at anaphylactic shock is:
A) Administration of cardiac glycosides
B) Oxygenotherapy
C) The elimination of allergen entering into the organism
D) Administration of angiotonic remedies.
576. What preparations are not used at anaphylactic shock:
A) Antihistamine preparations
B) Glucocorticosteroid preparations
C) Diuretics
D) Vasopressors.
577. Anaphylactic shock is- a manifestation of allergic reactions of:
A) The delayed-type
B) The immediate type.
578. Which is not the clinical manifestation of Quincke's edema:
A) Edema of lips
B) Edema of larynx
C) Edema around eyes
D) Edema of lungs.
579. What is not the mediator of anaphylaxis, released at the activation of mast
cells and basophyls:
A) Histamine
B) Acetylcholine
C) Leukotrienes
D) Factors of thrombocytes’ activation.
580. What is not the main syndrome of anaphylaxis:
A) Obstruction of bronchi
B) Obstruction of the upper respiratory tracts
C) Arterial hypotension
D) Arterial hypertension.
581. Transmission ways of a HIV-infection are:
A) The parenteral
B) The sexual
C) Transplacental (from mother to a fetus)
D) Everything is correct.
582. What disturbances of immunal system are typical for HIV-infection:
A) Reduction of T-lymphocytes (T-helpers)
B) Change of proportion of T-helpers - T-supressors
C) Increase of serumal globulins
D) Reveal of specific antibodies to the virus
E) Everything is correct.
583. What is usually revealed at laboratory examinations of patients with AIDS:
A) Anemia
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Leukopenia
D) Lymphopenia
E) Everything is correct.
584. The most typical signs of AIDS are:
A) Lymphadenopathy -more than 3 months, fever- 3 months, torpid to antibiotics
B) Diarrhea (at least 2 months)
C) Recurrent oral candidiasis
D) Loss of body weight is more than 10%, nocturnal sweating
E) Everything is correct.
585. Generalized lymphadenopathy is seldom occurred at:
A) HIV-infection
B) Infectious mononucleosis
C) Malaria
D) Syphilis.
586. AIDS virus can be discovered:
A) In all biological liquids of the patient
B) In blood
C) In urine
D) In saliva.
587. Storage of the biological material, taken for examination, must be:
A) Stored in the minimal quantities, in the capacities specially intended for this
purpose, marked "Attention -AIDS"
B) Stored in a refrigerator, in a vial, possibly in great volume
C) The biological material isn't stored and thrown away right after the
examination.
588. Specify, at what conditions does the AIDS’ agent die:
A) 70-80 C during 10 minutes
B) 50-60 C during 10 minutes
C) 40-50 C during 30 minutes.
589. What is the duration of incubation period for AIDS:
A) 5-6 hours
B) 3-4 weeks
C) From several months to 10-15 years.
590. In what period of time after contamination are the antibodies started to
produce:
A) In 2-3 days
B) In2-3 weeks
C) In 6-12 weeks and more.