Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
The study of blood cells is called ___
A human body contains about ____ liters of blood
Blood transports _____ from the lungs to the tissues.
Blood also clears those tissues of _____
The liquid portion of blood is called ___
Describe the morphology of a normal RBC
How many nuclei does a normal human RBC contain
RBC’s are filled with a reddish protein called
What is the diameter of a normal RBC
The center of an RBC will appear _____ compared to
the rest of the cell
When did the first automated particle counters
become available
The _____ Principle of direct current electrical
impedance is still used today in automated profiling
instruments
An RBC count below normal is
An RBC count above normal is
How is hemoglobin concentration derived.
Hematocrit is a ratio of ___ over ___
A normal hematocrit approaches ___%
Who first described worms in the blood back in the
mid-1600s
Who first gave an account of RBCs around the same
time
Who described platelets as petite plaques over 200
years ago
In 1902 James Homer Wright developed the Wright
stain. Why was this so important.
RBC are fully described using these 6 parameters
How many red blood cells are in 5 liters of blood?
What cells have no nucleus?
Why are red blood cells biconcave?
What are the smallest cells in the body?
What are red blood cells filled with that carry oxygen
throughout the body?
What is the average lifespan of an erythrocyte?
Where in the body are old erythrocytes destroyed?
Hematology
5
O2
CO2
Plasma
Biconcave disc
None
Hemoglobin
6-8 microns
Pale
1958
Coulter
Anemia
Polycythemia
Sample is measured in a photometer at
540 nm after conversion of hemoglobin
to cyanmethemoglobin with Drabkin’s
reagent.
Volume of RBC’s over volume of whole
blood
50
Athanasius Kircher
Antony van Leeuwenhoek
Giulio Bizzozero
It allowed detailed visual examination of
blood using a microscope of things
previously difficult or impossible to see.
Shape, color, size, central pallor,
contents and function
30 trillion
Red blood cells
To increase surface area
Red blood cells
Hemoglobin
120 days
In the spleen and liver
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What percentage of the body's cells are RBC's?
How many RBC's are destroyed (as well as made) per
second?
How many RBC's are made each hour?
Where are RBC's made?
Hereditary spherocytosis is a red cell membrane
disorder
What is the condition in which too many red blood
cells are produced and requires therapeutic
phlebotomy?
What is any condition of red blood cells in which the
blood's capacity for carrying oxygen is diminished?
What is the lack of oxygen to the tissues called?
25%
2.4 million
What is the reduced blood flow to a tissue called?
What are some of the causes of hypoxia?
Ischemia
Ischemia, malfunctioning hemoglobin,
increasing altitude
Reticulocytes in the blood
Immature red blood cells
True
True
Hemolysis
Hereditary, acquired
What is the characteristic sign of anemia?
What are reticulocytes?
Anemia can be caused by too few RBCs.
Anemia can also be cause by iron deficiency.
What is the rupture of RBCs?
Hemolytic anemia can be ______, from autoimmune
disorders or G6PD deficiency, or ________, from
infections, or receiving the incorrect blood type in a
transfusion.
G6PD deficiency is hereditary and X-linked, so
almost all are ______.
G6PD is an ______ that is important for RBC
metabolism.
G6PD is the most common human enzyme
deficiency.
Pernicious anemia is also known as ___.
Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of vitamin B12
or intrinsic factor.
After gastric bypass surgery, the stomach is no longer
able to produce intrinsic factor, which is needed to
absorb ______, which is needed to make _____ in
RBCs.
Without vitamin B12, the blood cells become fewer
and larger than normal, or _______.
Gastric bypass surgery patients must take vitamin
B12 shots or sublingual supplements for the rest of
their lives.
What is Thalassemia?
8.6 billion
In the red bone marrow
True
Polycythemia
Anemia
Hypoxia
Male
Enzyme
True
Megaloblastic anemia
True
Vitamin B12, hemoglobin
Megaloblastic
True
A hereditary form of anemia where the
2
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What is sickle cell disease?
Which group of people that sickle erythrocytes
present than other groups?
What kind of infections that the sickle shape can
prevent?
What is hereditary spherocytosis?
What is red blood cell (RBC) count?
What does Hemoglobin (Hgb) measures?
What does Hematocrit (Hct) measures?
What is a quick screening test for anemia?
How to perform the hematocrit test?
What does hematocrit measures?
What is the ratio of the hematocrit?
What percentage is normal hematocrit
What is a measurement of the average size of your
RBCs?
What is elevated when RBC are larger than normal?
What is the term for larger than normal RBC?
Name one condition where MCV is elevated
What is the term for smaller than normal RBC?
What is a calculation of the average amount of
oxygen-carrying hemoglobin inside a red blood cell?
What is a calculation of the average concentration of
oxygen on the hemoglobin molecules inside a red
cell?
What is the term for decreased MCHC values?
What is the term for increased MCHC values?
What is a calculation of the variation in the size of
RBCs have abnormal hemoglobin that
deforms the cells
A hereditary mutation resulting in one
valine amino acid substituted for
glutamic acid.
people with African ancestry
helps prevent malaria infections, but it
also causes blood clots.
The red blood cells shrink over time due
to problems with the red blood cell
membrane.
is a count of the actual number of red
blood cells per volume of blood. Both
increases and decreases can point to
abnormal conditions.
the amount of oxygen-carrying protein
in the blood.
the percentage of red blood cells in a
given volume of whole blood.
the hematocrit test
A drop of blood is drawn up a small
glass capillary tube and the tube is
centrifuged to pack the red blood cells at
the bottom with the plasma on top.
the percentage of blood volume that
consists of erythrocytes.
the ratio of packed red blood cells to
total blood volume.
about 45% (46% for men and 38% for
women.)
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
Macrocytic
Anemia caused by B12 deficiency
Microcytic
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin
concentration (MCHC)
Hypochromia
Hyperchromia
Red cell distribution width (RDW)
3
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
your RBCs?
Having few RBC’s with various shapes is called?
Having many RBC’s with various shapes is called?
What is the practice of boosting the number of red
blood cells in the bloodstream by giving an athlete an
unnecessary blood transfusion in order to enhance
athletic performance?
Which athlete who won seven straight Tour de France
titles confessed to using blood doping?
What is the technique for determining which specific
protein type is present on the RBC membranes?
What are the proteins called when the cell membranes
of the red blood cells carry certain types of proteins
that another person’s body will think is a foreign
body and reject it?
What are the 2 types of blood antigens?
If a person with type A blood gets a transfusion of
type B blood, what would happen?
Which blood type is considered the universal donor?
Why is this possible?
Which blood type is considered the universal
acceptor? Why is this possible?
What is the rarest blood type?
What protein does the term “positive” or “negative”
refer to in blood typing.
What occurs when an Rh- mother has an Rh+ fetus in
her womb (from an Rh+ father), and she has
antibodies to the Rh factor?
If a woman is Rh- and pregnant the doctor will
administer an injection of what at 18 weeks and again
within 72 hrs after giving birth?
About how old is a fetus when it begins making Rh
factor?
True or False:
During an Rh- woman's first pregnancy an Rh+ baby
is not at risk of Hemalytic Disease of the Newborn.
What protein is another RBC antigen and similar to
Rh factor; in that, it can cause Hemolytic Disease of
the Newborn.
Anisocytosis
Poikilocytosis
Blood doping
Lance Armstrong
Blood typing
Antigens (something that causes an
allergic reaction)
Type A and Type B
the donated blood will clump in masses
(coagulation), and the person will die.
O negative. It is possible because there
are no antigens on the blood cell.
AB positive. This is possible because
the plasma does not contain antibodies
to A or B or Rh antigens.
AB negative
Rh Factor
her antibodies will attack the red blood
cells of the fetus because her body
detects the Rh protein on the baby’s red
blood cells and thinks they are foreign
objects. This is called Hemolytic
Disease of the Newborn (HDN).
Rhogam
18 weeks
True; during the first birth (or
miscarriage), the placenta tears away
and that’s when the baby’s blood cells
get into the mother’s bloodstream. This
begins the immune response.
The Kell protein. People either have big
K or little k proteins. Most people have
little kk. If one parent has big K (either
Kk or KK), the child can get Hemolytic
4
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
Define Pathogen
Bacterium, virus, fungi, yeast, protozoa, and worms
are examples of what type of pathogen?
What is an example of a non-biological pathogen?
How many bacteria can fit inside a white blood cell?
Where do bacteria live in the body?
How do bacteria cause harm?
How many viruses can fit inside the nucleus of one
white blood cell?
How many viruses can fit inside the nucleus area of a
bacterium?
Where do viruses live in the body and why?
What happens when a body cell has been invaded by
a virus?
What is an antigen?
What are some examples of non-biological antigens?
List the Leukocytes
What percentage of all Leukocytes are Basophils?
What is secreted by Basophil granules and why?
What interferes with the function of Basophils?
What is a Basophil that leaves the blood vessel and
enters the tissues?
What percentage of Leukocytes are Eosinophils?
What roles do eosinophils play?
Disease of the Newborn.
Something that causes a disease.
Biological Pathogens
Toxic chemicals, asbestos are two
examples.
Bacteria are so small that hundreds of
them can fit inside one WBC.
They usually do not invade cells, they
live between cells of the body, using
nutrients in the area.
By secreting toxins
Thousands
Hundreds
They always try to invade body cells
because they need host DNA or RNA to
replicate
The entire host cell must be killed by a
white blood cell.
An Antigen is anything that can cause an
immune response, not necessarily a
biological pathogen.
Pollen, dust, grass, or anything that a
person is allergic to.
1) Basophils
-Mast Cells
2) Eosinophils
3) Neutrophils
4) Monocytes
-Macrophages
5) Lymphocytes
-B cells
-T cells
• 0.5 %
• Histamines. It causes
vasodilation so more WBCs can
get to the infection site.
• Antihistamines
• Mast Cell
•
•
1-4%
Ending allergic reactions and
parasitic infections. They
increase in numbers during these
5
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
Which is the most numerous White Blood Cell?
Which White Blood Cell is the first to respond to
infection?
What roles do neutrophils play in response to
infection?
How many lobes does the nucleus of an Eosinophil
have?
How do Neutrophils contribute to immunity?
When bacteria have capsules, they are harder to
phagocytize. What action makes this process easier?
What has some bacteria around them developed as a
defense against phagocytosis.
True or False: If a bacteria develops a capsule, neutrophils
nor macrophages can not engulf that particular bateria.
The process of facilitation of phagocytosis is called?
What is the structure called when an invading bacteria has
the antibody attached to its cell membrane?
If a bacterium does not have a this structure, the neutrophil
can destroy it without opsonization.
When a capsule is present around a bacterium, what two
that best work together are needed to kill the bacteria?
This type of cell comprise about 5% of all WBC’s.
This type of leucocyte use antibodies for opsonization.
They phagocytize bacteria,old cells, and foreign bodies.
When monocytes leave the bloodstream and enter the
tissue, they are called?
What cells are considered to be the most numerous of
white blood cells?
True or False: There are more macrophages in the tissue of
the body than they are everywhere.
Neutrophils live only a few days where as
Monocytes/Macrophages live for how long?
What cells phagocytize bacteria until they die?
What type cell phagocytize and then take pieces of dead
bacteria and present them to lymphocytes so a larger
immune response can occur?
What are the two type of phagocytes?
What are Lymphocytes mostly needed to do?
Neutrophils and macrophages main function is not to
phagocytize viruses, but to what?
•
•
conditions (Eosinophilia)
Neutrophils
Neutrophils
1) Phagocytize and destroy bacteria
2) Also destroy bacterial toxins in
body fluids
•
a) 2-6 lobes
b) Engulfing bacteria and foreign
bodies (thorns, dirt) in a process
called phagocytosis. They
release the contents of lysosomes
onto invader, dissolving it.
c) Opsonization by antibodies
d) Capsule
e) 1
f) Opsinization
g) Antigen-antibody complex
h) Capsule
i)
Neutrophil and antibody
j) Monocytes
k) Monocytes
l)
Macrophages
m) Neutrophils
n) 1
o) Monocytes/Macrophages live for a
few months.
Neutrophils
p)
Macrophages
Neutrophils and macrophages
Kill off body cells infected by viruses.
To phagocytize bacteria
6
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What do macrophages have that make them recognize the
surface of the pathogen’s cell membrane?
When macrophages phagocytize bacteria, pop their
lysosomes onto it and dissolve it, what do the
macrophages do to their own cell membrane and for what
reason?
Macrophages present pieces of T cell lymphocytes and
that T cell will present it to a what type of lymphocyte?
The B lymphocyte feels the shape of the bacteria pieces,
and the B lymphocyte can them launch an attack in the rest
of that type of bacteria still alive in the body. What is this
process called?
What is a lymphocyte?
There are two types of lymphocytes. What does one do
and what does the other do?
What are the two main classes of lymphocytes?
Where do the B cells originate from?
B cell that has not been presented to an invader is called
a?
After a B cell has been introduced to an invader, the B cell
will mature into a what?
A mature plasma cell fights infection by producing what?
After the war of infection is over, the plasma cell will
mature into a queen called a what?
Where do the T cells originate from?
Who do the T cells attack directly.
What does a B cell mature into once they have been
presented to?
What is a function of a Plasma Cell?
What is the function of the antibody from a Plasma
cell?
How do the antibodies of a Plasma Cell kill an
attacking cell?
How do the antibodies of a Plasma Cell kill an
attacking cell?
How do the antibodies of a Plasma Cell kill an
attacking cell?
Define the term Mononucleosis
What is the cause of Mononucleosis?
What is a characteristic of Mononucleosis?
What is Lymphangitis?
Surface receptors
Macrophages place a piece of the bacteria’s
cell membrane on it’s own cell wall until the
macrophage finds a lymphocyte to present it
to.
B cell lymphocyte
Antigen presentation
Lymphocytes are cells which produce
antibodies to kill any pathogens which
invade the body.
One makes antibodies and the other engages
in direct combat with viruses.
B cells and T cells
Bone marrow
Virgen B cell
Plasma cell
Antibodies
Memory cell
Thymus gland
They attack foreign cells including organ
transplants.
Plasma Cell
Secrete Antibodies
Kill the attacking cell
They attach to bacteria and pop the cell
membrane
They attach to encapsulated bacteria to
help neutrophils and macrophages to
phagocytize them
They agglutinate (clump all over the
bacteria, binding their receptor site so
they cannot cause harm)
A disorder of B-cell lymphocytes
The Epstein Barr Virus
Inflammation of lymph
vessels(lymphangitis)
Lymph vessel inflammation; usually
from infection
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What is a visual characteristic of Mononucleosis?
What is the function of a T-cell?
How does a T-cell directly destroy bacteria?
How does a T-cell directly destroy a foreign cell?
Host body cells that have become infected with
viruses may be killed by what type of cell?
What are characteristics of a T-cell regarding the
killing of an invading cell?
What is the relationship of a T-cell and antibodies?
Which type of patient is at risk due to the function of
T-cells?
What type of cell attacks the organs of an organ
transplant patient?
What types of drugs are designed to inhibit the action
of T-cells?
What cell is attacked by the HIV (AIDS) virus?
Where do T-cells originate from?
What does the Thymus Gland secrete?
What happens when a T-cell becomes
immunocompetent?
What are the three types of T-cells?
What is the function of a Cytotoxic (killer) T-cell?
What are the functions of a Helper T-cell?
What happens when a T-cell presents a macrophage’s
antigen to a B-cell?
What are the functions of a Suppressor T-cell?
What type of B-cell remembers how to destroy a
pathogen that has once invaded the body?
What is the function of Memory B-cells?
Infected lymphocytes have a scalloped
edge where they touch RBC’s
Coordinate the immune response by
recruiting other white blood cells.
Popping their cell membrane
Popping their cell membrane
T-cell
They do not need to phagocytize the
invading cell, they just kill the cell and
the macrophage dissolves the debris.
T-cells do not need the assistance of
antibodies in order to destroy an
invading cell.
Organ transplant patients
T-cell
Immunosuppressive drugs
T-cell
Thymus Gland
Certain hormones which can cause Tcells to become immunocompetent
Makes the cells mature and start to work
Cytotoxic (killer), Helper, and
Suppressor T-cells
Go out and directly kill bacteria or
infected host cells
Release chemicals called “cytokines” to
call more white blood cells of all types
to join the war.
Present the macrophage’s antigen to a
B-cell.
Produce antibodies against that
particular bacteria
Stop the immune process when it is over
Tell plasma cells to “remember” how to
destroy that specific pathogen.
Memory B-cells
React to remembered pathogens faster
the next time it invades.
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
Why can Memory B-cells react to remembered
pathogens faster?
True or False?
A pathogen can get past the body’s physical and
chemical barriers and the inflammation response.
What are pathogens engulfed by?
What is another word for macrophage?
What does the macrophage release onto a bacterium
to dissolve it?
True or False?
There are still some pieces of the bacterium’s cell
membrane left.
What are surface proteins of macrophages also
known as?
Where does the macrophage force the antigens of the
bacterium?
True or False:
B-cells touch these surface antigens to make a copy
of their shape.
Which cell is presented the surface antigen?
B-cells create ________ against pathogens.
True or False?
Helper T-cells multiply and have two main roles
Helper T-cells activate which type of cells?
What does the Helper T-cell “tell” the B-cells to do?
What do the B-cells turn into?
Plasma cells multiply and produce _________ to
________ a specific pathogen
What is the second role of the Helper T-cells?
What do Killer T-cells secrete?
True or False?
Killer T-cells can destroy the pathogen itself
(bacteria)
Why would a Killer T-cell destroy an entire body
cell?
When an immune response is over, what kind of cell
stops the process?
What do Supressor T-cells “tell” some B-cells to do?
B-cells (plasma cells) now become __________.
What is leukemia? And what kind of cell does it
involve?
Memory B-cells already have the proper
antibodies stored up for that pathogen.
True
Macrophages
Neutrophil
The contents of its lysosomes
True
Antigens
To it’s own cell surface.
False.
Correct cell: Helper T-cells
B-cells
Antibodies
True
B-cells and Killer T-cells
Helper T-cells tell B-cells how to
neutralize the pathogen by presenting
the pieces of the bacterium cell
membrane.
Plasma cells
Antibodies; neutralize
To activate the Killer T-cells.
Cytokines
True
It is infected with a virus
Suppressor T-cells
Suppressor T-cells “tell” some B-cells
(plasma cells) to “remember” how to
destroy that specific pathogen
Memory B-cells
Cancer of the blood involving the white
blood cells
9
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What happens when one stem cell does not function
properly?
What is a result from a decrease of WBC?
Where are the immature white cells sent to?
Define Leukemia
True or False?
Even though WBC count is high, they are all
immature forms
Leukemia is a form of cancer classified as a disorder
of ________ where too few mature ______ are made
True or False?
Lymphoblastic is defined as too many mature
lymphocytes
Too many immature neutrophils is defined as?
What do people with severe leukemia need
transplated?
Before a bone marrow transplant, what has to happen
with the recipients WBCs?
The donor usually has a small cylinder of bone
removed from their _____
How is the bone marrow given to the recipient?
True or False?
The new WBC’s may kill the patient or it may save
their life
Define WBC count
True or False?
An increase or decrease is WBC’s can be significant
Define White blood cell differential
How many different types of WBC are there?
Name the different types of WBC’s
Neutrophils are also known as
Excess neutrophils is defined as
Too few neutrophils is defined as
Define thrombocytophilia
Define thrombocytopenia
How long do Lymphocytes live
How long do Erythrocytes live
How long do Platelets live
It will make huge amounts of clones of
itself which do not function the right
way, resulting in not enough normal
WBC being made
The body cannot fight infection
The bloodstream
Leukemia can be defined as too few
mature WBC
True
Leukocytes; WBCs
False. Lymphoblastic is defined as too
many immature lymphocytes
Myeloblastic
A bone marrow transplant
The WBCs of the recipient have to be
killed off with a medicine since they are
mostly malfunctioning.
Hip
Via i.v
True
A count of the actual number of white
blood cells per volume of blood.
True
It identifies the types of white blood
cells present
Five
Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes,
eosinophils, and basophils.
Segs, PMNs, granulocytes, grans
Neutrophilia
Neutropenia
Excess platelets
Too few platelets
can live a lifetime
4 months
about 2 months
10
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
How long do Monocytes live
How long do Neutrophils live
Antibodies are also known as what?
What are antibodies made by?
What are typically basic structural unit?
What shape does the antibody form?
What are the tips of the “Y” ?
What does the stem of the “Y” do?
What is the hypervariable region?
What is the advantage of the hypervariable region?
What is the function of IgD?
What is the function of IgE?
What is the function of IgG?
What is the function of IgA?
What is the function of IgM?
Why are people sick more often as children than in
their 20’s and 30’s?
What is Myasthenia gravis (MG)?
What are symptoms of MG?
What are platelets made from?
What happens when a platelet encounters a broken
blood vessel?
Platelets are responsible for what?
What is a platelet?
What is the primary function of a platelet?
Where are platelets located?
30 days
about a week
immunoglobulins, abbreviated Ig
are proteins made by plasma cells.
each with two large heavy chains and
two small light chains
to form a unit shaped like the letter “Y”
have receptors that are specific for a
particular antigen
can be grasped by a phagocyte.
Small region at the tip of an antigen
allowing millions of antibodies with
slightly different tip structures, or
antigen binding sites, to exist
allows the immune system to recognize
an equally wide diversity of antigens
initiation of immune response
stimulates allergic reactions, good for
worm infections
highest concentration in blood, highest
amounts in most secondary responses.
Indicates infection was in the past. It can
also cross the placenta.
secretory Ig, found in secretions,
highest concentration in body
produced first, best at C’ activation.
Indicates infection is current
we build up many varieties of memory
lymphocytes during childhood,
providing immunity from more and
more antigens during adulthood
autoimmune disease where antibodies
destroy or block receptors for
acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter.
Causes flaccid muscle paralysis
Pieces break off of a megakaryocte and
are known as platelets
it uses clotting factors (made in the liver
and circulating in the blood) to form a
web to clots blood.
clot (thrombus) formation
Is the cell fragment that is broken off
from megakaryocytes.
Function in clotting of blood
In the plasma called Clotting factor in
order for then to become activated form
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What Term means lack of platelets?
Primary vitamin that is needed for blood clotting
factor?
Where is vitamin K found?
What is a Therapeutic use for Aspirin
What is hemophilia?
What is a thrombus?
What is an Embolism?
What is platelet count?
What can thrombocytophilia and thrombocytopenia
indicate?
What is the Mean Platelet Volume and how does it
relate to the age of platelets?
What are the uses of PT and PTT tests and which are
the coagulation factors they evaluate?
a clot. They are found in Fibrin; it is
made from Fibrinogen.
Thrombocytopenia; it is abnormal
lowing concentration of platelets.
Vitamin K
Found in green, leafy vegetables.
Can help blood clots by blocking the
action of platelets. It
A hereditary disease of males, where
they are unable to clot properly because
they are missing some clotting factors.
When they get even a slight bump or
bruise they have to have an intravenous
infusion of clotting factors or they will
bleed to death.
A clot in a vessel
A thrombus that broke away and travels
in the blood stream. It usually lodges in
a smaller blood vessel and blocks
circulation distal to that point.
The platelet count is the number of
platelets in a given volume of blood.
Both increases (thrombocytophilia) and
decreases (thrombocytopenia) can point
to abnormal conditions of excess
bleeding or clotting.
Mean platelet volume (MPV) is a
machine-calculated measurement of the
average size of your platelets. New
platelets are larger, and an increased
MPV occurs when increased numbers of
platelets are being produced.
The PTT test is used to investigate
unexplained bleeding or clotting. It may
be ordered along with a PT
(Prothrombin Time) test to evaluate
hemostasis (the process of clot
formation).
The PTT evaluates the coagulation
factors XII, XI, X, IX, VIII, V, II
(prothrombin), and I (fibrinogen).
A PT test evaluates the coagulation
factors VII, X, V, II, and I (fibrinogen).
By evaluating the results of the two tests
together, a doctor can gain clues as to
12
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
How Heparin is used as anticoagulant drug therapy?
What primary diseases are monitored by CBC and
what are the parts of a Complete Blood Count?
what bleeding or clotting disorder may
be present.
These tests are used to monitor heparin
anticoagulant therapy. Heparin is a drug
that is given intravenously (IV) or by
injection to prevent and to treat blood
clots. IV’s are also flushed with heparin
to prevent clot formation. When it is
administered for therapeutic purposes, it
must be closely monitored. If too much
is given, the treated person may bleed
excessively; with too little, the treated
person may continue to clot.
The complete blood count or CBC test is
used as a broad screening test to check
for such disorders as anemia, infection,
and many other diseases. It is actually a
panel of tests that examines different
parts of the blood and includes the
following:
White blood cell (WBC) count
White blood cell differential
Red blood cell (RBC) count
Hemoglobin
Hematocrit
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin
concentration (MCHC)
Red cell distribution width (RDW)
platelet count
PT, PTT (separate test from CBC)
List the three different types of granulocytes in the
blood
13
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
List the two agranulocytes in the blood
What is septicemia?
What entry points bacteria can use in order to gain
access to the blood?
What consequences the presence of bacteria have in
the blood?
What is the treatment of septicemia?
What are the stem cells?
What are the advantages of stem cells and why would
research use embryos as stem cell sources rather than
the placenta?
Septicemia (aka bacteremia or toxemia)
is the condition when bacteria invade the
body and circulate in the blood.
Bacteria can enter the bloodstream as a
severe complication of infections (like
pneumonia or meningitis), during
surgery (especially when involving
mucous membranes such as the
gastrointestinal tract), or due to catheters
and other foreign bodies entering the
arteries or veins (including intravenous
drug abuse).
Bacteremia can have several
consequences. The immune response to
the bacteria can cause sepsis and septic
shock, which has a relatively high
mortality rate (kills 1 person in 5).
Bacteria can also use the blood to spread
to other parts of the body (which is
called hematogenous spread), causing
infections away from the original site of
infection. Examples include endocarditis
or osteomyelitis.
Treatment is with antibiotics, and
prevention with antibiotic prophylaxis
can be given in situations where
problems are to be expected.
STEM CELL: A cell that has not
matured and differentiated yet.
An embryo has lots of stem cells which
have not decided to become a nerve cell,
muscle cell, liver cell, etc. Stem cells
become the type of cell the body needs.
The placenta of a newborn infant has
many of these stem cells, too, but not as
many as an embryo. That’s why people
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What is the first step for a stem cell?
What is hematopoiesis?
How many new blood cells are formed each day?
Where are plasma proteins made?
Where are blood cells made?
Where is red bone marrow located?
What are characteristics of yellow bone marrow?
What is released into the bloodstream once
completely mature?
Where are blood cells destroyed once they are
old?
Where do T cells mature?
What cells originate from blood stem cells?
What happens when a RBC loses its nucleus?
What are reticulocytes?
What is the relationship between lymphoblasts
and lymphocytes
What are myeloblasts?
What is Leukemia?
What is an inflammation reaction?
What are the four signs of inflammation?
What causes redness in the stages of
inflammation?
want to research stem cells on embryos;
there are more stem cells there.
To differentiate in order to decide which
cell it belongs to.
blood cell formation
100 billion
In the liver
In the red bone marrow/spongy bone
Epiphyses of long bones, girdles
(clavicle, scapula pelvic bones), axial
skeleton (sternum and vertebral bones)
Contains many fats cells, located in long
bones of adults, has nothing to do with
forming blood cells.
blood cells
in the spleen and the liver
the thymus gland
erythroblasts: red blood cells
lymphoblasts: lymphocytes
myeloblasts: all other white blood cells
it gains room for more hemoglobin
cells with some bits of nucleus for about
two days
Lymphoblast give rise to lymphocytes
These are the stem cells that mature into
the other leukocytes.
Leukemia is cancer of the stem cells
When you get stuck by a thorn or have
an infected cut, the body goes through a
series of events called an inflammatory
reaction.
– Redness (erythema or
rubor)
– Heat (calor)
– Swelling (edema or
tumor)
Pain (dolor)
a. Redness is caused from
the blood vessels dilating
to allow more blood flow
to the area. Within the
blood are platelets to clot
the blood, proteins to
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
repair the damage, and
macrophages, which are
white blood cells that eat
up the foreign body,
bacteria, or the dead
cells.
What causes heat in the stages of inflammation?
b. Heat is caused because of
the extra amount of warm
blood flow to the area.
What causes swelling in the stages of
c. Swelling is caused from
inflammation?
the plasma that leaks out
of the swollen blood
vessels.
What causes pain in the stages of inflammation?
d. Pain is caused from the
pressure of the extra fluid
pressing on nerves in the
area.
What are the two types of immune response?
The immune response is divided into
two parts: Innate Immunity (WBC) and
Adaptive Immunity
e. (Antibodies)
What are the two types of Adaptive Immunity?
Active immunity and Passive immunity
What is active immunity?
Active means the person’s own body
makes the antibodies.
 Naturally Acquired
– The body is naturally
exposed to an infectious
agent and launches an
immune reaction
 Artificially Acquired
The person is injected with a weakened
(attenuated) or killed organism, as found
in a vaccination
What is naturally acquired active immunity?
It is when the body is exposed to an
infectious agent and the body has to
work to produce antibodies which
specifically attack that infectious agent.
In naturally acquired active immunity, which cells The white blood cells secrete these
secrete these antibodies, how long can they live,
antibodies which will continue to
and how do they attack?
circulate sometimes for years, ready to
attack that type of bacteria and cause
them to pop like a balloon before the
body can become sick.
Can you get the same cold virus twice?
No, you will become immune to it. Your
next cold is from a different virus.
Which diseases may kill you at first exposure?
Polio, diphtheria, tetanus, and influenza.
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What is a vaccine?
What is the point of vaccination?
What is an example of Artificially Acquired
Active Immunity?
What does passive in Passive Immunity mean?
What is an example of naturally acquired
immunity?
What are the two types of passive immunity?
What are two examples of artificially acquired
immunity?
Are active or passive immunity for life or short
life?
What are allergies?
What are the two types of allergic responses?
What is an immediate allergic response?
What will stop an allergic reaction for peanuts or
seafood?
What is a delayed allergic response?
What is an example of a delayed allergic
response?
What are the two types of chemical mediators of
allergies?
What are the two preformed chemical mediators
of allergies?
What are the newly formed chemical mediators of
It is an altered or attenuated form of the
virus that the body recognizes as
foreign, but they can’t cause disease.
If the person is exposed to the real
organism later, the antibodies are
already there to kill it off without the
body getting sick.
An example is when a child is
vaccinated against measles as a baby, so
when he gets to school and is exposed to
the disease, he doesn’t get sick.
PASSIVE means the person’s body does
not have to make the antibodies.
An example is the passing of antibodies
from mother to infant in breast milk.
Naturally acquired or artificially
acquired
The first example is when a person
receives an infusion of antibodies from
someone else. The second is an example
of an ebola survivor that donates his
blood to another infected person.
Active immunity is long-lived, and may
last for years or even a life time.
Passive immunity is short lived, and
may last only for a few months.
It is a hypersensitivity to substances
such as pollen or animal hair that would
not ordinarily cause a reaction.
Immediate and delayed.
A reaction that occurs within seconds of
contact with the thing causing the
allergy.
A shot of epinephrine will stop the
reaction.
When the body’s first exposure to the
substance will not cause a reaction, but
all exposures afterward will trigger the
response.
Not itching the first time you touch
poison ivy.
Pre-formed and newly formed
Histamine and proteases.
Leukotrienes, platelet activating factor,
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
allergies?
Bodily reactions to histamine?
Bodily reactions to proteases?
Bodily reactions to Leukotrienes?
Bodily reactions to platelet activating factor?
Bodily reactions to prostaglanin D2?
Bodily reactions to cytokines?
Where to symptoms of allergic reactions manifest
themselves?
What is a wheal-and-flare reaction?
What are some examples of symptoms of an
allergic reaction?
What is localized anaphylaxis?
What is the definition of pruritis?
What is the definition of urticarial?
What is allergic rhinitis?
What is atopic dermatitis?
What are the types of stimulants of an allergic
asthma attack?
What are the symptoms of an allergic asthma
attack?
What percent of the U.S. population is
hypersensitive to allergens, and classified as
asthmatic?
What is an autoimmune disease?
What is Hematology?
What is done in a Hematology Laboratory?
What is one of the most common types of tests
prostaglanin D2, cytokines,
Elevated vascular permeability; smooth
muscle contraction
Mucous secretion, generation of
complement split
products
Elevated vascular permeability;
contraction of pulmonary smooth
muscles
Platelet aggregation; contraction of
pulmonary smooth muscles
Vasodilation; contraction of smooth
muscles
Chemotactic and inflammatory
They are dependent upon site of allergen
exposure
Pruritis (itching), erythema on the skin
bronchoconstriction
mucous secretion
vasodilation (shock)
A reaction limited to the site of allergen
exposure
Itching
Hives
Hay fever
Eczema
Airborne, blood borne, and
degranulation of mast cells due to IgE
cross-linking in the lower respiratory
tract.
airway edema
mucous secretion
inflammation
5%
A hereditary problem where the body
thinks its own tissues are foreign bodies,
and it constantly tries to kill off its own
tissues.
Study of the diseases of blood
The fundamental concepts of biology
and chemistry are applied to the medical
diagnosis and treatment of various
disorders.
CBC
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
performed in Hematology Laboratory?
What is a CBC?
What are two common instruments used in
molecular diagnostics?
What types of people are employed in a
Hematology Laboratory?
Assays and examinations performed in the
Laboratory are used for what purpose?
What are some of the safety procedures in a
Hematology Laboratory?
What are the duties of the safety officer?
What are OSHA Standards?
What is a Chemical Hygiene plan?
What is a MSDS?
How were HAZCOM Standards procedures
described?
Complete Blood Count, for example,
Red Blood Cells diagnosis Anemia,
White Blood Cells diagnosis
Leukemia’s and Platelet diagnosis
coagulation.
Flow cell cytometry and Digital Imaging
MLS, MLT, Lab assistants, and
phlebotomists play a major role in
patient care.
Establish a diagnosis, rule out a
diagnosis, detect an
Unsuspected disorder, monitor the
effects of therapy,
Detect minimal residual disease
following therapy.
Exercising good technique, staying alert,
a formal safety program, specifically
mandated plans for example, chemical
hygiene, bloodborne pathogens,
identification of various hazards for
instance, chemical and biological.
Duties affecting staff including
compliance with existing regulation
affecting laboratory and staff for
instance labeling of chemicals and
providing supplies for proper handling
and disposal of biohazardous materials
Occupational Safety Health
Administration Acts is to ensure safe
and healthful working conditions for
workers suitable protective equipment,
exposure control procedure, and
implementation of training and
education programs
Ensures Laboratory workers are fully
aware of hazards associated with
chemicals in their workplaces.
Material Safety Data Sheet describes
hazard, safety handling, storage and
disposal of hazardous chemicals.
• Revised criteria for the
classification of chemical
hazards
• Revised labeling provisions that
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
How were HAZCOM standards administrated by
OSHA?
When did Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne
Pathogens become law?
Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens
standard requirements:
Know how to handling medical waste:
How did the CDC and CLSI involve in the safety
precaution standards?
What did CDC provide in HIV prevention and
treatment?
How did the HIV-1 prevention administrated?
include requirements for the use
of standardized signal words,
pictograms, hazard statements,
and precautionary statements
• A specified format for safety
data sheets (currently known as
material safety data sheets)
Related revisions to definitions of terms
used in the standard and requirements
for employee training on labels and
safety data sheets
Legislation on chemical hazard
precautions, such as state “right to
know” laws, and OSHA document 29
CFR 1910 set the standards for chemical
hazard communication (HAZCOM) and
determine the types of documents that
must be on file in a laboratory.
1.
March 1992
Regulation requires that laboratories
develop, implement, and comply with a
plan that ensures the protective safety of
laboratory staff to potential infectious
bloodborne pathogens, hepatitis B virus
(HBV), and human immunodeficiency
virus (HIV).
The law further specifies the rules for
managing and handling medical waste in
a safe and effective manner.
The CDC also recommends safety
precautions concerning the handling of
all patient specimens, known as standard
precautions. New the CLSI also
establish guidelines for laboratory work
in regard to the protection from bloodborne diseases spread through contact
with patient specimens.
CDC provides recommendations for
treatment after occupational exposure to
potentially infectious material.
The recognition of HIV-1 generated new
policies from the CDC and mandated
regulations by OSHA: Guidelines
"Recommendations for Prevention of
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
When did HHS regulations pass?
Does HIV transmit through human saliva?
What were the OSHA requirements for an
employer?
How many cases were estimated of needlestick
injuries occur in US each year?
What is the most risk device that is caused
injuries?
What is the most infected HIV varieties at
workplace?
How does the HIV transmission?
HIV Transmission in Health-Care
Settings"
Dept. of Labor, OSHA has
“Occupational Exposure to Blood-borne
Pathogens"
US Department of HHS regulations for
Implementing the Clinical Laboratory
Improvement Amendments of 1988
How did the HIV transmit into
human body?
HIV has been isolated from blood and
body fluids for example semen, imaginal
secretions, saliva, tears, breastmilk,
cerebral spinal fluid (CSF), amniotic
fluid, and urine, but only blood semen
factional secretions and breastmilk have
been implicated in transmission of HIV
to date new recently, sperm cells
themselves have been discovered to be
able to be capable of transmitting HIV.
Evidence for the role saliva in the
transmission of the virus is unclear, but
standard precautions do not apply to
saliva uncontaminated with blood.
Provide a safe work environment.
OSHA mandates that an employer
− Educate and train all
healthcare workers in
standard precautions and
in preventing bloodborne
infections.
− Provide proper
equipment and supplies,
e.g., gloves.
Monitor compliance with the protective
biosafety policies.
The CDC estimates that more than
380,000 needlestick injuries occur in US
hospitals each year
61% of these injuries are caused by
hollow-bore devices.
Blood is the most frequently advocated
infected body fluid and HIV and HBV
exposure in the workplace.
Occupational exposure is a percutaneous
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What is the HIV prevention procedure among
healthcare personnel?
What will be the higher risk of HIV infection?
How risk does a non-intact HIV transmit through
human skin or mucous membranes?
What were the risks of HIV infection?
When did the needlestick Safety and Prevention
become law?
What were the requirements for needlestick
Safety and Prevention Act?
injury, for example needlestick or cut
with a sharp object, or contact by
mucous membranes or nonintact skin
(especially when the skin is chapped,
Abraded, or affected with dermatitis), or
the contact is prolonged or involves an
extensive area with blood, Tissues,
blood-stained body fluids, body fluids to
which standard precautions apply, or
concentrated virus.
Among healthcare personnel with
documented occupationally acquired
HIV infection, prior percutaneous
exposure is the most prevalent of
infection.
Certain percutaneous injuries carry a
higher risk of infection.
1) A deep injury late stage HIV
disease in the source patient
2) Visible blood on the device that
caused the injury
Injury with a needle that had been
placed in a source patient's artery or vein
There are a small number of instances
when HIV has been acquired through
contact with non-intact skin or mucous
membranes:
a) Splashes of blood in the eye
Aerosols
The risk of infection not only varies with
the type of exposure but also may be
influenced by:
q) Amount of infected blood in the
exposure Length of contact with
infectious material
r) Amount of virus in the patient's
blood or body fluid or tissue at
the time of exposure
Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act
became law, November 6, 2000.
1) Requires healthcare employers to
provide safety engineered sharp
devices and it'll assist him to
employees to reduce the risk of
occupational exposure to HIV,
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What was the good news in Occupational
Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens recently?
How was the risk of HIV transmission?
What is used as the most widespread control
measure required by OSHA and CLSI in sharps
prevention?
What is the primary purpose of a sharps
container?
Where are sharps containers to be located?
Who should carry these red, puncture-resistant
containers in their collection trays?
How should needles not be placed in the
container?
What does the use of special sharps containers
allow?
What is the recommendation of the manipulation
of any “sharp” by hand?
hepatitis C, and other bloodborne disease.
2) Expands the definition of
engineering controls to include
devices with engineered sharps
injury protection.
3) Requires that exposure control
plans document consideration
and implementation of safer
medical devices designed to
eliminate or minimize
occupational exposure.
4) Annual review of occupational
exposure implementation
5) Requires each healthcare facility
to maintain a sharps entry along
with detailed information
regarding cutaneous injuries
Requires employers to solicit input from
healthcare workers when identifying and
selecting sharps and document process.
Good news-most occupational exposures
do not result in infection
•
The average risk of HIV transmission
after exposure to infected blood is low-about three per 1000 entries.
Puncture-resistant sharps containers.
To eliminate the need for anyone to
transport needles and other sharps while
looking for a place to discard them.
Located in the patient areas as well as
conveniently placed in the laboratory.
Phlebotomists.
Needles should not project from the top
of the container.
It permits quick disposal of a needle
without recapping and other sharp
devices that may be contaminated with
blood.
It is recommended that you not recap,
bend, break, or otherwise manipulate
any needle or lancet device.
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
How have most needlestick accidents occurred?
How can other accidents happen?
How can these disposal-related exposures be
eliminated?
How are sharps containers discarded?
Who should you report your needlestick injury
to?
Medical personnel must be aware that what two
viruses are totally different?
How common is exposure to HIV in an
occupational transmission to a healthcare
personnel with no other know high risk factors?
Why shouldn’t HIV be underrated?
What is the least likely to occur if proper safety
practices are followed?
What is fatal and more probable than HIV?
Which virus is found in lower concentrations of
blood and which is found in higher concentrations
of blood?
How many days does HIV retain infectivity for?
What was the leading occupationally acquired
infection of healthcare workers before the
invention of its vaccine?
Approximately how many healthcare workers are
still infected with HBV each year following
occupational exposure?
What factors does the likelihood of infection after
exposure of HBV or HIV depend on?
What federal standard did OSHA issue in 1991 as
a mandate to employers to provide?
During the recapping of a needle after
phlebotomy.
During housekeeping, when
contaminated sharps are left on a bed,
concealed in linens or disposed of
improperly in a trash can.
With the proper use of sharps containers.
The containers are closed and placed in
biohazard waste.
Either the supervisor or another
designated individual.
HBV and HIV.
Uncommon but it has been documented.
Although is an unlikely work-related
hazard, it can be fatal.
HIV.
HBV.
HIV is usually found in lower
concentrations where as HBV is found
in higher concentrations and is present
in blood or blood products.
Three days in dried specimens at room
temperature,
one week in an aqueous environment at
room temp.
Hepatitis B virus (HBV).
800.
The concentration of the virus in the
sample (HBV has a higher level of viral
concentration than HIV), if there are any
skin lesions or abrasions on the exposed
skin of the healthcare worker, and the
immunity status of the healthcare worker
for HBV.
It requires employers to provide the
hepatitis B vaccine to all employees at
no cost to them who have or may have
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What must an employee do if they refuse a
vaccine?
What is the best prophylaxis against blood-borne
pathogen exposure?
What is given if an individual has not been
vaccinated for HBV and is exposed to hepatitis B
in a penetrating injury?
If administered in accordance with the
manufacturers directions, what are both of these
products considered?
What is the most important strategy for reducing
risk of occupational HIV transmission?
What organization has issued guidelines for the
management of healthcare personnel exposures to
HIV and recommendations for PEP.
Why is occupational exposure considered to be an
urgent medical concern?
What should the lab staff members be informed of
if an accidental occupational exposure does
occur?
Why should a course of action be planned ahead
of the occurrence of an actual incident?
If a “source patient” can be identified, what
should the work up then include?
How do the patients rights in regard to testing of a
source patient vary?
What does the ACIP recommend after Skinner
mucosal exposure to blood?
If an individual has not been vaccinated, what is
given?
What does HBIG contain?
What should the doctors be alerted of if an
exposure occurs?
If a parenteral exposure takes place, what should
a laboratory professional do?
Monitoring and follow-up counseling should be
what?
What happens if voluntary informed consent is
obtained?
When should the laboratory professional be
had an occupational exposure to blood
or potentially infective materials.
They must sign a declination form.
Vaccination against HBV and
compliance with precautions.
Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) is
given concurrently with hepatitis B
vaccine.
Both (HBIG and hepatitis B vaccine) are
considered safe and proven free of any
risk of infection with HBV or HIV.
To prevent exposures but there should
be a plan for post exposure management.
The CDC.
To ensure timely post exposure
management.
They should be informed of their
options for treatment.
Because it can trigger an emotional
response.
The work up should include testing the
patient for various infectious diseases.
The laws vary from state to state.
Immunoprophylaxis, depending on
several factors.
HBIG is usually given within 24 hours,
concurrently with hepatitis B vaccine.
Antibodies to HBV and offers a pump
but short lived protection.
Risk of infection, and be evaluated
medically for any history, signs or
symptoms consistent with HIV
infection.
They may request follow-up monitoring
for hepatitis or HIV antibodies.
Provided free of charge.
The source of the potentially infections
material and the technical/technologist
should be tested immediately.
Immediately, but also at intervals after
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
tested?
What should be filed after exposure?
What are not recommended for PEP or hepatitis
C?
What are some steps you must follow after postexposure?
exposure.
An injury report.
Immune globulin and anti-viral agents
(interferon with or without ribavirin).
* Although the most important strategy
for reducing the risk of occupational
HIV transmission is to prevent
occupational exposures, plans for post
exposure management of healthcare
personnel should be in place.
* The CDC has issued guidelines for the
management of healthcare personnel
exposures to HIV and recommendations
for PEP.
* An occupational exposure should be
considered to be an urgent medical
concern to ensure timely post exposure
management.
* If an accidental occupational exposure
does occur laboratory staff members
should be informed of options for
treatment.
* Because a needle stick can trigger an
emotional response it is wise to think
about the course of action before the
occurrence of an actual incident.
When can a TB test come out to be a false
When the healthcare worker has recently
negative?
spent time with and been exposed to
someone with active TB, their skin test
may not yet be positive.
When will a healthcare worker need to get a
They may need a second skin test 10 to
second Tb test?
12 weeks after the last time they had
contact with the infected person.
How long does it take for the immune system to
It can take up to several weeks after the
react to the TB skin test?
exposure.
What does a second negative TB test mean?
They may need a second skin test 10 to
12 weeks after the last time they had
contact with the infected person.
What should workers who have strongly positive They should be evaluated clinically and
reactions, with a skin test diameter greater than 15 microbiologically, and two sputum
mm, and symptoms suggestive of TB do?
specimens collected on successive days
should be investigated for TB by
microscopy and culture.
What are some vaccines that all lab staff needs to Rubella and Hepatitis B
have if antibodies are not demonstrable?
Why is immunization of all lab staff important?
Individuals are recognized for being at
26
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What is an important component of a health care
organization?
Where can programs’ information about
employees’ vaccination be found?
What are some major considerations of
employees’ vaccination program information’s?
Preemployment health profiles with baseline
screening of students in laboratory staff should
include?
What is something that a laboratory must always
have?
What does a SDS contain?
How long does each lab requires to evaluate the
effectiveness of its plan?
Who should the written plan be available to?
What must a lab written plan include?
Because many hazards in the clinical laboratory
happened, what word was created?
Why is this word posted throughout the lab?
Where can you encounter potential risk?
How does an infection occur in the lab?
Where are laboratory policies found?
Where are manuals frequently published, and
risk for exposure to, and possible
transmission of, diseases that can be
prevented by immunizations.
A well-planned and properly
implemented immunization program.
They are available from advisory
committee on immunization practices
hospital infection controls practices
advisory committee and CDC.
Space characteristics of healthcare
workers employed an individual served,
as well as the requirements of realtor
agencies and local, state, and federal
regulations.
An immune status evaluation for
hepatitis B, rubella, and measles at a
minimum.
Each laboratory must have an up-to-date
safety manual.
This manual contains a comprehensive
listing of approved policies, accept
practices, questions including standard
precautions.
At least annually And two updated as
necessary.
Employees
The purpose and scope of the plan,
references, definitions of terms and
responsibilities, and detailed procedural
steps to follow.
A uniquely special term biohazard was
devised.
To denote infectious materials or agents
that presents a risk to humans’ health or
animals and the laboratory.
Through direct infection or through the
environment.
During the process of specimen
collection or from handling,
transporting, or testing the specimen.
They are included in the laboratory
reference manual that is available to all
hospital personnel.
They are frequently published online
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
what do they contain?
Where are approved policies regarding the
reporting of abnormal values are clearly stated in?
What is a very important safety precaution?
When should hand washing be performed?
and contain information regard patient
preparation for laboratory tests.
In the safety manual.
Hand washing
After contact with patients and
laboratory specimens.
Gloves should be used as an? 1)____and not as a? 1) Adjunct
2) ______ for?______.
2) Substitute
3) Hand washing
What is the efficacy of hand washing?
Reducing transmission of microbial
organisms.
When, at the very minimum, should hands be
1) After completing laboratory work and
washed with soap and water (if visibly soiled) and before leaving the laboratory.
or by hand anti-sepsis with an alcohol-based hand 2) After removing gloves.
rub (if hands are not visibly soiled)?
Glove quality variability with leakage in
4% to 63% of vinyl gloves and 3% to
52% of latex gloves
3) Before eating, drinking, applying
makeup, and changing contact lenses, as
well as before and after using the
lavatory.
4) Before all activities that involve hand
contact with mucous membranes or
breaks in the skin.
5) Immediately after accidental skin
contact with blood, body fluids, or
tissues.
When should the gloves be removed and hands
thoroughly washed?
What should you do if accidental contamination
occurs to an exposed area of the skin or because of a
break and gloves?
Two important points in the practice of hand hygiene
technique are:
If the contact occurs through breaks in
the gloves
One must wash first with the liquid
soap, rinse well with water, and apply a
1:10 dilution of bleach or 50% isopropyl
or a full alcohol. Then the bleacher
alcohol is left on the skin for at least one
minute before final washing with liquid
soap and water.
1) When decontaminating hands with
the waterless of antiseptic agent (e.g., an
alcohol-based hand rub), apply product
the palm of one hand and rub hands
together, covering all surfaces of hands
and fingers, until hands are dry. Follow
the manufacturer's recommendations on
the volume of product to use. If an
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
adequate volume of an alcohol-based
hand rub is used it should take 15 to 25
seconds for hamster dry.
2) When washing with a nonantimicrobial or antimicrobial soap, wet
hands first with warm water, apply 3 to
5 mL of detergent to hands, and rub
hands together vigorously for at least 15
seconds, covering all surfaces of the
hands and fingers. Rinse hands with
warm water and dry thoroughly with a
disposable towel. Use the tile to turn off.
What does PPE stand for ?
Who is responsible for regulating standards and
guidelines to protect employees from exposure of
pathogens present in human blood and body fluids ?
What does PPE mean?
What are some examples of PPE use
Use of latex free is provided by the healthcare to use
when dealing with personnel with sensitivity to latex?
You do not need to use of gloves when working in
the laboratory processing area ?
When performing phlebotomy procedure for each
patient you must wear gloves and disposed of them in
a proper biohazard container the one that is provided
by your work facility and should use of a new pair of
gloving for each new patient ?
A laboratory coat should be used whenever
laboratory personnel are working with potentially
infectious specimens.
Coats that become soil with blood or body fluids can
still be use and could be disposed in a regular bid
trash
What is a disinfected ?
What is use as a multi-barrier strategy to prevent
healthcare associated infections
All work areas should be disinfected by the employee
Personal Protective Equipment
OSHA
Personal protective equipment use of
specialized clothing or equipment used
by workers to protect from direct
exposure to blood or other potential
infections or hazardous material
Gloves
Laboratory facial shields mask
Eye protection and breathing apparatus
True
False
True
True
False
Eliminates many or all pathogenic
microorganisms except for bacterial
spores on in and objects
Disinfectant
True
29
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
at the beginning and end of shift or when needed to
prevent infection to patient and staff ?
There is no need of use of gloves when disinfecting
an area with a 1 to 10 dilution of household bleach or
EPA registered disingfectant?
What is the most widely used chlorine product of
aqueous solutions of 5.25% to 6.15% disinfectants?
Which is a broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity
and does not leave a toxic residue and is unaffected
by water hardness ?
A disinfectant of bleach should have a dilution of
_____concentrated bleach solution ?
How employer should clean and the dilution at work?
When instruments such as scissors or centrifuge
carriages to be sanitize?
Where are disposable materials contaminated with
blood must be placed?
Where disposable materials contaminated with blood
must be placed in?
How treat an area contaminated by either blood or
body fluids needs
What is protocol recommended for managing spells
in the clinical laboratory?
False
Hypochlorite
Bleach
1:10
While wearing gloves employers should
clean and sanitize all work surfaces at
the beginning and end of their shift with
household bleach 1:10 dilution
Before and after the workday with the
diluted solution of bleach
For example about studies have
demonstrated the HIV is inactivated
rapidly after being exposed to common
chemical genocides at concentrations
that are much lower than those used in
practice.
Disposable materials contaminated with
blood must be placed in containers
marked quote Biohazard" properly
discarded
containers marked quote Biohazard
Potentially hazardous, with prompt
removal and surface disinfection.
Neither HBV (or HCV) nor HIVAs
being transmitted from a housekeeping
surface, e.g. countertops
- Wear gloves and a laboratory
coat.
- Absorb
the
blood
with
disposable towels. Remove as
much liquid blood or serum as
possible before decontamination.
- Using a diluted bleach (1:10)
solution, clean the spill site of all
visible blood.
- Wipe down the spill site with
paper towels soaked with diluted
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
Who need programs to minimize risks to?
How to maintain safe operations?
How general infection control safety practices
What is autodilutor?
How general infection control safety practices?
bleach.
- Place all disposable materials
used for decontamination into a
biohazard container.
Decontaminate nondisposable
equipment by soaking overnight in a
dilute bleach (1:10) solution and rinsing
with methyl alcohol and water before
reuse. Disposable glassware or supplies
that have come in contact with blood
should be autoclaved or incinerated.
The health and safety of employees,
volunteers, and patients.
2.
Suitable physical arrangements, and
acceptable work environment, and
appropriate equipment need to be
available to maintain safe operations.
•
All devices in contact with blood
that are capable of transmitting
infection to the donor or
recipient must be sterile and
nonreusable.
• Food and drinks should not be
consumed in work areas or
stored in the same area as
specimens. Containers,
refrigerators, or freezers used for
specimens should be marked as
containing a biohazard.
• Specimens needing
centrifugation should be capped
and placed into a centrifuge with
a sealed dome.
Rubber-stoppered test tubes are opened
slowly and carefully with a gauze square
over the stopper to minimize aerosol
production (the introduction of
substances into the air).
1. Autodilutors or safety bulbs are
used for pipetting. Pipetting of
any clinical material by mouth is
strictly forbidden (see following
discussion
• No tobacco products can be used
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
How to use pipetting safeguards?
How specimen processing protection
What can result in an occupational exposure in
Hematology lab?
What covered a cap when removed from a specimen
tube or a blood collection tube?
in the laboratory.
• No manipulation of contact
lenses or teeth-whitening strips
should be done with gloved or
potentially infectious hands.
• Do not apply lipstick or makeup.
2. All personnel should be familiar
with the location and use of
eyewash stations and safety
showers.
Pipetting must be done by mechanical
means.
Such a device is a bottle top dispenser
that can be used to deliver repetitive
aliquots of reagents.
It is designed bottle mounted system that
can dispense selected volumes in an
easy, precise manner.
• Is usually trouble-free and
requires minimal maintenance.
• Protective gloves should always
be worn for handling any type of
biological specimen.
• Bio hazards are generally treated
with great respect in the clinical
laboratory.
• the adverse effects of pathogenic
substances on the body are well
documented.
• The presence of pathogenic
organisms is not limited to the
culture plates in the
microbiology laboratory.
Airborne infectious particles, or
aerosols, can be found in all areas of a
laboratory where human specimens are
used.
1. In the hematology laboratory,
centrifuge accidents or the
improper removal of rubber
stoppers from test tubes, produce
airborne droplets (aerosols) that
can result in an occupational
exposure.
2. the top should be covered with a
disposable gauze pad or a special
32
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What can reduce contamination of gloves?
How the tube should be held?
What happen if snapping off the cap top?
When not in place on the tube, what should kept?
When specimens are being centrifuged, How the tube
caps should kept?
Should stopped centrifuge by the worker?
What should be taken to control the hazard from
aerosols?
Where constructed plastic splash shields?
What are laboratory safety boxes?
The proper handling of blood and body fluids is
critical to the accuracy of laboratory results, and the
(?) of all individuals who come in contact with
specimens must be guaranteed.
protective pad.
3. Gauze pads with an impermeable
plastic coating on one side
4. The tube should be held away
from the body and the cap gently
twisted to remove it.
5. Snapping off the cap top can
cause some of the contents to
aerosolize.
6. Kept in the gauze and not placed
directly on the work surface or
countertop.
7. the tube caps should always be
kept on the tubes.
8. Centrifuge covers must be used
and left on until the century stops.
Centrifuge should be allowed to
stop by itself it should not be
manually stopped by the worker
is to exercise caution in handling
pipettes and other equipment used to
transfer human specimens, especially
pathogenic materials.
9. These materials should be
discarded properly and carefully.
• It used in many laboratories for
the processing of blood
specimens. Are removed behind
or under the shield, which acts as
a barrier between the person in
the specimen to,.
• This is designed to prevent
aerosols rendering the nose,
eyes, or mouth.
Laboratory safety boxes are
commercially available and can be used
to remove stoppers tubes or perform
other procedures that might cost
spattering.
Specials and safety boxes should be
periodically decontaminated.
safety
33
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
If a blood specimen is to be transported, the shipping
container must meet what organization requirements
for shipping clinical specimens.
Shipping containers must meet the packaging
requirements of major couriers and (?) hazardous
materials regulations.
Approved re-closable plastic bags for handling what
type of specimens does amber bags for analysis of
light-sensitive drugs are available.
T or F. Some specimens must be analyzed
immediately after they reach the laboratory.
Blood specimens for hematology studies can be
stored in the refrigerator for what amount of time
before being used in testing?
After storage, anticoagulated blood must be
thoroughly mixed after it has reached what
temperature?
T or F. Plasma and serum often can be frozen and
preserved satisfactorily until a determination can be
performed.
Whole blood cannot be frozen because RBCs ?
unfreezing.
Freezing preserves (?) sensitive coagulation factors a
laboratory determination is best done on a fresh
specimen.
On the Federal level, the storage and management of
medical waste is primarily regulated by who?
Laws and statutes are defined by what 2 acts?
The assessment of quality results for the various
analyses is critical and is an important component of
the operation of a high-quality (?)
What type of programs monitor the following
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
OSHA
Department of Transportation
Biohazard
True
2 hours
room temperature.
True
rupture
heat
OSHA.
The Occupational Health and Safety Act
and The Clean Air Act.
laboratory.
Quality assessment programs
Test request procedures
Patient identification
Specimen procurement
Specimen labeling
Specimen transportation and processing
procedures
Laboratory personnel performance
Laboratory instrumentation, reagents, and
analytical test procedures
Turnaround times
Accuracy of the final result
34
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
In 1988, the U.S. Congress enacted the what
amendment in response to concerns about laboratory
testing errors?
What was published in the Federal Register on
January 24, 2003?
Clinical Laboratory Improvement
Amendments of 1988 ( CLIA' 88)
What type of factors support quality testing which
include the following:
• Qualified personnel
• Laboratory policies
• Laboratory procedure manual
• Test requisitioning
• Patient identification and specimen
procurement and labeling
• Specimen collection, transport, processing,
and storage
• Preventive maintenance of equipment
• Appropriate methodology
• Accuracy in reporting results and
documentation
Nonanalytical
The entry-level examination competencies of all
validated
Laboratory Requirements Relating to
Quality Systems and Certain Personnel
Qualifications,
CLIA established a minimum threshold for all aspects clinical laboratory testing
of what type of testing?
What also incorporates proficiency testing in the
CLIA’88
regulations?
A quality assessment system is divided into how
Two, nonanalytical factors in the
many major components? nonanalytical factors in the analysis of quantitative data (quality
analysis of quantitative data (quality control [QC]).
control [QC]).
What type of assessment is used in the clinical
Quality assessment
hematology laboratory to ensure excellence in
performance?
Approach to quality assures that correct laboratory
shortest
results are obtained in the (?) possible time and a
reasonable cost?
The total testing process (TTP) is defined by
•Preanalytical (preexamination)
activities in three distinct phases related to workflow •Analytical (examination)
outside and inside the laboratory, which are what?
 Postanalytical
35
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
certified persons and hematology must be (?).
Validation takes the form of both external
certification and new employee orientation to the
what type of environment?
T or F? Participant patient and continuing education
activities is essential to the maintenance of
competency and is required in some instances to
maintain professional certification.
Personnel performance should be monitored with 1
and 2.
Quality assessment demands that a (?) monitors
results of daily work and that all analytical
(examination) reports produced during up to go
should be evaluated for errors and omissions.
Where is the Laboratory policy located?
Who has access to the laboratory policy?
What must each laboratory have?
What must each company’s manuals contain a listing
of?
What must also be included in manuals? (Think large
scale.)
Name the 3 other sources that have mandatory and
voluntary standards.
Laboratory procedures should be contained in a
_______ and ________ document.
Where can approved policies for the reporting of
results be found?
Who reviews and updates the manuals?
How often are manuals updated?
What format of standards do manuals have to comply
with?
What is CLSI?
To support a QC program, of methods to document a
laboratory results, will be found where?
What does proper documentation ensures?
What does the CLSI recommends that the procedure
manual follow?
True or False. Does each assay done in hematology
laboratory must be included in the manual?
Name the 11 minimal components that are to be
work environment
True
1. periodic evaluations and reports
reports.
• Supervisor
• In a laboratory reference manual.
• All hospital personnel
• An up-to-date safety manual
Approved policies
Acceptable practices
• Precautions, including standard
blood and body fluid precautions
OSHA regulations
Specific regulations that conformed with
current state and general requirement
JCAHO, CAP, and the CDC.
Current | Complete
In the laboratory procedures
Supervisory staff
Regularly, Annually, and as needed
CLSI format standards.
An internationally recognized group of
laboratory professionals who lead
quality assessment efforts.
Procedure manual.
That control specimens have been
properly monitored.
A specific pattern of organization.
True
1. Title of the assay
36
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
included in the manual.
Who can request a laboratory test?
Name the 4 factors that have to be on the requisition
(either hardcopy or electronic).
What information accompanying a specimen must
have and match exactly?
When physicians need information to assist in
ordering test, where will they find it?
What is one of the first steps in establishing a quality
assessment program for the clinical laboratory?
What current information about obtaining appropriate
specimens should be included in the database?
It is important that patients are?
What are the most common source of laboratory
errors?
What education assessment is an asset to specimen
identification?
What is a must requirement on a specimen once it has
been obtained from the patient?
What do computer-generated barcode labels assist in?
True or False. Analytical result can only be as good
as a specimen received?
2. Principle of the procedure and
statement of clinical applications
3. Protocol for specimen collection
and storage
4. QC information
5. Reagents, supplies, and
equipment
6. Procedural protocol
7. Reference “normal" ranges
8. Technical sources of error
9. Limitations of the procedure
10. Proper procedures for specimen
collection in storage
Approved policies for the reporting of
results
• A primary care provider or, in
some states, the patient.
1. The patient identification data,
2. The time and date of specimen
collection
3. The source of specimen
• Analyses to be performed.
• Patient identification requisition.
•
In an online database or printed
handbook.
• An electronic database or
handbook of specimen
requirement information.
Special collection requirements for
various types of tests.
Ordering test correctly
• Transporting and processing
specimen.
Carefully identified
Pre-analytical (preexamination) errors
Computerized barcoded
That specimens are properly labeled
Making certain that the proper patient
identification is noted on each specimen
True
37
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What is critical to the accuracy of any test?
Strict adherence to correct procedures
for specimen collection storage.
How must specimens be transferred to the laboratory? Efficiently
Name an example of special handling conditions that Placing the specimen on ice immediately
some assays require?
after collection.
When should specimens be tested after collection to
Within two hours.
produce accurate results?
What is important aspect of the quality assessment
The documentation of specimen arrival
process?
times the laboratory as well as other
specific test request data.
What is critical to obtaining accurate results?
Correct storage of specimens.
What is an important issue when blood is collected at Specimen integrity
a site away from the testing facility?
Name two test that are samples may need to be drawn Prothrombin time [PT] and activated
several hours before testing.
partial thromboplastin time [aPTT])
What protocol by CLSI must blood samples collected Collection, Transport, and Processing of
for PT and aPTT analysis and tubes with sodium
Blood Specimens for Testing Plasmacitrate should be handled using the following when
Based Coagulation Assays, 2008
collected off-site?
The sample tube should remain ________ before
Unopened.
testing.
Name 2 things that are done to a specimen once it is
Centrifuged and testing
received by the lab?
What is important to the quality of test performance? Monitoring of the temperatures of
equipment and refrigerators.
What must microscopes, centrifuges, and other pieces Cleaned and checked
of equipment need regularly to ensure accuracy?
What all automated equipment have regularly?
Preventive maintenance schedule
How often should equipment such as microscopes,
On a regular schedule.
centrifuges, and spectrophotometers should be clean
and check for accuracy?
What can produce inaccurate test results and lead to
Failure to monitor equipment regularly
expensive repairs?
Preventive maintenance of equipment includes:
Instrument maintenance, reagent lot
change, major component replacement,
new software installation
How often should labs recalibrate an analytical
Every 6 months
examination method?
Clinical labs must follow which requirements for
CLIA or the manufacturer's
instrument calibration frequency?
requirements
How often should labs recalibrate an analytical
Every six months
examination method?
True or False: When new methods are introduced, it's TRUE
important to check the procedure for accuracy and
variability.
True or False: Replicate analyses using control
FALSE
38
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
specimens are recommended to check for: precision
and similarities between technologists
How do labs monitor individual patient results?
Why are delta checks investigated?
What are examples of pre-analytical pre exam errors?
The ongoing process of making certain that the
correct lab result is reported for the right patient in a
timely manner and at the correct cost is called?
What is evaluated as part of the CQI process?
Each lab sets the same indicators
When are test results recorded and reported?
Documentation is an important aspect of quality
assessment
What is quality control used for?
The purpose of quality control is to detect errors that
result from:
What are quality control activities?
Documentation of QC includes:
Knowledge of statistics is important in hematology
for which 2 reasons:
What does Accuracy means in Clinical Quality
Control ?
What term describes comparison of an instrument
measurement or reading to a known physical
constant?
By clinical values or the Delta check
system
To rule out arrows such as mislabeling
of a specimen
Obtaining specimens from IV lines,
specimen processing error, actual
changes in the patient's clinical
condition
Continuous quality improvement (CQI)
Quality assessment indicators
FALSE
Whenever there is any problem or
situation that might affect the outcome
of the test result
TRUE
Monitors the accuracy and precision of a
test performance over time
Test system failure, adverse
environmental conditions, variance: the
factors or fluctuations that affect the
measurement in operator performance
Monitoring the performance of a lab
instrument, reagents, other testing
products and equipment
Preventive maintenance records,
temperature charts, and QC charts for
specific assets.
Application of statistical analyses of
results and quality assessment protocols,
instrumental applications of statistics to
erythrocyte, leukocyte, platelet reports
Accuracy is:
How close a test result is to the true
value.
This term implies freedom from error.
Reference samples and standards with
known values are needed to check
accuracy.
Calibration
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What is a Control?
What is Precision?
What is Proficiency testing?
How is Proficiency testing obtained?
Describe Standards
A specimen that is similar in
composition to the patient's whole blood
or plasma.The value of the control
specimen is known.
A control specimen must be carried
through the entire test procedure and
treated in exactly the same way as any
unknown specimen; it is must be a
affected by all variables that affect the
unknown specimen.
Control specimens are tested daily or in
conjunction with the unknown patient
specimen.
Controls are the best measurements of
precision and made a recent normal or
abnormal test values
Precision is how close the test results are
to one another when repeated analyses
of the same material are performed.
Precision reverse the reproducibility of
test results.
Is important to make a distinction
between precision and accuracy.
The term accuracy implies freedom from
air; the term precision implies freedom
from variation.
Proficiency testing is incorporated into
the CLIA requirements, with each
laboratory participating in an external
PT program as a means of verification a
laboratory accuracy.
Periodically, identical samples are sent
to a group of laboratories participating
in the PT program; it's laboratory
analyzes the specimen, reports the
results to the agency, and is evaluating
grade on this results in comparison to
results from other laboratories.
In this way, QC between laboratories is
monitored.
Standards are Highly purified substances
of known composition.
A standard may differ from a control
and it's overall composition and in the
way it is handled in the test.
Standards of the best way to measure
40
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
accuracy.
Standards are used to establish reference
points in the construction of graphs (e.g.,
manual hemoglobin curve) or to
calculate a test result.
What is the advantage of having quality controls?
Quality control is a process that
monitors the accuracy and
reproducibility results through the use of
control specimens.
List some of the functions of a Quality Control
Providing a guide to the functioning of
Program
equipment, reagents, and individual
technique
Confirming the accuracy of testing when
compared with reference values
Detecting an increase in the frequency
of both high and low minimally
acceptable values (dispersion)
Detecting any progressive drift of values
to one side of the average value for at
least 3 days (trends)
Demonstrating an abrupt shift or change
from the established average value for 3
days in a row (shift)
Why do QC testing must be repeated?
After the procedure has been reviewed
for any indication of error and error has
been found and corrected, testing must
be repeated until the control value falls
within the range.
Define terms such as Average, Mean, Median, Mode? Average is the Sum of the test results
divided by the number of tests.
Arithmetic mean value.
Mean is the term used to express the
average or arithmetic mean value.
The mean value is 13.6 for the following
series of values: 10, 11, 14, 16, and 17.
•Median is the Middle value of a set of
numbers arranged according to their
magnitude.
If two middle values exist in an even
number of mathematical observations,
the median is the arithmetic mean of the
two middle values.
The median value is 14 following five
test values arranged in the order of size:
10, 11, 14, 16, 17.
•Mode is the number or value that
41
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What are the measurements of variation?
What is a Standard deviation (SD)?
How is Coefficient of variation (CV) obtained?
occurs with the greatest frequency is 45
if the following values are obtained for
controlled blood test: 45, 48, 35, 39, 51,
42, 45, 39, 45, 44, and 45.
•Range:
The difference between the highest and
lowest measurements in the series.
The range is expressed the same units as
the raw data.
The range is 0.5% to 2% for the
following values expressed as
percentages: 1, 1.5, 1, 0.5, 2.0, 1.5, and
1.0.
•Variance:
An expression of the position of each
observation or test result in relation to
the mean of the values.
The variance is determined by
examining the deviation from the mean
of each individual value.
The following test results were obtained:
3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, and 15.
The variance from the mean (deviance
from the mean) of each individual result
is -5, -4, -3, -2
Standard deviation (SD) is Expresses
degree to which the test data tend to
vary about the average value (mean).To
obtain a measure of the variation
expressed in the same units as the raw
data, the square root of the variance or
the SD is used.
Measure of variability,has meaning only
when two or more sets of data having
the same units of measurement are
compared.
Can be used to describe the single-set
measurement.
Otherwise known as related standard
deviation,
A statistical tool used to compare
variability in non-identical data sets,the
CV of each data set allows comparison
of two or more test methods,
laboratories, or specimen sets.
Variability in each data set must be
42
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What is the Z score?
With the advent of computer technology and
computerized instrumentation, many additional
systems have been introduced to monitor test results
numerically. What are some of those methods?
Name 2 traditional approaches in monitoring Quality
Control?
What is represented by confidence limits from a
Levey-Jennings control chart?
True/False:
Results that fall within the confidence limits are
assumed to be accurate.
True/False:
It is common practice to use +/- 3 SD as the limit of
confidence.
Under what conditions are test results not reported?
What are the 3 types of changes commonly observed
in the Levey-Jennings QC approach?
How would a systematic drift or trend be determined?
Give 2 examples that may result in a drift/ trend.
expressed as a relative rather than
absolute measure.
Express the SD as a percentage of the
mean.
•The Z score measures how many
standard deviations a particular number
is from the right or left of the mean.
A positive Z score measures the number
of standard deviations and observation is
above the mean
A negative Z score gives the number of
standard deviations on observation and
observation is below the mean.
The Z score is a unit less measure.
1. Levy Jennings chart
2. The cumulative sum (Cusum)
method
3. Trend line analysis
4. Power function's
 Instrument calibration
3. Lot-to-lot reagent changes
3. A set of mathematically
established limits into which the
majority of values or results will
fall.
4. True
5. False; the common limit of
confidence is +/- 2 SD
6. If the control assay value is
outside the confidence limits, the
control value and the patient's
values are considered to be out
of control and cannot be
reported.
 Systematic drift or trend
 Increased dispersion of results
7. Shift or abrupt change in results
• When the control value direction
moves progressively in one
direction from the mean for at
least 3 days.
 Deterioration or expiration of a
43
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
•
What are some disadvantages to the Cumulative sum
(Cusum) method?


Frequency distribution:
Histogram:
What is the term used to describe values that fall
outside the confidence limits?
The Gaussian distribution is also known as?
Errors occurring within the process of phlebotomy
may cause serious harm to patients either directly or
indirectly. What are the included critical areas?
True or False.
The accuracy of laboratory testing begins with the
quality of the specimen received by the laboratory.
True or False
In phlebotomy, quality does not depend on how a
specimen was collected, transported, and processed.
True or False
Quality assessment, as it applies to phlebotomy,
includes preparation of a patient for any specimens to
be collected.
True or False
Collection of valid samples and proper specimen
transport are not included in the Quality Assessment
in phlebotomy.
When collecting blood specimens, it is important that
reagent used
Diluent contamination affects
erythrocyte and leukocyte
controls with an upward trend as
bacterial growth increases.
Too many out-of-control results
are obtained
Does not readily control for
random error (precision).


In any large series of
measurements (test results) of a
normal population, the results are
evenly distributed about the
average value.
10. Grouping of data in classes and
determining the number of
observations that fall in each of
the classes
1. Bar chart that provides
immediate information about a
set of data in a condensed form
2. Out-of-control
3. The bell-shaped curve
Appropriateness of the test request.
Patient and sample identification.
Criteria for acceptance and rejection of
specimens.
Communication and interpretation of
results.
True
False (quality DEPENDS on how a
specimen was collected, transported, and
processed.)
True
False (Collection of valid samples and
proper specimen transport are included
in the Quality Assessment in
phlebotomy.)
The rights of the patient at all times.
44
Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
the phlebotomist considers what?
True or False
The professional image of the laboratory is solely
represented by the phlebotomist.
True or False
It is important to be gentle and treat pediatric patients
with compassion, empathy and kindness
True or False
Phlebotomists must be relaxed and perceptive about
any anxiety that adolescent patients may have.
True or False
It is okay to demean geriatric patients because they
are really old and they cannot understand anything.
A __________collected blood specimen is essential
to quality performance in the laboratory
Strict adherence to the rules of specimen collection is
critical to the _______ of any test.
In hematological tests/studies, what is the type of
specimen most frequently used?
What do you call the substance that prevents clotting
when mixed with fresh whole blood?
What do you call the straw-colored fluid from an
anticoagulated blood?
True (Because phlebotomist is the only
laboratory staff member that a patient
sees.)
True
True
False
Properly
Accuracy
Anticoagulated blood
Anticoagulant
Plasma
White blood cells and platelets.
What composes the BUFFY COAT?
What type of additive/anticoagulant can be found in a
green top tube?
A vacutainer/tube with a purple top contains what
Heparin
Tripotassium
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
type of anti-coagulant?
A vacutainer/tube with a lightblue top contains what
type of anti-coagulant?
Additives can alter the constituents and can have
________ amounts.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
C. Non-consequential
None of the above
All employees should learn to use engineering
tools. They also must:
A. Evaluate
B. Select
C. Document
All of the above
Can needles be removed in rare circumstances?
Must usage of all needles be covered by the
Exposure Control Plan?
Name some factors that impact the quality of
blood collection. Choose two.
A. Ambient Temperature, Altitude
B. Humidity, Sunlight
C. All of the above
D. None of the Above
Most evacuated tubes have shelf lives of:
A. 2 months
B. 4 months
C. 8 months
12 months
Blood tubes can use several types of
Anticoagulants. List three.
A. Sodium Citrate
B. Heparine
C. K2, EDTA
All are blood tube Anticoagulants.
True or False. Is the correct order of draw?
Yellow, Light Blue,Gold, Red, Red, Orange,
Green, Lavender, White, Gray
For general protocol a phlebotomist should..
A. Introduce themselves
B. Clearly explain the procedure
C. Friendly courtesy in the patient’s native
language.
All of the above
Wristbands can be a major source of preanalytical error. Name several error that can
ethylenediaminetetraacetate (EDTA)
Sodium citrate
B
D
Yes
Yes
C
D
D
True
D
D
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
occur.
A. Wrong wristband
B. Wearing more than one or none
C. Wristband ink is smudged or old
All if the above are errors
What needs to be checked, assembled before blood
collection and what needs to be labeled after blood
collection?
Test requisitions should be checked and
the appropriate evacuate tubes
assembled. All specimens should be
properly labeled immediately after the
specimen is drawn.
What is usually found on the label of the specimens
during blood collection?
The patient’s name, unique identification
number and room number or clinic, and
date and time of collection are usually
found on the label.
What type of disposable needles are required during
blood collection?
Sterile disposable needles (doublepointed or syringe type)
What emergency equipment is necessary to prevent
fainting during blood collection?
Spirits of ammonia breakable capsule.
During initiation of the venous blood collection what
is the first step after introducing one’s self?
What PPE is required to be worn prior to blood
collection?
How does the syringe/needle and evacuated
tube/needle differ in their preparation prior to blood
collection?
Identifying the patient.
What the person collecting the blood do prior to
selecting the vein for venipuncture?
Gloves (Nitrile)
If a needle and syringe are to be used,
firmly secure the hub
of the needle with its shield in place on
the syringe.
If an evacuated tube is to be used, the
plastic shield is to
remain on the needle until immediately
before the
venipuncture.
Visually inspect both arms.
In the arm, what are the three veins to be used for
venipuncture?
Cephalic, basilic, and median cubital.
How does one apply the tourniquet?
First one must place the tourniquet
under the arm and adjust the tourniquet
evenly then place tension on the
tourniquet, cross one side over the other,
and slip a small loop under one side of
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
How does one find a suitable vein for venipuncture?
What are the possible sources of pre-analytical error
in venipuntures?
Prior to puncturing the vein, what must one do in
order to prevent bacterial contamination/infection?
After the needle is inserted in the puncture site and
the tube is placed what is next?
After all the tubes are filled, how does one terminate
the procedure?
How does one respond when the patient refuse to
have his/her blood drawn?
How does one minimize the movement of the vein
during venipuncture?
Why does a lack of blood volume obtained during
venipuncture or a “short draw” cause problems?
When performing phlebotomy and collecting a blood
sample, can you use any anticoagulant tube for any
given test ?
Can sudden movement of the patient or phlebotomist
affect the factor for analyze of the blood sample
obtain?
the tourniquet.
By palpitating it.
 Edema of the extremities
 IV lines
 Scarring or burn patients
 Dialysis patients
Postmastectomy patients
3) The puncture site must first be
After the site is prepared with an
alcohol sterile wipe.
4) Remove the tourniquet.
5) The procedure is terminated by
covering the venipuncture site
with a square of sterile gauze and
applying pressure. A sterile
adhesive bandage is then placed
on the site.
6) Politely excuse yourself from the
patient’s room, note the refusal
on the requisition, and notify the
hematology supervisor
7) Always have firm pressure on
the arm below the intended
venipuncture site. The needle can
be moved to reach the vein, but
excessive probing in the tissues
must be avoided.
8) An excessive amount of EDTA
in the evacuation tubes will
produce shrinkage of
erythrocytes, and an insufficient
amount of blood in a sodium
citrate tube will introduce a
dilutional problem if the
specimen is tested for
coagulation studies.
No, improper anticoagulant for blood
smears cannot be prepared from a
heparinized blood sample will give a
false diagnosing using the wrong
anticoagulant tube
Yes, sudden movement by patient or
phlebotomist will cause the needle to
come out prematurely and cause a false
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What does it mean to take quick action and void the
phlebotomy procedure?
What causes a hematoma ?
True or false It is correct to apply firm pressure until
bleeding has stop or for about 2min?
True or false any tubes containing an anticoagulant
should be gently inverted several times to mix the
specimen
What causes a blood clot formation in a
anticoagulated tube?
When a patient tells you verbally she or he is a fainter
when drawing their blood what is the next step you
should take ?
Of the following personnel, only a high school
diploma is required of which one?
Which one of the following is a hematology test?
Which lab department would perform a hemogram ?
This department examines specimens microscopically
for the presence of crystals, casts, bacteria, and blood
cells
There times where you will get patients where their
veins are much more smaller or hidden veins, what
are steps you can take for difficult blood draws ?
what are some special to considered when havins a
pediatric patient you should consider as a
professional phlebotomist ?
Is is okay to slap the arm to dilate the vein because
factor for analyze.
To immediately remove the tourniquet
and place a gauze pad on the
venipuncture site and apply pressure
until bleeding has completely stopped.
When there is not enough pressure apply
to the site of venipuncture.
True
True
Have the patient lay down in a
appropriate room given by facility or
hospital
Phlebotomist
CBC complete blood count
Hematology
Urinalysis
Adjust the position of the arm elbow out
Use a smaller gauge needle
Use a small syringe
Use a butterfly neddle and multiple
small syringes
Tighten the tourniquet
Loosen the tourniquet
Apply hot packs to the arm
Use a second tourniquet below the site
Use a hand or wrist vein or veins on the
underside of the arm
work quickly on premature infants
warm the blood collection site for 5 min
this will increase blood flow
check potential blood collection sites for
redness or bruising
Do not attempt venipuncture unless
obtaining enough blood collection for all
ordered tests in one attempt is certain
No, you shouldn’t slap the vein when
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
you cant feel it enough when performing
performing venipuncture
venipuncture ?
What is a good practice to take when you have a
Carefully identify the patient check the
elderly patient that may be confused and disoriented ? requisite make sure you have the right
patient
What some considerations for geriatric patients to
Warm up the skin
consider if the patients limb feels cold and clammy
True or false when the skin is fragile it is okay
True
placing the tourniquet over the clothing for more
comfort for the patient
What will you consider when prepping the vein and
Consider using a smaller gauge needle
you feel it being a small or fragile vein?
Is it okay when performing venipuncture to have a
No, you shouldn’t have a shaky hand
shaky hand and inserting the needle in this form ?
should use one quick swiff motion when
inserting the needle
After you have finish your blood collection tubes
You should pay special attention to the
you are getting ready to but a bandage or tape on the
fragility of the skin
skin sight you have puncture what is something you
should pay attention too before determining what
gauze to use ?
What is the preferred site for the collection of
Lateral and medial side of the
capillary blood from the finger ?
fingerprint
What is the preferred site for a infant heel stick?
Medial and lateral site
What is the correct way to prepare a blood smear?
Once a small drop of blood has spread
by capillary action between the
coverslips they should be pulled apart
smoothly in a horizontal plane. The
proper angle of the pusher slide is
approximately 45 angle
Why is it important to smear the blood as soon as the A delay in a smear preparation will be
drop is placed on the slide?
larger cells such as neutrophils and
monocytes will be disproportionately
located at the feathered edge when
examined microscopically
Why is important to have the appropriate size of
Too large a drop of blood will produce
blood droplet in a smear sample?
a think, long smear. And to small drop
of blood will produce a thin short smear
True or false slides should be free of dust and grease
True
spots?
What 3 things determine the thickness of the smear ? Angle of the spreader slide angles
thinkness
Size of blood drop
Speed of spreading
Explain how to adjust the thickness of the smear with Decrease angle of spreader slide
a high hematocrit
Explain how to adjust the thickness of the smear with Increase angle of spreader slide
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
a low hematocrit
List 4 technical causes of a poor blood smear
What are some stains that are alcoholic solutions with
basic and acidic components
The wrigh’s stain is a _________stain.
What is used to wash off stain ?
What is a source of error when failure to filter the
stain daily or before use ?
If the precipitated sediment is very ____ it will be
impossible to view the blood cell microscopic
examination
True or false improper timing of the stainining or
buffering can produce faded staining or altered colors
of the blood smears and too short a staininh time
produce a blood smear that is too red on microscopic
examination and if the staining time is too long the
blood smear will be to dark on microscopic
examination.
Spreader slide is pushed in a jerky
manner
Failure to keep entire edge of spread
slide against the slide while making
smear
Failure to push spreader slide
completely across
Romanowsky based stains such as
wright, giemsa or may-grunwald stains
Romanowsky
Distilled water
Failure to filter the stain daily or before
use can produce sediment on blood films
Heavy
True
A. Microtubules
B. Centriole
C. Membrane
D. Nucleus
E. Nuclear membrane
F. DNA
G. Golgi apparatus
H. Mitochondrion
I. Lysosome
J. Cytoplasm
K. Nucleoli
L. Rough ER
M. Smooth ER
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
A. Phospholipids
B. Protein
A. Normal
B. Hypotonic
C. Hypertonic
Diffusion is:
Active transport is:
Active transport requires:
Na/K pump is active or passive?
Maintenance of a constant volume despite
extracellular and intracellular osmotic challenges is
critical to the integrity of a cell
In order to return cell volume to its normal resting
state, how do cells respond?
What is essential for the normal function and survival
of cells?
What is highly pleomorphic and has bizarre cytologic
features associated with malignant tumors?
What is atrophy?
What has abnormal cytologic features and tissue
organization
What is hyperplasia
What is hypertrophy
What is metaplasia
Organelles are functional units of a cell
What are the two central spots inside of the
centrosomes.
What is the extensive lace-like network composed of
membranes enclosing interconnecting cavities or
A passive process whereby fluid moves
through a semipermeable membrane
Movement of a molecule against the
concentration gradiant.
ATP
Active
True
by swelling or shrinking by activating
specific metabolic or membranetransport processes
Cell volume homeostasis
Anaplasia
decrease in the number or size of cells
Dysplasia
The increase in the number of cells in a
tissue
The increase in the size of cells
It is the change from one adult cell type
to another
True
Centrioles
Endoplasmic reticulum
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
cisterns called?
What are the 2 classifications of the endoplasmic
reticulum?
Which part of the ER can the ribosomes be found?
What appears as a horseshoe-shaped or hook-shaped
organelle with an associated stack of vesicles or sacs.
What do lysosomes contain?
What are microbodies?
What are microfilaments?
What are microtubules?
What is composed of an outer smooth membrane and
an inner folded membrane?
What is the function of the mitochondria?
What are small dense granules, that show a lack of
membrane and are found both on the surface of the
rough ER and free in the cytoplasm?
Ribosomes contain a significant portion of RNA and
are composed of unequally sized subunits.
The presence of many ribosomes produces
cytoplasmic basophilia (blue color) when a cell is
stained with Wright stain.
Where is the site of protein synthesis?
What is a long-chain polysaccharide that is detectable
with the PAS stain?
What is the PAS stain?
Ferritin is a common storage form of iron.
Ferritin is often found in iron-rich dense bodies called
_______.
What term is used to refer to iron-saturated
telolysosomes?
Histologists refer to granular, iron-rich pigment as
________.
The nucleus is surrounded by a _______ ______,
which consists of an inner and outer membrane.
Inside the nucleus, within the inner nucleoplasm, are
the _______ and _______.
Chromatin dictates the nature of ________ that can
be synthesized, thereby controlling the function of the
cell.
Rough and smooth
Rough sections
Golgi apparatus
Hydrolytic enzymes
small, intracytoplasmic organelles,
limited by a single membrane that is
thinner than the lysosome.
solid structures, consisting of the protein
actin and the larger myosin filaments
small, hollow fibers composed of
polymerized, macromolecular protein
subunits, tubulin.
mitochondria
carry out the energy-producing reactions
of the cell
Ribosomes
True
True
The complex of the messenger RNA and
a ribosome
Glycogen
Periodic acid-Schiff stain
True
Telolysosomes
Siderosome
Hemosiderin
Nuclear envelope
Nucleoli, chromatin
Protein
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
Chromatin transmits information for cellular control
from one generation to the next.
Proteins associated with the nucleic acids are divided
into basic, positively charged ______, and less
positively charged ______.
Histones are believed to be essential to the structural
integrity of ______.
Histones are important in facilitating the conversion
of the thin chromatin fibers seen during ______ into
the highly condensed chromosomes seen in _______.
Nonhistones are thought to play other roles, including
________ _________.
What is the general model of the organization of
DNA and histones?
What is the complete unit, consisting of a string of
DNA wrapped around a histone core, called?
What is deletion?
What is translocation?
What is trisomy?
What is clinical use of cytogenetics?
What are three sub-phases of interphase?
What are four phases of mitotic division?
What is M phase?
What is Prophase?
What is metaphase?
True
Histones, nonhistones
Chromatin
Interphase, mitosis
Genetic regulation
A regular spacing arrangement
Nucleosome
is defined as the loss of a segment of
chromosome.
is the process in which a segment of one
chromosome breaks away (is deleted)
from its normal location.
is the failure of a homologous
chromosome to separate from its sister
chromatid. This leads to a set of three
chromosomes in place of the normal
pair.
Clinical cytogenetic contributes to
understanding inborn or acquired
genetic problems by providing a lowpower screening method for detecting
isolated or missing chunks of
chromosomes.
– G1, first gap
– S phase
G2, second gap
M phase
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
a. Telophase
is the period of actual cell division.
is the period of replicated strands of
chromatin that become tightly coiled,
distinctive structures.
is the period when identical sister
chromatids move to the center of the
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What is Anaphase?
What is Telophase?
What is karyokinesis?
What is cytokinesis?
What are the activities of the nucleus?
What is a means of distinguishing a morphologically
distinctive form of programmed cell death that is
associated with normal physiology?
spindle (the equatorial plate).
begins as soon as the chromatids are
pulled apart and lasts until the newly
formed chromosomes reach the opposite
poles of the spindle.
is the period when the chromosomes
arrive at opposite poles of the cell in
early telophase.
Nuclear division
Division of cytoplasm
Apoptosis
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What is Meiosis division?
What is a segment of DNA that is arranged along the
chromosome at a specific position called a locus?
What is the coding sequences of a gene?
A gene
What is the intervening sequences of a gene?
What is the term that causes a change in the gene?
What is sickle cell mutation?
Introns
Mutation
Figure 3.11 Sickle cell trait and anemia.
When two persons with sickle cell trait
(genotype: A/S) produce offspring, the
expected genotypic ratio is 1:2:1, or a
25% chance of offspring with a normal
hemoglobin (A/A), a 50% chance of
offspring with sickle cell trait (A/S), and
a 25% chance of offspring with sickle
cell anemia (S/S). Hgb, hemoglobin.
Exons
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
The hemoglobin S amino acid sequence differs from
hemoglobin A amino acid sequence. This difference
is due to one amino acid residue on the _____ chain
of the hemoglobin molecule. On this chain, ____ is
substituted for ____ at the sixth position of the chain.
a. alpha, glutamic acid (Glu), valine (Val)
b. beta, valine (Val), glutamine (Gln)
c. alpha, aspartic acid (Asp), Alanine (Ala)
d. beta, valine (Val), glutamic acid (Glu)
True or False
If parent '1' has type A hemoglobin (genotype: A/A)
and parent '2' has sickle cell trait (genotype: A/S) the
probability of the offspring receiving sickle cell trait
is 25%.
a.True
b.False
Alterations in oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes and
microRNA genes can result in?
a. tumor reduction
b. cancer formation
c. neither a or b
The gene important in regulation of the cell cycle and
also functions as a tumor suppressor is..
a. p24
b. p53
c. p63
d. none of the above
D
B
B
B
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
Tumor protein p53 does many things to help our cells
repair themselves. Which of the following is
incorrect?
a. activate the repair of DNA when damaged.
b. initiate apoptosis if the DNA is damaged beyond
repair.
c. prevents the division of cells with mutated or
damaged DNA.
d. None of the above are incorrect.
This list of analytical assays are of what type tests.
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Ligase chain reaction nucleic acid amplification
(LCR)
Branched DNA (bDNA) amplification
Probe-hybridization assays
Integrated PCR and probe-hybridization assays
Microarrays
A. Chemistry
B. Immunological
C. Molecular Technique
D. Serological
The term for the low level of disease, such as,
leukemic cells, in a patient who appears to be in a
state of clinical remission is.
A. Minimal disease state
B. Minimal residual disease
C. Minimal reduced disease
D. Residual disease minimum
What does heating the DNA in accomplish in
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
A. Denatures it so it is destroyed.
B. To separate the strands of DNA
C. Recombine the pieces of DNA
D. There isn't a heating stage in Polymerase chain
reaction (PCR)
True or False
The stages of PCR are generally:
- Target DNA is first melted using heat.
- added primers bind to specific sequences within the
target DNA as it cools.
- New DNA strands are amplified
- This is repeated over many cycles to create a surplus
of target DNA
- These copies are detected using electrophoresis and
staining.
a.True
D
C
B
B
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
b.False
What is a depiction of Polymerase Chain Reaction?
Polymerase Chain Reaction continued
What are three important application of PCR?
What is considered to be the “Gold Standard” method
to which other molecular methods are compared?
What hybridization methods are used for the
detection of disorder in which the DNA sequence of
the mutated region has been identified (sickle cell)
This hybridization method is used to detect singlebase mutations using allele-specific oligonucleotides
(ASOs)
Unlike other assays, the dot blot does not require
which two parts of the procedure?
What are the basic steps of the procedure?
1) Amplification of DNA
2) Identification of a target
sequence
Synthesis of a labeled antisense probe
9) DNA Sequencing
10) Dot blot and reverse dot blot
11) Dot Blot
1) Enzyme digestion
12) Electrophoretic separation of
DNA fragments
1) Labeled oligonucleotide probes
of 15-19 base pairs are added.
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
•
What is a Reverse Dot Blot?
How is the Reverse Dot Blot different?
DNA is amplified in the region
of the known mutations,
denatured and applied to areas of
membrane or filter.
3) Variation of Dot Blot procedure
4) The ASO probes are bound to a
filter and denatured DNA from
the patient is added to the
immobilized ASO. Hybridization
occurs when base sequences are
100% complementary to the
probe
What is an example of a southern blot?
This procedure is used for analysis of the proximal
product of gene expression, mRNA. Cloned DNA
probes can determine whether a given gene is
expressed and, of so, how vigorously.
This is a tissue-based molecular diagnostic assay.
Common in situ hybridization (ISH), including
fluorescent ISH (FISH), probes are used in the
diagnosis of hematological malignancies in clouding
CMLA, AML, Burkitt lymphoma and other
lymphomas.
This gene expression profiling uses
_____ analysis. A surface (in this example, a glass
microscope slide) contains thousands of spots. Each
spot contains a large number of DNA fragments. For
each spot, the DNA fragments are derived from one
specific gene.
Clinical applications include hematopathology
diagnosis and monitoring. The distinct advantages of
molecular testing include the following:
-Faster turn around time
-Smaller required sample volumes
Northern Blot Blotting Protocol
In Situ Hybridization
Microarrays
Hematopathology
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
-Increased specificity and sensitivity
This type of molecular technique monitors patient
following bone marrow transplants, discovers and
early relapses in patients treated for a hematological
malignancy and detects minimal residual disease in
hematological malignancies.
Important in diagnostic hematopathology as indicator
of clonality and as aids in determining the cellular
lineage of a particular malignant proliferation.
This categorization is aided by the use of cluster
designation (CD) for specific lineages of cells.
What is Hematopoiesis?
What consists of the hematopoietic system?
What are the three types of human stem cells?
Which type of human stem cell is present in the first
few hours after an ovum is fertilized?
Which type of human stem cell is the most versatile
type?
Which type of human stem cell can develop into any
human cell type?
Which type of stem cell can develop into a fetus?
Which type of human stem cell is present several
days after fertilization?
Which type of hum stem cell can develop into any
cell type with the exception of developing into a
fetus?
Which type of human stem cell is derived from
pluripotent stem cells?
Which type of human stem cell can be found in adults
but are limited to specific types of cells to form
tissues?
Below are images depicting a (normal/abnormal)
bone marrow biopsy.
Molecular techniques provided my
Hematopathology
Gene Rearrangement Studies
Immunophenotyping categorization
The process of blood cell production,
differentiation, and development.
Bone Marrow, Liver, Spleen, Lymph
Nodes, and Thymus
Totipotential, Pluripotential and
Multipotential stem cells.
Totipotential stem cell
Totipotential stem cell
Totipotential stem cell
Totipotential stem cell
Pluripotential stem cell
Pluripotential stem cell
Multipotential stem cell
Multipotential stem cell
Normal
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
Below is an image depicting a bone marros biopsy of
(normal/abnormal) cellularity
Normal
Name the type of WBC’s labeled
A.
Lymphocyte
B. Basophil
C.Eosinophil
D. Segmented neutrophil
E. Band form neutrophil
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
Figure (A) is an image depicting a child with red
bone marrow. Figure (B) is an image depicting an
adult. What major changes happen to the bone
marrow as a child develops into an adult?
(A)
(B)
Using the Figure below, describe the size of the HSC
population over a lifetime. (Only use once: Increase,
Decrease, or remains the same)
(a) __________
(b) __________
(c) __________
In an adult, yellow marrow replaces red
marrow. Red marrow activity occurs in
the central portion of the skeleton
(a) Decrease
(b) Remains the same
(c) Increase
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
Hematopoietic cells can be divided into how many
phases?
What is the Primitive, multipotential cells?
What are Intermediate cells?
What are Mature cells?
Where does erythropoiesis occur?
What is granulopoiesis?
Granulopoiesis can be recognized as what?
Where does Lymphopoiesis take place?
Where does Megakaryopoiesis take place?
What are two cells found in the bone marrow?
What are Marrow stromal cells?
What are Mast cells?
What is a macrophage?
three phases according to cell maturity
The most immature group capable of
self-renewal and differentiation into all
blood cell lines
This group consists of committed
progenitor cells destined to develop into
distinct cell lines.
The most developed group with specific
functions
in distinct anatomical sites called
erythropoietic islands, specialized niches
in which erythroid precursors
proliferate, differentiate, and enucleate
Myeloid cells account for 23% to 85%
of the nucleated cells in normal bone
marrow
a maturational unit.
in lymphoid follicles.
adjacent to the sinus endothelium
Mast cells and marrow stromal cells
The meshwork of stromal cells is
composed of reticulum cells, histiocytes,
adipose cells, and endothelial cells
Tissue mast cells, a connective tissue
cell of mesenchymal origin, are
normally observed in bone marrow
It is also called reticulum cell or
histiocyte, appear as large cell in the
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
What are bone cells called?
What are interleukins?
What do interleukins do?
How to describe the function of interleukins?
What are the roles of interleukins?
How many types and function of interleukins in the
immune system?
What are the three types of hematopoietic growth
factors?
What is an examination of maturing blood cells?
What can be guided by a variety of
systematic features?
What are the two importatant
charateristics to observe initially in caell
identification?
What is the important feature of the
bone marrow.
They are called Osteoblasts that are
bone matrix–synthesizing cells that
resemble plasma cells and are usually
observed in groups.
Protein molecules that work in
conjunction with hematopoietic growth
factors to stimulate proliferation and
differentiation of specific cell lines
Interleukins are cytokines that act
independently or in conjunction with
other interleukins to encourage
hematopoietic growth. Interleukins are
cell signaling molecules and a part of the
cytokine super family of signaling
molecules
The interleukins were first described as
signals for communication between
Interleukins are basically the method of
immune cross talk and communication.
Interleukins are the primary messengers
and directors of the immune system.
There are currently 35 well-known
interleukins; however, there are many
more to be found and characterized.
Hematopoietic growth factor is encoded
by a single gene
- G-CSF and GM-CSF predominantly
affect myeloid cells
-IL-7 stimulates T and B lymphocytes
-IL-12 targets natural killer cells
It is a comprehensive examination of
bone marrow involves examination of
both bone marrow smears and
histological tissue sections.
The identification and stage of
maturation of stained blood
cells can be guided by a variety
of systematic features.
• Overall cell size
Nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio
• Nuclear characteristics
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
nucleus of the cell?
What are the nuclear characteristics of the
Chromatin pattern?
What are the different nuclear shapes of
the cell?
play an important role in
cell identification.
Important features of the
nucleus include the
following:
• Chromatin pattern
• Nuclear shape
8. The presence of
nucleoli
• Chromatin patterns
• Lymphocytes exhibit a
smooth or homogeneous
pattern of chromatin
throughout development
until the mature stage,
when clumped
heterochromatin is more
obvious.
• Granulocytes progress
from having a fine to a
highly clumped pattern.
• Monocytes have a lacy
pattern, which becomes
finer as the cell matures.
•
Erythrocytes continue to
develop a more clumped
pattern as maturation
progresses, until the
extremely dense (pyknotic)
nucleus is lost (extruded)
from the mature cell.
• Nuclear shape
• Lymphocytes usually
continue to have a round
or oval nucleus. Some
cells may have a small
cleft in the nucleus.
• Monocytes have a kidney
bean–shaped nucleus, but
folded or horseshoe
shapes are common.
11. Mature neutrophils,
eosinophils, and
basophils have segmented
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
How does the pressence or absense of
nucleoli is important in the identification in
the cell?
• What are the nuclear characteristics
of the cell?
5. How can we identify Cytoplasmic
Characteristics?
nuclei attached to one
another by fine filaments.
The number of distinctive
lobes ranges from two to
five depending on the cell
type.
• Presence of nucleoli
• The presence or absence
of nucleoli is important in
the identification of cells.
• The three cell lines of
erythrocytes, leukocytes,
and megakaryocytes all
have nucleoli in the
earliest cell stages.
 As cells mature, nucleoli are
usually not visible. These
changes in the appearance
of the nucleoli are related to
the rate of synthesis of
ribosomal RNA.
• Lymphoblasts have one
or two nucleoli.
• Myeloblasts have one to
five nucleoli.
• Monoblasts usually have
one or two nucleoli but
occasionally may have
three or four.
• Erythroblasts may not
have any nucleoli or may
have up to two nucleoli
that may stain darker
than in other types of
blast cells.
4. Megakaryoblasts typically
have one to five nucleoli.
• Staining color and
intensity
• Granulation
• Shape
• Quantity of cytoplasm
• Vacuolization
6. Inclusion bodies
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Hematology PPT Flashcards Unit 1
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