Automobile Engineering
1. The condition that causes vapour locking in a brake
system is
A.
overheating of the fluid due to frequent brake
application
B.
overcooling of the brakes during high speed
driving
C.
keeping the vehicle without use for an extended
period
D.
an excessively high engine speed on a downhill
road
Answer: Option A
7. The function of an alternator in an automobile is to
A.
supply electric power
B.
convert mechanical energy into electrical energy
C.
continually recharge the battery
D.
partly convert engine power into electric power
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
8. A clutch is usually designed to transmit maximum
torque which is
2. The portion of a crankshaft which rests on cylinder block
is called main journal.
A.
Yes
B.
No
Answer: Option A
3. A baffle plate is fitted inside the oil pan to prevent the
oil from splashing when it is subjected to vibration and
other movement during vehicle operation.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
4. The motion of the cam is transferred to the valves
through
A.
pistons
B.
rocker arms
C.
camshaft pulley
D.
valve stems
Answer: Option B
5. Which of the following symptom is caused as a result of
brake disc run out ?
A.
Ineffectiveness of the brakes
B.
Judder during braking
C.
Localized wearing of the brake pads
D.
Rapid wearing of the brake pads
Answer: Option B
6. If the engine coolant leaks into the engine oil, then
engine oil
A.
appears milky
B.
becomes foamy
C.
turns black
D.
none of these
A.
equal to the maximum engine torque
B.
80 per cent of the maximum engine torque
C.
150 per cent of the maximum engine torque
D.
none of these
Answer: Option C
9. What type of bearing is used for main bearings and
connecting rod bearings ?
A.
Ballbearings
B.
Plain bearings
C.
Needle roller bearing
D.
Taper roller bearing
Answer: Option B
10. It is necessary to maintain the valve clearances as they
A.
reduce the resistance to sliding that occurs
between the cam and the tappet
B.
allow for lengthening of the valves owing to the
heat of combustion
C.
increase the speed at which the valves move up
and down
D.
make the crankshaft turn smoothly
Answer: Option B
11. Incorrect steering axis inclination (S.A.I.) causes
A.
tendency to assume toe-out orientation
B.
generation of a braking effect at tight corners
C.
poor recovery of the steering wheel after
making a turn
D.
the vehicle to pull to the side of lesser
inclination
Answer: Option C
12. In a unit type body (frameless body) design, the sheet
metal parts are welded together, forming a frame work
to which outer skin is attached.
A.
True
B.
False
18. The flywheel and the pressure plate bind the clutch
disc between them so that the engine and the
transmission can be engaged.
A.
Answer: Option A
Yes
B.
No
Answer: Option A
13. The torque available at the contact between driving
wheels and road is known as
A.
brake effort
B.
tractive effort
C.
clutch effort
D.
none of these
19. The vehicle ride will be comfortable if
A.
unsprung mass is kept minimum
B.
sprang mass is kept minimum
C.
vehicle mass is kept minimum
D.
all of these
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
14. A traction control system (TCS) in automobiles controls
the
20. The main function of intake manifold is that it
A.
vibrations on the steering wheel
A.
promotes the mixture of air and fuel
B.
engine power during acceleration
B.
reduces intake noise
C.
torque that is transmitted by the tyres to the
road surface
C.
cools the intake air to a suitable temperature
D.
stopping distance in case of emergency
D.
distributes intake air equally to the cylinders
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
21. Positive camber is used to compensate for wheels
tilting inward due to the weight of the vehicle.
15. In radial tyres
A.
one ply layer runs diagonally one way and
another layer runs diagonally the other way
B.
all plies run parallel to one another and vertical
to tyre bead
C.
inner tubes are always used
D.
none of these
Answer: Option B
16. The oil pump is driven by the
A.
camshaft
B.
alternator shaft
C.
crankshaft via drive belt
D.
crankshaft directly
Answer: Option A
B.
No
Answer: Option A
22. In automobiles G.V.W. refers to
A.
gross vehicle width
B.
gross vehicle weight
C.
gross vehicle wheel base
D.
gross vehicle wheel track
23. The firing order for an in-line four cylinder I.C. engine
is
17. In a spark plug, when the temperature of the central
electrode exceeds a certain temperature, any carbon
that has adhered will be burnt off, and the temperature
at which this burning off carbon starts is referred to as
the self cleaning temperature.
Correct
Yes
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
A.
A.
B.
Incorrect
A.
1-2-3-4
B.
1-3-4-2
C.
1-2-4-3
D.
1-3-2-4
Answer: Option B
24. In a ventilated disc brake,
A.
a duct directs air towards the caliper for cooling
while the vehicle is moving
B.
caliper is covered with cooling fins
C.
disc contains many small holes for optimum
cooling performance
D.
disc contains radial vanes between its rubbing
surfaces for optimum cooling performance
Answer: Option D
25. The effect of having excess camber is
A.
excessive steering alignment torque
B.
hard steering
C.
too much traction
D.
uneven tyre wear
Answer: Option C
31. The information provided by the oxygen (O2) sensor to
the feedback control system is about the
A.
air-fuel ratio
B.
air temperature
C.
air flow speed
D.
exhaust gas volume
Answer: Option A
32. The diagram which shows the correct crank positions
corresponding to the opening and closing of the valves,
is known as
Answer: Option D
26. If the air-fuel mixture in a spark ignition engine is too
rich, then air-fuel ratio is about
A.
indicator diagram
B.
axial force diagram
A.
17:1
B.
15:1
C.
valve timing diagram
C.
13:1
D.
10:1
D.
none of these
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
27. The advantage of double-wishbone suspension design
is that a large amount of freedom is available for
setting geometry and precise settings can be made for
driving comfort and steerability,
A.
Correct
B.
33. The difference between DOT 3 and DOT 4 brake fluids
is
A.
DOT 4 fluid has a higher boiling point than DOT
3 fluid
B.
DOT 4 fluid has a lower boiling point than DOT
3 fluid
C.
DOT 3 and DOT 4 fluids have the same boiling
point, but DOT 4 fluid has a longer service life
D.
DOT 4 fluid is more resistant to freezing than
DOT 3 fluid
Incorrect
Answer: Option A
28. The co-efficient of rolling resistance for a truck
weighing 63 500 N is 0.018. The rolling resistance to
the truck is
A.
1.143 N
B.
11.43 N
C.
114.3 N
D.
1143 N
Answer: Option A
34. The battery is an electrochemical device, which means
battery
Answer: Option D
29. If the level of tension in the belt is too high, it can
result in a loss of power or in bending of the rotating
shaft or crankshaft.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option A
A.
makes chemicals by mechanical means
B.
uses chemical action to provide electricity
C.
has curved plates instead of flat plates
D.
does not use an electrolyte
Answer: Option B
35. The operation of removing trapped air from the
hydraulic braking system is known as
30. If the air-fuel mixture ignites before the spark takes
place at spark plug, the condition is called
A.
detonation
B.
ignition
C.
pre-ignition
D.
rumble
A.
trapping
B.
tapping
C.
bleeding
D.
cleaning
Answer: Option C
36. The aluminium alloy is used in cylinder blocks because
A.
it is lighter and have good heat dissipation
characteristics
B.
material cost is low
C.
it does not require any cylinder liners
D.
the piston is also made of aluminium alloy
Answer: Option A
Correct
seat belt
B.
brake
C.
airbag
D.
steering
Answer: Option C
42. The natural gas is compressed in a CNG cylinder at a
pressure of
37. In a fuel injection system, the electronic control
module (ECM) calculates the optimum fuel-injection
volume for the engine condition based on the data
received from the sensors, and injects this volume of
fuel into the intake manifold at the optimum timing.
A.
A.
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option A
A.
200 bar
B.
220 bar
C.
250 bar
D.
300 bar
Answer: Option A
38. The tilting of the front wheels away from the vertical,
when viewed from the front of the car, is called
A.
camber
B.
caster
C.
toe-in
D.
toe-out
Answer: Option A
39. The main function of the tread pattern on tyre is that
43. The cetane rating of Diesel fuel is in the order of
A.
25
B.
45
C.
70
D.
90
Answer: Option B
44. The air gap between the central electrode and ground
(or side) electrode of a spark plug is around
the tread grooves pass air between the tyre
and road surface, thereby preventing tyre from
overheating
A.
0.2 mm
B.
0.5 mm
B.
the crests between the tread grooves absorb
road noise
C.
1 mm
D.
1.5 mm
C.
in wet conditions, the tread grooves expel
water that is drawn between the tyre and road
surface
A.
D.
the tread pattern protects the tyre's inner
carcass from small stones and pieces of glass
Answer: Option C
40. The compression ratio in petrol engine is kept less than
in Diesel engine because
A.
it makes petrol engines lighter
B.
higher or equivalent compression ratio in petrol
engines is not possible due to pre-ignition
C.
less compression ratio gives better
performance
D.
it is just customary to have less compression
ratio in petrol engines
Answer: Option C
45. The cetane number of a Diesel fuel is a measure of
A.
volatility
B.
viscosity
C.
ignition quality
D.
delay peirod
Answer: Option D
46. The valve overlap in four stroke petrol engines is
approximately
A.
30°
B.
60°
C.
90°
D.
120°
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
41. The most commonly used supplementary restraint
system (SRS) component is
47. The petrol engines are also known as
A.
spark ignition (S.I.) engines
B.
compression ignition (C.I.) engines
C.
steam engines
D.
none of these
Answer: Option D
3. A rocket works with maximum overall efficiency when
air-craft velocity is __________ the jet velocity.
Answer: Option A
A.
equal to
B.
one-half
C.
double
48. Which of the following indicates a multigrade oil ?
A.
SAE 30
B.
API SF
C.
SAE 20 W-50
D.
API 50
Answer: Option B
4. The volumetric efficiency for reciprocating air
compressors is about
Answer: Option C
49. The coefficient of friction for the clutch facing is
approximately
A.
0.1
B.
0.4
C.
0.8
D.
1.2
Answer: Option B
50. The component that connects the steering rack to the
knuckles is
A.
tie-rod
B.
sector gear
C.
pivot
D.
spline
10 to 40%
B.
40 to 60%
C.
60 to 70%
D.
70 to 90%
Answer: Option D
5. The maximum temperature in a gas turbine is
A.
200°C
B.
500°C
C.
700°C
D.
1000°C
Answer: Option C
6. The rotary compressors are suitable
for large discharge of air at low
pressure.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
and Gas Turbines
A.
Compressors, Gas Dynamics
1. In a four stage compressor, if the pressure at the first
and third stage are 1 bar and 16 bar, then the delivery
pressure at the fourth stage will be
7. The stagnation pressure rise in a
centrifugal compressor takes place
A.
in the diffuser only
A.
1 bar
B.
in the impeller only
B.
16 bar
C.
in the diffuser and impeller
C.
64 bar
D.
in the inlet guide vanes only
D.
256 bar
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
2. The compressed air may be used
A.
in gas turbine plants
B.
for operating pneumatic drills
C.
in starting and supercharging of I.C. engines
D.
all of the above
8. The total heat rejected in a
reciprocating air compressor is equal
to the sum of the heat rejected
during polytropic compression per kg
of air and heat rejected in the
intercooler per kg of air.
A.
True
Answer: Option A
B.
False
9. In a jet propulsion
A.
B.
compressor is
the propulsive matter is
ejected from within the
propelled body
A.
10 bar
B.
20 bar
the propulsive matter is
caused to flow around the
propelled body
C.
30 bar
D.
50 bar
C.
its functioning does not
depend upon presence of air
D.
none of the above
Answer: Option A
15. The capacity of a compressor is expressed in
Answer: Option B
10. An open cycle gas turbine works on
the same cycle as that of a closed
cycle gas turbine.
A.
Yes
B.
A.
kg/m2
B.
kg/m3
C.
m3/min
D.
m3/kg
Answer: Option C
No
16. Intercooling in multi-stage compressors is done
Answer: Option A
11. Which of the following statement is
wrong?
A.
In a two stage reciprocating air
compressor with complete
intercooling, maximum work is
saved.
B.
The minimum work required for a
two stage reciprocating air
compressor is double the work
required for each stage.
C.
The ratio of the volume of free
air delivery per stroke to the
swept volume of the piston is
called volumetric efficiency.
D.
none of the above
Answer: Option D
12. In a single acting reciprocating compressor, the
suction, compression and delivery of air takes place in
__________ of the piston.
A.
one stroke
B.
two strokes
C.
three strokes
D.
four strokes
13. The increase in pressure in a vane blower takes place
first due to compression and then due to back flow of
air.
Correct
to cool the air during compression
B.
to cool the air at delivery
C.
to enable compression in two stages
D.
to minimise the work of compression
Answer: Option D
17. For a two stage reciprocating compressor, compression
from p1 to p3 is with perfect intercooling and no
pressure losses. If compression in both the cylinders
follows the same polytropic process and the
atmospheric pressure is pa, then the intermediate
pressure p2 is given by
A.
p2 = (p1 + p3)/2
B.
p2 = p1.p3
C.
P2 = Pa x p3/p1
D.
p2 = pa p3/p1
Answer: Option B
18. The ratio of workdone per cycle to the stroke volume of
the compressor is known as
Answer: Option B
A.
A.
B.
Incorrect
A.
compressor capacity
B.
compression ratio
C.
compressor efficiency
D.
mean effective pressure
Answer: Option D
19. The clearance volume in the compressor is kept
minimum because it effects on volumetric efficiency.
A.
Correct
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
14. The maximum delivery pressure in a rotary air
B.
Incorrect
20. The inlet pressure is always __________ the discharge
pressure.
A.
low speeds
A.
equal to
B.
high speeds
B.
less than
C.
low altitudes
C.
more than
D.
high altitudes
Answer: Option B
21. Which of the following statement is correct?
A.
The ratio of the discharge pressure to the inlet
pressure of air is called compressor efficiency.
B.
The compression ratio for the compressor is
always greater than unity.
C.
The compressor capacity is the ratio of
workdone per cycle to the stroke volume.
D.
During isothermal compression of air, the
workdone in a compressor is maximum.
Answer: Option B
22. In the aircraft propellers
A.
the propulsive matter is ejected from within the
propelled body
B.
the propulsive matter is caused to flow around
the propelled body
C.
its functioning does not depend upon the
presence of air
D.
none of the above
Answer: Option A
23. The type of rotary compressor used in gas turbines, is
of
A.
centrifugal type
B.
axial flow type
C.
radial flow type
D.
none of these
Answer: Option B
24. The volume of air delivered by the compressor is called
Answer: Option D
26. In axial flow compressor, exit flow angle deviation from
the blade angle is a function of
A.
blade camber
B.
blade camber and incidence angle
C.
space-chord ratio
D.
blade camber and space-chord ratio
Answer: Option B
27. Rotary compressors are used for delivering
A.
small quantities of air at high pressures
B.
large quantities of air at high pressures
C.
small quantities of air at low pressures
D.
large quantities of air at low pressures
Answer: Option D
28. Workdone by a two-stage reciprocating air compressor
per cycle is equal to the workdone in LP. cylinder and
H.P. cylinder.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
29. A rotary compressor is driven by an
A.
electric motor
B.
engine
C.
either (a) or (b)
D.
none of these
Answer: Option C
A.
free air delivery
B.
compressor capacity
C.
swept volume
A.
increase in flow
D.
none of these
B.
decrease in flow
C.
increase in efficiency
D.
increase in flow and decrease in efficiency
Answer: Option B
30. In a centrifugal compressor, an increase in speed at a
given pressure ratio causes
Answer: Option D
25. The efficiency of a jet engine is higher at
31. A large clearance Volume in a reciprocating compressor
results in
A.
reduced volume flow rate
B.
increased volume flow rate
C.
lower suction pressure
D.
lower delivery pressure
Answer: Option B
37. The compression ratio in a gas turbine is
A.
4
B.
1
C.
9
D.
12
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
32. A closed cycle gas turbine gives __________ efficiency
as compared to an open cycle gas turbine.
A.
same
C.
higher
B.
38. Intercooling in compressors results in saving of power
in compressing given volume of air to a given pressure.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
lower
Answer: Option A
39. Only rocket engines can be propelled to space because
Answer: Option C
33. Gas turbine as compared to steam turbine
A.
requires less space for installation
B.
has compressor and combustion chamber
C.
has less efficiency
D.
all of these
A.
they can generate very high thrust
B.
they have high propulsion efficiency
C.
these engines can work on several fuels
D.
they are not air-breathing engines
Answer: Option D
40. The maximum combustion pressure in gas turbine is
__________ as compared to I.C. engine.
Answer: Option D
A.
more
B.
less
34. Intercooling in gas turbines
A.
decreases net output but increases thermal
efficiency
B.
increases net output but decreases thermal
efficiency
C.
decreases net output and thermal efficiency
both
D.
increases net output and thermal efficiency
both
Answer: Option B
41. An aftercooler is used to
A.
remove impurities from air
B.
reduce volume of air
C.
cause moisture and oil vapour to drop out
D.
cool the air
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
35. When the temperature of air leaving the intercooler, in
a two stage compression with intercooler, is
__________ the original atmospheric air temperature,
then the intercooling is known as perfect or complete
intercooling.
A.
equal to
B.
less than
C.
more than
36. The actual volume of air delivered by a compressor,
When reduced to the normal temperature and pressure
conditions is called compressor capacity.
Yes
A.
increases power output
B.
improves thermal efficiency
C.
reduces exhaust temperature
D.
do not damage turbine blades
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
A.
42. High air-fuel ratio in gas turbines
B.
No
43. The ratio of the volume of free air delivery per stroke
to the swept volume of the piston, is known as
A.
compressor efficiency
B.
volumetric efficiency
C.
isothermal efficiency
D.
mechanical efficiency
49. In a reciprocating air compressor, the compression
work per kg of air
Answer: Option B
44. If p1, is the pressure of air entering the L.P. cylinder
and p2 is the pressure of air leaving the L.P. cylinder
(or intercooler pressure), then the ratio of cylinder
diameters for a single acting, two stage reciprocating
air compressor with complete intercooling is given by
(where D1 = Dia. of L.P. cylinder, and D2 = Dia. of H.P.
cylinder)
A.
D1/D2 = p1p2
B.
D1/D2 = p1/p2
C.
D1/D2 = p2/p1
D.
none of these
A.
increases as clearance volume increases
B.
decreases as clearance volume increases
C.
is independent of clearance volume
D.
increases as clearance volume decreases
Answer: Option C
50. The degree of reaction in an axial flow compressor is
defined as the ratio of static enthalpy rise in the
A.
rotor to static enthalpy rise in the stator
B.
stator to static enthalpy rise in the rotor
C.
rotor to static enthalpy rise in the stage
D.
stator to static enthalpy rise in the stage
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
Engineering Materials
1. Specify the sequence correctly
45. The ratio of the indicated power to the shaft power or
brake power of the motor or engine required to drive
the compressor, is called
A.
compressor efficiency
B.
volumetric efficiency
C.
isothermal efficiency
D.
mechanical efficiency
A.
Grain growth, recrystallisation, stress relief
B.
Stress relief, grain growth, recrystallisation
C.
Stress relief, recrystallisation, grain growth
D.
Grain growth, stress relief, recrystallisation
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
46. The increase in pressure in a roots blower is entirely
due to back flow of air.
A.
Agree
B.
Disagree
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Answer: Option A
2. Thermoplastic materials are those materials which
47. The type of rotary compressor used in aeroplanes, is of
A.
centrifugal type
B.
axial flow type
C.
radial flow type
D.
none of these
Answer: Option B
48. An axial compressor gives optimum performance at
high speeds and large volume flows.
A.
Agree
Answer: Option A
B.
A.
are formed into shape under heat and pressure
and results in a permanently hard product
B.
do not become hard with the application of heat
and pressure and no chemical change occurs
C.
are flexible and can withstand considerable wear
under suitable conditions
D.
are used as a friction lining for clutches and
brakes
Answer: Option B
Disagree
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3. Which of the following material has maximum ductility?
A.
Mild steel
B.
Copper
C.
Nickel
D.
Aluminium
Answer: Option C
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7. The hardness is the property of a material due to which
it
Answer: Option A
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discuss.
A.
can be drawn into wires
B.
breaks with little permanent distortion
C.
can cut another metal
D.
can be rolled or hammered into thin sheets
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Answer: Option C
4. An eutectoid steel consists of
A.
wholly pearlite
B.
wholly austenite
C.
pearlite and ferrite
D.
pearlite and cementite
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8. Malleable cast iron is produced
Answer: Option A
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A.
by adding magnesium to molten cast iron
B.
by quick cooling of molten cast iron
C.
from white cast iron by annealing process
D.
none of these
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Answer: Option C
5. Shock resisting steels should have
A.
low wear resistance
B.
low hardness
C.
low tensile strength
D.
toughness
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9. Smelting is the process of
Answer: Option D
6. Cast iron is a
A.
ductile material
B.
malleable material
C.
brittle material
D.
tough material
A.
removing the impurities like clay, sand etc. from
the iron ore by washing with water
B.
expelling moisture, carbon dioxide, sulphur and
arsenic from the iron ore by heating in shallow
kilns
C.
reducing the ore with carbon in the presence of
a flux
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option C
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B.
atoms distributed in random pattern
C.
different crystal structures at different
temperatures
D.
any one of the above
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Answer: Option C
10. The percentage of carbon in cast iron varies from
A.
0.1 to 0.5
B.
0.5 to 1
C.
1 to 1.7
D.
1.7 to 4.5
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14. Closed packed hexagonal space lattice is found in
Answer: Option D
11. The ability of a material to absorb energy in the plastic
range is called
A.
resilience
B.
creep
C.
fatigue strength
D.
toughness
A.
zinc, magnesium, cobalt, cadmium, antimony
and bismuth
B.
gamma-iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver
and nickel
C.
alpha-iron, tungsten, chromium and
molybdenum
D.
none of the above
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
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12. Brass is an alloy of
A.
copper and zinc
B.
copper and tin
C.
copper, tin and zinc
D.
none of these
Answer: Option A
15. The hardness and tensile strength in austenitic
stainless steel can be increased by
A.
hardening and cold working
B.
normalising
C.
martempering
D.
full annealing
Answer: Option A
16. The quenching of steel from the upper critical point
results in a fine grained structure.
A.
Agree
B.
Disagree
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Answer: Option A
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13. A material is said to be allotropic, if it has
A.
fixed structure at all temperatures
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17. An alloy steel which is work hardenable and which is
used to make the blades of bulldozers, bucket wheel
excavators and other earth moving equipment contain
iron, carbon and
A.
Yes
B.
No
Answer: Option A
21. Dye penetrant method is generally used to locate
A.
core defects
A.
chromium
B.
silicon
B.
surface defects
C.
manganese
D.
magnesium
C.
superficial defects
D.
temporary defects
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
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18. Which of the following has a fine gold colour and is
used for imitation jewellery?
A.
Silicon bronze
B.
Aluminium bronze
C.
Gun metal
D.
Babbit metal
22. The charge is fed into the blast furnace through the
A.
stack
B.
throat
C.
bosh
D.
tuyers
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
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23. A small percentage of boron is added to steel in order
to
19. When the steel is normalised, its
A.
increase hardenability
A.
yield point increases
B.
reduce machinability
B.
ductility decreases
C.
increase wear resistance
C.
ultimate tensile strength increases
D.
increase endurance strength
D.
all of these
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
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20. White cast iron has a high tensile strength and a low
compressive strength.
24. Which of the following process of steel making is in
operation at Tata Iron and Steel Works, Jamshedpur?
A.
Bessemer process
B.
Open hearth process
C.
Duplex process
D.
Electric process
Answer: Option C
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28. The alloying element which increases residual
magnetism and coercive magnetic force in steel for
magnets is
A.
chromium
B.
nickel
C.
vanadium
D.
cobalt
Answer: Option D
25. The unit cells
A.
contain the smallest number of atoms which
when taken together have all the properties of
the crystals of the particular metal
B.
have the same orientation and their similar
faces are parallel
C.
may be defined as the smallest parallelopiped
which could be transposed in three coordinate
directions to build up the space lattice
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option D
26. Tungsten when added to steel __________ the critical
temperature.
A.
does not effect
B.
lowers
C.
raises
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29. Cast iron is manufactured in
A.
blast furnace
B.
cupola
C.
open hearth furnace
D.
bessemer converter
Answer: Option B
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Answer: Option C
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27. Silicon when added to copper improves
A.
machinability
B.
hardness
C.
hardness and strength
D.
strength and ductility
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30. The lower critical point for all steels is
A.
600°C
B.
700°C
C.
723°C
D.
913°C
Answer: Option C
31. Haematite iron ore contains iron about
A.
30%
B.
45%
C.
55%
D.
70%
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
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carbon are known as
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32. The material in which the atoms are arranged regularly
in some directions but not in others, is called
A.
amorphous material
B.
mesomorphous material
C.
crystalline material
D.
none of these
A.
eutectic cast irons
B.
hypo-eutectic cast irons
C.
hyper-eutectic cast irons
D.
none of these
Answer: Option B
36. The coke in the charge of blast furnace
Answer: Option B
A.
controls the grade of pig iron
B.
acts as an iron-bearing mineral
C.
supplies heat to reduce ore and
melt the iron
D.
forms a slag by combining with
impurities
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Answer: Option C
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33. The steel produced by bessemer or open hearth
process is __________ to that produced by L-D
process.
A.
superior
B.
inferior
Answer: Option B
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34. Crystal structure of a material is, generally, examined
by
A.
naked eye
B.
optical microscope
C.
metallurgical microscope
D.
X-ray techniques
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37. Nimonic contains __________ percentage
of nickel as that of Inconel.
A.
same
C.
more
B.
less
Answer: Option A
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38. The heat treatment process used for
softening hardened steel is
Answer: Option D
No description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
A.
carburising
B.
normalising
C.
annealing
D.
tempering
Answer: Option D
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35.
Iron-carbon alloys containing 1.7 to 4.3%
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39. The dieing down of a white flame during
the operation of a bessemer converter
indicates that the air is burning out silicon
and manganese.
A.
Yes
B.
No
40. The electric process of steel making is
especially adopted to
A.
alloy and carbon tool steel
B.
magnet steel
C.
high speed tool steel
D.
all of these
oxides
B.
carbonates
C.
sulphides
D.
all of these
in still air
B.
slowly in the furnace
C.
suddenly in a suitable cooling medium
D.
any one of these
44. Ferrite and pearlite makes the steel soft and ductile.
A.
Agree
B.
Disagree
Answer: Option A
45. The lower critical temperature
Answer: Option D
Iron ore is, usually, found in the form of
A.
A.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
41.
43. In full annealing, the hypo-eutectoid steel is heated
from 30° C to 50° C above the upper critical
temperature and then cooled
A.
decreases as the carbon content in steel
increases
B.
increases as the carbon content in steel
increases
C.
is same for all steels
D.
depends upon the rate of heating
Answer: Option C
46. Nodular cast iron is produced by adding __________ to
the molten cast iron.
Answer: Option D
No description available for this question. Let
us discuss.
A.
nickel
B.
chromium
C.
copper
D.
magnesium
Answer: Option D
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discuss.
42. The hardness of steel increases if it contains
A.
pearlite
B.
ferrite
C.
cementite
D.
martensite
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47. Free carbon in iron makes the metal
A.
soft and gives a coarse grained crystalline
structure
B.
soft and gives a fine grained crystalline
structure
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discuss.
C.
hard and gives a coarse grained crystalline
structure
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D.
hard and gives a fine grained crystalline
structure
Answer: Option C
A.
True
B.
False
Answer
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
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48. The cupola is used to manufacture
A.
pig iron
B.
cast iron
C.
wrought iron
D.
steel
2. The friction experienced by a body, when in motion, is known as
A.
rolling friction
B.
dynamic friction
C.
limiting friction
D.
static friction
Answer: Option B
3. Two balls of equal mass and of perfectly elastic material are lying on
velocity v is made to struck the second ball. Both the balls after imp
Answer: Option B
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A.
v
B.
v/2
C.
v/4
D.
v/8
Answer: Option B
4. The term 'force' may be defined as an agent which produces or tend
destroy motion.
A.
Agree
B.
Disagree
49. The type of space lattice found in gamma-iron is
A.
face centred cubic space lattice
B.
body centred cubic space lattice
C.
close packed hexagonal space lattice
D.
none of these
Answer: Option A
5. The coefficient of restitution for elastic bodies is one.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
6. The velocity ratio in case of an inclined plane inclined at angle θ to t
pulled up the inclined plane by vertical effort is
No description available for this question. Let us
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A.
sin θ
B.
cos θ
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C.
tan θ
D.
cosec θ
50. The property of a material due to which it breaks with
little permanent distortion, is called
A.
brittleness
B.
ductility
C.
malleability
D.
plasticity
Answer: Option A
Engineering Mechanics
Answer: Option A
7. The range of projectile on a downward inclined plane is
__________ the range on upward inclined plane for the
same velocity of projection and angle of projection.
A.
less than
B.
more than
C. of equal
to of masses in any
1. According to principle of conservation of energy, the total momentum
a system
direction remains constant unless acted upon by an external force in that direction.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
8. The angle of inclination of a vehicle when moving along
a circular path __________ upon its mass.
A.
depends
B.
does not depend
14. The time of flight (t) of a projectile on an upward
inclined plane is(where u = Velocity of projection, α =
Angle of projection, and β = Inclination of the plane
with the horizontal.)
A.
Answer
B.
Answer: Option B
9. A body of weight W is required to move up on rough
inclined plane whose angle of inclination with the
horizontal is α. The effort applied parallel to the plane is
given by(where μ = tanφ = Coefficient of friction
between the plane and the body.)
A.
P = W tanα
B.
P = W tan(α + φ)
C.
P = W (sinα + μcosα)
D.
P = W (cosα + μsinα)
C.
D.
Answer
Answer: Option B
15. The unit of angular acceleration is
Answer: Option C
10. If the resultant of two equal forces has the same
magnitude as either of the forces, then the angle
between the two forces is
A.
30°
B.
60°
C.
90°
D.
120°
Answer: Option D
A.
N-m
B.
m/s
C.
m/s2
D.
rad/s2
Answer: Option D
16. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b)
and height (h) about an axis passing through its C.G.
and parallel to the base, is
A.
bh3/4
B.
bh3/8
C.
bh3/12
D.
bh3/36
Answer
11. A smooth cylinder lying on its convex surface remains
in __________ equilibrium.
A.
stable
C.
neutral
B.
Answer: Option D
unstable
17. If the masses of both the bodies, as shown in the
below figure, are reduced to 50 percent, then tension
in the string will be
Answer: Option B
12. Coefficient of friction is the ratio of the limiting friction
to the normal reaction between the two bodies.
A.
Yes
B.
No
Answer: Option A
13. Moment of inertia of a circular section about an axis
perpendicular to the section is
A.
πd3/16
B.
πd3/32
C.
πd4/32
D.
πd4/64
A.
same
C.
double
Answer
Answer: Option B
B.
half
22. In the shown figure, if the angle of inclination of the
plane is increased, then acceleration of the system will
18. Which of the following is an equation of linear
motion?(where, u and v = Initial and final velocity of
the body, a = Acceleration of the body, and s =
Displacement of the body in time t seconds.)
A.
v = u + a.t
B.
s = u.t + 1/2 a.t2
C.
v2 = u2+2a.s
D.
all of these
A.
increase
B.
decrease
C.
remain the same
Answer
Answer: Option D
19. If a number of forces are acting at a point,
theirresultant will be inclined at an angle θ with the
horizontal, such that
A.
tan θ = ∑H/∑V
B.
tan θ = ∑V/∑H
C.
tan θ = ∑Vx∑H
Answer: Option B
23. The total time taken by a projectile to reach maximum
height and to return back to the ground, is known as
time of flight.
A.
Yes
B.
No
Answer: Option A
D.
24. The frequency of oscillation of a torsional pendulum is
Answer: Option B
20.
A.
B.
C.
The above figure shows the two equal forces at right
angles acting at a point. The value of force R acting
along their bisector and in opposite direction is
A.
P/2
B.
2P
D.
Answer: Option D
C.
D.
25. The range of a projectile is maximum, when the angle
of projection is
Answer: Option C
21. The force required to move the body up the plane will
be minimum if it makes an angle with the inclined
plane __________ the angle of friction.
A.
equal to
B.
less than
C.
greater than
Answer: Option A
A.
30°
B.
45°
C.
60°
D.
90°
Answer: Option B
26. The mechanical advantage of a lifting machine is the
ratio of
A.
distance moved by effort to the distance moved
by load
B.
load lifted to the effort applied
C.
output to the input
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option C
32. The centre of gravity of an equilateral
triangle with each side a, is __________
from any of the three sides.
Answer: Option B
27. Static friction is always __________ dynamic friction.
A.
equal to
B.
less than
C.
3a/2
B.
23a
C.
a/23
D.
32a
Answer
greater than
Answer
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
28. A body will begin to move down an inclined plane if the
angle of inclination of the plane is __________ the
angle of friction.
A.
equal to
B.
less than
C.
greater than
33. The distance, between the point of
projection and the point where the
projectile strikes the ground, is known as
range.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option A
34. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of
a number of forces in a given direction is
equal to the resolved part of their resultant
in the same direction. This is known as
Answer: Option C
29. When a particle moves along a circular path with
uniform velocity, there will be no tangential
acceleration.
A.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
A.
principle of independence of forces
B.
principle of resolution of forces
C.
principle of transmissibility of forces
D.
none of these
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
30.
The bodies which rebound after impact
are called
A.
inelastic bodies
B.
elastic bodies
C.
neither elastic nor inelastic bodies
D.
none of these
35. The triangle law of forces states that if two
forces acting simultaneously on a particle,
be represented in magnitude and direction
by the two sides of a triangle taken in
order, then their resultant may be
represented in magnitude and direction by
the third side of a triangle, taken in
opposite order.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
31. The maximum frictional force, which comes
into play, when a body just begins to slide
over the surface of the other body, is
known as
A.
static friction
B.
dynamic friction
C.
limiting friction
D.
coefficient of friction
36.
The angle between two forces when the
resultant is maximum and minimum
respectively are
A.
0° and 180°
B.
180° and 0°
C.
90° and 180°
D.
90° and 0°
Answer: Option A
A.
True
B.
False
37. The path of the projectile is a parabola.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
38. The equivalent length of a simple pendulum which
gives the same frequency as compound pendulum is
A.
Answer: Option A
42. When a rigid body is suspended vertically, and it
oscillates with a small amplitude under the action of
the force of gravity, the body is known as
A.
simple pendulum
B.
compound pendulum
C.
torsional pendulum
D.
second's pendulum
B.
Answer: Option B
43. Moment of inertia of a hollow circular section, as shown
in the below figure about X-axis, is
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
39. A redundant frame is also called __________ frame.
A.
perfect
B.
imperfect
C.
deficient
Answer
A.
B.
Answer: Option B
40. Mass moment of inertia of a uni form thin rod of
mass M and length (l) about its mid-point and
perpendicular to its length is
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
41. A resultant force is a single force which produces the
same effect as produced by all the given forces acting
on a body.
Answer: Option D
44. If two blocks of equal mass are attached to the two
ends of a light string and one of the blocks is placed
over a smooth horizontal plane while the other is hung
freely after passing over a smooth pulley, then the two
blocks will have some motion.
A.
Agree
B.
Disagree
Answer: Option A
45. During elastic impact, the relative velocity of the two
bodies after impact is __________ the relative velocity
of the two bodies before impact.
A.
equal to
A.
equal to
B.
equal and opposite to
B.
less than
C.
less than
C.
greater than
D.
greater than
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
Heat Transfer, Refrigeration and Air
Conditioning
46. Work done is said to be zero, when
A.
some force acts on a body, but displacement is
zero
B.
no force acts on a body but some displacement
takes place
C.
either (a) or (b)
D.
none of the above
remains constant
B.
increases
C.
decreases
2. The C.O.P. of an absorption type refrigerator is given by (where T1 =
working substance receives heat, T2 = Temperature of cooling wate
temperature)
47. The force which acts along the radius of a circle and
directed away from the centre of the circle is called
centrifugal force.
Agree
A.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
A.
1. The wet bulb temperature during sensible heating of air
B.
Disagree
Answer: Option A
A.
B.
C.
48. One watt is equal to
A.
0.1 joule/s
B.
1 joule/s
C.
10 joules/s
D.
100 joules/s
D.
Answer: Option B
3. Which of the following statement is wrong?
Answer: Option B
49. two like parallel forces are acting at a distance of 24
mm apart and their resultant is 20 N. It the line of
action of the resultant is 6 mm from any given force,
the two forces are
A.
15 N and 5 N
B.
20 N and 5 N
C.
15 N and 15 N
D.
none of these
Answer: Option A
50. If two bodies having masses m1 and m2 (m1>m2) have
equal kinetic energies, the momentum of body having
mass m1 is __________ the momentum of body having
mass m2.
A.
The heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place according to
B.
The amount of heat flow through a body is dependent upon th
C.
The thermal conductivity of solid metals increases with rise in
D.
Logarithmic mean temperature difference is not equal to the a
difference.
Answer: Option C
4. In free convection heat transfer transition from laminar to turbulent
value of the
A.
Reynold's number
B.
Grashoff's number
C.
Reynold's number, Grashoff's number
D.
Prandtl number, Grashoff's number
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
5. In a refrigerating machine, heat rejected is __________ heat absorbed.
A.
equal to
B.
less than
C.
greater than
11. According to Dalton's law of partial pressures,
(where pb = Barometric pressure, pa = Partial pressure
of dry air, and pv = Partial pressure of water vapour)
Answer: Option C
A.
Pb = pa - pv
B.
Pb = pa + pv
C.
Pb = pa x pv
6. The humidity ratio or specific humidity is the mass of water vapour present
D. Pbin= pa/pv
3
A. 1 m of wet air
B.
1 m3 of dry air
C.
1 kg of wet air
D.
1 kg of dry air
Answer: Option B
12. The heat transfer by conduction through a thick sphere
is given by
A.
Answer: Option D
7. The formation of frost on cooling coils in a refrigerator
A.
increases heat transfer
B.
improves C.O.P. of the system
C.
increases power consumption
D.
reduces power consumption
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option C
8. The by-pass factor for a cooling coil
Answer: Option B
A.
increases with increase in velocity of air passing
through it
B.
decreases with increase in velocity of air passing
through it
A.
the mass of water vapour present in 1 m3 of
dry air
C.
remains unchanged with increase in velocity of
air passing through it
B.
the mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry
air
D.
may increase or decrease with increase in
velocity of air passing through it depending upon
the condition of air entering
C.
the ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in
a unit mass of dry air to the mass of water
vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is
saturated at the same temperature and
pressure.
D.
the ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a
given volume of moist air to the mass of water
vapour in the same volume of saturated air at
the same temperature and pressure
13. The relative humidity is defined as
Answer: Option A
9. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet
bulb temperature, is called
A.
dry bulb depression
B.
wet bulb depression
C.
dew point depression
D.
degree of saturation
Answer: Option D
14. Fourier's law of heat conduction is (where Q = Amount
of heat flow through the body in unit time, A = Surface
area of heat flow, taken at right angles to the direction
of heat flow, dT = Temperature difference on the two
faces of the body, dx = Thickness of the body, through
which the heat flows, taken along the direction of heat
flow, and k = Thermal conductivity of the body)
Answer: Option B
10. Defrosting of a refrigerator may be done by stopping
the compressor for a short period.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
A.
B.
C.
C.
D.
D.
Answer: Option C
20. The optimum effective temperature for human comfort
is
Answer: Option A
15. The heat transfer by conduction through a thick sphere
is same as through a thick cylinder.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option B
16. In aqua-ammonia and Lithium-bromide water
absorption refrigeration systems, the refrigerants are
respectively
A.
water and water
B.
water and lithium bromide
C.
ammonia and lithium bromide
D.
ammonia and water
17. As relative humidity decreases, the dew point
temperature will be __________ wet bulb
temperature.
same as
B.
lower than
C.
higher man
B.
19. Reynolds number (RN) is given by (where h = Film
coefficient, l = Linear dimension, V= Velocity of
fluid, k = Thermal conductivity, t = Temperature, ρ =
Density of fluid, cp = Specific heat at constant
pressure, and μ = Coefficient of absolute viscosity)
B.
C.
same in winter and summer
D.
not dependent on season
Answer: Option B
21. The wet bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric
chart, are curved lines.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option B
22. The sensible heat factor during cooling and
dehumidification process is given by (where h1 =
Enthalpy of air entering the cooling coil, h2 = Enthalpy
of air leaving the cooling coil, and hA = Enthalpy of air
at the end of dehumidification process)
A.
D.
False
Answer: Option A
A.
lower in winter than in summer
C.
18. The process of heat transfer from a hot body to a cold
body, in a straight line, without affecting the
intervening medium, is called radiation.
True
B.
B.
Answer: Option B
A.
higher in winter than in summer
A.
Answer: Option D
A.
A.
Answer: Option A
23. Thermal diffusivity is a
A.
function of temperature
B.
physical property of a substance
C.
dimensionless parameter
D.
all of these
Answer: Option B
24. The condition of refrigerant after leaving the
compressor and before entering the condenser is
superheated vapour.
A.
Yes
B.
No
30 kJ/s and the latent heat added is 20 kJ/s. The
sensible heat factor for the process will be
A.
0.3
B.
0.6
C.
0.67
D.
1.5
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
25. The total radiation from a black body per second per
unit area is __________ fourth power of the absolute
temperature. This statement is known as StefanBoltzmann law.
28. The amount of radiation mainly depends upon the
A.
nature of the body
A.
equal to
B.
temperature of the body
B.
directly proportional to
C.
type of surface of the body
C.
inversely proportional to
D.
all of these
Answer: Option B
26. Which of the following represents a heat pump?
A.
Answer: Option D
29. For ammonia refrigerating systems, the tubes of a shell
and tube condenser are made of
A.
copper
B.
aluminium
C.
steel
D.
brass
Answer: Option C
30. The highest thermal diffusivity is of
A.
iron
B.
lead
C.
concrete
D.
wood
Answer: Option B
B.
31. While designing the refrigeration system of an aircraft,
the prime consideration is that the
C.
A.
system has high C.O.P.
B.
power per TR is low
C.
mass of refrigerant circulated in the system is
low
D.
mass of the refrigeration equipment is low
Answer: Option D
32. The heat transfer takes place according to
D.
A.
Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B.
First law of thermodynamics
C.
Second law of thermodynamics
D.
Kirchhoff's law
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
33. An electrolux refrigerator is called a __________
absorption system.
A.
27. In a psychrometric process, the sensible heat added is
single fluid
B.
two fluids
Answer: Option C
A.
the mass of water vapour present in 1 m3 of
dry air
B.
the mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry
air
C.
the ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in
a unit mass of dry air to the mass of water
vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is
saturated at the same temperature and
pressure.
D.
the ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a
given volume of moist air to the mass of water
vapour in the same volume of saturated air at
the same temperature and pressure
34. The heat transfer by radiation __________ a medium.
A.
requires
B.
does not require
Answer: Option B
35. Thermal conductivity of water __________ with rise in
temperature.
A.
remains same
B.
decreases
C.
increases
D.
may increase or decrease depending upon
temperature
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
40. The coefficient of performance is always __________
one.
A.
equal to
B.
less than
C.
greater than
Answer: Option C
36. During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air
__________ remains constant.
41. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the
refrigerant in a
A.
relative humidity
B.
dew point temperature
A.
compressor
C.
dry bulb temperature
B.
condenser
D.
wet bulb temperature
C.
evaporator
D.
expansion valve
Answer: Option D
37. The thickness of thermal and hydrodynamic boundary
layer is equal if Prandtl number is
A.
equal to one
B.
greater than one
C.
less than one
D.
equal to Nusselt number
Answer: Option A
38. A perfect black body is one which
A.
is black in colour
B.
absorbs heat radiations of all wave lengths
falling on it
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
42. A refrigeration system
A.
removes heat from a low temperature body and
delivers it to a high temperature body
B.
removes heat from a high temperature body
and delivers it to a low temperature body
C.
rejects energy to a low temperature body
D.
none of the above
Answer: Option A
43. The subcooling in a refrigeration cycle
A.
does not alter C.O.P.
reflects all the heat radiations
B.
increases C.O.P.
transmits the heat radiations
C.
decreases C.O.P.
D.
none of these
Answer: Option B
39. Degree of saturation or percentage humidity is
Answer: Option B
44. Nusselt number (NN) is given by
A.
B.
50 to 70° C
C.
70 to 110° C
D.
none of these
B.
Answer: Option C
C.
Hydraulic Machines
1. Power required to drive a centrifugal pump is directly
proportional to __________ of its impeller.
D.
Answer: Option A
45. During sensible cooling of air __________ decreases.
A.
wet bulb temperature
B.
relative humidity
C.
dry bulb temperature
D.
specific humidity
B.
minimum
C.
zero
D.
none of these
B.
square of diameter
C.
cube of diameter
D.
fourth power of diameter
2. The mechanical efficiency of an impulse turbine is
46. The critical radius is the insulation radius at which the
resistance to heat flow is
maximum
diameter
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
A.
A.
A.
ratio of the actual power produced by the turbine
to the energy actually supplied by the turbine
B.
ratio of the actual work available at the turbine
to the energy imparted to the wheel
C.
ratio of the Work done on the wheel to the
energy of the jet
D.
none of the above
Answer: Option B
3. The overshot water wheels are those in which the wheel
runs entirely by the __________ of water.
A.
weight
B.
impulse
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
47. In case of solids, the heat transfer takes place
according to radiation.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option B
48. A water cooled condenser operates at a __________
condensing temperature than an air-cooled condenser.
A.
higher
B.
lower
49. The relative humidity decreases as air gets wet.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
50. The temperature of ammonia after compression in a
vapour compression system is
A.
20 to 50° C
A.
2 to 4
B.
4 to 8
C.
8 to l6
D.
16 to 24
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
A.
4. In a Kaplan turbine runner, the number of blades are
generally between
5. If Hg is the gross or total head and hf is the head lost
due to friction, then net or effective head (H) is given by
A.
H = Hg/hf
B.
H = Hg x hf
C.
H = Hg + hf
D.
H = Hg - hf
Answer: Option D
6. Discharge of a centrifugal pump is
A.
directly proportional to diameter of its impeller
B.
inversely proportional to diameter of its impeller
C.
directly proportional to (diameter)2 of its
impeller
D.
inversely proportional to (diameter)2 of its
impeller
Answer: Option D
7. A Pelton wheel develops 1750 kW under a head of 100
metres while running at 200 r.p.m. and discharging
2500 litres of water per second. The unit power of the
wheel is
A.
0.25 kW
B.
0.75 kW
C.
1.75 kW
D.
3.75 kW
C.
sum
B.
C.
overall
D.
inversely proportional to H3/2
Answer: Option A
12. A ship with jet propulsion draws water
through inlet orifices at right angles to
the direction of its motion. The
propelling force of the jet is (where a =
Area of the jet, Vr= Relative velocity of
the jet and ship = V + v, v = Velocity of
the ship, and V = Velocity of the jet
issuing from the ship)
A.
Answer: Option B
difference
13. Discharge of a centrifugal pump is
(where N = Speed of the pump
impeller)
9. The ratio of actual work available at the turbine to the
energy imparted to the wheel is known as __________
efficiency.
hydraulic
directly proportional to H3/2
D.
Answer: Option C
A.
C.
C.
8. The static head of a centrifugal pump is equal to the
__________ of suction head and delivery head.
product
inversely proportional to H1/2
B.
Answer: Option C
A.
B.
B.
mechanical
Answer: Option B
10. Geometric similarity is said to exist between the
model and the prototype, if both of them
A.
have identical velocities
B.
are equal in size and shape
C.
are identical in shape, but differ only in
size
D.
have identical forces
A.
directly proportional to N
B.
inversely proportional to N
C.
directly proportional to N2
D.
inversely proportional to N2
Answer: Option A
14. In a reaction turbine, the draft tube is
used
A.
to run the turbine full
B.
to prevent air to enter the
turbine
C.
to increase the head of water by
an amount equal to the height
of the runner outlet above the
tail race
D.
to transport water to
downstream
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
11. The speed of a turbine runner is
A.
directly proportional to H1/2
15. The power produced by the reaction
turbine is __________ to the head of
water.
A.
directly proportional
B.
inversely proportional
Answer: Option D
21. Which of the following pump is preferred for flood
control and irrigation applications?
Answer: Option A
16. Slip of a reciprocating pump is defined as
the
A.
ratio of actual discharge to the
theoretical discharge
B.
sum of actual discharge and the
theoretical discharge
C.
difference of theoretical discharge
and the actual discharge
D.
product of theoretical discharge
and the actual discharge
Answer: Option C
17. The efficiency of a centrifugal pump will be maximum
when the blades are bent backward.
A.
Yes
B.
A.
Centrifugal pump
B.
Axial flow pump
C.
Mixed flow pump
D.
Reciprocating pump
Answer: Option B
22. The efficiency of a Pelton wheel working under
constant head __________ with the increase in power.
A.
remains same
B.
increases
C.
decreases
Answer: Option B
No
Answer: Option A
23. The discharge of a centrifugal pump working under
constant head __________ with the speed.
A.
increases
B.
decreases
18. Multi-stage centrifugal pumps are used to
A.
give high discharge
B.
produce high heads
C.
pump viscous fluids
D.
all of these
Answer: Option B
19. The specific speed of a centrifugal pump, delivering
750 litres of water per second against a head of 15
metres at 725 r.p.m., is
A.
24.8 r.p.m.
B.
48.2 r.p.m
C.
82.4 r.p.m.
D.
248 r.p.m
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
24. The unit discharge through the turbine is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option A
25. Delivery head of water of a centrifugal pump is
inversely proportional to diameter of its impeller.
A.
20. Theoretical power required (in watts) to drive a
reciprocating pump is (where w = Specific weight of
liquid to be pumped in N/m3, Q = Discharge of the
pump in m3/s, Hs= Suction head in metres, and Hd =
Delivery head in metres)
A.
wQHs
B.
wQHd
C.
wQ(Hs - Hd)
D.
wQ(Hs + Hd)
Yes
B.
No
Answer: Option B
26. The discharge of a double acting reciprocating pump is
(where L = Length of stroke, A= Cross-sectional area
of piston, and N = Speed of crank in r.p.m.)
A.
L.A.N
B.
2 L.A.N
pipe close to the cylinder of the pump.
C.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
D.
Answer: Option D
27. Which of the following turbine is preferred for 0 to 25
m head of water?
33. Discharge (Q) of a centrifugal pump is
given by (where D = Diameter of
impeller at inlet, b = Width of impeller
at inlet, and Vf = Velocity of flow at
inlet)
A.
Q = π.D.Vf
A.
Pelton wheel
B.
Q = π.b.Vf
B.
Kaplan turbine
C.
Q = π.D.b.Vf
C.
Francis turbine
D.
Q = D.b.Vf
D.
none of these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
28. The speed ratio of a Francis turbine is defined as the
ratio of the theoretical jet velocity to the peripheral
speed at inlet.
A.
Yes
B.
No
Answer: Option B
29. The overall efficiency of a reaction turbine is the ratio
of
A.
power produced by the turbine to the energy
actually supplied by the turbine
B.
actual work available at the turbine to the
energy imparted to the wheel
C.
workdone on the wheel to the energy (or head
of water) actually supplied to the turbine
D.
none of the above
34. A centrifugal pump will start delivering
liquid only when the pressure rise in the
impeller is equal to the
A.
kinetic head
B.
velocity head
C.
manometric head
D.
static head
Answer: Option C
35. When the speed of the pump increases,
its net positive suction head (NPSH)
requirement decreases.
A.
Agree
B.
Disagree
Answer: Option B
36. A Francis turbine is used when the
available head of water is
Answer: Option A
30. Work done by a turbine __________ upon the
weight of water flowing per second.
A.
depends
B.
does not depend
Answer: Option A
A.
0 to 25 m
B.
25 m to 250 m
C.
above 250 m
D.
none of these
Answer: Option B
31. The maximum number of jets, generally,
employed in an impulse turbine without
jet interference are
A.
two
B.
four
C.
six
D.
eight
Answer: Option C
32. In a reciprocating pump, air vessels are
fitted to the suction pipe and delivery
37. The specific speed from 160 to 500 r.p.m. of a
centrifugal pump indicates that the pump is
A.
slow speed with radial flow at outlet
B.
medium speed with radial flow at outlet
C.
high speed with radial flow at outlet
D.
high speed with axial flow at outlet
Answer: Option D
38. A hydraulic coupling belongs to the category of
A.
power absorbing machines
B.
power developing machines
C.
energy transfer machines
D.
energy generating machines
friction + Velocity head in the delivery
pipe
B.
Workdone per kN of water - Losses
within the impeller
C.
Energy per kN at outlet of impeller Energy per kN at inlet of impeller
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
39. The principle of jet propulsion is used in driving the
ships and aeroplanes.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option A
A.
40. In the casing of a centrifugal pump, the kinetic
energy of the water is converted into pressure
energy before the water leaves the casing.
A.
True
B.
C.
41. The speed of an imaginary turbine, identical
with the given turbine, which will develop a
unit power under a unit head, is known as
normal speed
B.
unit speed
C.
specific speed
D.
none of these
46. In an impulse turbine, the jet of
water impinges on the bucket with
a low velocity and after flowing
over the vanes, leaves with a high
velocity.
A.
42. For centrifugal pump impeller, the maximum
value of the vane exit angle is
10° to 15°
B.
15° to 20°
C.
20° to 25°
D.
25° to 30°
B.
False
Answer: Option B
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
43. In a reaction turbine, the pressure head of
water, while flowing over the vanes, is
converted into kinetic head before leaving the
wheel.
Agree
True
47. The capacity of a hydraulic
accumulator is generally specified
as the maximum amount of
energy stored.
Answer: Option C
A.
D.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
A.
B.
False
Answer: Option A
A.
45. The force exerted by a jet of water (in a
direction normal to flow) impinging on a fixed
plate inclined at an angle θ with the jet is
B.
Disagree
48. The maximum efficiency of jet
propulsion of a ship with inlet
orifices at right angles to the
direction of motion of ship, is
A.
40%
B.
50%
C.
60%
D.
80%
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
44. Manometric head, in case of a centrifugal
pump, is equal to
A.
Suction lift + Loss of head in suction
pipe due to friction + Delivery lift +
Loss of head in delivery pipe due to
49. The breast water wheels are those
in which the wheel runs partly by
the weight of water and partly by
the impulse of water.
A.
True
B.
False
D.
takes place in one direction
Answer
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
50. The ratio of quantity of liquid
discharged per second from the
pump to the quantity of liquid
passing per second through the
impeller is known as
A.
manometric efficiency
B.
mechanical efficiency
C.
overall efficiency
D.
volumetric efficiency
5.
The kinematic viscosity is the
A.
ratio of absolute viscosity to the
density of the liquid
B.
ratio of density of the liquid to
the absolute viscosity
C.
product of absolute viscosity and
density of the liquid
D.
product of absolute viscosity and
mass of the liquid
Answer
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics
1. One litre of water occupies a volume of
A.
100 cm3
B.
250 cm3
C.
500 cm3
D.
1000 cm3
6. The diameter of the nozzle (d) for
maximum transmission of power is given
by (whereD = Diameter of pipe, f = Darcy
's coefficient of friction for pipe, and l =
Length of pipe )
A.
Answer
Answer: Option D
2. The value of bulk modulus of a fluid is required to
determine
A.
Reynold's number
B.
Froude's number
C.
Mach number
D.
Euler's number
B.
C.
D.
Answer
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
3. In a depressed nappe
A.
the pressure below the nappe is atmospheric
B.
the pressure below the nappe is negative
C.
the pressure above the nappe is atmospheric
D.
the pressure above the nappe is negative
7. The discharge over a right angled notch is
(where H = Height of liquid above the apex
of notch)
A.
B.
Cd 2g x H
Cd 2g x H3/2
Answer
Answer: Option B
4. In one dimensional flow, the flow
A.
is steady and uniform
B.
takes place in straight line
C.
takes place in curve
C.
D.
Cd 2g x H2
Cd 2g x H5/2
Answer: Option D
theoretical velocity
8. A weir is said to be broad crested weir, if
the width of the crest of the weir is
__________ half the height of water above
the weir crest.
A.
equal to.
B.
less than
C.
more than
B.
loss of head in the orifice to the head of water
available at the exit of the orifice
C.
actual discharge through an orifice to the
theoretical discharge
D.
area of jet at vena contracta to the area of
orifice
Answer
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
13. In a free nappe,
9. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure
due to one kind of liquid, on one of its
sides. The total pressure on the wall per
unit length is (where w = Specific weight
of liquid, and H = Height of liquid)
A.
wH
B.
wH/2
C.
wH2/2
D.
wH2/3
A.
the pressure below the nappe is atmospheric
B.
the pressure below the nappe is negative
C.
the pressure above the nappe is atmospheric
D.
the pressure above the nappe is negative
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
10. An error of 1% in measuring head over
the apex of the notch (H) will produce an
error of __________ in discharge over a
triangular notch.
A.
1%
B.
1.5%
C.
2%
D.
2.5%
Answer: Option D
11.
The length AB of a pipe ABC in which
the liquid is flowing has diameter (d1)
and is suddenly enlarged to diameter
(d2) at B which is constant for the
length BC. The loss of head due to
sudden enlargement is
14. The Reynold's number of a ship is __________ to its
velocity and length.
A.
directly proportional
B.
inversely proportional
Answer: Option A
15. When a tube of smaller diameter is dipped in water,
the water rises in the tube due to viscosity of water.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option B
16. According to equation of continuity,
A.
B.
C.
A.
w1a1 = w2a2
B.
w1v1 = w2v2
C.
a1v1 = a2v2
D.
a1/v1 = a2/v2
Answer
Answer: Option C
D.
Answer
Answer: Option C
12. Coefficient of contraction is the ratio of
A.
actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the
17. Coefficient of resistance is the ratio of
A.
actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the
theoretical velocity
B.
area of jet at vena contracta to the area of
orifice
C.
loss of head in the orifice to the head of water
available at the exit of the orifice
D.
actual discharge through an orifice to the
dieoretical discharge
Answer: Option C
18. Euler's equation in the differential form for the motion
of liquids is given by
B.
Cd x b2g x H
C.
Cd x b2g x H3/2
D.
Cd x b2g x H2
Answer
A.
Answer: Option C
B.
22. The discharge through a siphon spillway is
C.
ρ.dp + g.dz + v.dv = 0
D.
ρ.dp - g.dz + v.dv = 0
Answer
Answer: Option A
19. In order to measure the flow with a venturimeter, it is
installed in
A.
Cd x a2gH
B.
Cd x a2g x H3/2
C.
Cd x a2g x H2
D.
Cd x a2g x H5/2
Answer
Answer: Option A
A.
horizontal line
B.
inclined line with flow upwards
A.
0.384 Cd x L x H1/2
C.
inclined line with flow downwards
B.
0.384 Cd x L x H3/2
D.
any direction and in any location
C.
1.71 Cd x L x H1/2
D.
1.71 Cd x L x H3/2
23. The maximum discharge over a broad crested weir is
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
20. The discharge through a large rectangular orifice is
given by (where H1 = Height of the liquid above the top
of the orifice, H2 = Height of the liquid above the
bottom of the orifice, b = Breadth of the orifice,
and Cd = Coefficient of discharge)
A.
Q=
24. In a venturimeter, the velocity of liquid at throat is
__________ than at inlet.
A.
higher
B.
lower
Cd x b2g(H2 - H1)
Answer: Option A
B.
C.
D.
Q=
Cd x b2g(H21/2 - H11/2)
Q=
Cd x b2g(H23/2 - H13/2)
Q=
Cd x b2g(H22 - H12)
Answer: Option C
21. The discharge over a rectangular notch is (where b =
Width of notch, and H = Height of liquid, above the sill
of the notch)
A.
Cd x b2gH
25. The loss of head due to friction in a pipe of uniform
diameter in which a viscous flow is taking place, is
(where RN = Reynold number)
A.
1/RN
B.
4/RN
C.
16/RN
D.
64/RN
Answer: Option C
26. Which of the following is an example of laminar flow?
A.
Under ground flow
B.
Flow past tiny bodies
C.
Flow of oil in measuring instruments
D.
all of these
Answer: Option D
27. The pressure less than atmospheric pressure is known
as
A.
tension at the base
B.
overturning of the wall or dam
C.
sliding of the wall or dam
D.
all of these
Answer
A.
suction pressure
B.
vacuum pressure
C.
negative gauge pressure
D.
all of these
Answer: Option D
33. An ideal fluid is frictionless and
incompressible.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
28. The total energy line lies over the hydraulic gradient
line by an amount equal to the
34. A manometer is used to measure
A.
pressure head
B.
velocity head
C.
pressure head + velocity head
D.
pressure head - velocity head
A.
low pressure
B.
moderate pressure
C.
high pressure
D.
atomospheric pressure
Answer
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
29. A structure whose width is __________ the width of
the channel, is called a flumed structure.
A.
less than
B.
more than
35. The centre of gravity of the volume of
the liquid displaced is called
Answer: Option A
30. The maximum efficiency of transmission through
a pipe is
A.
50%
B.
56.7%
C.
66.67%
D.
76.66%
A.
centre of pressure
B.
centre of buoyancy
C.
metacentre
D.
none of these
Answer
Answer: Option B
36.
The coefficient of discharge for an
external mouthpiece is
Answer: Option C
capillary tube method
B.
orifice type viscometer
C.
rotating cylinder method
D.
all of these
Answer
B.
0.5
C.
0.707
D.
0.855
Answer: Option D
37. A tank of uniform cross-sectional area (A) containing
liquid upto height (H1) has an orifice of cross-sectional
area (a) at its bottom. The time required to empty the
tank completely will be
A.
Answer: Option D
32. The stability of a dam is checked for
0.375
Answer
31. The coefficient of viscosity may be
determined by
A.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
N/mm2
B.
N/m2
C.
head of liquid
D.
all of these
Answer
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
38. A siphon is used to connect two reservoirs at different
levels intervened by a high ridge.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
39. A flow in which the volume of a fluid and its density
does not change during the flow is called __________
flow.
A.
incompressible
B.
wxQxH
B.
w x Q x hf
C.
w x Q (H - hf)
D.
w x Q (H + hf)
Answer: Option C
45. In an external mouthpiece, the absolute pressure head
at vena contracta is __________ the atmospheric
pressure head by an amount equal to 0.89 times the
height of the liquid, above the vena contracta.
40. The loss of head due to an obstruction in a pipe is
twice the loss of head at its entrance.
Agree
A.
compressible
Answer: Option A
A.
44. The power transmitted through a pipe is (where w =
Specific weight in N/m3, and Q = Discharge in m3/s)
B.
Disagree
A.
less than
B.
more than
Answer
Answer
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
41. The body will sink down if the force of buoyancy is
__________ the weight of the liquid displaced.
A.
equal to
B.
less than
C.
more than
Answer
Answer: Option B
42. If a body floating in a liquid returns back to its original
position, when given a small angular displacement, the
body is said to be in
A.
neutral equilibrium
B.
stable equilibrium
C.
unstable equilibrium
D.
none of these
Answer: Option B
43. The pressure measured with the help of a piezometer
tube is in
46. The weight per unit volume of a liquid at a standard
temperature and pressure is called
A.
specific weight
B.
mass density
C.
specific gravity
D.
none of these
Answer
Answer: Option A
47. The centre of buoyancy is the centre of area of the
immersed body.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option A
48. The metacentric heights of two floating bodies A and B
are 1 m and 1.5 m respectively. Select the correct
statement.
A.
The bodies A and B have equal stability
B.
The body A is more stable than body B
C.
The body B is more stable than body A
D.
The bodies A and B are unstable
D.
end of exhaust stroke
Answer
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
49. In open channels, the specific energy is the
A.
total energy per unit discharge
B.
total energy measured with respect to the
datum passing through the bottom of the
channel
C.
total energy measured above the horizontal
datum
D.
kinetic energy plotted above the free surface of
water
Answer: Option B
50. The Bernoulli's equation is based on the assumption
that
A.
there is no loss of energy of the liquid flowing
B.
the velocity of flow is uniform across any crosssection of the pipe
C.
no force except gravity acts on the fluid
D.
all of the above
4. In hit and miss governing, the fuel supply is cut-off
completely during one or more number of cycles.
A.
Yes
B.
No
Answer: Option A
5. The thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a
compression ratio of 5.5 will be
A.
25%
B.
50%
C.
70%
D.
100%
Answer: Option B
6. The ratio of the volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to
the swept volume of the piston is called
A.
mechanical efficiency
B.
overall efficiency
C.
volumetric efficiency
D.
relative efficiency
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
IC Engines and Nuclear Power Plants
1. The reference fuels for knock rating of spark ignition
engines would include
A.
iso-octane and alpha-methyl naphthalene
B.
normal octane and aniline
C.
iso-octane and normal hexane
D.
normal heptane and iso-octane
7. The exhaust valve in a four stroke cycle petrol engine
A.
opens at 50° before bottom dead centre and
closes at 15° after top dead centre
B.
opens at bottom dead centre and closes at top
dead centre
C.
opens at 50° after bottom dead centre and
closes at 15° before top dead centre
D.
may open and close anywhere
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
8. Nuclear reactors are used
2. The diesel engines are also known as __________
engines.
A.
compression ignition
B.
spark ignition
A.
to produce heat for thermoelectric power
B.
to produce fissionable material
C.
to propel ships, submarines, aircrafts
D.
all of these
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
3. In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside
the engine cylinder occurs at the
9. A moderator generally used in nuclear power plants is
A.
beginning of suction stroke
A.
graphite
B.
end of suction stroke
B.
heavy water
C.
beginning of exhaust stroke
C.
concrete
D.
graphite and concrete
Answer: Option D
10. The predominent isotope of the naturally occuring
element is
A.
U235
B.
U238
C.
Pu233
D.
Pu239
11. The brake power of a diesel engine, keeping other
parameters constant, can be increased by
A.
decreasing the density of intake air
B.
increasing the temperature of intake air
C.
increasing the pressure of intake air
D.
decreasing the pressure of intake air
Answer: Option C
12. In diesel engines, the fuel is injected in the form of
very fine spray, into the engine cylinder, which gets
ignited due to high temperature of the compressed air.
Agree
to reduce mass ofthe engine per brake power
B.
to reduce space occupied by the engine
C.
to increase the power output of an engine when
greater power is required
D.
all ofthe above
Answer: Option D
16. In open combustion chamber in diesel engines, the
shape and layout of the piston crown, the inlet port
and the valve produce the turbulent effect of fuel
mixture.
Answer: Option B
A.
A.
B.
Disagree
Answer: Option A
13. Pre-ignition is caused by the spontantaneous
combustion of the mixture before the end of the
compression stroke, and is due to
A.
cylinder walls being too hot
B.
overheated spark plug points
C.
red hot carbon deposits on cylinder walls
D.
any one of these
Answer: Option D
14. The expansion of fuel in a four stroke cycle diesel
engine
A.
starts at 15° before top dead centre and ends
at 30° after top dead centre
B.
starts at top dead centre and ends at 30° after
top dead centre
C.
starts at 15° after top dead centre and ends at
30° before bottom dead centre
D.
may start and end anywhere
Answer: Option C
15. The object of supercharging the engine is
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
17. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the charge is
ignited at
A.
30° before top dead centre
B.
30° after top dead centre
C.
30° before bottom dead centre
D.
30° after bottom dead centre
Answer: Option A
18. A moderator, in nuclear power plants, is a medium
introduced into the fuel mass in order to
A.
slow down the speed of fast moving neutrons
B.
control the reaction
C.
reduce the temperature
D.
extract heat from nuclear reaction
Answer: Option A
19. Where reactor operation is designed with fast neutrons
such as in reactors using highly enriched fuel, the
moderator used is
A.
heavy water
B.
graphite
C.
carbon dioxide
D.
no moderator is needed
Answer: Option D
20. In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of
injection and ignition, is known as
A.
pre-ignition period
B.
delay period
C.
period of ignition
D.
burning period
Answer: Option B
21. The detonating tendency in petrol engines increases
with increase of compression ratio.
A.
True
B.
B.
the flow from the main jet is diverted to the
compensating jet with increase in speed
C.
the diameter of the jet is constant and the
discharge coefficient is invariant
D.
flow is produced due to the static head in the
float chamber
False
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
28. The effective inhibitor of pre-ignition is
22. Each fission of U235 produces on the average
__________ fast neutrons as a product of reaction.
A.
2.46
B.
24.6
C.
246
D.
2460
A.
alcohol
B.
water
C.
lead
D.
none of these
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
23. Reactors for propulsion applications are designed for
A.
any form of uranium
B.
natura uranium
C.
enriched uranium
D.
plutonium
29. The purpose of testing an internal combustion engine is
A.
to determine the information, which can not be
obtained by calculations
B.
to conform the data used in design, the validity
of which may be doubtful
C.
to satisfy the customer regarding the
performance of the engine
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option C
24. The primary fuel used in nuclear power plants is
A.
U235
B.
U238
C.
Pu239
D.
Pu233
Answer: Option A
25. In petrol engine, using a fixed octane rating fuel and
fixed compression ratio, supercharging will
__________ the knocking tendency.
A.
not effect
B.
decrease
C.
increase
Answer: Option D
30. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about
A.
15%
B.
30%
C.
50%
D.
70%
Answer: Option D
31. A diesel engine has
Answer: Option C
26. Ordinary water is sometimes used as moderator when
enriched uranium is used as a fuel in nuclear power
plants.
A.
Yes
B.
No
Answer: Option A
27. The compensating jet in a carburettor supplies almost
constant amount of petrol at all speeds because the
A.
jet area is automatically varied depending on
the suction
A.
one valve
B.
two valves
C.
three valves
D.
four valves
Answer: Option C
32. The self ignition temperature of petrol is __________
as compared to diesel oil.
A.
same
C.
higher
Answer: Option C
B.
lower
33. The pressure inside the cylinder is __________ the
atmospheric pressure during the exhaust stroke.
A.
equal to
B.
below
C.
above
produced whereas detonation develops
after the introduction of spark.
A.
B.
Disagree
Answer: Option A
40. The energy released during the fission of
one atom of Uranium - 235 in million
electron volts is about
Answer: Option C
34. The increase of cooling water temperature in petrol
engine will __________ the knocking tendency.
A.
not effect
B.
decrease
C.
increase
A.
100
B.
200
C.
300
D.
400
Answer: Option B
41.
Morse test can be conducted for
Answer: Option C
35.
Agree
A carburettor is used to supply
A.
petrol, air and lubricating oil
B.
air and diesel
C.
petrol and lubricating oil
D.
petrol and air
Answer: Option D
36. U233 is produced
A.
petrol engines
B.
diesel engines
C.
multi-cylinder engines
D.
all of these
Answer: Option C
42. The basic requirement of a good combustion chamber
is
A.
minimum turbulence
B.
low compression ratio
A.
artificially
C.
high thermal efficiency and power output
B.
as basic raw material
D.
low volumetric efficiency
C.
when thorium is irradiated by
neutrons
D.
by fission of U238
Answer: Option C
43. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the charge is
compressed when both the valves (i.e. inlet valve and
exit valve) are closed,
Answer: Option C
A.
37. The pressure at the end of compression, in
diesel engines, is approximately
Agree
B.
Answer: Option A
A.
10 bar
B.
20 bar
C.
25 bar
A.
unaffected
D.
35 bar
B.
lower
C.
higher
D.
dependent on other factors
44. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines on weak
mixtures is
Answer: Option D
38. The detonation is also called knocking or
pinking.
A.
Yes
Disagree
B.
Answer: Option C
No
Answer: Option A
39. The pre-ignition occurs before the spark is
45. The injection pressure in a diesel engine is about
A.
10 bar
B.
100 bar
C.
150 bar
D.
500 bar
1. The aim of value engineering is to
Answer: Option B
46. High speed compression engines operate on
A.
Otto cycle
B.
Diesel cycle
C.
Dual-combustion cycle
D.
all of these
A.
find the depreciation value of a machine
B.
determine the selling price of a product
C.
minimise the cost without change in quality of
the product
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option C
2. In time study, the rating factor is applied to determine
Answer: Option C
47. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the inlet valve
A.
standard time of a job
B.
merit rating of the worker
C.
fixation of incentive rate
D.
normal time of a worker
A.
opens at top dead centre and closes at bottom
dead centre
Answer: Option C
B.
opens at 20° before top dead centre and closes
at 40° after bottom dead centre
3. Gantt chart is used for
C.
opens at 20° after top dead centre and closes
at 20° before bottom dead centre id) may open
or close anywhere
Answer: Option B
48. The nuclear power station at Tarapur has the reactor of
the __________ type.
A.
pressurized water
B.
boiling water
C.
gas cooled
D.
liquid metal cooled
49. In nuclear power plants, due to reflector, less fuel is
needed to generate sufficient neutrons to sustain a
chain reaction.
Yes
B.
No
Answer: Option A
50. The secondary fuel used in nuclear power plants is
A.
U213 and Pu239
B.
U235 and Th232
C.
U235 and Pu238
D.
U233 and Pu238
inventory control
B.
material handling
C.
production schedule
D.
machine repair schedules
Answer: Option C
4. The main object of scientific layout is
Answer: Option B
A.
A.
A.
to produce better quality of product
B.
to utilise maximum floor area
C.
to minimise production delays
D.
all of these
Answer: Option D
5. The probabilistic time is given by (where to = Optimistic
time, tp = Pessimistic time, and tn = Most likely time)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option A
Industrial Engineering and Production
Management
Answer: Option D
6. In value engineering, the term value refers to
A.
manufacturing cost of the product
B.
selling price of the product
C.
total cost of the product
D.
utility of the product
Answer: Option D
7. In inventory control theory, the economic order quantity
is
A.
average level of inventory
B.
optimum lot size
C.
capacity of a warehouse
D.
lot size corresponding to break-even analysis
B.
functional organisation
C.
line and staff organisation
D.
line, staff and functional organisation
Answer: Option A
12. When slack of an activity is negative
A.
it represents a situation where extra resources
are available and the completion of project is
not delayed
B.
it represents that a programme falls behind
schedule and additional resources are required
to complete the project in time
C.
the activity is critical and any delay in its
performance will delay the completion of whole
project
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
8. Production cost refers to prime cost plus
A.
factory overheads
B.
factory and administration overheads
C.
factory, administration and sales overheads
D.
factory, administration, sales overheads and
profit
Answer: Option A
9. A systematic job improvement sequence will consist of
13. The procedure of modifying work content to give more
meaning and enjoyment to the job by involving
employees in planning, organisation and control of
their work, is termed as
A.
job enlargement
B.
job enrichment
C.
job rotation
D.
job evaluation
Answer: Option A
A.
motion study
B.
time study
C.
job enrichment
A.
analytical layout
D.
all of these
B.
synthetic layout
C.
static product layout
D.
none of these
Answer: Option D
10. Work sampling is applied for
A.
estimation of the percentage utilisation of
machine tools
B.
estimating the percentage of the time
consumed by various job activities
C.
finding out time standards, specially where the
job is not repetitive and where time study by
stop watch method is not possible
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option D
11. Military type of organisation is known as
A.
line organisation
14. Fixed position layout is also known as
Answer: Option C
15. In a network shown in the below figure, the critical
path is along
A.
1-2-3-4-8-9
B.
1-2-3-5-6-7-8-9
C.
1-2-3-4-7-8-9
D.
1-2-5-6-7-8-9
Answer: Option A
16. Bar chart is suitable for
A.
large project
B.
major work
C.
minor work
D.
all of these
D.
Answer: Option C
23. The type of organisation preferred for a steel industry,
is
Answer: Option C
17. Which one of the following chart gives simultaneously
information about the progress of work and machine
loading?
A.
Process chart
B.
Machine load chart
C.
Man-machine chart
D.
Gantt chart
B.
pessimistic time
C.
most likely time
D.
all of these
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option B
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option A
21. Linear programming model can be applied to line
balancing problem and transportation problem.
A.
True
C.
line and staff organisation
D.
line, staff and functional organisation
A.
hoist
B.
jib crane
C.
portable elevator
D.
chain conveyor
A.
string diagram
B.
flow process chart
C.
travel chart
D.
flow diagram
Answer: Option D
20. PERT is an event oriented technique.
A.
functional organisation
25. A diagram showing the path followed by men and
materials while performing a task is known as
19. Line organisation is suitable for a big organisation.
Correct
B.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
A.
line organisation
24. A device used for lifting or lowering objects suspended
from a hook at the end of retractable chains or cable is
called
18. Probabilistic time for completion of any activity can be
found out from
optimistic time
A.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
A.
operation chart
B.
26. The determination of standard time in a complex job
system is best done through
A.
stop watch time study
B.
analysis of micromotions
C.
grouping timing technique
D.
analysis of standard data system
False
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
27. In CPM, the cost slope is determined by
22. The chart which gives an estimate about the amount of
materials handling between various work stations is
known as
A.
flow chart
B.
process chart
C.
travel chart
A.
B.
A.
CPM
B.
PERT
C.
inventory control
D.
all of these
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
28. If (R) is the base rate guaranteed per hour, (S) is the
standard time for the job and (T) is the actual time,
then according to Rowan plan, wages for the job will be
A.
TR
B.
C.
Answer: Option C
33. PERT analysis is based upon
A.
optimistic time
B.
pessimistic time
C.
most likely time
D.
all of these
TR + (S - T)R
Answer: Option D
D.
34. In order to avoid excessive multiplication of facilities,
the layout preferred is
Answer: Option D
29. In a line organisation
A.
responsibility of each individual is fixed
B.
discipline is strong
C.
quick decisions are taken
D.
all of these
Answer: Option D
30. Which of the following are the guidelines for the
construction of a network diagram?
A.
Each activity is represented by one and only
one arrow in the network.
B.
Dangling must be avoided in a network
diagram.
C.
Dummy activity consumes no time or resource.
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option D
31. Work study involues
A.
only method study
B.
only work measurement
C.
method study and work measurement
D.
only motion study
Answer: Option C
32. A-B-C analysis is used in
A.
product layout
B.
process layout
C.
group layout
D.
static layout
Answer: Option B
35. In A-B-C analysis, which class of items are generally
large in number?
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
none of these
Answer: Option C
36. Simplex method is the method used for
A.
value analysis
B.
network analysis
C.
linear programming
D.
queuing theory
Answer: Option C
37. Dispatching
A.
prescribes the sequence of operations to be
followed
B.
determines the programme for the operations
C.
is concerned with the starting of processes
D.
regulates the progress of job through various
processes
Answer: Option C
38. Which of the following wage incentive plan guarantees
minimum wage to a worker and bonus is paid for the
fixed percentage of time saved?
A.
Halsey plan
B.
Gantt plan
C.
Rowan plan
D.
Emerson's efficiency plan
A.
for checking the relative values of various
layouts
B.
when a group of workers are working at a place
C.
where processes require the operator to be
moved from one work place to another
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option D
44. Which of the following type of layout is suitable for
automobile manufacturing concern?
Answer: Option A
39. Job evaluation is the method of determining the
A.
relative values of a job
B.
worker's performance on a job
C.
worth of the machine
D.
value of overall production
A.
product layout
B.
process layout
C.
fixed position layout
D.
combination layout
Answer: Option A
45. Representative time is the average of times recorded
by work study man for an operation.
A.
Answer: Option A
Agree
46. Queuing theory is associated with
A.
manpower utilisation
A.
inventory
B.
quality assurance of the product
B.
sales
C.
machine utilisation
C.
waiting time
D.
optimising material flow through the plant
D.
production time
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
41. In big automobile repair shop, for elevating and
moving the heavy parts such as complete engine
assembly, gear box etc., an overhead crane and a fork
lift truck is used.
Yes
B.
Answer: Option A
42. Direct expenses include
A.
factory expenses
B.
selling expenses
C.
administrative expenses
D.
none of these
Answer: Option D
43. String diagram is used
Disagree
Answer: Option A
40. The routing function in a production system design is
concerned with
A.
B.
No
47. PERT requires
A.
single time estimate
B.
double time estimate
C.
triple time estimate
D.
none of these
Answer: Option C
48. Which of the following statement is correct?
A.
A-B-C analysis is based on Pareto's principle.
B.
Simulation can be used for inventory control.
C.
Economic order quantity formula ignores
variations in demand pattern
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option A
49. The product layout is more amenable to automation
than process layout.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
A.
fixed cost + sales revenue
B.
variable cost + sales revenue
C.
fixed cost + variable cost
D.
fixed cost + variable cost + profit
1. The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a
thick cylinder
C.
solid shaft
D.
hollow shaft
A.
increases
B.
decreases
C.
does not change
A.
2
B.
4
C.
6
D.
8
8. A screw is said to be over hauling screw, if its efficiency
is
2. A sliding bearing in which the working surfaces are
completely separated from each other by lubricant is
called zero film bearing.
True
6. The toughness of a material __________ when it is
heated.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
A.
mitre gears
7. The number of slots in a 25 mm castle nut is
Machine Design
B.
D.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
dun cylinder
internal bevel gears
Answer: Option B
50. In break even analysis, total cost consists of
A.
C.
B.
A.
less than 50%
B.
more than 50%
C.
equal to 50%
D.
none of these
False
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
9. The application of third type levers is found in
3. Screws used for power transmission should have
A.
Sow efficiency
B.
high efficiency
C.
very fine threads
D.
strong teeth
A.
handle of a hand pump
B.
hand wheel of a punching press
C.
lever of a loaded safety valve
D.
a pair of tongs
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
4. The number of rivets in shear shall be equal to the
number of rivets in crushing.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option A
5. When bevel gears connect two shafts whose axes
intersect at an angle greater than a right angle and one
of the bevel gears has a pitch angle of 90°, then they
are known as
A.
angular bevel gears
B.
crown bevel gears
10. For unequal width of butt straps, the thickness of butt
straps are
A.
0.75 t for wide strap on the inside and
0.625 t for narrow strap on the outside
B.
0.75 t for narrow strap on the inside and
0.625 t for wide strap on the outside
C.
0.75 t for both the straps on the inside and
outside
D.
0.625 t for both the straps on the inside and
outside
Answer: Option A
11. In second type of levers,
16. A locking device in which the bottom cylindrical
portion is recessed to receive the tip of the
locking set screw, is called
A.
load is in between the fulcrum and effort
B.
effort is in between the fulcrum and load
A.
castle nut
C.
fulcrum is in between the load and effort
B.
jam nut
D.
none of these
C.
ring nut
D.
sawn nut
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
12. Soderberg relation is based on __________ of the
material whereas all other failure relation for dynamic
loading are based on ultimate strength of the material.
A.
elastic strength
B.
yield strength
C.
shear strength
17. Slenderness ratio is the ratio of
A.
maximum size of column to minimum
size of column
B.
width of column to depth of column
C.
effective length of column to least
radius of gyration of the column
D.
effective length of column to width of
column
Answer: Option B
13. In a flange coupling, the flanges are coupled together
by means of
A.
bolts and nuts
B.
studs
C.
headless taper bolts
D.
none of these
Answer: Option C
18. A crankshaft is a __________ shaft.
A.
transmission
B.
machine
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
19. According to Indian standard specifications,
100 H6/g5 means that the
14. A transmission shaft includes
A.
counter shaft
B.
line shaft
C.
over head shaft
D.
all of these
Answer: Option D
15. According to I.B.R., shearing resistance
required to shear off the rivet per pitch
length (in double shear) is (where n =
Number of rivets per pitch length)
A.
B.
C.
D.
d2 x τ x n
1.875 x
d2 x τ x n
2x
d2 x τ x n
3x
d2x τ x n
A.
actual size is 100 mm
B.
basic size is 100 mm
C.
difference between the actual size and
basic size is 100 mm
D.
none of the above
Answer: Option B
20. A plate with an elliptical hole in the centre, with
semi-major axis (a) perpendicular to the
direction of loading and semi-minor axis (b)
along the direction of loading, is subjected to a
pull P. The maximum stress induced at the
edge of the hole is equal to (where σ = Stress
for a plate with no hole i.e. nominal stress)
A.
B.
C.
Answer: Option B
D.
Answer: Option B
21. The velocity of sliding __________ the
distance of the point of contact from the
pitch point.
A.
is directly proportional to
B.
is inversely proportional to
C.
is equal to cos φ multiplied by
D.
does not depend upon
Answer: Option A
A.
40
B.
50
C.
70
D.
100
Answer: Option D
23. Circumferential joint in boilers is used to
get the required length of a boiler.
True
in a direction perpendicular to the
cam axis
B.
in a direction parallel to the cam axis
C.
in any direction irrespective of cam
axis
D.
along the cam axis
Answer: Option A
27. The square threads are not so strong as V-threads but
they offer less frictional resistance to motion than
Whitworth threads.
A.
Correct
B.
False
Answer: Option A
24. The ball bearings are provided with a cage
A.
d=t
B.
d = 1.6 t
C.
d=2t
D.
d=6t
Answer: Option D
29. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at an edge, the
distance from the centre line of the rivet hole to the
nearest edge of the plate should be equal to
(where d = Diameter of rivet hole)
to reduce friction
A.
d
B.
to facilitate slipping of balls
B.
1.5 d
C.
to prevent the lubricant from
flowing out
C.
2d
D.
2.5 d
D.
to maintain the balls at a fixed
distance apart
Answer: Option D
25. When screw threads are to be used in a
situation where power is being transmitted
in one direction only, then the screw
threads suitable for this will be
square threads
B.
acme threads
C.
knuckle threads
D.
buttress threads
Incorrect
28. According to Unwin's formula, the relation between the
diameter of rivet hole (d) and the thickness of plate (t)
is given by (where d and t are in mm)
A.
A.
B.
Answer: Option A
22. A column is known as a long column if the
slenderness ratio is
A.
A.
Answer: Option D
26. In radial cams, the follower moves
Answer: Option B
30. The value of stress concentration factor depends upon
A.
material of the part
B.
geometry of the part
C.
material and geometry of the part
D.
none of these
Answer: Option C
31. Which of the following material has the maximum
ductility?
A.
Mild steel
B.
Copper
C.
Zinc
B.
nipple joint
D.
Aluminium
C.
union joint
D.
spigot and socket joint
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
32. When a bolt is subjected to shock loading, the
resilience of the bolt should be considered in order to
prevent breakage at the
A.
head
B.
shank
C.
thread
D.
middle
Answer: Option C
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
A.
shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the
opposite directions
B.
shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the
same directions
C.
shafts are arranged at right angles and rotate
in one definite direction
D.
driven shaft is to be started or stopped
whenever desired without interferring with the
driving shaft
Answer: Option B
35. In unilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is
allowed on
A.
one side of the actual size
B.
one side of the nominal size
C.
both sides of the actual size
D.
both sides of the nominal size
B.
False
39. For maximum power, the velocity of the belt will be
A.
C.
D.
none of these
Answer: Option C
40. Surface endurance limit of gear material is
dependent upon its
A.
elastic strength
B.
yield strength
C.
brinell hardness number
D.
toughness
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
36. The constant factor in case of R10 series of preferred
numbers is
A.
1.06
B.
1.12
C.
1.26
D.
1.58
Answer: Option C
37. The pipe joint mostly used for pipes carrying water at
low pressures is
socket joint
True
B.
34. An open belt drive is used when
A.
A.
Answer: Option A
33. In order to obtain the bolts of uniform strength, an
axial hole is drilled through the head as far as the
threaded portion such that the area of shank becomes
equal to the root area of the thread.
A.
38. According to Guest's theory, the failure occurs at a
point in a member when the maximum shear stress in
a bi-axial stress system reaches the shear stress at
elastic limit in simple tension test.
41. In a hydrodynamic lubricated bearing
A.
there is a thick film of lubricant
between the journal and the bearing
B.
there is a thin film of lubricant between
the journal and the bearing
C.
there is no lubricant between the
journal and the bearing
D.
the lubricant is forced between the
journal and the bearing, by external
pressure
Answer: Option A
42. Which of the following statement is correct for
gears?
A.
The addendum is less than dedendum
shaft A is solid and the shaft B is hollow. We
can say that
B.
The pitch circle diameter is equal to the
product of module and number of teeth
A.
shaft B is better than shaft A
C.
The pitch circle is always greater than
the base circle
B.
shaft A is better than shaft B
D.
all of the above
C.
both the shafts are equally good
Answer: Option D
43. A flanged pipe joint will be a leak-proof joint, if
the circumferential pitch of the bolts is
(where d = Diameter of bolt hole)
A.
less than 20 d
B.
greater than 30 d
C.
between 20 d and 30 d
D.
equal to inside diameter of pipe
Answer: Option A
48. The centre distance between two meshing
involute gears is equal to
A.
B.
C.
Answer: Option C
44. Stress concentration is caused due to
A.
variations in load acting on a member
B.
variations in properties of materials in a
member
C.
abrupt change of cross-section
D.
all of these
D.
Answer: Option A
49. Which of the following statement is wrong ?
A.
The power transmitted by V-belts is
less than flat belts for the same
coefficient of friction, arc of contact
and allowable tension in the belts
B.
The V-belt drive is used with large
centre distance
C.
The V-belt may be operated in
either direction with tight side of the
belt at the top or bottom
D.
The ratio of driving tensions in Vbelt drive is more than flat belt
drives
Answer: Option C
45. The resistance to fatigue of a material is
measured by
A.
elastic limit
B.
Young's modulus
C.
ultimate tensile strength
D.
endurance limit
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
46. The load cup of a screw jack is made
separate from the head of the spindle to
A.
enhance the load carrying capacity
of the jack
B.
reduce the effort needed for lifting
the working load
C.
prevent the rotation of load being
lifted
D.
reduce the value of frictional torque
50. In a flange coupling, the thickness of
flanges is taken as one-half the diameter of
shaft.
A.
Agree
B.
Disagree
Answer: Option A
Production Engineering
Answer: Option C
47. Two shafts A and B under pure torsion are
of identical length and identical weight and
are made of the same material. The
1. Segmental chips are formed during machining
A.
mild steel
B.
cast iron
C.
high speed steel
D.
high carbon steel
Answer: Option B
2. Cemented carbide tool tips are produced by powder metallurgy.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
A.
orthogonal cutting
B.
oblique cutting
C.
simple cutting
D.
uniform cutting
Option
B and fixtures,
3. If the diameter of the hole is subject to considerable variation, thenAnswer:
for locating
in jigs
the pressure type of locator used is
A.
conical locator
B.
cylindrical locator
C.
diamond pin locator
D.
vee locator
Answer: Option A
4. Side rake angle of a single point cutting tool is the angle
9. A round nose tool may be fed eitner from left to right
end or from right to left end of the lathe bed.
A.
Yes
B.
No
Answer: Option A
10. When the cutting edge of the tool is dull, then during
machining
A.
continuous chips are formed
A.
by which the face of the tool is inclined towards back
B.
discontinuous chips are formed
B.
by which the face of the tool is inclined sideways
C.
continuous chips with built-up edge are formed
C.
D. a no
chips
between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and
plane
at are
rightformed
angles to the
centre line of the point of the tool
D.
between the surface of the flank immediately below the point Answer:
and a lineOption
drawn Cfrom the point
perpendicular to the base
Answer: Option B
11. A fine grained grinding wheel is used to grind hard
materials.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
5. Internal gears can be made by
A.
hobbing
B.
shaping with pinion cutter
C.
shaping with rack cutter
D.
milling
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
12. Cast iron during machining produces
A.
continuous chips
B.
discontinuous chips
C.
continuous chips with built-up-edge
D.
none of these
6. In order to prevent tool from rubbing the work __________ on tools are provided.
A.
rake angles
B.
relief angles
Answer: Option B
7. The silicon carbide abrasive is chiefly used for grinding
A.
cemented carbide
B.
ceramic
C.
cast iron
D.
all of these
Answer: Option D
8. Drilling is an example of
Answer: Option B
13. A single point thread cutting tool should ideally have
A.
zero rake angle
B.
positive rake angle
C.
negative rake angle
D.
point angle
Answer: Option A
14. The work or surface speed for cylindrical grinding
varies from
A.
5 to 10 m/min
B.
10 to 20 m/min
C.
20 to 30 m/min
D.
40 to 60 m/min
brass by high speed steel tool is
Answer: Option C
A.
spindle
B.
arbor
C.
column
D.
knee
Answer: Option B
16. The tool made of cemented carbide
wear out faster at
slow speeds
B.
medium speeds
C.
fast speeds
D.
very fast speeds
Answer: Option A
17. A push broach as compared to pull
broach
A.
has less number of teeth
B.
is short and stocky
C.
removes less material for
each pass of the tool
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option D
18. Twist drills are made of
A.
high speed steel
B.
carbon steel
C.
stainless steel
D.
either (a) or (b)
0°
B.
10°
C.
20°
D.
-10°
Answer: Option A
15. The cutting tool in a milling machine is mounted
on
A.
A.
21. The lip angle of a single point tool is
usually
A.
20° to 40°
B.
40° to 60°
C.
60° to 80°
D.
none of these
Answer: Option C
22. The average cutting speed for turning brass with a high
speed steel tool is
A.
15 to 19 m/min
B.
25 to 31 m/min
C.
60 to 90 m/min
D.
90 to 120 m/min
Answer: Option C
23. The maximum production of small and slender parts is
done by
A.
watch maker's lathe
B.
sliding head stock automatic lathe
C.
multispindle automatic lathe
D.
capastan lathe
Answer: Option C
24. Side rake angle on tools is provided to control chip
flow.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
19. A twist drill is a
25. The method of grinding used to produce a straight or
tapered surface on a workpiece, is
A.
side cutting tool
A.
internal cylindrical grinding
B.
front cutting tool
B.
form grinding
C.
end cutting tool
C.
external cylindrical grinding
D.
none of these
D.
surface grinding
Answer: Option C
20. The rake angle required to machine
Answer: Option C
26. A fixture does not guide the tool.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option A
27. Crater wear occurs mainly on the
A.
nose part, front relief face and side relief face
of the cutting tool
B.
face of the cutting tool at a short distance from
the cutting edge only
C.
cutting edge only
D.
front face only
D.
tapered shank twist drill
Answer: Option B
32. Which of the following statement is
wrong about ultra-sonic machining?
Answer: Option B
A.
It is best suited for machining
hard and brittle materials.
B.
It cuts materials at very slow
speeds.
C.
It removes large amount of
material.
D.
It produces good surface finish.
Answer: Option C
28. Gear lapping is an operation
A.
after heat treatment
B.
prior to heat treatment
C.
for gear reconditioning
D.
none of these
Answer: Option A
33. In oblique cutting system, the
maximum chip thickness occurs at the
middle.
A.
bevelling the extreme end of a workpiece
B.
embossing a diamond shaped pattern on the
surface of a workpiece
C.
reducing the diameter of a workpiece over a
very narrow surface
D.
machining the ends of a workpiece to produce a
flat surface square with the axis
B.
holds and locates a workpiece during an
inspection or for a manufacturing
operation
C.
is used to check the accuracy of
workpiece
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option B
31. A drill considered as a cutting tool
having zero rake, is known as a
A.
flat drill
B.
straight fluted drill
C.
parallel shank twist drill
A.
increases
B.
decreases
C.
does not effect
Answer: Option A
35. The lead screw of a lathe has
__________ threads.
30. A fixture is defined as a device which
A.
Incorrect
34. Larger end cutting edge angle
__________ tool life.
Answer: Option D
holds and locates a workpiece and guides
and controls one or more cutting tools
B.
Answer: Option B
29. The facing is an operation of
A.
Correct
A.
single start
B.
double start
C.
multi-start
D.
any one of these
Answer: Option A
36.
A left hand tool on a lathe cuts most
efficiently when it travels
A.
from left to right end of the lathe
bed
B.
from right to left end of the lathe
bed
C.
with the help of a compound slide
D.
across the bed
Answer: Option A
37. The correct sequence of tool materials in increasing
order of their ability to retain their hot hardness is
A.
carbide, ceramic, cermet, borazon
B.
ceramic, carbide, borazon, cermet
C.
cermet, carbide, ceramic, borazon
D.
borazon, ceramic, carbide, cermet
42. In orthogonal cutting system, the
maximum chip thickness occurs at the
middle.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
43. Lapping is an operation of
38. Which of the following statement is incorrect with
reference of lathe cutting tools?
A.
making a cone-shaped
enlargement of the end of a hole
A.
The flank of the tool is the surface or surfaces
below and adjacent to the cutting edges
B.
smoothing and squaring the
surface around a hole
B.
The nose is the corner, arc or chamfer joining
the side cutting and the end cutting edges
C.
sizing and finishing a small
diameter hole
C.
The heel is that part of the tool which is shaped
to produce the cutting edges and face
D.
D.
The base is that surface of the shank which
bears against the support and takes tangent
pressure of the cut
producing a hole by removing
metal along the circumference of
a hollow cutting tool
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
44. The different spindle speeds on a lathe
form
39. In the relation VTn = C, the value of n for carbide tools
is
A.
0.1 to 0.2
B.
0.20 to 0.25
C.
0.25 to 0.40
D.
0.40 to 0.55
Answer: Option B
40. In up milling, the thickness of chip is
A.
minimum at the beginning of the cut and
maximum at the end of the cut
B.
maximum at the beginning of the cut and
minimum at the end of the cut
C.
uniform throughout the cut
D.
none of these
Answer: Option A
A.
arithmetical progression
B.
geometrical progression
C.
harmonical progression
D.
any one of these
Answer: Option B
45. If the helix angle of the drill is made
__________ 30°, then the torque
required to drive the drill at a given feed
will be more.
A.
equal to
B.
less than
C.
more than
Answer: Option B
46.
The angle included between the two lips
projected upon a plane parallel to the drill
axis and paralled to the two cutting lips, is
called helix angle.
41. The machining of titanium is difficult due
to
A.
high thermal conductivity of
titanium
B.
chemical reaction between tool
and work
C.
low tool-chip contact area
D.
none of these
Answer: Option C
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option B
47. In hot machining, tool is made of
A.
tungsten carbide
B.
brass or copper
C.
diamond
D.
3. In water tube boilers
stainless steel
A.
water passes through the tubes which are
surrounded by flames and hot gases
B.
the flames and hot gases pass through the tubes
which are surrounded by water
C.
forced circulation takes place
D.
none of these
Answer: Option A
48. In ultra-sonic machining, the metal is removed by
A.
using abrasive slurry between the tool and
work
B.
direct contact of tool with the work
C.
maintaining an electrolyte between the work
and tool in a very small gap between the two
D.
erosion caused by rapidly recurring spark
discharges between the tool and work
Answer: Option A
49. The velocity of tool relative to the workpiece is known
as cutting velocity.
A.
True
B.
Answer: Option A
4. Which of the following statement is wrong ?
A.
Locomotive boiler is a water tube boiler.
B.
Water tube boilers are internally fired.
C.
La-mont boiler is a low pressure water tube
boiler.
D.
all of the above
False
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
50. Grinding wheels should be tested for balance
A.
only at the time of manufacture
B.
before starting the grinding operation
C.
at the end of grinding operation
D.
occasionally
Answer: Option D
Steam Boilers and Engines
1. The object of producing draught in a boiler is
A.
to provide an adequate supply of air for the fuel
combustion
B.
to exhaust the gases of combustion from the
combustion chamber
C.
to discharge the gases of combustion to the
atmosphere through the chimney
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option D
2. In a glass rube type water indicator for a boiler, one end
of the tube is connected to water space and the other
end is connected to
A.
water space also
B.
chimney
C.
steam space
D.
superheater
Answer: Option C
5. A grate, in a boiler, is a place in the combustion
chamber upon which fuel (wood or coal) is burnt.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
6. Loeffler boiler is a water tube boiler
using a forced circulation of water.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
7. La-mont boiler, is a high pressure water
tube steam boiler working on forced
circulation.
A.
Agree
B.
Disagree
Answer: Option A
8. The function of a connecting rod is not
to convert reciprocating motion of the
piston into rotary motion.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option B
9. Which of the following statement is
correct for a compound steam engine ?
A.
The cost of the engine, for the
same power and economy, is
more than that of a simple
steam engine.
B.
The forces in the working parts
are increased as the forces are
distributed over more parts.
C.
The ratio of expansion is
reduced, thus reducing the
length of stroke.
D.
The temperature range per
cylinder is increased, with
corresponding increase in
condensation.
15. Which of the following statement is correct ?
Answer: Option C
10. When the speed of the crankshaft is
between 100 r.p.m. and 250 r.p.m.,
the engine said to be a
A.
A fire tube boiler occupies less space than a
water tube boiler, for a given power.
B.
Steam at a high pressure and in large
quantities can be produced with a simple
vertical boiler.
C.
A simple vertical boiler has one fire tube.
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option C
16. A device used to increase the temperature of saturated
steam without raising its pressure, is called
A.
slow speed engine
B.
medium speed steam engine
A.
blow off cock
C.
high speed steam engine
B.
fusible plug
D.
none of these
C.
superheater
D.
stop valve
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
11.
The natural draught is produced by
A.
steam jet
B.
centrifugal fan
C.
chimney
D.
both (a) and (b)
17. The diameter of flue tube in a Cornish boiler is
__________ that of the shell.
A.
one-fourth
B.
one-third
C.
two-fifth
D.
three-fifth
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
12. Willian's line for the steam engine is a straight line
relationship between the steam consumption per hour
and
18. An economiser __________ the steam raising capacity
of a boiler.
A.
increases
A.
indicated power
B.
decreases
B.
brake power
C.
has no effect on
C.
efficiency
D.
pressure of steam
Answer: Option A
19. Fire tube boilers are
Answer: Option A
13. The temperature of condensate is __________ on
leaving the condenser than that of circulating water at
inlet.
A.
higher
B.
lower
Answer: Option A
Yes
Answer: Option A
internally fired
B.
externally fired
C.
internally as well as externally fired
D.
none of these
Answer: Option A
14. A draught produced by a chimney due to the difference
of densities between the hot gases inside the chimney
and cold atmospheric air outside it, is called natural
draught.
A.
A.
B.
No
20. A safety valve usually employed with stationary boilers
is
A.
lever safety valve
B.
dead weight safety valve
C.
high steam and low water safety valve
D.
all of these
cross head
Answer: Option D
21. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a
nozzle placed in the ashpit under the fire grate of the
furnace is called
A.
induced steam jet draught
B.
chimney draught
C.
forced steam jet draught
D.
none of these
C.
to convert heat energy of the steam into
mechanical work
D.
to exhust steam from the cylinder at
proper moment
Answer: Option B
26. An air preheater is installed
A.
before the economiser
B.
before the superheater
C.
between the economiser and
chimney
D.
none of these
Answer: Option C
22. Which of the following statement is wrong ?
A.
The factor of evaporation for all boilers is
always greater than unity.
B.
The amount of water evaporated in kg per kg of
fuel burnt is called equivalent evaporation from
and at 100° C.
C.
The ratio of heat actually used in producing the
steam to the heat liberated in the furnace is
called boiler efficiency.
D.
none of the above
Answer: Option D
23. The function of a crosshead is to guide motion of the
__________ and to prevent it from bending.
A.
piston rod
B.
connecting rod
C.
eccentric rod
D.
valve rod
Answer: Option A
24. The cylinder dimensions of a compound engine may be
designed on the basis of
Answer: Option C
27. The length of shell of a Locomotive
boiler is
A.
1m
B.
2m
C.
3m
D.
4m
Answer: Option D
28. The effect of wire drawing is to decrease
the area of indicator diagram and thus
work done by the engine is reduced.
A.
Agree
B.
Disagree
Answer: Option A
29. In a uniflow engine
A.
steam enters and exhausts
through the same port
A.
equal power developed in each cylinder for
uniform turning moment
B.
steam enters at one end and
exhausts at the centre
B.
equal initial piston loads on all pistons for
obtaining same size of piston rod, connecting
rod etc. for all cylinders
C.
steam enters at the centre and
exhausts at the other end
D.
none of the above
C.
equal temperature drop in each cylinder for
economy of steam
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option D
25. The function of a piston rod is
Answer: Option B
30. The shell diameter of a Locomotive
boiler is
A.
1m
B.
1.5 m
A.
to guide motion of the piston rod and to
prevent it from bending
C.
2m
B.
to transfer motion from the piston to the
D.
2.5 m
C.
Answer: Option B
inclined
Answer: Option A
31.
The fire tubes in a Scotch marine boiler
are
A.
horizontal
C.
inclined
B.
vertical
Answer: Option A
32. In a reciprocating steam engine, the heat energy in the
steam is converted into mechanical work by the to and
fro motion of the piston.
A.
Agree
B.
Disagree
Answer: Option A
33. The power of a boiler may be defined as
A.
the ratio of heat actually used in producing the
steam to the heat liberated in the furnace
B.
the amount of water evaporated or steam
produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt
C.
the amount of water evaporated from and at
100° C into dry and saturated steam
D.
the evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour
from and at 100° C
Answer: Option B
34. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by a
centrifugal pump, then the boiler is known as
37. A double acting steam engine with a cylinder diameter
of 190 mm and a stroke of 300 mm has a cut-off of
0.35. The expansion ratio for this engine is nearly
A.
1.05
B.
2.86
C.
6.65
D.
10.05
Answer: Option B
38. The aim of a compound steam engine is
A.
to reduce the ratio of expansion in each
cylinder
B.
to reduce the length of stroke
C.
to reduce the temperature range in each
cylinder
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option D
39. The average operating pressure of Benson boiler is
A.
100 bar
B.
150 bar
C.
200 bar
D.
250 bar
Answer: Option D
A.
internally fired boiler
B.
externally fired boiler
C.
natural circulation boiler
A.
0.5 to 1 m
D.
forced circulation boiler
B.
1 to 2 m
C.
1.25 to 2.5 m
D.
2 to 3 m
40. The diameter of Cornish boiler varies from
Answer: Option D
35. The function of a safety valve is
A.
to blow off steam when the pressure of steam
inside the boiler exceeds the working pressure
B.
to indicate the water level inside the boiler to
an observer
C.
to measure pressure of steam inside the steam
boiler
D.
none of the above
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
41. A single acting steam engine produces __________
power than that of double acting steam engine.
A.
equal
B.
half
C.
double
D.
four times
Answer: Option B
36. The fire tubes in a Cochran boiler are
A.
horizontal
B.
vertical
42. The pressure of steam in the engine cylinder at the
beginning of the stroke is __________ the boiler
pressure.
A.
equal to
B.
less than
C.
higher than
48. A safety valve mainly used with locomotive and marine
boilers is
Answer: Option B
lever safety valve
B.
dead weight safety valve
C.
high steam and low water safety valve
D.
spring loaded safety valve
Answer: Option D
43. The function of a flywheel is
A.
A.
to convert reciprocating motion of the piston
into rotary motion.
B.
to convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into
to and fro motion of the valve rod
C.
D.
49. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the
fluctuating demand of steam ?
A.
Locomotive boiler
to prevent fluctuation of speed
B.
Lancashire boiler
to keep the engine speed uniform at all load
conditions
C.
Cornish boiler
D.
Babcock and Wilcox boiler
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
44. The rate of steam produced in Benson boiler is
A.
100 tonnes/h
B.
135 tonnes/h
C.
175 tonnes/h
D.
250 tonnes/h
50. Which of the following statement is correct ?
Answer: Option B
A.
Lancashire boiler is a fire tube boiler.
B.
Fire tube boilers are internally fired.
C.
Babcock and Wilcox boiler is a water tube
boiler.
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option D
45. In natural circulation steam boilers, the circulation of
water is by convection currents which are set up during
the heating of water.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option A
Steam Nozzles and Turbines
1. A nozzle is said to be a convergent nozzle
A.
when the cross-section of the nozzle increases
continuously from entrance to exit
B.
when the cross-section of the nozzle decreases
continuously from entrance to exit
C.
when the cross-section of the nozzle first
decreases from entrance to throat and then
increases from its throat to exit
D.
none of the above
46. Cut-off governing of steam engines is a method of
controlling the engine output by varying
A.
volume of intake steam
B.
pressure of intake steam
C.
temperature of intake steam
D.
all of these
Answer: Option B
2. A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the
steam leaves the blade tip at __________ to the
direction of the blade motion.
Answer: Option A
47. In a boiler, feed water supplied per hour is 205 kg
while coal fired per hour is 23 kg. The net enthalpy rise
per kg of water is 145 kJ. If the calorific valve of the
coal is 2050 kJ/kg, then the boiler efficiency will be
A.
56%
B.
63%
C.
74%
D.
78%
A.
60°
B.
90°
C.
180°
D.
270°
Answer: Option A
3. The flow through a nozzle is regarded as
Answer: Option B
A.
constant volume flow
B.
constant pressure flow
C.
isothermal flow
D.
isentropic flow
between
Answer: Option D
4. The ratio of total useful heat drop to the total isentropic
heat drop, is called
A.
inlet and thoroat
B.
inlet and outlet
C.
throat and exit
D.
all of these
Answer: Option C
A.
stage efficiency
B.
internal efficiency
A.
0.546
B.
0.577
C.
Rankine efficiency
C.
0.582
D.
0.601
D.
none of these
10. The critical pressure ratio for initially wet steam is
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
5. The pressure at which the steam leaves the nozzle is
known as back pressure.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
11. The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving blade is twothird of the isentropic enthalpy drop in fixed blades of a
turbine. The degree of reaction will be
A.
0.4
B.
0.56
C.
0.67
D.
1.67
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
6. The discharge of steam in a convergent-divergent nozzle
__________ after the throat (i.e. in the divergent
portion of the nozzle)
A.
remains constant
B.
decreases
C.
increases
Answer: Option A
12. The impulse reaction turbine has its driving force
A.
as an impulsive force
B.
as a reaction force
C.
partly as an impulsive force and partly as a
reaction force
D.
none of the above
Answer: Option C
7. The rate of discharge through the nozzle __________
when the exit pressure is gradually reduced.
A.
remains same
B.
decreases
C.
increases
Answer: Option C
8. The velocity of steam leaving the nozzle (V) is given by
(where K = Nozzle coefficient or nozzle efficiency,
and hd = Enthalpy or heat drop during expansion of
steam in a nozzle)
13. The efficiency of reaction turbine is maximum when
(where α = Angle made by the absolute velocity (V) at
inlet)
A.
Vb = 0.5 V cos α
B.
Vb = V cos α
C.
Vb = 0.5 V2 cos α
D.
Vb = V2 cos α
Answer: Option B
A.
V = 44.72 hd K
B.
V = 44.72 K hd
A.
increased work output per unit mass of steam
C.
V = 44.72 K hd
B.
decreased work output per unit mass of steam
D.
V = 44.72 K hd
C.
increased thermal efficiency
D.
decreased work output per unit mass of steam
as well as increased thermal efficiency
Answer: Option C
9. In a nozzle, whole frictional loss is assumed to occur
14. A regenerative steam cycle renders
Answer: Option D
15. De-Laval turbine is a
A.
single rotor impulse turbine
B.
multi-rotor impulse turbine
C.
impulse reaction turbine
D.
none of these
Answer: Option B
22. The ratio of the workdone on the blades to the energy
supplied to the blades, is called
Answer: Option A
16. The turbine, in which the general direction of the steam
flow is parallel to the turbine axis, is called axial flow
turbines
A.
True
B.
A.
blading efficiency
B.
nozzle efficiency
C.
gross or stage efficiency
D.
mechanical efficiency
Answer: Option A
False
23. The discharge is __________ at critical pressure.
Answer: Option A
17. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the
throat equal to the velocity of sound.
A.
Agree
B.
Disagree
A.
zero
C.
maximum
B.
minimum
Answer: Option C
24. The supersaturated flow of steam through a nozzle as
compared to a stable flow, the available heat drop
Answer: Option A
18. The reheat factor is the ratio of the
A.
cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat
drop
B.
isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied
C.
total useful heat drop to the total isentropic
heat drop
D.
none of the above
A.
remains the same
B.
increases
C.
decreases
D.
is unpredictable
Answer: Option C
25. The steam leaves the nozzle at a
Answer: Option A
19. The turbine blades do not change the direction of
steam issuing from the nozzle.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option B
A.
high pressure and a low velocity
B.
high pressure and a high velocity
C.
low pressure and a low velocity
D.
low pressure and a high velocity
Answer: Option D
20. Thermal equilibrium means that the flow of steam is
A.
isothermal
B.
isentropic
C.
hyperbolic
D.
polytropic
Answer: Option B
21. When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the
designed value of pressure at exit of nozzle, the nozzle
is said to be
26. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the
throat
A.
equal to the velocity of sound
B.
less than the velocity of sound
C.
more than the velocity of sound
D.
none of these
Answer: Option A
A.
choked
B.
underdamping
C.
overdamping
A.
only moving blades
D.
none of these
B.
only fixed blades
27. The Parsons' reaction turbine has
C.
identical fixed and moving blades
C.
both (a) and (b)
D.
fixed and moving blades of different shape
D.
none of these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
28. The action of steam in a steam turbine is
A.
static
B.
dynamic
C.
static and dynamic
D.
neither static nor dynamic
33. Which of the following statement is
correct?
A.
The expansion of steam in a nozzle
follows Rankine cycle.
B.
The friction in the nozzle increases
the dryness fraction of steam.
C.
The pressure of steam at throat is
called critical pressure.
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option B
29. The blade velocity coefficient is ratio of relative velocity
of steam at outlet tip of the blade to the relative
velocity of steam at inlet tip of the blade.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option D
34. A binary vapour plant consists of
Answer: Option A
30.
Multi-stage steam turbines are of the
A.
velocity compounded type
B.
reaction type
C.
pressure compounded type
D.
all of these
Answer: Option D
A.
steam turbine
B.
steam condenser
C.
mercury boiler
D.
all of these
Answer: Option D
35. In a De-Laval nozzle expanding
superheated steam from 10 bar to 0.1 bar,
the pressure at the minimum cross-section
(i. e. pressure at throat, p2) will be
31. The critical pressure ratio (p2/p1) is given
by
A.
A.
3.3 bar
B.
5.46 bar
C.
8.2 bar
D.
9.9 bar
Answer: Option B
B.
36.
The stage efficiency (ηS) is given by (where
ηB = Blading efficiency, and ηN = Nozzle
efficiency)
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
32. In reaction turbines, the axial thrust is due
to
A.
pressure drop across the rotor
B.
change in axial velocity
A.
ηS = ηB x ηN
B.
ηS = ηB/ηN
C.
ηS = ηN/ηB
D.
none of these
Answer: Option A
37. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated
steam is more as compared to initially wet steam.
A.
Yes
Answer: Option B
B.
No
44. The value of the reheat factor varies from
38. In a convergent divergent nozzle, the discharge
depends upon the initial conditions of steam and the
area of nozzle at throat.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option A
A.
1.02 to 1.06
B.
1.08 to 1.l0
C.
1.2 to 1.6
D.
1.6 to 2
Answer: Option A
39. Parson's reaction turbine is a __________ reaction
turbine.
A.
40 percent
B.
50 percent
C.
60 percent
D.
70 percent
Answer: Option B
45. The steam enters the nozzle at a
A.
high pressure and a low velocity
B.
high pressure and a high velocity
C.
low pressure and a low velocity
D.
low pressure and a high velocity
Answer: Option A
40. The turbine blades are
A.
straight
C.
curved
B.
circular
Answer: Option C
41. The variation of steam pressure in the nozzle depends
upon
A.
velocity of steam
B.
specific volume of steam
C.
dryness fraction of steam
D.
all of these
46. The difference of supersaturated temperature and
saturation temperature at that pressure is called
A.
degree of supersaturation
B.
degree of superheat
C.
degree of undercooling
D.
none of these
Answer: Option C
47. The maximum efficiency of a reaction turbine is
A.
Answer: Option D
B.
42. Steam turbines are used for
A.
large marine propulsion
B.
electric power generation
C.
direct drive of fans, compressors, pumps
D.
all of these
Answer: Option D
43. Parson's turbine is a
A.
simple impulse turbine
B.
simple reaction turbine
C.
impulse-reaction turbine
D.
none of these
Answer: Option B
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
48. The ratio of the useful heat drop to the isentropic heat
drop is called
A.
condenser efficiency
B.
nozzle efficiency
C.
boiler efficiency
D.
vacuum efficiency
Answer: Option B
49. The efficiency of steam turbines may be improved by
A.
reheating of steam
B.
regenerative feed heating
C.
binary vapour plant
D.
any one of these
C.
both short and long columns
D.
weak columns
Answer: Option B
5. The object of caulking in a riveted joint
is to make the joint
Answer: Option D
50. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the
fixed blades,
A.
pressure increases while velocity decreases
B.
pressure decreases while velocity increases
C.
pressure and velocity both decreases
D.
pressure and velocity both increases
A.
free from corrosion
B.
stronger in tension
C.
free from stresses
D.
leak-proof
Answer: Option D
6. A steel bar of 5 mm is heated from 15° C to 40°
C and it is free to expand. The bar Will induce
Answer: Option B
Strength of Materials
1. Strain energy is the
A.
energy stored in a body when strained within
elastic limits
B.
energy stored in a body when strained upto the
breaking of a specimen
C.
maximum strain energy which can be stored in a
body
D.
proof resilience per unit volume of a material
Answer: Option A
2. A vertical column has two moments of inertia
(i.e. Ixx and Iyy ). The column will tend to buckle in the
direction of the
A.
no stress
B.
shear stress
C.
tensile stress
D.
compressive stress
Answer: Option A
7. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200
MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of
600 MPa on a plane at right angles to the former.
It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa
on the same planes. The maximum normal stress
will be
A.
400 MPa
B.
500 MPa
A.
axis of load
C.
900 MPa
B.
perpendicular to the axis of load
D.
1400 MPa
C.
maximum moment of inertia
D.
minimum moment of inertia
Answer: Option D
8. Two shafts 'A' and 'B' transmit the same power.
The speed of shaft 'A' is 250 r.p.m. and that of
shaft 'B' is 300 r.p.m. The shaft 'B' has the
greater diameter.
Answer: Option D
3. The neutral axis of the cross-section a beam is that axis
at which the bending stress is
A.
zero
B.
minimum
C.
maximum
D.
infinity
Answer: Option A
A.
short columns
B.
long columns
B.
False
Answer: Option B
9. A thick cylindrical shell having ro and ri as outer
and inner radii, is subjected to an internal
pressure (p). The maximum tangential stress at
the inner surface of the shell is
4. Euler's formula holds good only for
A.
True
A.
the base of the dam, the maximum stress
should be __________ the permissible
stress of the soil.
B.
C.
A.
equal to
B.
less than
C.
more than
Answer: Option B
D.
15. When a body is subjected to two equal and
opposite pushes, as a result of which the
body tends to reduce its length, the stress
and strain induced is compressive.
Answer: Option A
10. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly
loaded, is __________ the stress induced when
the same load is applied gradually.
A.
equal to
B.
one-half
C.
twice
D.
four times
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
16. The bending moment at a point on a beam is
the algebraic __________ of all the moments
on either side of the point.
A.
Answer: Option C
sum
B.
difference
Answer: Option A
11. For a beam, as shown in the below figure,
the maximum deflection is
.
17. The maximum diameter of the hole that can be
punched from a plate of maximum shear stress 1/4th of
its maximum crushing stress of punch, is equal to
(where t = Thickness of the plate)
A.
t
B.
2t
C.
4t
D.
8t
Answer: Option C
A.
True
B.
False
18. Two closely coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' are equal
in all respects but the number of turns of spring 'A' is
half that of spring 'B' The ratio of deflections in spring
'A' to spring 'B' is
Answer: Option B
12. If the slenderness ratio for a column is
100, then it is said to be a __________
column.
A.
long
C.
short
B.
A.
1/8
B.
1/4
C.
1/2
D.
2
medium
Answer: Option A
13. A masonry dam may fail due to
Answer: Option C
19. The deformation per unit length is called
A.
tensile stress
B.
compressive stress
A.
tension in the masonry of the dam
and its base
C.
shear stress
B.
overturning of the dam
D.
strain
C.
crushing of masonry at the base of
the dam
D.
any one of the above
Answer: Option D
14. In order to prevent crushing of masonry at
Answer: Option D
20. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t)
is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The ratio of
longitudinal strain to volumetric strain is
A.
B.
C.
neutral axis
D.
every cross-section
Answer: Option B
25. For a beam, as shown in the below figure,
when the load W is applied in the centre of
the beam, the maximum deflection is
C.
D.
Answer: Option D
A.
21.
In the torsion equation
term J/R is called
A.
shear modulus
B.
section modulus
C.
polar modulus
D.
none of these
the
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
22. Strain resetters are used to
A.
measure shear strain
B.
measure linear strain
A.
shear force changes sign
C.
measure volumetric strain
B.
bending moment changes sign
D.
relieve strain
C.
shear force is maximum
D.
bending moment is maximum
26. The point of contraflexure is a point where
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
23. The torque transmitted by a solid shaft of diameter (D)
is (where τ = Maximum allowable shear stress)
A.
B.
C.
x τ x D3
x τ x D3
27. The simply supported beam 'A' of
length l carries a central point load W. Another
beam 'B' is loaded with a uniformly distributed
load such that the total load on the beam is W.
The ratio of maximum deflections between
beams A and B is
A.
5/8
B.
8/5
C.
5/4
D.
4/5
xτxD
3
Answer: Option B
D.
x τ x D3
Answer: Option B
24. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the
maximum compressive stress is developed on the
A.
top layer
B.
bottom layer
28. The maximum stress produced in a bar of
tapering section is at
A.
smaller end
B.
larger end
C.
middle
D.
anywhere
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
29. The energy stored in a body when strained
within elastic limit is known as
A.
resilience
B.
proof resilience
C.
strain energy
D.
impact energy
34. When a bar is cooled to - 5°C, it will develop
A.
no stress
B.
shear stress
C.
tensile stress
D.
compressive stress
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
30. In compression test, the fracture in cast iron
specimen would occur along
A.
the axis of load
B.
an oblique plane
C.
at right angles to the axis of specimen
D.
would not occur
35. The limit of eccentricity is based upon no
tension condition.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
36. In order to know whether a column is long
or short, we must know its slenderness
ratio.
A.
Answer: Option B
31. The bending stress in a beam is __________
section modulus.
A.
directly proportional to
B.
inversely proportional to
Answer: Option B
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
37. A composite shaft consisting of two stepped portions
having spring constants k1 andk2 is held between two
rigid supports at the ends. Its equivalent spring
constant is
A.
32. When shear force at a point is zero, then
bending moment is __________ at that point.
A.
zero
B.
minimum
C.
maximum
D.
infinity
B.
C.
Answer: Option C
D.
33. The maximum bending moment for the beam
shown in the below figure, lies at a distance of
__________ from the end B.
k1k2
Answer: Option D
38. Resilience is the
A.
l/2
B.
l/3
C.
A.
energy stored in a body when strained within
elastic limits
B.
energy stored in a body when strained upto the
breaking of the specimen
C.
maximum strain energy which can be stored in
a body
D.
none of the above
Answer: Option D
D.
39. If the depth is kept constant for a beam of uniform
strength, then its width will vary in proportional to
(where M = Bending moment)
A.
M
B.
M
C.
M2
D.
M3
takes place more quickly as compared to the
increase in load, is called
Answer: Option A
A.
elastic limit
B.
yield point
C.
ultimate point
D.
breaking point
Answer: Option B
40. A concentrated load is one which
A.
acts at a point on a beam
B.
spreads non-uniformly over the whole length of
a beam
C.
spreads uniformly over the whole length of a
beam
D.
varies uniformly over the whole length of a
beam
46. The strain energy stored in a solid circular
shaft subjected to shear stress (τ) is
(where C = Modulus of rigidity for the shaft
material)
A.
x Volume of shaft
B.
x Volume of shaft
Answer: Option A
C.
41. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 50%, then
ratio of rivet hole diameter to the pitch of rivets is
A.
0.20
B.
0.30
C.
0.50
D.
0.60
Answer: Option C
42. The rectangular beam 'A' has length l, width b and
depth d. Another beam 'B' has the same length and
depth but width is double that of 'A'. The elastic
strength of beam 'B' will be __________ as compared
to beam A.
A.
same
B.
double
C.
four times
D.
six times
x Volume of shaft
Answer: Option D
47. When two main plates are kept in
alignment butting each other and riveted
with cover plate on both sides of the main
plates with two rows of rivets in each main
plate, the joint is known as __________
double cover butt joint.
A.
single riveted
B.
double riveted
48. Whenever a material is loaded within
elastic limit, stress is __________ strain.
43. In a simple bending of beams, the stress in the beam
varies
A.
linearly
B.
parabolically
C.
hyperbolically
D.
elliptically
Answer: Option A
44. A beam supported at its both ends is not a simply
supported beam.
True
D.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
A.
x Volume of shaft
B.
A.
equal to
B.
directly proportional to
C.
inversely proportional to
Answer: Option B
49. A load which is spread over a beam in such
a manner that it varies uniformly over the
whole length of abeam is called uniformly
__________ load.
A.
distributed
B.
varying
False
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
45.
The stress at which the extension of the material
50. Which of the following statement is
correct?
A.
The energy stored in a body, when
strained within elastic limit is
known as strain energy.
B.
The maximum strain energy which
can be stored in a body is termed
as proof resilience.
C.
The proof resilience per unit
volume of a material is known as
modulus of resilience.
D.
6. An adiabatic process is one in which
A.
no heat enters or leaves the gas
B.
the temperature of the gas changes
C.
the change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical work
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option D
all of the above
7. Water gas is obtained by passing air and a large amount of steam o
650°C.
Answer: Option D
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Thermodynamics
Answer: Option B
1. All the commercial liquid fuels are derived from natural petroleum (or crude oil).
A.
True
B.
False
8. Which of the following represents Otto cycle on temperature - entro
Answer: Option A
2. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes
is known as
A.
A. Carnot cycle
B.
Stirling cycle
C.
Otto cycle
D.
Diesel cycle
Answer: Option D
3. The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas turbine cycle are
A.
low
B.
very low
C.
high
D.
very high
B.
Answer: Option B
4. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass
C. of gas through one
degree at constant volume, is called
A.
specific heat at constant volume
B.
specific heat at constant pressure
C.
kilo Joule
D.
none of these
Answer: Option A
D.
5. There is a loss of heat in an irreversible process.
A.
True
Answer: Option A
B.
False
Answer: Option C
B.
5 to 8
C.
15 to 20
9. When the gas is heated at constant volume, the heat supplied increases
D. the
20internal
to 30 energy of
the gas.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
16. The most probable velocity of the gas molecules is
given by
A.
10. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel?
A.
Gasoline
B.
Kerosene
C.
Fuel oil
B.
C.
Answer: Option A
11.
D.
The processes occuring in open system which permit the transfer of mass to and from the
system, are known as
Answer: Option B
A. flow processes
B.
non-flow processes
C.
adiabatic processes
17. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle
efficiency when
D. none of these
Answer: Option A
A.
cut-off is increased
B.
cut-off is decreased
C.
cut-off is zero
D.
cut-off is constant
12. Which of the following has the minimum atomic mass?
A.
Oxygen
B.
Sulphur
C.
Nitrogen
D.
Carbon
Answer: Option C
18. The entropy __________ in an irreversible cyclic
process.
Answer: Option D
13. Workdone in a free expansion process is
A.
zero
B.
minimum
C.
maximum
D.
positive
A.
remains constant
B.
decreases
C.
increases
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
19. The atomic mass of oxygen is
14. The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is __________ of
the kinetic energy of all the molecules contained in a
unit volume of gas.
A.
one-half
B.
one-third
C.
two-third
D.
three-fourth
A.
12
B.
14
C.
16
D.
32
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
15. The compression ratio for petrol engines is
A.
3 to 6
20.
The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure
(cp) and specific heat at constant volume (cv) is
A.
equal to one
B.
less than one
C.
greater than one
A.
less than
D.
none of these
B.
equal to
C.
more than
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
21. Carbonisation of coal consists of
A.
drying and crushing the coal to a
fine powder
B.
moulding the finely ground coal
under pressure with or without a
binding material
C.
heating the wood with a limited
supply of air to temperature not
less than 280°C
D.
none of the above
Answer: Option D
22. The efficiency of Stirling cycle is
__________ Carnot cycle.
A.
greater than
B.
less than
C.
equal to
23. According to Gay-Lussac law for a
perfect gas, p/T = constant, if v is kept
constant.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
24. There is no change in internal energy in
an isothermal process.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option A
25. If the value of n = 0 in the
equation pvn = C, then the process is
called
A.
constant volume process
B.
adiabatic process
C.
constant pressure process
D.
isothermal process
Answer: Option C
26.
A.
atomisation
B.
carbonisation
Answer: Option B
28. Which of the following is correct?
A.
Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure +
Atmospheric pressure
B.
Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure +
Atmospheric pressure
C.
Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure +
Gauge pressure
D.
Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure Atmospheric pressure
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
A.
27. When coal is strongly heated continuously for 42 to 48
hours in the absence of air in a closed vessel, the
process is known as __________ of fuel.
The value of specific heat at constant
pressure (cp) is __________ that of at
constant volume (cv).
29. The distillation carried out in such a way that the liquid
with the lowest boiling point is first evaporated and
recondensed, then the liquid with the next higher
boiling point is then evaporated and recondensed, and
so on until all the available liquid fuels are separately
recovered in the sequence of their boiling points. Such
a process is called
A.
cracking
B.
carbonisation
C.
fractional distillation
D.
full distillation
Answer: Option C
30. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A.
The liquid fuels consist of hydrocarbons.
B.
The liquid fuels have higher calorific value than
solid fuels.
C.
The solid fuels have higher calorific value than
liquid fuels.
D.
A good fuel should have low ignition point.
Answer: Option C
31. Which of the following gas is mostly used in town for
street and domestic lighting and heating?
A.
Producer gas
B.
Coal gas
C.
Mond gas
D.
Coke oven gas
Answer: Option A
38. One kg of carbon monoxide requires
__________ kg of oxygen to produce
11/7 kg of carbon dioxide gas.
Answer: Option B
32. The value of gas constant (R) in S. I. units is
A.
0.287 J/kgK
B.
2.87 J/kgK
C.
28.7 J/kgK
D.
287 J/kgK
A.
All
B.
7/4
C.
11/4
D.
9/7
Answer: Option A
39. The absolute zero temperature is taken
as
A.
-273°C
B.
273°C
C.
237°C
D.
-237°C
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
33. In the first law of thermodynamics, the total energy of
the system remains constant.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
34. The efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with
A.
decrease in cut-off
B.
increase in cut-off
C.
constant cut-off
D.
none of these
1.817
B.
2512
C.
4.187
D.
none of these
41. The constant pressure, constant volume
and constant pvn processes are regarded
as irreversible process.
A.
Coal gas is obtained by mixing coal and gas at
ambient conditions.
A.
A.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
35.
40. The specific heat of water is
Yes
B.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
No
42. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are
Answer: Option B
36. According to Avogadro's law, the
density of any two gases is
__________ their molecular masses, if
the gases are at the same temperature
and pressure.
equal to
B.
directly proportional to
C.
inversely proportional to
Answer: Option B
37. The kinetic energy of molecules of a
gas becomes zero at absolute zero
temperature.
Agree
reversible cycles
B.
irreversible cycles
C.
semi-reversible cycles
D.
quasi-static cycles
Answer: Option A
A.
A.
A.
B.
Disagree
43. When cut-off ratio is __________ the efficiency of
Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency.
A.
zero
B.
1/5
C.
4/5
D.
1
Answer: Option A
44. A series of operations, which takes place in a certain
order and restore the initial conditions at the end, is
known as
A.
reversible cycle
D.
B.
irreversible cycle
C.
thermodynamic cycle
D.
none of these
Answer: Option D
50. The universal gas constant of a gas is the
product of molecular mass of the gas and
the gas constant.
Answer: Option C
45.
A.
An isothermal process is governed by
A.
Boyle's law
B.
Charles' law
Gay-Lussac law
D.
Avogadro's law
entropy
C.
enthalpy
D.
none of these
Incorrect
Answer: Option A
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
46. The sum of internal energy (U) and the
product of pressure and volume (p.v) is
known as
B.
B.
1. Surface plate is used to check the trueness of flat
surfaces.
Answer: Option A
workdone
Correct
Workshop Technology
C.
A.
all of these
2. A zinc diffusion process is called
A.
galvanising
B.
anodising
C.
parkerising
D.
sheradising
Answer: Option D
3. The accuracy of micrometers, calipers, dial indicators
can be checked by a
Answer: Option C
47. The value of 1 mm of Hg is equal to
A.
1.333 N/m
B.
13.33 N/m
C.
133.3 N/m2
D.
1333 N/m2
2
A.
feeler gauge
B.
slip gauge
C.
ring gauge
D.
plug gauge
2
Answer: Option B
4. The type of file used for a wood work is
Answer: Option C
48. One kg of carbon requires 4/3 kg of
oxygen and produces __________ kg of
carbon monoxide gas.
A.
8/3
B.
11/3
C.
11/7
D.
1/3
Answer: Option D
49. The behaviour of a perfect gas,
undergoing any change in the variables
which control physical properties, is
governed by
A.
Boyle's law
B.
Charles' law
C.
Gay-Lussac law
A.
single-cut file
B.
double cut file
C.
rasp-cut file
D.
any one of these
Answer: Option C
5. A taper provided on the pattern for its easy and
clean withdrawl from the mould is known as
A.
machining allowance
B.
draft allowance
C.
shrinkage allowance
D.
distortion allowance
Answer: Option B
6. In arc welding, the electric arc is
produced between the work and the
electrode by
A.
voltage
B.
flow of current
C.
contact resistance
D.
all of these
temperature are casted
B.
ferrous alloys with high melting
temperature are casted
C.
non-ferrous alloys with low melting
temperature are casted
D.
non-ferrous alloys with high
melting temperature are casted
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
12. The chisel used for cutting key ways is
7. In a centrifugal casting method
A.
core is made of sand
B.
core is made of ferrous metal
C.
core is made of non-ferrous
metal
D.
no core is used
Answer: Option D
8. The draft or taper allowance on casting
is generally
A.
flat chisel
B.
cape chisel
C.
round nose chisel
D.
diamond pointed chisel
Answer: Option B
13. The temperature at which the new grains are formed in
the metal is called
A.
lower critical temperature
A.
1 to 2 mm/m
B.
upper critical temperature
B.
2 to 5 mm/m
C.
eutectic temperature
C.
5 to 10 mm/m
D.
recrystallisation temperature
D.
10 to 15 mm/m
Answer: Option A
9. Which of the following welding process
uses non-consumable electrodes?
A.
TIG welding
B.
MIG welding
C.
Manual arc welding
D.
Submerged arc welding
Answer: Option A
10. In a bilateral system of tolerance, the
tolerance is allowed on
A.
one side of the actual size
B.
one side of the nominal size
C.
both sides of the actual size
D.
both sides of the nominal size
Answer: Option D
11. In a hot chamber die casting machine
A.
ferrous alloys with low melting
Answer: Option D
14. Thread rolling is restricted to
A.
ferrous materials
B.
ductile materials
C.
hard materials
D.
none of these
Answer: Option B
15. In sheet metal blanking, shear is provided on punches
and dies so that
A.
press load is reduced
B.
good cut edge is obtained
C.
warping of sheet is minimised
D.
cut blanks are straight
Answer: Option A
16. In welding copper alloys with TIG arc welding
A.
direct current with straight polarity is used
B.
direct current with reversed polarity is used
C.
alternating current is used
D.
any one of these
D.
to finish the punched hole
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
23. The cold chisels are made by
17. The algebraic difference between the minimum limit
and the basic size is called
A.
actual deviation
B.
upper deviation
C.
lower deviation
D.
fundamental deviation
B.
less than
C.
more than
19. Which of the following methods can be used for
manufacturing 2 metre long seamless metallic tubes?
Drawing
B.
Extrusion
C.
Rolling
D.
Extrusion and rolling
B.
pull saw or draw saw
forging
A.
collapsibility
B.
permeability
C.
cohesiveness
D.
adhesiveness
Answer: Option B
A.
symmetrical shape about vertical axis
B.
symmetrical shape about horizontal axis
C.
irregular shape
D.
non-ferrous metal only
A.
small castings
B.
large castings
C.
complicated castings
D.
large scale production of
castings
27. The instrument which has all the
features of try-square, bevel
protractor, rule and scriber, is
21. The low pressure acetylene is produced at the welding
site by the chemical reaction between water and
calcium carbonate.
Correct
D.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
A.
piercing
26. Metal patterns are used for
20. A saw which cuts wood during the return stroke of the
saw is known as
push saw
C.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
A.
rolling
25. The centrifugal casting method, is used for
casting articles of
Answer: Option B
A.
B.
24. The property of sand due to which it evolves a great
amount of steam and other gases is called
18. The temperature of oxy-hydrogen flame is __________
oxy-acetylene flame.
same as
drawing
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
A.
A.
B.
Incorrect
A.
outside micrometer
B.
inside micrometer
C.
depth gauge micrometer
D.
combination set
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
22. The fullers are used
A.
for finishing flat surfaces
B.
for necking down a piece of work
C.
for punching a hole
28. When a hole or cavity to be cored is
not in line with the parting surface,
then a __________ is used.
A.
horizontal core
B.
vertical core
C.
drop core
D.
balanced core
34. A plug gauge is used to check the diameter of shafts
and studs.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
35. In back-hand welding, the angle between the welding
torch and the work is kept as
29. The bloom is smaller than a billet.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option B
A.
30°-40°
B.
40°-50°
C.
50°-60°
D.
60°-70°
Answer: Option B
30. In average work, the tolerance
produced by investment casting
method is
36. The machining allowance provided on patterns depends
upon
A.
±0.05 mm
A.
type of casting metal
B.
+0.2 mm
B.
size and shape of casting
C.
+05 mm
C.
method of casting used
D.
+1 mm
D.
all of these
Answer: Option A
31.
Answer: Option D
The purpose of a riser is to
A.
deliver molten metal into the
mould cavity
B.
act as a reservoir for the molten
metal
C.
feed the molten metal to the
casting in order to compensate for
the shrinkage
D.
deliver the molten metal from
pouring basin to gate
37. In submerged arc welding, an arc is produced between
a
A.
carbon electrode and the work
B.
metal electrode and the work
C.
bare metal electrode and the work
D.
two tungsten electrodes and the work
Answer: Option C
38. In shielded arc welding
Answer: Option C
32. The blank diameter used in thread rolling will be
A.
large electrode is used
B.
welding rod coated with slag is used
A.
equal to minor diameter of the thread
C.
welding rod coated with fluxing material is used
B.
equal to pitch diameter of the thread
D.
none of the above
C.
a little larger than the minor diameter of the
thread
D.
a little larger than the pitch diameter of the
thread
Answer: Option C
39. In a die casting method, the molten metal is forced
into mould under high pressure.
A.
Answer: Option C
33. The cross-section of a chisel is usually
A.
rectangular
B.
square
C.
hexagonal
D.
octagonal
Correct
B.
Incorrect
Answer: Option A
40. In a centrifugal casting method, the impurities
are collected in the centre of the casting.
A.
Yes
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
B.
No
41. In a hot chamber die casting machine
A.
zinc diffusion process
A.
melting pot is separate from
the machine
B.
process of coating zinc by hot
dipping
B.
melting pot is an integral part
of the machine
C.
process used for making thin
phosphate coating on steel
C.
melting pot may have any
location
D.
none of the above
D.
high temperature and
pressure is used
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
47. The ferrous metals require more machining allowance
than non-ferrous metals.
A.
42. The electrodes used in spot welding
have a tip of
A.
stainless steel
B.
aluminium
C.
copper
D.
brass
Answer: Option C
43. Blanking and piercing operations can
be performed simultaneously in a
A.
simple die
B.
progressive die
C.
compound die
D.
combination die
True
B.
False
Answer: Option A
48. In a four high rolling mill, there are four rolls out of
which
A.
one is working roll and three are backing up
rolls
B.
two are working rolls and two are backing up
rolls
C.
three are working rolls and one is backing up
roll
D.
all of the four are working rolls
Answer: Option B
49. When a pattern is made in three parts, the bottom part
is known as a cope.
A.
True
B.
False
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
44. A pattern maker's shrinkage rule
considers
A.
all pattern allowances
B.
only shrinkage allowance
C.
all materials to be cast
D.
all materials of the pattern
Answer: Option B
45. The tolerance produced by shell
moulding process of casting is
A.
+0.05 mm
B.
±0.2 mm
C.
+0.5 mm
D.
±1 mm
Answer: Option B
46. Galvanising is a
50. In __________ welding, the weld may be made either
from left to right or from right to left.
A.
fore-hand
C.
vertical
Answer: Option C
B.
back-hand