2A
2B
2F
2G
3A
3E
4A
4B
4C
5A
5B
5C
5D
6A
6B
6C
6E
6F
6G
6H
7G
9A
9B
9C
9D
10C
2A
• Know the definition of science and understand
that is has limitations
1 Question for 2A
2A Question 1 of 1
The controlled experiment shown in the diagrams below is testing the effect of
vitamin D on the growth of E. coli
bacteria.
Choose which of the following is a limitation of this experimental set-up? 2A
A. The test tubes are of the same shape
B. The test tubes are not the same size
C. The test tubes do not contain the same nutrient solution
2B
• Know that hypotheses are tentative and
testable statements that must be capable of
being supported or not supported by
observational evidence. Hypotheses of
durable explanatory power which have been
tested over a wide variety of conditions are
incorporated into theories
3 Questions for 2B
2B Question 1 of 3
The diagram below shows two germinating corn seeds (seeds that are beginning to grow). These corn
seedlings have been placed in identical bottles and kept in the dark. Bottle A will be rotated (turned)
90 degrees each day for the next 6 days. Bottle B will not be rotated (turned). 2B
Which hypothesis is most likely being tested in this experiment?
A. The amount of light received affects chlorophyll production.
B. Gravity affects plant growth.
C. Enzymes promote seed development.
2B Question 2 of 3
Select the hypothesis that a student can MOST likely evaluate in a classroom laboratory?2B
A. Some kinds of bacteria are more helpful than others in human digestion.
B. If a plant is given fertilizer X, it will grow faster than an unfertilized plant.
C. An organism’s rate of mutation is directly proportional to its adaptability.
2B Question 3 of 3
Raymond conducted an experiment on foods and fungus. He wrote his
procedure in his Science Notebook as follows.
Raymond designed his procedure to test a specific hypothesis. Which
hypothesis was he testing?2B
A. If food is stored in the dark, then fungi are less likely to grow on it.
B. If food becomes moist, then fungi are more likely to grow on it.
C. If fungi do not have air, then they cannot survive.
2F
• Plan and implement descriptive, comparative,
and experimental investigations, including
asking questions, formulating testable
hypotheses, and selecting equipment and
technology.
5 Questions for 2F
2F Question 1 of 5
Which piece of equipment would be used to measure volume of a liquid with the most precision? 2F
A.
B.
C.
2F Question 2 of 5
Choose which piece of laboratory equipment a student should use to remove the legs of a preserved
grasshopper for further study. 2F
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
2F Question 3 of 5
Find the approximate length of the earthworm shown in the diagram below. 2F
A. 9 cm
B. 10.6 cm
C. 90 cm
2F Question 4 of 5
The diagram below shows the reading on a triple beam balance after measuring the mass of an object.
Read the scale to correctly determine the mass (in grams). 2F
A. 232.4 g
B. 234.0 g
C. 322.3 g
2F Question 5 of 5
Students in a biology class recorded the number of stomata on the top and bottom sides of different plant
leaves. The table below shows some of the data collected by one team of students.
Average Number of Stomata per square mm
Plant
Top of Leaf
Bottom of leaf
Bean
41
361
Pumpkin
28
277
Tomato
11
120
Zucchini
22
199
The students plan to graph their data. Which of the following would be most appropriate to show the
results of their experiment? 2F
A. Pie graph
B. Double bar graph
C. Line Graph
2G
Analyze, evaluate, make inferences, and
predict trends from data
• 3 Questions
2G Question 1 of 3
This graph shows the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable.
What does an increase in the independent variable cause in the dependent variable?2G
A. A decrease
B. An increase
C. No change
2G Question 2 of 3
In this test we will test two different types of glucose polymers: cellulose and starch. When iodine is added to a
substance that contains starch, it changes from its yellow-brown color to a dark blue or even black. Simple sugars
will give a positive test result when Benedict's is added. A positive test result for Benedict's solution would be the
presence of a bright orange-red color. A positive Benedict’s test can also be green, yellow or red.
Proteins are connected by bonds and when these bonds are broken by the addition of a strong base (such as
NaOH), they are free to react with copper ions and produce a bright purple color. A blue color is NOT a positive
Biuret test.
There are several tests we can do to test for the presence of lipids. One is to see if a substance containing lipids will
leave a translucent (clear) spot.
Unknown
A
B
C
Unknown A contains- 2G
A. Starch
B. Simple Sugar
C. Lipids
Iodine
Test for
Starch
BlueBlack
Yellow
Yellow
Benedict’s
Paper Towel
Biuret Test
Test for Simple Translucent Spot for Proteins
Sugar
Test for Lipids
Blue
Nothing
Blue
Orange
Orange
Nothing
Translucent/Clear
Blue
Purple
2G Question 3 of 3
Unknown
A
B
C
Iodine
Test for
Starch
BlueBlack
Yellow
Yellow
Benedict’s
Paper Towel
Biuret Test
Test for Simple Translucent Spot for Proteins
Sugar
Test for Lipids
Blue
Nothing
Blue
Orange
Orange
Nothing
Translucent/Clear
Blue
Purple
Using the information from previous question, which unknown tested positive
for proteins from the data table above? 2G
A. Unknown A
B. Unknown B
C. Unknown C
3A
In all fields of science, analyze, evaluate, and critique
scientific explanations by using empirical evidence,
logical reasoning, and experimental and observational
testing, including examining all sides of scientific
evidence of those scientific explanations, so as to
encourage critical thinking by the student;
• 1 Question
3A 1 of 1
A graph of the population growth of two different species is shown below.
Which conclusion can be drawn from information in the graph? 3A
1.Oxygen concentration affects population sizes of different species in the same manner.
2.Species A requires a high oxygen concentration for maximum population growth.
3.Species B requires a high oxygen concentration to stimulate population growth.
4.Low oxygen concentration does not limit the population size of either species observed.
3E
Evaluate models according to their
limitations in representing biological
objects or events
3 Questions
3E 1 of 3
The DNA model to the right would be used for? 3E
A. Explaining how DNA is replicated
B. Showing where DNA is located in the cell.
C. Identifying the components and shape of DNA
D. Comparing DNA and RNA
3E 2 of 3
The diagram below shows a cross section of a leaf.
Which of the following is not a limitation of the leaf model above? 3E
A. Identifying the chloroplast
B. Showing where photosynthesis takes place.
C. Demonstrating the opening and closing of stomata
D. Identifying the location of guard cells
3E 3 of 3
The cell model above is beneficial for showing? 3E
A.
B.
C.
D.
The organelles found in plant cells.
The organelles found in animal cells.
How each organelle functions?
The cell membrane contains genetic information of the cell.
4A
Compare and contrast prokaryotic and
eukaryotic cells
• 21 Questions
4A 1 of 21
Plant and animal cells share many of the same organelles because they are both
considered to be eukaryotic cells. Distinguish the difference between a plant cell and an
animal cell by recalling that animal cells do not have _____. 4A
A. a nucleus
B. a cell membrane
C. chloroplasts
D. centrioles
4A 2 of 21
Complete concept map shown above. 4A
A. An animal cell
B. A plant cell
C. A prokaryote cell
D. A virus
4A 3 of 21
The diagram below represents a unicellular green alga known as chlamydomonas.
Structure X helps chlamydomonas move through the pond in which it lives. 4A
Structure X representsA. cilia. B. a tentacle
C. an antenna.
D. a flagellum.
4A 4 of 21
Which diagram represents an organelle that is connected to the nucleus and is
able to synthesize proteins and lipids, and aids in transportation of these proteins
and lipids? 4A
C.
D.
4A 5 of 21
Which of the following cell parts may be found in all prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? 4A
A.
cell wall
B.
plasma membrane
C.
nucleus
D.
chloroplasts
4A 6 of 21
Bacterial cells are prokaryotic. Animal, plant, fungal, and protista cells are
eukaryotic. Select the main difference between these two types of cells. 4A
A.
Eukaryotic cells are round.
B.
Eukaryotic cells have a plasma membrane.
C.
Eukaryotic cells are able to multiply.
D.
Eukaryotic cells have a true nucleus
4A 7 of 21
Predict what would occur in the cell if this stack of flattened sacs was not present? 4A
A.
The cell would produce too much DNA
B.
The cell would be unable to carry out protein modification & packaging
C.
The cell would lose too much water
D.
The cell would hold too much water
4A 8 of 21
The cell membrane only allows certain molecules in and out of the cell. It is said
to be- 4B/4A
A. Impermeable
B. Unpermeable
C. Selectively permeable
D. Exclusively permeable
4A 9 of 21
Cellular respiration is the process of turning sugar and oxygen into carbon
dioxide, water, and energy in the form of heat. The structure that carries out
this process is represented by-- 4A
A.
B.
C.
D
4A 10 of 21
What type of cell is illustrated above? 4A
A. Plant cell
B. Bacterium cell
C. Prokaryote
D. Animal cell
4A 11 of 21
Predict which of the following would occur if Organelle A was malfunctioning? 4A
A. Decrease in the amount of waste produced
B. Decrease in the amount of energy produced
C. Increase in the amount of glucose produced
D. Increase in the amount of proteins produced
4A 12 of 21
Which pair of structures best shows that plant cells have functions different from
animal cells? 4A
A. Chloroplasts and cell walls
B. Nuclei and centrioles
C. Ribosomes and cell membranes
D. Cytoplasm and mitochondria
4A 13 of 21
If an athlete could undergo genetic enhancement to increase energy for athletic
competitions by doubling a specific cell organelle, which organelle would be the BEST
one to increase? 4A
A. Golgi apparatus
B. mitochondria
C. nucleus
D. ribosome
4A 14 of 21
Which of the following characteristics is not true of prokaryotes like streptococcus
pneumoniae? 4A
A. contain ribosomes
B. contain DNA
C. have cytoplasm
D. have a nucleus
4A 15 of 21
The image below is a picture of an onion root tip. The onion root tip is
more rigid in structure compared to an animal cell. Which cellular
structure in plant cells is most responsible for this characteristic? 4A
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cell membrane
Vacuole
Chloroplast
Cell Wall
4A 16 of 21
The cell theory states:
All living things are composed of one or more cells.
Cells are the basic units of structure and function in an organism.
Cells come only from the reproduction of existing cells.
Which of the following observations best supports the cell theory? 4A
A. Cells come in a variety of shapes and sizes.
B. Cells have different names for different structures.
C. Cells can live a very short time.
D. Cells from animals only create other animal cells.
4A 17 of 21
Which of the following characteristics is not true of prokaryotes like streptococcus
pneumoniae? 4A
A.
B.
C.
D.
contain ribosomes
contain DNA
have cytoplasm
have a nucleus
4A 18 of 21
Muscles cells have more mitochondria than other cells in the human body. The MAIN
purpose of the extra mitochondria in the muscle tissue is so the muscle- 5B/4A
A.
B.
C.
D.
can carry out extra activities that require more energy.
can carry out waste not absorbed in the body.
can carry responses quickly back to other cells.
can carry water to other cells more efficiently.
4A 19 of 21
The image below is a picture of an onion root tip. The onion root tip is
more rigid in structure compared to an animal cell. Which cellular
structure in plant cells is most responsible for this characteristic?
5B/4A
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cell membrane
Vacuole
Chloroplast
Cell Wall
4A 20 of 21
The cell membrane only allows certain molecules in and out of the cell. It is said to
be- 4B/4A
A. Impermeable
B. Unpermeable
C. Selectively permeable
D. Exclusively permeable
4A 21 of 21
Loriciferans are microscopic multicellular animals that live in various marine
sediments. Scientists have discovered genera of Loriciferans. Before this discovery,
some prokaryotes and some unicellular eukaryotes were known to inhabit areas
where oxygen levels were very low. Among the newly discovered Loriciferans is
Spinoloricus sp. nov., which is pictured below.
Scientists determined that organisms of the genus Spinoloricus were eukaryotes and
not prokaryotes because Spinoloricus cells have — 4A
A. flagella
B. hereditary material
C. cell walls
D . nuclear membranes
4B
Investigate and explain cellular processes,
including homeostasis, energy conversions,
transport of molecules, and synthesis of
new molecules.
• 17 Questions
4B 1 of 17
Based on the illustration, which direction will the water move, and what will happen
to the cell? 4B
Water moves out of cell, cell will shrink
Water moves into cell, cell will swell
Water moves out of cell, cell will swell
Water moves in and out at equal rates, cell stays the same
4B 2 of 17
The cell membrane only allows certain molecules in and out of the cell. It is said to be4B/4A
A. Impermeable
B. Unpermeable
C. Selectively permeable
D. Exclusively permeable
4B 3 of 17
Changes in water pressure within guard cells cause the cells to open or close the
stoma. This response helps the plant maintain homeostasis by —
A stabilizing the plant’s temperature through the evaporation of water
B regulating the amount of water the plant loses during transpiration
C allowing oxygen needed for photosynthesis to enter the plant
D enabling the plant to release more carbon dioxide at night for photosynthesis
4B 4 of 17
Diffusion is the movement of a substance- 4B
A. only through a lipid bilayer membrane
B. from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
C. only in liquids
D. from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
4B 5 of 17
Which of the following does not require energy? 4B
A. diffusion
B. endocytosis
C. active transport
D. sodium-potassium pump
4B 6 of 17
The movement of water across the semipermeable membrane is known as- 4B
A. exocytosis
B. endocytosis
C. osmosis
D. phagocytosis
4B 7 of 17
A cell will swell when it is placed in a(n)- 4B
A. hypotonic solution
B. hypertonic solution
C. isotonic solution
D. none of the above
4B 8 of 17
The structures labeled ‘A’ are components of the membrane that are best
described as- 4B
A.
B.
C.
D.
sugars floating in lipids
proteins floating in lipids
lipids floating in proteins
lipids floating in sugars
4B 9 of 17
The outside solution is- 4B
A. hypertonic
B. hypotonic
C. isotonic
D. none of the above
4B 10 of 17
In this example, osmosis will result in the movement of- 4B
A. water molecules will move into the cell
B. water molecules will move out of the cell
C. solute molecules will move into the cell
D. solute molecules will move out of the cell
4B 11 of 17
What would happen to the body cells of a person who receives an injection of pure
water solution? 4B
A. The affected cells would shrink a large amount.
B. The affected cells would shrink slightly.
C. The affected cells would swell slightly.
D. The affected cells would remain unchanged.
4B 12 of 17
What process is being shown at label 3 in the diagram above if the substance is taken
into the cell because it is too large to pass through the cell membrane? 4B
A. Exocytosis
B. Protein Pump
C. Endocytosis
D. Diffusion
4B 13 of 17
A few drops of Lugol's iodine solution placed in a beaker of water will turn the water
red. A white starch solution was poured into a length of dialysis tubing and the ends
were tied. The tubing was then dropped into the beaker of iodine solution. After 10
minutes, the white starch solution turned black and the iodine water remained red.
What cellular structure was the dialysis tubing most likely representing in this
experiment? 4B
A. cell wall
B. cell membrane
C. Vacuole
D. nucleus
4B 14 of 17
Diffusion and osmosis are both vital to cell function. Diffusion and osmosis are
similar in that they are both types of – 4B
A. protein synthesis processes
B. passive transport processes
C. cellular replication processes
D. cellular metabolism processes
4B 15 of 17
Which cellular process takes place in the ribosomes that are bound to the
endoplasmic reticulum? 4B
A. The breakdown of waste material
B. The conversion of radiant energy to glucose
C. The synthesis of new proteins
D. The replication of nucleic acids
4B 16 of 17
Based on the illustration below, which direction will water move, and what will
happen to the cell? 4B
A.
B.
C.
D.
water moves out of cell, cell will shrink
water moves into cell, cell will swell
water moves out of cell, cell will swell
water moves in and out at equal rates, cell stays the same
4B 17 of 17
The cell membrane only allows certain molecules in and out of the cell. It is
said to be- 4B/4A
A. Impermeable
B. Unpermeable
C. Selectively permeable
D. Exclusively permeable
4C
Compare the structures of viruses to cells,
describe viral reproduction, and describe
the role of viruses in causing diseases such
as human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and
influenza.
• Virus vs Bacteria
• Common Diseases Caused by
Bacteria and Viruses
• 11 Questions
• Virus Structure
4C 1 of 11
Herpes Zoster more commonly known as shingles is a virus that can lay dormant
inside the cells of infected humans for years, even decades. What category of virus
does the shingles virus belong to? 4C
A. Lytic virus
B. Lysogenic virus
C. Retrovirus
D. Reverse virus
4C 2 of 11
Determine which of the following illnesses is caused by a virus. 4C
A. Bacterial Conjunctivitis
B. Common cold/Influenza
C. Streptococcus infection
D. Yeast infection
4C 3 of 11
Viruses and cells are different in many ways. Select how viruses and cells are most
similar. 4C
A. Stages of life cycle
B. Composition of outer covering
C. Composition of genetic material
D. Stage of reproduction
4C 4 of 11
The primary function of the structure labeled 1 in the Diagram A— 4C
A.
B.
C.
D.
Assembling the parts of the virus
Injecting viral DNA into a cell
Anchoring the virus to a cell
Storing and protecting viral DNA
4C 5 of 11
Which labeled viral structure in the Diagram B stores viral DNA, similar to the
way the nucleus stores cellular DNA? 4C
4
3
2
1
4C 6 of 11
After a virus enters a host cell, one of two patterns of infection may occur. Choose
the pattern of viral replication that does NOT kill the host immediately. 4C
A.
Krebs cycle
B.
Calvin cycle
C.
lytic cycle
D.
lysogenic cycle
4C 7 of 11
The diagram validates which cycle? 4C
A.
Krebs cycle
B.
Calvin cycle
C.
lytic cycle
D.
lysogenic cycle
4C 8 of 11
Jordan knows that for something to be considered living, certain criteria
must be met. She realizes that a virus is considered nonliving because it
performs only one of the following essential functions. Which function does
a virus perform? 4C
A. respires
B. grows and develops
C. converts organic compounds into usable energy
D. reproduces
4C 9 of 11
Scientists are designing new medicines to fight infectious diseases caused
by viruses. One of the most effective ways these medicines could limit the
spread of the virus within the body would be to 4C
A. prevent viruses from dividing
B. burst cells infected with viruses
C. stop viruses from attaching to cells
D. make it easier for viruses to leave cells
4C 10 of 11
Herpes Zoster more commonly known as shingles is a virus that can lay dormant
inside the cells of infected humans for years, even decades. What category of virus
does the shingles virus belong to? 4C
A. Lytic virus
B. Lysogenic virus
C. Retrovirus
D. Reverse virus
4C 11 of 11
The primary function of the structure labeled 1 in the diagram is— 4C
A.
B.
C.
D.
Assembling the parts of the virus
Injecting viral DNA into a cell
Anchoring the virus to a cell
Storing and protecting viral DNA
5A
Describe the stages of the cell cycle,
including deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
replication and mitosis, and the importance
of the cell cycle to the growth of organisms
• 19 Questions
5A 1 of 19
In Humans there 23 homologous pairs of chromosomes giving us a total of 46 chromosomes
in our somatic cells. How many chromosomes remain in each daughter cell after the
division of mitosis? 5A
a. 23
b. 46
c. 92
d. 108
5A 2 of 19
Refer to the diagram. Which of the following correctly arranges the stages in the
order in which they occur? 5A
A. A, B, C, D
B. C, B, A, D
C. B, A, D, C
D. D, C, A, B
5A 3 of 19
What is the name of the process shown in picture B? 5A
A. metaphase
B. mitosis
C. anaphase
D. synthesis
5A 4 of 19
What is the purpose of mitosis? 5A
A. Guarantees that each daughter cell has half the amount of DNA of parent cells.
B. It ensures that the new daughter cells have the correct amount of DNA.
C. It ensures the reproduction of mitochondria and chloroplasts.
D. It prevents the occurrence of cancer cells.
5A 5 of 19
Where does DNA replication occur? 5A
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. M
5A 6 of 19
Colchicine is a chemical that when applied to a cell during mitosis can be used to
“freeze” cells in metaphase by preventing the chromosomes from moving away
from the metaphase plate. What part of the cell does colchicine most likely
affect?
a. chromosome structure
b. spindle fibers
c. nuclear membrane
d. cell membrane
5A 7 of 19
Which stage of mitosis is depicted in the diagram to the right? 5A
A. Anaphase
B. Metaphase
C. Telophase
D. Prophase
5A 8 of 19
Which of the following is the longest stage of cell cycle? 5A
A. Interphase
B. Telophase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
5A 9 of 19
Which of the following cells is undergoing cytokinesis? 5A
5A 10 of 19
What is a centromere? 5A
a. place where sister chromatids are joined to each other
b. replicated DNA
c. center of the nucleus
d. where nuclear envelops are joined
5A 11 of 19
What allows a multicellular organism to grow?
a. cells undergo mitosis
b. cells stay in G1 phase of interphase
c. cell volume increases at an exponential rate
d. multicellular organisms do not grow
5A 12 of 19
Which phase do the sister chromatids seperate at the centromere and the spindle
fibers shorten?
A = Interphase
B = Prophase C = Metaphase D = Anaphase E = Telophase
5A 13 of 19
When do the sister chromatids line up at the equator of the cell?
A = Interphase
B = Prophase C = Metaphase D = Anaphase E = Telophase
5A 14 of 19
When does the new nuclear membranes form inside the daughter cells?
A = Interphase
B = Prophase C = Metaphase D = Anaphase E = Telophase
5A 15 of 19
Which phase does the nuclear membrane disappear and chromosomes are
become visible?
A = Interphase
B = Prophase C = Metaphase D = Anaphase E = Telophase
5A 16 of 19
In which phase does the DNA duplicate and centrioles created to prepare for
mitosis?
A = Interphase
B = Prophase C = Metaphase D = Anaphase E = Telophase
5A 17 of 19
A kangaroo’s somatic cells have 16 chromosomes. The kangaroo’s somatic cell
undergoes mitosis, how many chromosomes will be present in each of the
daughter cells?
A. 1
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
5A 18 of 19
During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear membrane disappear and the
cells chromosomes become visible?
A. Interphase
B. S phase
C. Prophase
D. Metaphase
5A 19 of 19
If a cat has 38 chromosomes in each of its somatic (body) cells, how many
chromosomes will be in each daughter cell after mitosis? 5A
A. 11
B. 19
C. 38
D. 76
5B
Examine specialized cells, including roots,
stems, and leaves of plants; and animal
cells such as blood, muscle, and
epithelium.
• 10 Questions
5B 1 of 10
The cells of skeletal muscle are long and cylindrical. Red blood cells are small and
round. Which statement best explains why the two types of cells have different
structures? 5B
A. The blood cells erode as they move through the body.
B. The muscles are stretched each time they contract.
C. The blood cells and muscle cells are both shaped to suit their function.
D. The blood cells and muscle cells are made in different parts of the body.
5B 2 of 10
Leaves are part of a plant’s shoot system. The xylem tissue in leaves transports —
A the bacteria needed for nitrogen fixation in root nodules
B the wax required to coat the surface of actively growing tissue
C the water and minerals that are absorbed by the roots
D the oxygen that regulates the rate of carbohydrate production
5B 3 of 10
Which group correctly identifies the type of cells and organelles that carry out
photosynthesis?
A. Animal cell and mitochondria
B. Plant cell and chloroplast
C. Plant cell and vacuole
D. Bacterial cell and Ribosome
5B 4 of 10
Parenchyma are cells that form a tissue in the middle of leaves. These leaf cells of
the plant contain a special type of photosynthetic organelle called 5B
A. xylem
B. phloem
C. chloroplast
D. stomata
5B 5 of 10
Which of the following is the function of the guard cells on the lower surface of
the leaf? 5B
A. Synthesizing proteins
B. Transporting water and minerals
C. Opening and closing stomata
D. Allowing light to enter the leaf
5B 6 of 10
Vascular plants transport nutrients through specialized structures called
xylem and phloem. What is the purpose of the xylem? 5B
A.
B.
C.
D.
They take nutrients from the soil.
They move water from the root through the plant.
They capture the sun’s energy to make sugar.
They move sugars and other nutrients from the leaves to the roots.
5B 7 of 10
If an athlete could undergo genetic enhancement to increase energy for athletic
competitions by doubling a specific cell organelle, which organelle would be the
BEST one to increase? 5B
A.
B.
C.
D.
Golgi apparatus
mitochondria
nucleus
ribosome
5B 8 of 10
The image below is a picture of an onion root tip. The onion root
tip is more rigid in structure compared to an animal cell. Which
cellular structure in plant cells is most responsible for this
characteristic? 5B/4A
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cell membrane
Vacuole
Chloroplast
Cell Wall
5B 9 of 10
Muscles cells have more mitochondria than other cells in the human body. The
MAIN purpose of the extra mitochondria in the muscle tissue is so the muscle5B/4A
A.
B.
C.
D.
can carry out extra activities that require more energy.
can carry out waste not absorbed in the body.
can carry responses quickly back to other cells.
can carry water to other cells more efficiently.
5B 10 of 10
The cells of skeletal muscle are long and cylindrical. Red blood cells are small and
round. Which statement best explains why the two types of cells have different
structures? 5B
A. The blood cells erode as they move through the body.
B. The muscles are stretched each time they contract.
C. The blood cells and muscle cells are both shaped to suit their function.
D. The blood cells and muscle cells are made in different parts of the body.
5C
Describe the roles of DNA, RNA, and
environmental factors in cell differentiation.
• 3 Questions
5C 1 of 3
The information in the box identifies some of the organs of the kitten.
Which of the following is identical for every cell in each of the four
organs? 5C
A. Amount of ATP
B. Function of cell
C. Size of cells
D. Genes in DNA
5C 2 of 3
Which of the following is correctly matched with its function? (5C)
A.
B.
C.
D.
rRNA - contains codes to make new ribosomes
DNA - carries the amino acids to the ribosomes
tRNA - combines with proteins to make up ribosomes
mRNA - carries genetic codes from nucleus to the ribosomes
5C 3 of 3
Which of these are the units that form a DNA molecule? (5C)
A.
B.
C.
D.
fatty acids
nucleotides
amino acids
chromosomes
5D
Recognize that disruptions of the cell cycle
lead to diseases such as cancer.
• 1 Question
5D 1 of 1
Cancer cells- 5D
A. Divide uncontrollably and die quickly
B. Are particularly sensitive to extracellular messages
C. Divide uncontrollably and may cause masses of cells
D. All of these
6A
Identify components of DNA, and describe
how information for specifying the traits of
an organism is carried in the DNA.
9 Questions
6A 1 of 9
A nucleotide consists of – 6A
A. between one and three phospholipids and protein
B. glucose, fructose, and sucrose
C. a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogenous base
D. two molecules of ATP and one molecule of ADP
6A 2 of 9
DNA replication results in- 6A
A. 2 completely new DNA molecules
B. 2 DNA molecules with 1 original strand and 1 new strand each
C. 1 new DNA molecule, 1 old molecule is conserved
D. 1 new molecule of RNA
6A 3 of 9
What cellular process does the picture to the right represent? 6A
A. Replication
B. Transcription
C. Translation
D. Mitosis
6A 4 of 9
Which of the following statements is true about the picture to the right? 6A
I. Structure X creates energy
II. Contains 2 intertwined strands called a double helix.
III. Structure X is a nucleotide.
IV. The sugars that make up this molecule are ribose.
A. I, II, and III
B. II and III
C. I and IV
D. None are correct
6A 5 of 9
DNA provides a very significant role in the formation and development of an
organism. What is that role? 6A
A. Provides genetic information
B. provides protection from disease
C. produces food material
D. releases energy
6A 6 of 9
One strand in a molecule of DNA contains the sequence below. 6A
ATTGCGTA
Which sequence is the complementary strand?
A. ATTGCGTA
B. UAACGCAU
C. TAACGCAT
D. GCCTATCG
6A 7 of 9
One strand in a molecule of DNA is represented by the sequence below. 6A
AGTTACA
The letters in the sequence represent which of the following?
A. a sugar
B. a nitrogenous base
C. a protein
D. a phosphate group
6A 8 of 9
Which statement best describes the DNA molecules made from this process? 6A
A. The new DNA molecules are identical to each other and to the original molecule.
B. The new DNA molecules are identical to each other but not to the original molecule.
C. The new DNA molecules are each identical to only one strand in the original molecule.
D. The new DNA molecules are not identical to the original, providing variation in the DNA.
6A 9 of 9
In DNA, which of the following determines the traits of an organism? 6A
A. Amount of adenine
B. Number of sugars
C. Sequence of nitrogen bases
D. Strength of hydrogen bonds
6B
Recognize that components that make up
the genetic code are common to all
organisms
• 1 Question
6B 1 of 1
A researcher recently discovered a species of bacteria. DNA
sequences were obtained from it and from several other species of
bacteria. The DNA sequences came from the same part of the bacterial
chromosome of each species. (6B)
DNA Sequence
Unknown Species
ACT GCA GCC
Species I
ACA GCG CCG
Species II
ACT GCT GGC
Species III
ACA GCC GGG
Species IV
ACT GCA GCG
According to the data above, the unknown bacteria are most closely
related to which species?
•Species I
•Species II
•Species III
•Species IV
6C
Explain the purpose and process of
transcription and translation using models of
DNA and RNA
• 22 Questions
6C 1 of 22
A cellular process uses a strand of genetic material to produce a new strand of
genetic material. Parts of the strands are shown below. (6C)
Original strand
mRNA
ATT CAG
UAA GUC
This new strand of genetic material will most likely be used forA.
B.
C.
D.
gene splicing
DNA synthesis
crossing-over
protein synthesis
6C 2 of 22
Structure 2 in the diagram represents a- (6C)
A. ribosome
C. protein
B. mitochondrion
D. chloroplast
6C 3 of 22
The process shown in the diagram occurs in the- (6C)
A. nucleus
C. vacuole
B. cytoplasm
D. chromosome
6C 4 of 22
Structure 1 is produced in what part of the cell? (6C)
A. vacuole
C. mitochondria
B. cytoplasm
D. nucleus
6C 5 of 22
The genetic information for making a protein must move from the nucleus to the
cytoplasm. Which of these moves this information to the cytoplasm? (6C)
A.
B.
C.
D.
a ribosome
DNA
mRNA
an amino acid
6C 6 of 22
Which of these represents the structure of messenger RNA? (6C)
C.
A.
D.
B.
6C 7 of 22
A strand of DNA has a nucleotide base sequence of TAC-CGG-AGT. Which of the
following is the complementary mRNA nucleotide sequence produced from the
strand of DNA? (6C)
A.
B.
C.
D.
UAC-CGG-AGU
ACU-GAA-CGA
AGU-UCC-UAC
AUG-GCC-UCA
6C 8 of 22
A strand of messenger RNA is attached to a ribosome and is directing protein
synthesis. The next exposed codon of this messenger RNA has the code GAA.
What will the code in the anticodon be?
A. GAA
B. CTT
C. CUU
D. GUU
6C 9 of 22
Which of these is used in both DNA replication and Protein Synthesis? (6C)
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. DNA
6C 10 of 22
Hemoglobin is an important protein in red blood cells. The DNA code for
hemoglobin contains the following segment:
TGC-GGA-CTC-CTC
Which of these is the messenger RNA code for this segment of DNA? (6C)
A.
B.
C.
D.
ACG-CCT-GAA-GAA
ACG-CCU-GAG-GAG
TCC-GGT-CTC-CTC
UGC-GGA-CUC-CUC
6C 11 of 22
Place the events in the correct order from the image above. (6C)
A.
B.
C.
D.
A-C-B-D
A-D-C-B
D-B-C-A
D-A-C-B
6C 12 of 22
Which of the following correctly describes the parts of an RNA nucleotide? (6C)
A. Deoxyribose sugar, phosphate, nitrogen-containing base
B. Protein core, nitrogen base, ribose sugar
C. Ribose sugar, phosphate, nitrogen-containing base
D. Nitrogen containing base, thymine, ribose sugar
6C 13 of 22
Which form of RNA does the picture represent? (6C)
A. tRNA
C. rRNA
B. mRNA
D. cRNA
6C 14 of 22
What is the DNA complement to the strand of RNA you see
in the diagram? (6C)
A. CGA UGC CUC GAA GCC UCG AUC
B. CGA TGC CTC GAA GCC TCG ATC
C. GCU ACG GAG CUU CGG AGC UAG
D. GCT ACG GAT CTT CGG AGC TAG
6C 15 of 22
Look at the DNA sequence below. (6C)
GAA
TTC
GCA
What do the letters represent in the DNA sequence?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sugars
amino acids
Phosphates
nitrogen bases
6C 16 of 22
How many nucleotides are needed to code for one amino acid? (6C)
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
3
4
6
6C 17 of 22
If a molecule of mRNA code reads:
AUG CGA UUU GCA
What amino acids will be coded for? (6C)
A. Methionine – Arginine – Phenylalanine- Alanine
B. None of these; this is not a code for amino acids
C. Methionine- Phenylalanine–Arginine – Threonine
D. Alanine- Glutamine- Phenylalanine – Threonine
6C 18 of 22
The amino acid arginine is coded for by this codon: (6C)
A. CAG
B. CGA
C. CAU
D. AGC
6C 19 of 22
Which step involves transfer RNA? (6C)
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
6C 20 of 22
According to the diagram, in which step is messenger RNA being constructed? (6C)
A.
B.
C.
D.
I
II
III
IV
6C 21 of 22
Look at the DNA sequence below. (6C)
GAA
TTC
GCA
What do the letters represent in the DNA sequence?
A. Sugars
B. amino acids
C. Phosphates
D. nitrogen bases
6C 22 of 22
Place the events in the correct order from the image above. (6C)
A. A-C-B-D
B. A-D-C-B
C. D-B-C-A
D. D-A-C-B
6E
Identify and illustrate changes in DNA and
evaluate the significance of these changes.
• 12 Questions
6E 1 of 12
If a deletion mutation eliminated all of the guanine bases from the codon
sequence of GAU-CGC-CAA-UAG, the altered sequence would be- (6E)
A. AUC-CCA-AUA
B. UAC-CAU-UAC
C. ATC-TCA-ATA
D. CCC-AAA-UUU
6E 2 of 12
Compare the following codon sequences: (6E)
GUG-UGA-CGC-UGU-CCA
And
GUG-UGA-CCG-CUG-UCC-A
Which mutation is being illustrated?
a. deletion
c. substitution
b. insertion
d. inversion
6E 3 of 12
A mutation causes the following change in DNA.
Original DNA sequence:
DNA sequence after mutation:
A.
B.
C.
D.
TACGCATGGAAT
TACGTATGGAAT
Which amino acid substitution will result from this point mutation? (6E)
His is replaced by Ala
Tyr is replaced by Thr
Arg is replaced by His
Ala is replaced by Met
6E 4 of 12
A mutation in DNA replaces cytosine with thymine, as shown below. (6E)
Original DNA sequence: TATGAACTGGAA
Mutated DNA sequence: TATGAATTGGAA
Compared to a protein produced by the original DNA sequence, a protein
produced by the mutated sequence will differ in —
a. all amino acids that come after the C
b. the amino acids that come before the C
c. a single amino acid
d. all of the amino acids
6E 5 of 12
A mutation in which only one nucleotide is changed in a gene is called a(n): (6E)
A. insertion
B. deletion
C. point mutation (substitution)
D. transposition
6E 6 of 12
Which of the following shows a mutation that does not change the shape or the
chemical nature of the protein so that it still functions normally? (6E)
A. UCC to GAC
C. GAA to GAG
B. GAG to UAG
D. GAG to CAG
6E 7 of 12
Tay-Sachs diseases is a genetic disorder in which the body lacks an enzyme that
breaks down certain fatty acids. The buildup of these fatty acids destroys nerve cells
in the brain, until eventually the entire nervous system stops working. Researchers
have discovered that a point mutation changing a guanine to a cystosine is one cause
of Tay-Sachs. Which of the following statements explains how the nucleotide switch
results in the disease?
A Genetic information in DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is translated into the
organism’s proteins
B Genetic information in DNA undergoes semiconservative replication and is passed
to daughter cells.
C Crossing over of sections of chromosomes during meiosis results in genetic
variation.
D Multiple three-letter codons on the RNA strand code for the same amino acid.
6E 8 of 12
John and Sarah had a child born with the genetic disease cystic fibrosis.
Cystic fibrosis is recessive autosomal disorder. Both John and Sarah were
normal, showing no signs of this disorder. How is it possible for them to have
a child with this disease? 6E
A. Cystic fibrosis must be a dominant trait disorder hidden in both parents
genotype, but not showing in the phenotype that could be passed on to
offspring.
B. Cystic fibrosis must be a recessive trait disorder hidden in both parents’
genotype, but not showing in the phenotype that could be passed on to
offspring.
C. Cystic fibrosis must be a dominant trait disorder hidden in one parents’
genotype, but not showing in the phenotype, that could be passed on to
offspring.
D. Cystic fibrosis must be a recessive trait disorder hidden in one parents’
genotype, but not showing in the phenotype, that could be passed on to
offspring.
6E 9 of 12
Rebecca went to a genetic counselor. When she had testing done she found
that she was a carrier for the disease Tay Sachs. She was normal and
showed no signs of the disorder but she could pass the trait on to her
offspring. Which of the following would correctly represent Rebecca’s
genotype? 6E
A.
B.
C.
D.
NN
Nn
nn
N
6E 10 of 12
Which of these processes is important in increasing genetic
diversity in organisms? 6E
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. DNA replication
D. Binary Fission
6E 11 of 12
Colorblindness, a sex-linked disorder, occurs in both males and females, but is more
common in males than in females because- 6E
a. father pass the allele for the colorblindness to their sons only.
b. the allele for colorblindness is located on the Y chromosome.
c. the allele for colorblindness is recessive and located on the X chromosome.
d. males who are colorblind have two copies of the allele for colorblindness.
6E 12 of 12
Tay-Sachs diseases is a genetic disorder in which the body lacks an enzyme that
breaks down certain fatty acids. The buildup of these fatty acids destroys nerve cells
in the brain, until eventually the entire nervous system stops working. Researchers
have discovered that a point mutation changing a guanine to a cytosine is one cause
of Tay-Sachs. Which of the following statements explains how the nucleotide switch
results in the disease? 6E
A. Genetic information in DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is translated into the
organism’s proteins
B. Genetic information in DNA undergoes semiconservative replication and is
passed to daughter cells.
C. Crossing over of sections of chromosomes during meiosis results in genetic
variation.
D. Multiple three-letter codons on the RNA strand code for the same amino acid.
6F
Predict possible outcomes of various
genetic combinations such as monohybrid
crosses, dihybrid crosses and nonMendelian inheritance;
21 Questions
6F 1 of 21
In guinea pigs, the allele for a rough coat (R) is dominant over the allele for a
smooth coat (r). A heterozygous guinea pig and a homozygous recessive
guinea pig are mated. Which of the following lists the distribution of
genotypes most likely to be seen in the offspring? 6F
A.
B.
C.
D.
100% Rr
50% Rr and 50% rr
75% Rr and 25% rr
25% RR, 50% Rr and 25% rr
6F 2 of 21
In fruit flies, the gene for red eyes (R) is dominant and the gene for sepia eyes (r).
What are the possible combinations of genes in the offspring of two red-eyed
heterozygous flies? 6F
A. RR only
B. RR and rr only
C Rr and rr only
D. RR, Rr, and rr
6F 3 of 21
If a human baby boy inherits a recessive allele from his mother, in which
circumstance would he most likely show the trait coded for by the recessive
allele? 6F
A.
B.
C.
D.
The baby inherits dominant allele from father.
The allele is on an autosomal chromosome and the baby is a twin.
The allele is on the X chromosome
The allele is on the Y chromosome
6F 4 of 21
In Drosophila (fruit flies) the sex-linked trait of red eye color (XR) is
dominant over white (Xr). Which is the correct genotype for a redeyed male fruit fly? 6F
A. XRXr
B. XrX
C. XrY
D. XRY
6F 5 of 21
A healthy individual is a carrier of a lethal allele but is unaffected by it. What is
the probably genotype of this individual? 6F
A. Two dominant normal alleles
B. Two recessive lethal alleles
C. One dominant normal allele and one recessive lethal allele
D. One dominant lethal allele and one recessive normal allele
6F 6 of 21
In certain breeds of dogs, deafness is due to a recessive allele (d) of a particular
gene, and normal hearing is due to its cominant allele (D). What percentage of
the offspring of a normal heterozygous (Dd) dog and a deaf dog (dd) would be
expected to have normal hearing? 6F
A. 0%
C. 50%
B. 25%
D. 100%
6F 7 of 21
What type of inheritance is represented in the figure to the right?
A. codominance
B. incomplete dominance
C. polygenic traits
D. multiple alleles
6F 8 of 21
In the figure to the right, what is the genotype of the heterozygous snapdragons?
a. RR
c. pink
b. red
d. RI
6F 9 of 21
If a woman with the type O blood and a man with the type AB blood have children,
what are the children’s possible phenotypes? (A dominant, B Dominant, O recessive)
6F
a.
b.
c.
d.
Type A or Type B
Type AB or O
Type A or O
none of these answers are correct
Blood Type
Genotype
A
IAIA or IAi
B
IBIB or IBi
AB
IAIB
O
ii
6F 10 of 21
The chart shows a dihybrid cross between pea plants. What are the genotypes of
the parents in this cross? 6F
A. RRyy and rrYY
B. RrYy and RrYy
C. RRYY and rryy
D. RrYY and Rryy
6F 11 of 21
If the chart shown above produces 48 seeds, which of the following lists the
most likely distribution of phenotypes in these seeds? 6F
A. 12 round green : 12 round yellow : 12 wrinkled yellow : 12 wrinkled green
B. 27 round yellow : 9 round green : 9 wrinkled yellow : 3 wrinkled green
C. 18 round yellow : 12 round green : 12 wrinkled green : 6 wrinkled yellow
D. 24 round yellow : 6 round green : 6 wrinkled yellow : 12 wrinkled green
6F 12 of 21
In dogs, barkers are dominant over nonbarkers. Erect ears are dominant
over drooped ears. A male dog is a heterozygous barker (Bb) and
homozygous erect ears (EE). He is mated with a female dog that is a
homozygous nonbarker (bb) and heterozygous erect ears (Ee).
BbEE
(male) x bbEe (female)
What gametes will the male produce?
A. Bb, EE
B. B, E, b
C. BB, EE
D. BE, bE
6F 13 of 21
In dogs, barkers are dominant over nonbarkers. Erect ears are dominant
over drooped ears. A male dog is a heterozygous barker (Bb) and
homozygous erect ears (EE). He is mated with a female dog that is a
homozygous nonbarker (bb) and heterozygous erect ears (Ee).
BbEE
(male) x bbEe (female)
What gametes will the female produce?
A. bE, be
B. Bb, Ee
C. B, E, e
D. Be, be
6F 14 of 21
In dogs, barkers are dominant over nonbarkers. Erect ears are dominant
over drooped ears. A male dog is a heterozygous barker (Bb) and
homozygous erect ears (EE). He is mated with a female dog that is a
homozygous nonbarker (bb) and heterozygous erect ears (Ee).
BbEE
(male) x bbEe (female)
What would the possible genotypes of the offspring be?
A. None of these
B. BbEE, BbEe, bbEE, bbEe
C. Bbee, BBEe, bbEE, bbee
D. BbEE, BBEE, bbEE, bbee
6F 15 of 21
In dogs, barkers are dominant over nonbarkers. Erect ears are dominant
over drooped ears. A male dog is a heterozygous barker (Bb) and
homozygous erect ears (EE). He is mated with a female dog that is a
homozygous nonbarker (bb) and heterozygous erect ears (Ee).
BbEE
(male) x bbEe (female)
What is the probability of having an erect eared puppy?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 75%
D. 100%
6F 16 of 21
In dogs, barkers are dominant over nonbarkers. Erect ears are dominant
over drooped ears. A male dog is a heterozygous barker (Bb) and
homozygous erect ears (EE). He is mated with a female dog that is a
homozygous nonbarker (bb) and heterozygous erect ears (Ee).
BbEE
(male) x bbEe (female)
What is the probability of having a nonbarker, droop eared puppy?
A. 0%
B. 6.25%
C. 25%
D. 75%
6F 17 of 21
According to the table above, how likely is it that green eyes
will show up in the offspring from these parents?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 100%
6F 18 of 21
According to the table above, how likely is it that blue eyes will show up in
the offspring from these parents?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 100%
6F 19 of 21
According to the table above, how likely is it that striped gray fur will show up in the
offspring from these parents?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 100%
6F 20 of 21
If a plant that is homozygous tall and wrinkled is crossed with a short,
wrinkled plant, which percentage of genotypes would most likely be found in the firstgeneration offspring? 6F
A. 50% TTss, 50% ttSS
B. 100% TsSs
C. 100% Ttss
D. 50% TtSS, 50% ttSS
6F 21 of 21
What trait will most likely be observed in all offspring of the set of parents
in the chart below? 6F
A.
B.
C.
D.
Green feathers
Yellow feathes
Long beak
Short beak
6G
Recognize the significance of meiosis to
sexual reproduction
5 Questions
6G 1 of 5
Sexual reproduction in a species usually results in- 6G
A. an increase in the chromosome number in the offspring
B. offspring genetically identical to the parent
C. genetic variation
D. a decrease in biodiversity
6G 2 of 5
Compared with mitosis, the process of meiosis results in daughter cells that are — 6G
A. diploid cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cells.
B. diplod cells with a smaller number of chromosomes than the parent cells.
C. haploid cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cells.
D. haploid cells with a smaller number of chromosomes than the parent cells.
6G 3 of 5
The diagram below shows the process of: 6G
A. transcription, which makes mRNA from a DNA template
B. DNA replication, which makes an exact copy of the genetic material
C. protein synthesis, which assembles amino acids on the ribosomes
D. crossing over, which allows for offspring to be genetically diverse
6G 4 of 5
Which statement concerning the reproductive cells in the diagram below is correct? 6G
A. The cells are produced by mitosis and contain all the genetic information of the father.
B. If one of these cells fertilizes an egg, the offspring will be identical to the father.
C. Each of the cells contains only half the genes necessary for the formation of an offspring.
D. An egg fertilized by one of these cells will develop into a female with the same traits as
the mother.
6G 5 of 5
The process of crossing over is important because it explains—6G
A. why offspring are genetically identical to their parents
B. why offspring are identical to each other
C. why offspring are genetically similar to each other but not the parents
D. why offspring are genetically different from their parents and each other
6H
Describe how techniques such as DNA
fingerprinting, genetic modifications and
chromosomal analysis are used to study
the genomes of organisms.
4 Questions
6H 1 of 4
The karyotype shown to the right is—6H
A. Normal for male
B. Normal for female
C. Abnormal for male
D. Abnormal for female
6H 2 of 4
There are several disorders that can occur due to nondisjunction during meiosis. Three
of those disorders are shown in the table below. 6H
The person with the genetic karyotype shown above is a—
A. Klinefelter’s syndrome
B. Normal female
C. Down Syndrome female
D. Normal male
6H 3 of 4
Which numbered pair of chromosomes in a karyotype shows the sex
(gender) of the person? 6H
A. 1
B. 4
C. 21
D. 23
6H 4 of 4
The diagram represents the chromosomes of a person with a genetic
disorder caused by non-disjunction, in which the chromosomes fail to
separate properly. Which chromosome set displays non-disjunction? 6H
A. 2
B. 8
C. 21
D. 23
7G
Analyze and evaluate scientific
explanations concerning the complexity of
the cell.
2 Questions
7G 1 of 2
Which is part of the endosymbiont theory? 7G
A. ancient prokaryotes engulfed eukaryotes
B. chloroplasts evolved from prokaryotes
C. engulfed nutrients became mitochondria
D. prokaryotes evolved into eukarotes
7G 2 of 2
How is the illustration below interpreted by many scientists? 7G
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mitochondria and chloroplasts are parasites in cells.
Prokaryotes might have entered host cells as prey or parasites.
Eukaryotic cells evolved before prokaryotes.
Mitochondria and chloroplasts look similar.
9A
Compare the structures and functions of
different types of biomolecules, including
carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic
acids
PowerPoint
28 Questions
Data Table
9A 1 of 28
Amylase is an enzyme that allows the human body to digest starch. Which of these diagrams
best represents part of the structure of amylase?- 9A
A.
B.
C.
D.
Data Table
9A 2 of 28
Which of the following correctly describes the parts of an DNA nucleotide?- 9A
A. Deoxyribose sugar, phosphate, nitrogen-containing base
B. Ribose sugar, phosphate, nitrogen-containing base
C. Protein core, nitrogen base, sugar
D. Nitrogen containing base, phosphate, ribose sugar
Data Table
9A 3 of 28
The diagram to the right shows the structure of a unit that makes up
proteins. These smaller subunits that make proteins are called— 9A
A.
B.
C.
D.
Amino acids
Lipids
Nucleotides
Monosaccharides
Data Table
9A 4 of 28
Which of these supply the main energy source used in humans? 9A
A. lipids
B. amino acids
C. nucleic acids
d. carbohydrates
Data Table
9A 5 of 28
The diagram below shows a molecule made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
What is the name of the monomer that correctly identifies this structure? 9A
A.
B.
C.
D.
amino acid
sugar
starch
nucleotide
Data Table
9A 6 of 28
Beeswax is a waxy substance that is produced by bees and then harvested by
humans for a variety of uses. Ancient Romans used beeswax as a waterproofing
agent because it is not water-permeable. Beeswax is which of the following types
of organic molecule? 9A
A. Carbohydrate
B. Lipid
C. Nucleic acid
D. Protein
Data Table
9A 7 of 28
The function of biomolecules is directly related to the order of its monomers.
Which biomolecule will be most affected by the order of its monomers? 9A
A. Lipid
B. Starch
C. Protein
D. Vitamin
Data Table
9A 8 of 28
Polysaccharides are long chains of simple sugars. Plants and animals store this
excess sugar as starch. The starch in animals is called glycogen. The
polysaccharides in a plant’s cell wall are known as? 9A
A. Disaccharides
B. Enzymes
C. Cellulose
D. Phospholipids
Data Table
9A 9 of 28
Amino acid is to protein as— 9A
A. lipid is to nucleotides
B. nucleotide is to protein
C. monosaccharide is to lipid
D. monosaccharide is to carbohydrates
Data Table
9A 10 of 28
The diagram below is composed of one glycerol and three fatty acid tails. This
structure allows for which biomolecule to be made? 9A
A. Nucleotides
B. Carbohydrates
C. Lipids
D. Proteins
Data Table
9A 11 of 28
The ability to roll your tongue and possession of a widow’s peak hairline are
inherited characteristics. Which molecule is responsible for these and other
inherited traits? 9A
A. Carbohydrate
B. Complex starch
C. Deoxyribonucleic acid(DNA)
D. Fatty acid
Data Table
9A 12 of 28
The structure to the right is a(n)— 9A
A. amino acid
B. carbohydrate
C. monosaccharide
D. nucleotide
Data Table
9A 13 of 28
If the sugar in the diagram above is known to be a deoxyribose sugar, it can be
concluded that this structure— 9A
A. helps to make starches
B. helps to make energy
C. helps to make RNA
D. helps to make DNA
Data Table
9A 14 of 28
All organic compounds contain which element? 9A
A. Nitrogen
B. Phosphorous
C. Carbon
D. Sulfur
Data Table
9A 15 of 28
One function of the carbohydrate macromolecule starch is to store energy in some
plants. Which other macromolecule also functions in storing energy in animals?9A
A. DNA
B. Protein
C. RNA
D. Lipid
Data Table
9A 16 of 28
A macromolecule is composed of glycerol and fatty acids and functions as a
hormone. This molecule is a– 9A
A. Phosphate
B. Polysaccharide
C. Lipid
D. Carbohydrate
Data Table
9A 17 of 28
Which of these correctly matches the molecule with its function?9A
A. lipid – stores genetic information
B. nucleotide – movement of molecules into/out of a cell
C. enzyme – speeds up a chemical reactions
D. carbohydrate – manufactures cell membranes
Data Table
9A 18 of 28
The cell wall contains cellulose. Cellulose is a ___________ made of many _________. 9A
A. Carbohydrate…… Fatty acids
B. Polysaccharide……. Glucose molecules
C. Lipid……triglycerides
D. protein……amino acid
Data Table
9A 19 of 28
The diagram below shows a molecule made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
What is the name of the monomer that correctly identifies this structure? 9A
A. amino acid
B. sugar
C. starch
D. nucleotide
Data Table
9A 20 of 28
The diagram below is composed of one glycerol and three fatty acid tails. This
structure allows for which biomolecule to be made? 9A
A. Nucleotides
B. Carbohydrates
C. Lipids
D. Proteins
Data Table
9A 21 of 28
The structure to the right is a(n)— 9A
A. amino acid
B. carbohydrate
C. monosaccharide
D. nucleotide
Data Table
9A 22 of 28
The cell wall contains cellulose. Cellulose is a ___________ made of many _________. 9A
A. Carbohydrate…… Fatty acids
B. Polysaccharide……. Glucose molecules
C. Lipid……triglycerides
D. protein……amino acid
Data Table
9A 23 of 28
Which of these correctly matches the molecule with its function? 9A
A.
B.
C.
D.
lipid – stores genetic information
nucleotide – movement of molecules into/out of a cell
enzyme – speeds up chemical reactions
carbohydrate – manufactures cell membranes
Data Table
9A 24 of 28
What simple molecule reacts with itself to form this disaccharide? 9A
A. DNA
B. Amino acids
C. Glucose
D. Lipids
Data Table
9A 25 of 28
Which statement BEST describes the function of nucleic acids? 9A
A. Stores genetic information and helps to make proteins
B. Increases the rate of chemical reactions
C. Stimulates metabolism in all body cells
D. Activates secretion of the body’s hormones
Data Table
9A 26 of 28
Which of the following correctly describes the parts of an RNA nucleotide?- 9A
Deoxyribose sugar, phosphate, nitrogen-containing base
Ribose sugar, protein, phosphate, nitrogen-containing base
Protein core, nitrogen base, ribose sugar
Nitrogen containing base, phosphate, ribose sugar
Data Table
9A 27 of 28
The diagram to the right shows the structure of a unit that makes up proteins.
These smaller subunits that make proteins are called-- 9A
A.
B.
C.
D.
Amino Acids
Lipids
Nucleotides
Monosaccharides
Data Table
9A 28 of 28
The diagram below shows a molecule made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
What is the name of the monomer that correctly identifies this structure? 9A
A. amino acid
B. monosaccharide
C. nucleotide
D. triglyceride
Data Table
9B
Compare the reactants and products of
photosynthesis and cellular respiration in
terms of energy and matter.
2 Questions
9B 1 of 2
The concept map below shows the flow of energy and materials in photosynthesis and
cellular respiration.
Which molecules are represented in the figure by the number 1? 9B
A. H2O and O2
B. H2O and CO2
C. Sugars and O2
D. Sugars and CO2
9B 2 of 2
Carbon is part of many different organic compounds because of its unique ability to
form a variety of structures. One of the carbon-based biomolecules is shown below.
How does the function of this biomolecule
compare to the function of a lipid?
A. This biomolecule is an important source of
energy for organisms; while lipids are
important for insulating organisms.
B. This biomolecule is important in catalyzing
chemical reactions; while lipids are important
in storing energy.
C. This biomolecule contains an organism’s
genetic material; while lipids make up cell
membranes.
D. This biomolecule is a light-absorbing
compound that is important to
photosynthesis; while lipids direct protein
synthesis.
9C
Identify and investigate the role of
enzymes
Enzyme Handout
Enzyme Notes
11 Questions
9C 1 of 11
The diagram below that represents a human enzyme and four types of molecules
present in a solution in a flask. Which molecule would most likely react with the
enzyme? 9C
Enzyme Handout
Enzyme Notes
9C 2 of 11
The effect of pH on a certain enzyme is shown in the graph below:
At what pH would the enzyme be most effective? 9C
A. Above 10
C. Between 5 and 7
B. Between 8 and 10
D. below 5
Enzyme Handout
Enzyme Notes
9C 3 of 11
The active site of an enzyme- 9C
A. is where the coenzyme is located
B. is a specific bulge on an enzyme where an inhibitor binds
C. is a groove on the enzyme where a substrate binds
D. is also known as the allosteric site
Enzyme Handout
Enzyme Notes
9C 4 of 11
A student completed a series of experiments and found that a protein digesting enzyme
(intestinal protease) functions best when the pH is 8.0 and the temperature is 37oC.
During an experiment, the student used some of the procedures listed below.
Procedures
Adding more protease
Adding more protein
Decreasing the pH to 6.0
Increasing the temperature to 45oC
Decreasing the amount of light
Which procedure would have the least effect on the rate of protein digestion? 9C
A. 1
B. 5
C. 3
Enzyme Handout
D. 4
Enzyme Notes
9C 5 of 11
A student completed a series of experiments and found that a protein digesting
enzyme (intestinal protease) functions best when the pH is 8.0 and the temperature is
37oC. During an experiment, the student used some of the procedures listed below.
Procedures
Adding more protease
Adding more protein
Decreasing the pH to 6.0
Increasing the temperature to 45oC
Decreasing the amount of light
Which two procedures from the experiment above would most likely cause a decrease
in the rate of protein digestion? 9C
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 and 4
2 and 3
3 and 4
1 and 5
Enzyme Handout
Enzyme Notes
9C 6 of 11
Enzymes are- 9C
A. proteins
B. carbohydrates
C. nucleotides
D. sterols
Enzyme Handout
Enzyme Notes
9C 7 of 11
Without enzymes, the chemical reactions in your body would- 9C
A. happen too fast
B. occur at much the same rate they do now
C. require a different pH
D. occur too slow to support life processes
Enzyme Handout
Enzyme Notes
9C 8 of 11
Enzymes are proteins that help increase the rate of chemical reactions inside cells.
These proteins are composed of many simpler molecules called amino acids.
Which of the following suggests that the shape of an enzyme determines the
enzyme’s function?9C
A. Enzymes are specific to a substrate.
B. Enzymes are activated by neighboring molecules.
C. Enzymes can be found in all life-forms.
D. Enzymes can operate in a wide range of conditions.
Enzyme Handout
Enzyme Notes
9C 9 of 11
The enzymes that catalyze cellular reactions are macromolecules made of organic
compounds composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. These types of
macromolecules are known as 9C
A. Starches
B. Sugars
C. Proteins
D. Fats
Enzyme Handout
Enzyme Notes
9C 10 of 11
The active site of an enzyme- 9C
A. is where the coenzyme is located
B. is a specific bulge on an enzyme where an inhibitor binds
C. is a groove on the enzyme where a substrate binds
D. is also known as the allosteric site
Enzyme Handout
Enzyme Notes
9C 11 of 11
Without enzymes, the chemical reactions in your body would- 9C
A. happen too fast
B. occur at much the same rate they do now
C. require a different pH
D. occur too slow to support life processes
Enzyme Handout
Enzyme Notes
9D
Analyze and evaluate the evidence regarding formation of
simple organic molecules and their organization into long
complex molecules having information such as the DNA
molecule for self-replicating life.
3 Questions
9D 1 of 3
Most biomolecules are made up of monomers, or smaller units, joined together to
make larger compounds. Which of the following is the best example of a
monomer?
A. The enzyme amylase
B. A sample of cooking oil
C. Monosaccharides or Glucose
D. A strand of DNA
9D 2 of 3
Proteins and polysaccharides are polymers. These polymers are formed by
dehydration synthesis. Which statement correctly identifies a difference in the
structure of proteins and polysaccharides? 9D
A. Only polysaccharides are comprised of repeating units of cytosine, adenine,
guanine, and thymine.
B. Only proteins are formed from amino acids joined by peptide bonds.
C. Only polysaccharides can be folded and twisted to very specific shapes.
D. Only proteins can be large molecules with thousands of subunits.
9D 3 of 3
Large biological molecules are made up of smaller subunits. What are these
subunits called? 9D
A. Enzymes
B. Polymers
C. Monomers
D. Cells