TOEFL Summer Camp Progress Test 2
4.
(A) Purchase new furniture.
(B) Move to a new house.
(C) Cook a meal.
(D) Rent a truck.
5.
(A) The woman lost a check.
(B) The woman's handbag disappeared.
(C) The woman needs directions.
(D) The woman's luggage hasn't arrived.
6.
(A) A football game.
(B) A newspaper article.
(C) A doctoral exam.
(D) A class test.
7.
(A) She's not sure she wants to either.
(B) The man's plan may not be so good.
(C) She believes she is smarter than the man.
(D) The man should repeat what he has said.
8.
(A) The course is over.
(B) The professor is right.
(C) She will see him later.
(D) She has to leave soon.
9.
(A) She does not do her job at the office quickly enough.
(B) She can't go with the man next year.
(C) She doesn't try hard enough.
(D) She's behind in her course work .
10.
(A) The price increase on stamps.
(B) The late delivery of mail.
(C) The new consumer tax.
(D) The schedule of classes next week.
(A) Complete an essay.
(B) Change jobs.
(C) Sign up for classes.
(D) Finish reading the newspaper.
11.
(A) The man should move his chair into the next room.
(B) The man should sit down and wait.
(C) The man should have arrived earlier.
(D) The man should begin to conduct the interview.
(A) The pie is rather little.
(B) She has been restless lately.
(C) The time is running short.
(D) She will take a small piece.
12.
(A) He'll be home right after work.
(B) He needs to leave for work.
(C) He intends to go shopping.
(D) He'll drop by the hospital.
(A) Purchase a book.
(B) Go back to his office.
(C) Attend a boxing match.
(D) Make a plane reservation.
13.
(A) The woman is welcome to eat with him.
(B) He wants the woman to meet him later.
(C) The woman can join her French class.
(D) The meeting has been postponed until May.
Section 1 Listening Comprehension
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to
demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and
talks in English. There are three parts to this section with
special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on
the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this
test. Do not take notes or write in your test book at any time.
Do not turn the pages until you are told to do so.
Part A
Directions: In Part A you will hear short conversations
between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a
question about the conversation. The conversations and
questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read
the four possible answers in your book and choose the best
answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of
the answer you have chosen.
Listen to an example.
On the recording, you hear:
In your book, you read:
(A) He bought a new car.
(B) He had his car painted blue.
(C) He fixed his old car.
(D) He is having his car repaired.
You learn from the conversation that Bill's car is being
repaired. The best answer to the question, "What does the
woman say about Bill?" is (D), "He is having his car repaired."
Therefore, the correct choice is (D).
1.
2.
3.
Page 1
TOEFL Summer Camp Progress Test 2
Page 2
14.
(A) He also thinks that it's noisy in the dorm.
(B) He couldn't hear what the woman said.
(C) He's planning to move into the dorm.
(D) He can't find a suitable roommate.
24.
(A) Disappointed.
(B) Pleased.
(C) Annoyed.
(D) Resentful.
15.
(A) The man should do the worst things first.
(B) Things will probably get worse for the man.
(C) The man should not feel so sorry for himself.
(D) The worst of the man's problems is over.
25.
(A) Tum around.
(B) Continue to drive.
(C) Speed up.
(D) Stop the car.
16.
(A) He was here an hour ago.
(B) He had some accident.
(C) He is often late.
(D) He wasn't supposed to come.
26.
(A) He agrees with the woman.
(B) He is also thirsty.
(C) He didn't think the woman was late.
(D) He is not sure.
17.
(A) The time period is long.
(B) The area is quite elevated.
(C) The transportation is costly.
(D) The school is expensive.
27.
(A) The lobby is not a good place to meet.
(B) He appreciates the woman's joke.
(C) Sally is a child.
(D) He doesn't like airports.
18.
(A) It is not very difficult.
(B) Someone else should do it.
(C) He has not finished it yet.
(D) It is not something he wants to do.
28.
(A) The man failed to see her.
(B) The man tried to contact her.
(C) The man did not go to the lecture.
(D) The man had gone to the lecture.
19.
(A) Shopping.
(B) On a trip.
(C) To the movies.
(D) To buy some gas.
29.
(A) The woman is late for lunch.
(B) The woman is a regular customer.
(C) The restaurant has changed its menu.
(D) The woman doesn't usually eat lunch.
20.
(A) Try to find Bill.
(B) Go shopping in town.
(C) Pick up her charge card and buy gas.
(D) Get some money and pay bills.
30.
(A) She forgot to tie the package.
(B) She'd rather go on the trip by herself.
(C) She'd be happy to show him the package.
(D) She can't see the movie with the man.
21.
(A) He doesn't know which game was on.
(B) He enjoyed watching yesterday's game.
(C) He couldn't decide which program to watch.
(D) He was able to get tickets to the game.
22.
(A) It wasn't part of the computer.
(B) She fixed it herself.
(C) It was difficult to prepare.
(D) Someone else set it up for her.
23.
(A) She will visit Oklahoma.
(B) She doesn't believe Kevin.
(C) She is surprised at Kevin's success.
(D) She would like to hear from Kevin.
TOEFL Summer Camp Progress Test 2
Part B
Directions: In this part, you will hear longer conversations.
After each conversation, you will hear several questions. The
conversations and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in
your book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer
sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Remember, you should not take notes or write on your test
pages.
31.
(A) She will go to bed early.
(B) She will celebrate with her friends.
(C) She will study for her exam.
(D) She will work on her research paper.
32.
(A) One.
(B) Two.
(C) Three.
(D) Four.
33.
(A) She has not yet begun working on it.
(B) She is becoming bored with it.
(C) She prefers to take the test.
(D) She is excited about the topic.
34.
(A) He will study for his exams.
(B) He will go skiing.
(C) He will visit friends.
(D) He will visit his parents.
35.
(A) Entering graduate school.
(B) Doing research in the library.
(C) Selecting someone to fill a part-time position.
(D) Choosing a graduate assistant.
36.
(A) She has no previous experience.
(B) She isn't mature enough.
(C) She is too busy with her other work.
(D) She needs to take care of her child.
37.
(A) They couldn't fit the hours into their schedules.
(B) They were looking for full-time work.
(C) They couldn't answer the questions well.
(D) They had never worked in a library before.
Page 3
38.
(A) The man will contact him by phone.
(B) A note will be placed in his mailbox.
(C) The woman will write him a letter.
(D) A notice will be posted in the library.
TOEFL Summer Camp Progress Test 2
Part C
Directions: In this part, you will hear several talks. After each
talk, you will hear some questions. The talks and questions
will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four
possible answers in your book and choose the best answer.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question
and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer
you have chosen.
Here is an example.
On the recording, you hear:
Now listen to a sample question.
In your book, you read:
(A) Air pollution.
(B) A new type of silicon.
(C) A new type of solar panel.
(D) The cost of solar panels.
The best answer to the question, "What is this talk about?" is
(C), "A new type of solar panel." Therefore, the correct choice
is (C).
Now listen to another sample question.
In your book, you read:
(A) It is cheaper to produce.
(B) It is easier to manufacture.
(C) It is more efficient.
(D) It pollutes less.
The best answer to the question, "Why is the new type of solar
panel better than the current one?" is (A), "It is cheaper to
produce." Therefore, the correct choice is (A). Remember, you
should not take notes or write on your test pages.
39.
40.
41.
Page 4
42.
(A) Point out the flaws of behaviorism.
(B) Summarize his lecture.
(C) Discuss the founder of behaviorism.
(D) Compare behaviorism with other types of psychology.
43.
(A) The presidency of Abraham Lincoln.
(B) Territorial expansion after the Civil War.
(C) The history of the Republican Party.
(D) Organized opposition to slavery.
44.
(A) Their belief in low taxes.
(B) Their anti-slavery position.
(C) Their readiness to go to war over the key issues of the
day.
(D) Their desire to create a second political party.
45.
(A) Social policy took priority over economic policy.
(B) It hacked labor's interests to correct industrial ills.
(C) It wanted to make businesses pay for Civil War losses.
(D) It supported policies that would benefit business.
46.
(A) It has not really changed throughout its existence.
(B) It has shifted away from support of big business.
(C) First it was anti-business, and now it is pro-business.
(D) The Party now favors significant government
involvement.
47.
(A) In a class.
(B) On a beach.
(C) On a ski trip.
(D) At a museum.
48.
(A) They are smarter and stronger than other species.
(B) They can adapt to any environment.
(C) They are inventive and fun-loving.
(D) They especially enjoy water sports.
49.
(A) They require high speeds.
(B) They allow a skier to go backwards.
(C) They are very short.
(D) They are used for ski-jumping.
50.
(A) Demonstrate skiing techniques.
(B) Play a video of great skiers.
(C) Show various types of skis.
(D) Answer questions from the audience.
(A) During final exams.
(B) At the end of the term.
(C) During the middle of a course.
(D) At the beginning or a course.
(A) Medical interns.
(B) Psychology students.
(C) Nursing majors.
(D) Philosophers.
(A) An emphasis on states of consciousness.
(B) A dedication to theory.
(C) The use of animals in experiments.
(D) The reliance upon mathematics.
This is the end of the listening section.
TOEFL Summer Camp Progress Test 2
Section 2
Structure and written expression
Time: 25 minutes (including the reading of the directions)
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize
language that is appropriate for standard written English. There
are two types of questions in this section, with special directions
for each type.
Structure
Directions: Questions 1-1 S are incomplete sentences.
Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases,
marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase
that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer
sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill
in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.
Example I
Mary would have gone to London _______ to get a plane.
(A) if she is able
(B) would she be able
(C) if she had been able
(D) if she was able
The sentence should read, "Mary would have gone to London
if she had been able to get a plane." Therefore, you should
choose (C).
Example II
I am not used _______ in such a rude way.
(A) to being talked to
(B) being talked to
(C) to be talked to
(D) be talked to
The sentence should read, "I am not used to being talked to
in such a rude way."
Therefore, you should choose (A).
Now begin work on the questions.
1. _______ have been great secrecy surrounding the Manhattan
Project, which produced the first atomic bomb, but it was surely
justified.
(A) It may
(B) It will
(C) They may
(D) There may
Page 5
2. Sound is a particular form of kinetic energy produced when an
object vibrates and a medium, such as air, _______ in return.
(A) are vibrated
(B) vibrated
(C) can be vibrated
(D) vibrates
3. Not until the Sherman Antitrust Act was passed in 1890
_______ the federal legislation necessary to break up illegal
trusts.
(A) did opponents of monopolies have
(B) opponents of monopolies had
(C) and opponents of monopolies had
(D) opponents of monopolies' having
4. Humans can detect the direction of sound because of _______
the human head acts as a baffle.
(A) which way
(B) the way in which
(C) in which way
(D) the way which
5. _______, the growth of local economies, and the rise of
metallurgy provided the incentive for the use of gold as a
commodity of exchange.
(A) Expanding trade
(B) The fact that trade expanded
(C) Trade expansion
(D) The expansion of trade
6. Children _______ in rural areas often have a greater
appreciation for nature than their urban counterparts.
(A) they are raised
(B) who raised
(C) raised
(D) who being raised
7. Transportation is probably _______ technology, predating both
house building and agriculture.
(A) our older
(B) our oldest
(C) oldest of our
(D) older than our
8. A neuron _______, or fine branching fibers, at one end.
(A) having dendrites
(8) to have dendrites
(C) has dendrites
(0) which has dendrites
TOEFL Summer Camp Progress Test 2
9. _______ thirty thousand different books were printed in the first
fifty years of printing.
(A) Further
(B) More than
(C) More
(D) Some more
10. The cellular phone, which is growing more and more popular,
_______ to be light, convenient, and mobile.
(A) was designed
(B) has design
(C) is design
(D) designed
11. The application of steam power _______ nineteenth century
to land and water transport and to manufacturing and agriculture
transformed the world trading system.
(A) of the
(B) at the
(C) in the
(D) the
12. Balloons rise _______ the gas they contain is less dense than
air.
(A) because
(B) however
(C) whereas
(D) although
13. After a five-year period of residency, if one _______ in
passing the written test, one can receive U.S. citizenship.
(A) is success
(B) makes a success
(C) can successful
(D) is successful
14. An exchange rate is simply the price of one currency _______
another.
(A) termed against
(B) in terms of
(C) what is termed as
(D) which is in terms of
Page 6
15. Zoogeography is the study of the geographical distribution of
animals _______ why, for example, kangaroos are found only in
Australia.
(A) it attempts to explain
(B) which it attempts to explain
(C) attempting which explanation
(D) which attempts to explain
Written Expression
Directions: In questions 16-40 each sentence has four
underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the
sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one
underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for
the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find
the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Example I
The policemen (A)were finally able (B)to arrest the woman
(C)who her fingerprints (D)had been found on the desk.
The sentence should read, "The policemen were finally able
to arrest the woman whose fingerprints had been found on the
desk." Therefore, you should choose (C).
Example II
(A)Much people were (B)trying to (C)leave the (D)burning building.
The sentence should read, "Many people were trying to leave
the burning building." Therefore, you should choose (A).
Now begin work on the questions.
16. Algae
(C)by
(A)are
technically distinguished
(B)from
the absence of a sterile cell layer which
higher plants
(D)surround
the
sexual cells.
17. The
(A)health
(C)honest,
of society depends on simple
(B)virtues
like
decency, courage, and (D)public spirit.
18. The behavior of a particular chemical element (A)is depend on
(B)the
19.
number (C)of electrons in (D)its outermost shell.
(A)Behavioral
(B)commonly
and cognitive psychology are the most
(C)approaches
psychology departments.
to
psychology
(D)in
college
TOEFL Summer Camp Progress Test 2
Page 7
32. (A)Basic solutions can be neutralized (B)by acids, which (C)are
20.
(A)On
a compact disc,
(B)the
recording information
(C)stored
substances that (D)sour tasting and turn litmus red.
beneath the surface of the disc (D)to minimize errors.
33. Most kinds (A)of energy waves are able (B)to pass (C)through
21. The Labrador
(A)it
is a dog (B)that has been (C)specially bred
some materials, (D)or not others.
for its pleasant disposition and (D)skill at hunting.
34. Al Smith
22. The recession of the early 1980s showed few signs of (A)being
(C)during
(A)was
one of the most important
(B)political
figure
the first quarter of (D)the twentieth century.
as deep (B)like that of the 1930s, (C)but it was nonetheless a matter
of serious concern
(D)among
corporate and governmental
economists.
35. (A)If a state of anxiety or (B)some other destructive emotion is
allowed (C)to continue for a long time, (D)they may harm both the
mind and the body.
23. Adlai Stevenson
(A)is
still fondly remembered
(B)by
older
liberals for his (C)clear articulate of (D)progressive views.
36. The pituitary gland, a small (A)oval structure, is (B)attached the
(C)base
of the brain (D)by a slender stalk.
24. A study of the design and usage of (A)furnitures of (B)a given
culture often (C)yields insights (D)into the society's values.
37. Most critics felt that (A)a greatest strength of (B)Audubon's work
was (C)its being wholly (D)based on fieldwork.
25.
(A)In
terms of output, Mississippi leads the United States in
fish farming,
(B)with
well over one million fish
(C)harvested
(D)annual.
38. The process (A)of western expansion, and the (B)consequent
emergence of frontier territories, (C)had results in major changes
in the political map (D)of the United States during the early 19th
26. Dry farming is commonly practiced in areas of the Great
century.
Plains of western North America, when the annual rainfall is
approximately 20 inches.
39. During
(A)the
change and
27.
(A)Since
fever can be a symptom of bacterial infection,
1930s the motorcycle underwent
(C)utilitarian
it became, ceasing
(D)to
(B)a
social
be a luxury
machine.
particularly streptococcus, (B)someone who has both a sore throat
and a fever (C)is wise to have a throat culture (D)took.
40. (A)A casserole (B)can be a meal which is inexpensive, (C)wellbalanced, easy to make, and (D)it is healthy.
28.
(A)It
is vital
(B)that
a government institution
(C)maintains
the
openness (D)mandated by the Freedom of Information Act.
29. During
(A)their
thirties,
(B)most
people become firmly
established in (C)his adult (D)roles.
30.
(A)Because
the powerful forces of erosion and geological
movement, which (B)continuously change the landscape, impact
craters (C)have become features (D)of our planet.
31. During the 1930s the budget deficit was (A)such large that (B)it
(C)became
almost impossible (D)to bring it under control.
This is the end of Section 2.
TOEFL Summer Camp Progress Test 2
Section 3 Reading Comprehension
Time: 55 minutes (including the reading of the directions)
Directions: In this section you will read several passages.
Each one is followed by a number of questions about it. For
questions 1-50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A),
(B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet,
find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Answer all questions about the information in a passage on
the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
Read the following passage:
Qualitative analysis employs characteristic chemical reactions
or tests such as the appearance of a precipitate or color
change upon the addition of a test chemical or reagent. In
addition to these, qualitative analysis employs Line
gravimetric methods which involve weighing, volumetric
methods which (5) require measuring the volume of
standardized solutions, colorimetric methods based upon the
intensity of characteristic colors which are developed, and
electrolytic methods, involving the decomposition of
substances by an electric current.
Example I
In qualitative analysis,
(A) the presence of a constituent is determined
(B) the addition of a test chemical is involved
(C) colormetric methods are based on the intensity of
characteristic colors
(D) the decomposition of substances is involved
The passage says that qualitative analysis employs
characteristic chemical reactions or tests such as the
appearance of a precipitate. Therefore, you should choose
(A).
Example II
The word "require" in line 5 is closest in meaning to
(A) help
(B) depend on
(C) inquire
(D) necessitate
The word "require," as used in line 5 "volumetric methods
which require measuring the volume of standardized
solutions," is closest in meaning to "necessitate." Therefore,
you should choose (D).
Now begin work on the questions.
Page 8
TOEFL Summer Camp Progress Test 2
Questions 1-10
Most of the 12,000 species of bees in the world are solitary
insects, coming together only to mate. Honeybees, on the other
hand, live in highly organized colonies. Each colony contains, on
average, a single queen, a few dozen drones, or male bees, and
about 60,000 worker bees-sterile females. The workers, which
rarely live more than a few months, collect nectar for the hive's
winter food store of honey, build honeycombs, and bring pollen
to the hive to feed the young larvae. The drones have to be fed
by the workers because they are unable to feed themselves. The
drones' only function is to fertilize the queen. The five or six
drones which succeed in mating with the queen die soon
afterwards. The remainder survive until the end of the summer,
when they are driven out of the colony by the workers.
1. This passage is mainly about which of the following?
(A) The various species of honeybees
(B) Important uses of honeybees
(C) Differences between honeybees and worker bees
(D) The organization of the honeybee colony
2. Roughly how many drones are there in a colony?
(A) 2-5
(B) 20-50
(C) 200-500
(D) 2,000-5,000
3. The word "mate" in this passage is closest in meaning to
(A) reproduce
(B) meet
(C) eat
(D) communicate
4. Honeybees can be distinguished from other types of bees in
that they
(A) survive for a longer period of time
(B) pollinate a wider variety of flowers
(C) exist separately from the hive
(D) live in highly structured communities
5. The underlined word "themselves" refers to
(A) the workers
(B) the drones
(C) the young larvae
(D) sterile females
Page 9
6. The underlined word "die" is closest in meaning to
(A) extinguish
(B) cross
(C) defile
(D) expire
7. What happens to the drones which do not mate with the
queen?
(A) They are killed by the workers.
(B) They remain in order to mate with another queen.
(C) They become workers.
(D) They are exiled from the colony.
8. The word "remainder" in line 10 is closest in meaning to which
of the following?
(A) Strong
(B) Rest
(C) Majority
(D) Fortunate
9. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
(A) The drones' primary responsibility is to feed the queen.
(B) The workers provide food for the colony.
(C) A colony contains more female bees than male bees.
(D) Honeybees are different from most other species of bees.
10. It can be inferred from the passage that drones
(A) exist in relatively large numbers
(B) are sexually active female bees
(C) help the workers in a great many tasks
(D) do not live more than a single year
TOEFL Summer Camp Progress Test 2
Questions 11-20
Life expectancy rates are rising throughout the world as medical
science progresses. Since the end of World War II, most
industrialized nations have taken reasonably good care of their
senior citizens, with pensions tied to the cost of living, free
medical care, and comfortable retirement homes. The gradual
aging of the population, however, is starting to alarm economists,
who see the rising cost of pensions and health care as a burden
to the economy which taxpayers will soon be unable to support.
Some have proposed raising the minimum retirement age; others
are encouraging the spread of private pension and life insurance
schemes. Another possible solution is for employers and the
state to share the burden through a system of phased retirement,
in which working hours are gradually reduced and supplementary
pension payments increased between the ages of sixty and
seventy.
11. What does this passage mainly discuss?
(A) Life expectancy in the industrialized world
(B) Health insurance costs for senior citizens
(C) Problems associated with a large elderly population
(D) Raising the retirement age
12. To which of the following does the author attribute increased
life expectancy?
(A) Improved medical care
(B) Superior pension benefits
(C) Better sanitation
(D) Healthier lifestyles
13. The word "reasonably" in line 3 is closest in meaning to
(A) logically
(B) fairly
(C) unusually
(D) unsurprisingly
14. The underlined word "alarm" is closest in meaning to which
of the following?
(A) Seriously concern
(B) Shock without warning
(C) Gradually undermine
(D) Completely dismay
Page 10
15. According to the passage, how have industrialized nations
treated their elderly over the last half-century?
(A) Somewhat ambiguously
(B) With neglect
(C) Quite well
(D) With little foresight
16. The underlined word "Some" refers to which of the following?
(A) pensions
(B) taxpayers
(C) economists
(D) employers
17. All of the following solutions to the problem of rising pensions
and health care are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT
(A) adopting a system involving gradual retirement
(B) raising the retirement age
(C) relying more on private insurance plans
(D) increasing pension and insurance payments
18. The underlined word "supplementary" is closest in meaning
to
(A) personal
(B) innovative
(C) auxiliary
(D) reductive
19. Where in the passage does the author mention the possibility
of later and more gradual retirement?
(A) Lines 1-2
(B) Lines 2-4
(C) Lines 7-9
(D) Lines 9-11
20. The tone of this passage could best be described as
(A) critical
(B) sarcastic
(C) objective
(D) opinionated
TOEFL Summer Camp Progress Test 2
Questions 21-31
The oceanographer distinguishes sea ice, formed by direct
freezing of ocean water, from icebergs and ice islands, which are
bodies of land ice broken free from tide-level glaciers and
continental ice shelves. Aside from the differences in origin, a
major difference between sea ice and floating masses of land ice
is in thickness. Sea ice, which begins to form when the surface
water is cooled to temperatures of about -2 degrees Celsius, is
limited in thickness to about five meters. An iceberg is formed by
the breaking off, or calving, of blocks from a valley glacier or the
tongue of an icecap, and may be as thick as several hundred
meters. But, because it is only slightly less dense than water, fivesixths of its bulk lies below water. Icebergs of the North Atlantic
and the Antarctic are distinctly different from each other. Whereas
those of the North Atlantic are irregular in shape and therefore
present peaked outlines above the water, Antarctic icebergs are
commonly tabular in form, with flat tops and steep cliff-like sides.
In dimensions, a large tabular berg of the Antarctic may be
several kilometers broad and over 600 meters thick, with an ice
wall rising sixty to ninety meters above sea level. Somewhat
related in origin to the tabular bergs of the Antarctic are the ice
islands of the North Polar Sea. These huge plates of floating ice
may be thirty-two kilometers across and have an area of 800
square kilometers.
21. What is the main topic of this passage?
(A) The formation of icebergs
(B) Varieties of ocean ice
(C) Different types of land ice
(D) Tabular bergs of the Antarctic
22. What is one of the main differences between ice formed in
the sea and ice formed on land'?
(A) Density
(B) Thickness
(C) Irregularity
(D) The hemisphere of origin
23. Ice formed by the direct freezing of ocean water is usually
referred to as
(A) sea ice
(B) icebergs
(C) ice islands
(D) tabular bergs
Page 11
24. The underlined word "it" refers to
(A) a valley glacier
(B) the tongue of an icecap
(C) an iceberg
(D) bulk
25. According to the passage, the largest type of ocean ice is
(A) ice islands
(B) sea ice
(C) tabular bergs
(D) North Polar icebergs
26. The underlined word "bulk" is closest in meaning to which of
the following?
(A) Measurable surface
(B) Total weight
(C) Frozen outline
(D) Bodily mass
27. It can be inferred from the passage that "ice islands" are most
likely to be found in
(A) the North Atlantic
(B) the Antarctic
(C) the North Polar Sea
(D) the continental ice shelves
28. According to the author, which of the following is the largest
ice formation?
(A) Antarctic icebergs
(B) Sea ice
(C) Arctic icebergs
(D) Ice islands
29. The underlined word "distinctly" is closest in meaning to
(A) usually
(B) distantly
(C) distinguishably
(D) slightly
30. From the passage, one may infer that
(A) tabular bergs are not found in the North Polar sea
(B) Antarctic bergs are irregular in shape
(C) icebergs are formed in -2°C temperatures
(D) most icebergs are dangerous
TOEFL Summer Camp Progress Test 2
Questions 32-41
Scientists are for the most part reluctant to acknowledge that the
major uses to which their disciplines are put are military. In fact,
the majority of all scientists and engineers in the world work
directly for the military or with research grants from various
defense agencies. While this application of new scientific insights
for destructive purposes is certainly not new, the scale and scope
of such defense-related research is unprecedented. The total
global budget for military expenditures amounts to the staggering
sum of one trillion dollars annually. From that budget, the amount
of money for research for the Department of Defense in the U.S.,
for example, is twice the combined amount spent for
transportation, medicine, communication, and agriculture. With
so much funding coming from a single source, it is not surprising
that the Pentagon is able to exercise a tremendous amount of
control over which scientific areas get emphasized. While
maintaining sufficient military strength is unfortunately a
necessary evil, it is a sad perversion of the high ideals of the
scientific community that their ideas and discoveries are used
unduly for the purpose of inflicting death and destruction.
31. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for
this passage?
(A) The Military Budget of the United States
(B) How to Reduce Worldwide Military Expenditures
(C) The Elimination of Single-Source Research Funding
(D) The Role of the Military in Scientific Research
32. According to the passage, what do scientists think about how
the military uses the results of their research?
(A) They are satisfied with the application of their ideas.
(B) They hesitate to admit who uses their ideas.
(C) They are eager to speak out about the use of their ideas.
(D) They wish their ideas were more widely discussed publicly.
33. The underlined word "reluctant" is closest m meaning to
which of the following?
(A) eager
(B) requested
(C) expected
(D) hesitant
34. Regarding scientists and engineers worldwide, the passage
implies that
(A) most are members of the military
(B) many are unaware of the true nature of their work
(C) over half work for the military in some capacity
(D) a great number have refused to work on military contracts
Page 12
35. How would the author most likely feel about the abolition of
the military?
(A) He would enthusiastically support it.
(B) He would be resigned to oppose it.
(C) He would be apathetic about it.
(D) He would be actively against it.
36. What can be implied about the amount of money spent
annually for military-related research?
(A) It totals one trillion dollars.
(B) It is unnaturally large.
(C) It comes from a number of sources.
(D) It is twice the amount spent on medicine.
37. Which of the following statements is true, according to the
passage?
(A) The extent of research for military purposes has never been
greater.
(B) The use of new ideas for destructive purposes is a recent
development.
(C) Military expenditures are always the largest item in a nation's
budget.
(D) Science is no longer able to control the military as it once did.
38. The author compares research funding from the Department
of Defense with funding available for other areas in order to
show that
(A) funding in other areas is about half of what it should be
(B) the military is able to exert disproportionate influence
(C) the Pentagon should not be allowed to make budget
decisions
(D) the United States has the world's largest military budget
39. The underlined word '"perversion" is closest in meaning to
(A) persuasion
(B) situation
(C) misapplication
(D) misunderstanding
40. The underlined word "unduly" is closest in meaning to
(A) experimentally
(B) understandably
(C) excessively
(D) unfortunately
TOEFL Summer Camp Progress Test 2
Page 13
41. Which of the following statements would the author be most
likely to agree with?
(A) Scientific research can succeed only with massive military
funding.
(B) Military research is evil and must be banned.
(C) Science and the military have benefited equally from their
relationship.
(D) The inevitable sacrifice of scientific ideals is regrettable.
(B) Detriment
(C) Depreciation
(D) Deprecation
Questions 42-50
Paper, as we know it, made its initial appearance around 105
A.D. in China and has been serving mankind very well for almost
2,000 years. Yet it is only in the last 200 years or so that its lack
of permanence has begun to pose a challenge for the
preservation of our written and printed intellectual heritage. It is a
fact that the rate of decay of paper varies depending on the
amount and type of pulp and additives which are used in making
it. The acidic content of modern paper commonly is relatively high
and, as a result, it loses about fifty percent of its strength during
the first ten percent of its life. Its remaining strength is lost very
slowly over many decades. Even then, however, weakened
paper does not fall apart on its own, but must have external stress
applied to it.
47. What does underlined "it" refer to?
(A) Acidic content
(B) Pulp
(C) Additives
(D) Modem Paper
42. What does this passage mainly discuss?
(A) The invention of paper
(B) Problems with paper
(C) Why paper lacks permanence
(D) Acid in paper-making
43. According to the passage, during which period of history was
paper first used?
(A) In the first century B.C.
(B) During the Middle Ages
(C) At the beginning of the second century A.D.
(D) Near the end of the eighteenth century
44. The underlined word "pose" is closest in meaning to
(A) display
(B) create
(C) indicate
(D) suppose
45. The underlined word "decay" is closest in meaning to which
of the following?
(A) Deterioration
46. The underlined word "commonly" is closest in meaning to
(A) ordinarily
(B) essentially
(C) mainly
(D) purposely
48. The greatest amount of deterioration occurs during what
portion of a book's life span?
(A) The final third
(B) The first tenth
(C) The last ten percent
(D) The middle fifty percent
49. What is the main reason modem paper deteriorates?
(A) Pulp is used in making it.
(B) It contains acid.
(C) It is not properly cared for.
(D) It is subjected to greater stress.
50. According to the passage, which of the following conditions
is necessary for weak paper to decompose?
(A) Outside force
(B) High acidity
(C) Low pulp content
(D) Constant humidity