LEONARDO DA VINCI WORKPROGRAMME PRT
LP-LdV-PRT-2010-LT-0202
Leonardo da Vinci Partnerships Project
Model of Assessing the Professional Competencies
of Car Mechanics in the Context of EU Experience
Theoretical tasks of car
mechanics professional
Provided by all LDV partners
2011- 2012
Theoretical tasks
THEORETICAL TASKS
Table of content
TABLE OF CONTENT
2
PHYSICAL PRINCIPLES – CHAPTER 1
4
BASIC ELECTROTECHNIC – CHAPTER 2
10
IGNITION AND DIESEL ENGINE – CHAPTER 3
19
POWERTRAIN – CHAPTER 4
32
BRAKES – CHAPTER 5
46
CHASSIS – CHAPTER 6
57
COMFORT ELECTRONIC – CHAPTER 7
64
CONCLUSION
71
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Theoretical tasks
Vilniaus automechaniko ir verslo mokykla
Gelezinio vilko st. 16, 01112 Vilnius
LITHUANIA
email: mokykla@vavm.lt
www.vsam.lt
Stredná odborná škola
Jesenského č. 1, 940 62 Nové Zámky
SLOVAKIA
email: sou@soujesnz.sk
www.soujesnz.sk
Landesberufsschule für Kraftfahrzeugtechnik und
Karosseriebautechnik
Siegfried Marcus Straße 2, 3730 Eggenburg
AUSTRIA
office@mail.lbseggenburg.at
www.lbseggenburg.ac.at
Zespół Szkół Samochodowych im. inż.
Tadeusza Tańskiego
Zamenhofa 142, Poznań, 61 – 139
POLAND
email: zss@samochodowka.edu.pl
www.samochodowka.edu.pl
Střední škola automobilní a informatiky
Weilova 1270/4, Praha 10 - Hostivař, 102 00
CZECH REPULIC
email: mailbox@skolahostivar.cz
www.skolahostivar.cz
Ziya K. Denizcilik Anadolu Teknik Lisesi
Cirigan Caddesi Nr.34 Besiktas, 34120 Istanbul
TURKEY
bilgi@ziyakalkavanadml.k12.tr
www.ziyakalkavanadml.k12.tr
ASUC Boro Petrushevski
Bul.Edvard Kadrlj 26.b, 1000 Skopje
MACEDONIA
email: info@asuc.edu.mk
www.asuc.edu.mk
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Model of Assessing the Professional Competencies
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Theoretical tasks
This compendium of tasks is prepared by the vocational training schools,
participating in the Leonardo da Vinci partnership project "Model of
Assessing the Professional Competencies of Car Mechanics in the Context
of EU Experience".
Physical Principles – Chapter 1
1.01) The SI-Unit of the mass is
a. kp
b. kN
c. kg
d. km
1.02) Mass is the
a. product of volume multiplied by the gravitational acceleration
b. division of volume by density
c. division of density by volume
d. product of volume product of volume multiplied by the density
1.03) What is the resistance of any physical object to a change in its state of motion
a. stability under load
b. inertia
c. tendency to motion
d. density
1.04) The gravitational acceleration
a. increases by greater distance to Earth’s center
b. decreases by greater distance to Earth’s center
c. remains constant by increase of the distance to Earth’s center
d. is a constant
1.05) The weight force is the product of
a. the mass multiplied by the acceleration of motion
b. the mass multiplied by the gravitational acceleration
c. the velocity multiplied by the force
d. the mass multiplied by the velocity
1.06) Propagation of pressure in fluids develops
a. only towards the bottom of the container
b. towards all directions only in closed containers
c. in open containers only towards the bottom and to the sides of the
container
d. always towards all directions
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1.07) Tensile strength is
a. the product of the force multiplied by the distance
b. the product of the force multiplied by the area
c. the quotient of the force divided by the area
d. the quotient of the force divided by the distance
1.08) Condensation causes
a. consumption of heath
b. no modification in energy potential
c. any substance dissolved gaseous to become liquid again
d. any substance dissolved gaseous to become solid again
1.09) Evaporation occurs
a. by increase of pressure
b. by decrease of pressure
c. by chilling
d. by heating
1.10) Work is the product of
a. force times time
b. time times distance
c. distance times force
d. distance times turning moment
1.11) The SI-Unit of the work is
a. J
b. Nm
c. W
d. P
1.12) The formula for the calculation of the turning moment is
a. M = F / r
b. m = V x 
c. M = F x r
d. D = F x a
1.13) The SI-Unit of the turning moment is
a. kg.m
b. W
c. Nm
d. A
1.14) Which of the following is applicable to turning moment
a. it is changed by transmission ratio
b. it decreases due to friction losses
c. it cannot be changed
d. it defined as radius times the perpendicular-acting force
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1.15) The symbol of the mechanical power is
a. P
b. Nm
c. W
d. N
1.16) The mechanical power is calculated as the
a. product of the force multiplied by the acceleration
b. quotient of the work divided by the time
c. quotient of the force divided by the velocity
d. product of the force multiplied by the velocity
1.17) The ratio between the power put in and the force put out is defined as
a. working degree
b. time ratio
c. efficiency
d. power loss
1.18) Which of the following is applicable to friction force
a. it depends on the size of the friction surface area
b. it depends only on the contact pressing force and the coefficient of
friction
c. it depends only on the surface structure but not on the material
d. it depends on the size of the friction surface area, the surface structure,
contact pressing force and the velocity
1.19) The electrical work is defined as the
a. quotient of the voltage divided by the current
b. product of the voltage multiplied by the current and multiplied by the
time
c. summation of the voltage plus current plus time
d. product of voltage multiplied by the current and multiplied by the
resistance
1.20) The SI-Unit of the electrical work is
a. Ps
b. Ms
c. Ns
d. Ws
1.21) The SI-Unit of the electrical power is
a. Ws
b. U
c. I
d. W
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1.22) The electrical power is the
a. quotient of the voltage divided by the current
b. product of the voltage multiplied by the resistance
c. product of voltage multiplied by the current
d. summation of the voltage plus resistance
1.23) Which of the following is applicable to electrical resistance
a. the value of resistance can be increased by parallel connection
b. the value of resistance can be decreased by parallel connection
c. the value of resistance can be increased by serial connection
d. the value of resistance can be decreased by serial connection
1.24) The direction change of light when passing through media with different optical
density is the definition of:
a. bending
b. total reflection
c. friction
d. shadowing
1.25) Which of the following items functions on the basis of light reflection
a. the headlamp reflector
b. the diffusion disc
c. the fiber optic cable
d. the triple-axle ellipsoid headlamp
1.26) Which of the following gases are used for gas fusion welding
a. acetylene and oxygen
b. carbon dioxide and hydrogen
c. acetylene and hydrogen
d. carbon dioxide and oxygen
1.27) Which inert shielding gas is used for „MAG-welding“ (metal active-gas)
a. pure argon (Ar)
b. carbon dioxide (CO2)
c. carbon monoxide (CO)
d. hydrogen (H2)
1.28) Which of the following elements is not a „heavy metal“
a. copper
b. zinc
c. magnesium
d. nickel
1.29) By the addition of which alloying additives becomes steel „stainless“
a. molybdenum, vanadium
b. chrome, nickel
c. copper, zinc
d. zinc, aluminum
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1.30) The material „brass“ is an alloying of:
a. aluminum - magnesium
b. copper - zinc
c. copper - tin
d. aluminum - zinc
1.31) What is the density of the material „titan“
a. approx. 2,5 kg/dm3
b. approx. 4,5 kg/dm3
c. approx. 6,5 kg/dm3
d. approx. 8,5 kg/dm3
1.32) Which of the following elements is a „light metal“
a. vanadium
b. magnesium
c. molybdenum
d. aluminum
1.33) What does mean the description „8.8“ for a steel bolt
a. diameter – thread form
b. tensile strength – diameter
c. diameter – yield stress
d. tensile strength – yield stress
1.34) The plastic material „polyamide“ belongs to the group of:
a. duroplasts
b. thermoplastics
c. elastoplasts
d. silicone
1.35) Which of the following materials belong to the group „duroplasts“
a. Polyvinylchloride
b. butyl-caoutchouc
c. polyester resin
d. phenol resin
1.36) In comparison to steel, the material „cast iron“ has a high-level content of:
a. molybdenum
b. carbonate
c. vanadium
d. nikel
1.37) Which of the following materials belong to the group „thermoplastics“
a. polyethylene PE
b. polypropylene PP
c. polyurethane PUR
d. polytetrafluorethylene PTFE
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1.38) At which level is the concentration of thin sulfuric acid
a. approx. 17 %
b. approx. 37 %
c. approx. 57 %
d. approx. 77 %
1.39) Which of the following headlamps is shown on the figure, right
a. parabolic reflector – main beam
b. ellipsoid reflector – low beam
c. parabolic reflector – low beam
d. ellipsoid reflector – main beam
1.40) Which geometric forms have the headlamp reflectors shown below
a. A ... stepped reflector
B ... ellipsoid reflector
b. A ... bifocal reflector
B ... parabolic reflector
c. A ... parabolic reflector
B ... ellipsoid reflector
d. A ... parabolic reflector
B ... stepped reflector
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Basic Electrotechnic – Chapter 2
2.01) What do you mean by voltage?
a. Electromotance.
b. Electron flow intensity.
c. Electric force.
d. Electric capacity.
2.02) What do you mean by current intencity?
a. Electromotance.
b. Electron flow intensity.
c. Electric force.
d. Electrodynamic power.
2.03) What do you mean by electric resistance?
a. Electromotance.
b. Electron friction intensity in electric conductor.
c. Electric force.
d. Potential difference.
2.04) The voltage is measured in
a. Volts.
b. Amperes.
c. Gausess.
d. Henries.
2.05) How the voltage should be measured in electrical circuit?
a. Serially.
b. Parallelly.
c. In open or intermittent circuit.
d. Either serially or parallelly.
2.06) Current intensity is measured in
a. Farads.
b. Bauds.
c. Amperes.
d. Volts.
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2.07) How the current intensity should be measured in electrical circuit?
a. Serially.
b. Parallelly.
c. In open or intermittent circuit.
d. Directly on the source of energy by connecting the multimeter parallelly to the
source.
2.08) Resistance is measured in
a. Teslas.
b. Ohms.
c. Volts.
d. Siemenses.
2.09) What do you have to pay attention to when you measure the resistance?
a. The measured conductor mustn’t be under voltage.
b. The measured conductor can be under a current of no more than 5 A.
c. The measured conductor can be under the voltage of maximum 12 V.
d. The measured conductor must have electrostatic charge.
2.10) What happens with the voltage in series circuit?
a. The voltage across all the components will be the same.
b. The voltage will be partitioned among the components.
c. The voltage won’t change.
d. The voltage diminishes and reaches 0 V at the final component.
2.11) What is the current intensity in series circuit?
a. Current through each of the components Is the same.
b. Current intensity will be partitioned accordingly to the resistance.
c. Current intensity won’t change.
d. Current intensity diminishes and reaches 0 A at the final component.
2.12) What is the resistance in series circuits?
a. The total resistance is equal to the sum of the resistances of individual resistors.
b. The total resistance is lower than the value of the lowest resistance.
c. The total resistance is lower than the value of highest resistance.
d. The total resistance is equal to the quotient of sum of the resistances of
individual resistors and the number of resistors.
2.13) What is the voltage in parallel circuit?
a. The voltage of all the components is the same.
b. The voltage is divided according to resistances.
c. The voltage doesn’t change.
d. The voltage depends on the number of components connected.
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2.14) What is the current intensity in parallel circuit?
a. Current through each of the components Is the same.
b. Current intensity will be partitioned accordingly to the resistance.
c. Current intensity won’t change.
d. Current intensity diminishes at the component which is the farthest from the
source of energy.
2.15) What is the resistance in parallel circuits?
a. The total resistance is equal to the sum of the resistances of individual resistors.
b. The total resistance is lower than the value of the lowest resistance.
c. The total resistance is lower than the value of highest resistance.
d. The total resistance is two times higher r than the value of the lowest resistance.
2.16) Which equation shows the Ohm’s Law?
a. P = U*I
b. U = R*I
c. W = U*I*t
d. R = U*I
2.17) Diode conducts current,
a. if the voltage is applied accordingly to the direction of conduction and there is
junction polarization.
b. if the voltage is applied opposing to the direction of conduction and there is
junction rupture.
c. Always.
d. when the Hall effect occurs.
2.18) The Zener diode can usually be connected
a. In the reverse direction.
b. In the forward direction.
c. In any direction.
d. In the forward direction but the voltage at anode can’t be higher than 5V.
2.19) A bipolar transistor (BJT) conducts when
a. a positive voltage is applied to the base and negative to the emitter.
b. a negative voltage is applied to the base and positive to the emitter.
c. a positive voltage is applied to the base and negative to the collector.
d. an alternating voltage is applied to the base and collector whereas the
emitter is connected to the ground.
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2.20) The components V1 i V2 shown by in the picture present
a. Graetz circuit ( diode bridge).
b. Darlington transistor.
c. Ohm’s circuit.
d. Wheatstone bridge.
2.21) How does the resistance of the NTC thermistor change
a. The resistivity increases with an increase in temperature.
b. The resistivity decreases with an increase in temperature.
c. The resistivity doesn’t change.
d. The resistivity increases up to 20ºC and later decreases with the
increasing temperature.
2.22) How does the resistance of the PTC thermistor change
a. The resistivity increases with an increase in temperature.
b. The resistivity decreases with an increase in temperature.
c. The resistivity doesn’t change.
d. The resistivity changes rapidly within critical temperature.
2.23) The component shown by in the picture presents
a. A photoresistor.
b. A transformer.
c. An opto-isolator.
d. A resonant transformer (Tesla coil).
2.24) What current intensity should be used to charge lead – acid battery
a. 8 to 20 % of ampere-hour capacity.
b. 50 % of ampere-hour capacity.
c. 100 % of ampere-hour capacity.
d. 50 % of ampere-hour capacity for 2 hour and then 25 % of ampere-hour
capacity for 8 hours.
2.25) What does inductive sensor generate
a. Direct voltage.
b. Alternating voltage.
c. Direct current.
d. Alternating current on the course of the rectangular.
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2.26) The inductive sensor consist of
a. steel core, coil, inductive pulse generator.
b. Hall effect sensor, magnetically permeable core, rotating baffle.
c. photodiode, sensor.
d. opto-isolator, wire-wound core and a signal conditioner.
2.27) What does lambda sensor generate if there isn’t enough oxygen in exhaust fumes
a. Low voltage.
b. High voltage.
c. It doesn’t generate voltage.
d. High resistance.
2.28) What is the measurement pointing out
a. The value of AC voltage 38V.
b. The value of DC voltage 76V.
c. The value of an alternating current 36 mA.
d. The value of direct current76 mA.
2.29) What’s the purpose of using 2 lambda sensors
a. To reduce the emission of exhaust gases.
b. To reduce fuel consumption.
c. To enable the control of catalytic converter.
d. To increase engine power.
2.30) Which definitions best describes the method of operating of the broadband
lambda sensor
a. To keep the voltage value between the electrodes at the target value of
450 mV oxygen pump pumps oxygen ions into the measuring cell.
b. The pump voltage value is the same as its power. Sensor voltage is the
result of the difference in oxygen content in the exhaust air and air.
c. The difference in oxygen content in the exhaust air and air causes the
change in sensor voltage. Due to the change in air-fuel ratio the first
sensor reads the voltage deviation.
d. The difference in oxygen content in the exhaust air and air causes the
change in sensor resistance. Due to the change in air-fuel ratio the
voltage deviation appears caused by resistance change.
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2.31) The diagram shown by presents
a. One-phase half-wave rectifier.
b. Voltage amplifier.
c. Sine wave generator.
d. One-phase full-wave rectifier.
2.32) The characteristic IF=f(UF) shown by presents
a. the characteristic of semiconductor diode.
b. the characteristic of photoelectric current in
photoresistor.
c. the characteristic of FET transistor.
d. the characteristic of voltage and current of charging and discharging the
capacitor.
2.33) In a transformer the energy at the second coil
a. Equals the energy at the primary coil.
b. Is lower than the energy at primary coil by the losses in transformer.
c. Is the same as at primary coil when proper receiver is chosen.
d. Is higher than the energy at primary coil by the
2.34) An electronic component that works according to the principle of a voltage
divider is
a. transistor.
b. photoresistor.
c. potentiometer.
d. Wheatstone bridge.
2.35) The characteristic shown by concerns
a. Rectifying diode.
b. Varicap diode.
c. Tunnel diode.
d. Zener diode.
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2.36) The component that is shown by
a. Has a changing capacitance depending on the polarization voltage in
reverse direction.
b. Has a changeable resistance value when the polarization is present in
the forward direction.
c. Has a constant capacitance when a voltage is present in the reverse
direction.
d. Changes its capacitance when a voltage is present in the forward
direction.
2.37) The picture shown by presents
a. Loaded voltage divider.
b. Two-step voltage control system.
c. The controller potentiometer.
d. Load current limiter.
2.38) The symbol shown by presents the following logic gate
a. AND.
b. NOR.
c. XOR.
d. XNOR.
2.39) The picture shown by present an electrical circuit of
a. Compound direct current generator.
b. Serial direct current generator.
c. Compound generator.
d. One-phase alternator.
2.40) The transformation ratio can be expressed by the following equation
a. z= n2/n1.
b. z= P2/P1.
c. z= U*I*cosφ.
d. z= U2/I2.
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2.41) If we connect the resistors R1= 100Ω, R2= 50Ω and R3= 1050Ω as in the
diagram then the value of total resistance R(z=total ) will be
a. 1,2 kΩ.
b. lower than 50 Ω.
c. 100 Ω.
d. 1300 Ω.
2.42) If we connect the capacitors C1= 10 µF, C2= 10 µF and C3=
4700 nF as in the diagram then the value of total capacitance
Cz (z=total ) will be
a. 4720 nF.
b. 9700 nF.
c. 24,7 µF.
d. 3200 nF
2.43) If we connect the resistors R1= 50Ω, R2= 50Ω, R3= 100Ω and R4= 50Ω as in the
diagram then the value of total resistance Rz (z=total ) will be
a. 0,1 k Ω.
b. 250 Ω.
c. 0,5 kΩ.
d. 150 Ω.
2.44) The symbol shown by presents
a. Potentiometer.
b. Tunnel diode.
c. Thermistor.
d. field-effect transistor.
2.45) Electric power expressed by the formula P=U*I is called
a. Apparent power.
b. Reactive power.
c. Active power.
d. Complex power.
2.46) The symbol shown by presents
a. Potentiometer.
b. Photodiode.
c. Bipolar transistor (BJT).
d. Photoresistor.
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2.47) The symbol shown by presents
a. Potentiometer.
b. Photodiode.
c. Bipolar transistor (BJT).
d. Photoresistor.
2.48) The symbol shown by presents
a. Oscilloscope.
b. Full-wave rectifier.
c. Operational amplifier.
d. Precision multimeter.
2.49) The symbol shown by presents
a. Phototransistor.
b. Photodiode.
c. Bipolar transistor (BJT).
d. Photoresistor.
2.50) The symbol shown by presents
a. FET transistor with p gate.
b. FET transistor with n gate.
c. Bipolar transistor (BJT).
d. D.Photoresistor.
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Ignition and Diesel Engine – Chapter 3
3.01) What injection system does the part shown in picture N1 belong to
a. Common Rail.
b. L- Jetronic.
c. Direct injection with the distributor pump.
d. Unit injector (PD).
Picture N1
3.02) Which statement about the injection system shown in picture N2 is correct
a. It is used in low pressure injection systems.
b. This system needs pressure oil lubrication.
c. Injected fuel is measured by hydraulic method.
d. Possible very high injection pressure up to 2050 bar.
Picture N2
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3.03) How the unit injector does distribute fuel into separate cylinders
a. Each cylinder has separate unit injector.
b. Each injector is connected to the fuel rail and is supplied with fuel from it.
c. Each injector is connected with the upper cell and is supplied with fuel from
it.
d. The rotating distribution plunger distributes necessary quantity of fuel to
cylinders.
3.04) Each unit injector has electromagnetic valve…
a. with pneumatic actuator controlled by the electronic control unit.
b. with the hydraulic actuator controlled by the electronic control unit.
c. this is opened by the control unit during the injection.
d. this is closed by the control unit during the injection.
3.05) Unit injector plunger…
a. works under influence of the pump cam.
b. works under influence of the camshaft cam over the lever.
c. is controlled by electromagnetic valve.
d. is controlled through the hydraulic actuator.
3.06) Primary – auxiliary injection in the unit injector is stopped by…
a. unit injector plunger.
b. unit injector electromagnetic valve.
c. omission valve.
d. plunger spring of the unit injector.
3.07) Camshaft position sensor (CMP) in the unit injector injection system…
a. defines engine revolutions.
b. is used for cylinder recognition.
c. is used only for recognition of the first cylinder.
d. is used for the recognition of the engine working mode.
3.08) What is the function of the EGR valve in the diesel engine injection system
a. Reduces NOx emission in exhaust gases.
b. Burns the particles once again in exhaust gases.
c. Reduces diesel engine work noise.
d. Reduces CO emission in exhaust gases.
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3.09) If in the unit injector system the engine control unit does not get the signal
from…. the engine turns off and can not start any more.
a. engine rotation and position sensor,
b. camshaft position sensor,
c. engine coolant temperature sensor,
d. air mass meter.
3.10) Picture N3 shows the injection system diagram:
a. Otto engine electronically controlled injection system D-Jetronic.
b. Diesel engine with the fuel distributing pump injection system.
c. Diesel engine Common- Rail fuel injection system.
d. Diesel engine unit injector fuel injection system.
Picture N3
3.11) What is the function of the part N4 (picture N4 below)
a. Turns off the high pressure pump, if the pressure exceeds 1350 bar.
b. Adjusts the pressure from 300 to 1800 bar.
c. Limits the pressure in RAIL system up to 1000 bar.
d. Turns off the system, if RAIL pressure sensor informs about the
unacceptably high pressure.
Picture N4
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3.12) What in COMMON RAIL system opens the injector
a. The cam presses the injector needle and opens it.
b. The valve needle is lifted by the electromagnetic method and affecting the
control plunger opens the injector.
c. The electromagnetic valve opens the fuel return throttle and fuel pressing
the injector needle opens it.
d. The pump plunger in the injector increases the pressure. The injector
needle is lifted hydraulically and it opens.
3.13) What component informs the engine control unit about the required pressure in
the fuel accumulator (RAIL)
a. Safety valve.
b. Fuel pressure sensor.
c. Injectors.
d. Fuel pressure adjuster.
3.14) What influences the injected fuel quantity in the “COMMON RAIL” system
a. The injector electromagnetic valve control signal duration and pressure in
fuel rail.
b. Pressure in the fuel rail.
c. Safety valve adjustment.
d. The injector electromagnetic valve control signal duration.
3.15) Which answer shows correct order of position numbers in the high pressure
pump in picture N5
a. 3 – fuel shut – off solenoid, 4 – fuel quantity adjuster, 5 – electromagnetic
fuel injection timing solenoid.
b. 3 – fuel quantity adjuster, 5 – fuel shut – off solenoid, 8 – fuel quantity
adjuster position sensor.
c. 1 – fuel temperature sensor, 2 – fuel quantity adjuster, 3 – electromagnetic
fuel injection timing solenoid.
d. 3 – fuel quantity adjuster, 5 – fuel shut – off solenoid, 8 – electromagnetic
fuel injection timing solenoid.
Picture N5
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3.16) What is the task of the sensor marked by N1 in the picture below The sensor
informs about:
a. Fuel injection pressure.
b. Fuel injection quantity.
c. Fuel injection timing.
d. Auxiliary – primary fuel injection quantity.
Picture N6
3.17) Which parts group of the high pressure pump is shown in picture N7
a. Hydraulic pressure control valve with the electromagnetic pressure
reduction valve.
b. Hydraulic fuel quantity adjuster with the electromagnetic valve adjustment.
c. Hydraulic rotation adjuster with the electromagnetic valve rotation limiting.
d. Hydraulic injection timing solenoid with the electromagnetic valve for
injection timing adjustment.
Picture N7
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3.18) Which parts of the mechanical high pressure pump are changed to fuel quantity
adjuster
a. Centrifugal force adjuster and lever system of the adjuster.
b. Centrifugal force adjuster and control flap.
c. Adjuster lever and electric fuel shut- off solenoid.
d. Adjuster lever and hydraulic injection timing solenoid.
3.19) What injection system has the injector shown in picture N8
a. COMMON – RAIL.
b. Unit injector.
c. Direct injection with the radial pump.
d. L – Jetronic.
Picture N8
3.20) Picture N9 shows:
a. The operation diagram of the fuel pressure adjuster in Otto engine.
b. The operation diagram of the high pressure fuel pump adjuster in the diesel
engine Common Rail.
c. The operation diagram of the diesel engine Common Rail system injector.
d. The operation diagram of the diesel engine unit injector.
Picture N9
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Theoretical tasks
3.21) In what engine performance cycles the electric fuel pump in the petrol injection
system works constantly
a. Only when the ignition is on.
b. Only when there is a signal showing the crankshaft rotation.
c. When the ignition is on and there is a signal about engine temperature.
d. When the ignition is on and there is a signal showing the crankshaft
rotation.
3.22) Petrol injection system should guarantee:
a. 100% fuel injection, when there is a 100% air filling.
b. That fuel is injected when the injection pressure is higher than 8 bars.
c. Engine combustion chamber is full with fuel at each turn of the crankshaft.
d. That the engine is supplied with the fuel and air mixture, which is applied to
the appropriate engine performance mode.
3.23) Which statement about petrol injection is false
a. Injected petrol quantity does not depend on the intake air quantity;
b. Possible equal distribution of petrol and air mixture for each cylinder and
exact petrol and air proportion in all engine performance modes;
c. Possible correct and fast reaction to the throttle valve position change;
d. The composition of mixture is applied to the low environment temperature.
3.24) Which statement about petrol injection is correct
a. The required air quantity is defined according to the engine rotation and air
temperature and is transferred to the control unit;
b. Only during the car acceleration and skidding the intake air mass is
determined according to the air temperature;
c. The intake air mass is determined by a separate sensor or the control unit (
ECU) produces the load signal from the engine rotation frequency, the
position of the throttle valve, air temperature in intake manifold;
d. Intake air quantity is determined according to the position of the throttle
valve.
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Theoretical tasks
3.25) Which is the correct order of the parts in picture N10
a. 8 – idle speed control valve, 4 – throttle valve position sensor.
b. 2 – fuel pressure regulator, 7 – electric fuel pump.
c. 3 – manifold absolute pressure sensor (MAP), 8 – engine coolant
temperature sensor.
d. 5 – airflow sensor, 6 – lambda probe (oxygen sensor).
Picture N10
3.26) How do you understand the abbreviation HFM
a. High power – external ignition engine.
b. Hot film engine.
c. The engine of high working temperature.
d. Air mass measuring by hot film or wire refrigeration method.
3.27) Which answer shows the correct order of the position numbers in picture N11
a. 3 – control module, 4 – intake canal obstacle pipe.
b. 1 – temperature sensor, 2 – heating unit.
c. 5 – input and output filters, 6 – precision resistance.
d. 1 – hot wire element, 2 – temperature compensation resistance.
Picture N11
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Theoretical tasks
3.28) How the injection system increases the idle speed when the engine is cold
a. Reducing the air passage to the intake manifold and preparing lean
mixture.
b. Reducing the air passage to the intake manifold and preparing rich mixture.
c. Increasing the air passage to the intake manifold and preparing rich
mixture.
d. Increasing the air passage to the intake manifold and preparing lean
mixture.
3.29) Picture N12 is showing:
a. Mono – Jetronic.
b. LH or HFM – Jetronic.
c. Mono – Motronic
d. Motronic – MPI.
Picture N12
3.30) Which statement is applicable to the central injection
a. Electromagnetic valve performs the fuel injection to all cylinders.
b. Mixture is produced in the combustion chamber.
c. A comfortable and short way of mixture intake is performed.
d. That fuel is injected at the atmospheric fuel pressure.
3.31) Which statement about the FSI engine is correct
a. During the maximum acceleration the fuel is injected at the end of the
compression cycle.
b. During the idle mode or the partial loading the engine works with the
homogeneous mixture.
c. The FSI engines have the pistons with the specific forms of bottoms.
d. When the engine works with the partial loading and the mixture is lean
bigger amounts of CO are released during the combustion time.
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Theoretical tasks
3.32) Which statement about the FSI engine is correct
a. When the engine works with the partial loading and the mixture is lean
bigger amounts of CO are released during the combustion time.
b. At the maximum acceleration the fuel is injected during the intake cycle.
c. The FSI engines have the pistons with the flat forms of bottoms.
d. At the maximum load the engine works with the layered mixture.
3.33) In petrol injection systems for changing the intake air quantity is used:
a. Coolant temperature sensor, air temperature sensor.
b. Intake manifold pressure sensor, the sensor of the throttle valve position.
c. Air mass sensor, knock sensor.
d. Throttle valve, idle speed control valve.
3.34) Which answer contains only OTTO engine electric fuel pumps
a. Rotor plate pump, diaphragm pump.
b. Rotor pump, vane type pump.
c. Cogwheel pump, diaphragm pump.
d. Vane type pump, Cogwheel pump.
3.35) What is the fuel pressure in high pressure zone used in FSI injection systems
a. 5,5 – 6,5 bar.
b. 50 – 120 bar.
c. 1,2 ± 0,3 bar.
d. 3,0 ± 0,5 bar.
3.36) What does the injection system control unit do in case of the forced idle mode
a. Makes mixture for the engine according to the signal of Lambda probe
(oxygen sensor).
b. Earlies the ignition.
c. Closes the idle speed control valve.
d. Interrupts fuel delivery to the engine by switching off the injector.
3.37) What is the operating fuel pressure used in MPI injection systems
a. 5,5 – 6,5 bar.
b. 50 – 120 bar.
c. 1,2 ± 0,5 bar.
d. 3,0 ± 0,5 bar.
3.38) How much air is needed to make the lean fuel mixture and to burn 1 kg of petrol
a. 1,2 kg.
b. 13,7 kg.
c. 15,6 kg.
d. 0,8 kg.
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3.39) What does the control unit of the FSI injection system do in case of failure of the
accelerator pedal position sensor
a. Increases engine rotations up to 1200 RPM, switches on the warning light
on the instrument panel and does not react to the accelerator pedal
position sensor.
b. Switches on the warning light and works in the usual mode.
c. Reduces engine rotations up to 500 RPM, switches on the warning light on
the instrument panel and works in the usual mode.
d. Turns off the engine and switches on the warning light on the instrument
panel.
3.40) Why does the injection system have to make the air- fuel mixture richer when
starting a cold engine
a. Because spark plugs have not reached the operating temperature yet.
b. Because part of the injected fuel is condensed on cold manifold and
cylinder walls.
c. Because viscosity of petrol increases at low temperatures.
d. Because rich mixture has higher burning temperature.
3.41) In what engines one work cycle occurs in 720 º of crankshaft rotation
a. Rotary engines.
b. Two- stroke engines.
c. Stirling engines.
d. Four- stroke engines.
3.42) What engine according to the cylinder arrangement is shown in the diagram in
picture N13
a. One – line arrangement.
b. Two – line with the opposite arrangement.
c. One – line with the vertical arrangement.
d. Two – line V – form arrangement.
Picture N13
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Theoretical tasks
3.43) What is called engine working cycle
a. The part of the engine work occurring in one piston stroke.
b. The capacity sum of all cylinders in liters.
c. The capacity of all cylinders compression chambers.
d. The unit of processes repeating in some periodical sequence.
3.44) Which group of the following parts belongs to the moving engine parts
a. Oil sump (carter), cylinder, connecting rod.
b. Cylinder head, piston, crankshaft.
c. Piston, connecting rod, crankshaft.
d. All these groups of parts belong to the moving engine parts.
3.45) What is called the stroke
a. The part of the engine work occurring in one piston stroke.
b. The capacity sum of all cylinders in liters.
c. The capacity of all cylinders compression chambers.
d. The unit of processes repeating in some periodical sequence.
3.46) During what engine work strokes both valves are closed
a. Intake – power.
b. Exhaust – compression.
c. Intake – exhaust.
d. Compression – power.
3.47) In what limits should be normal engine cooling system temperature
a. 10 – 40ºC.
b. 40 – 60ºC.
c. 80- 100ºC.
d. 100 – 120ºC.
3.48) What lubrication system is used in four – stroke engines
a. Pressure circular lubrication.
b. Lubrication with the oil and petrol mixture.
c. Lubrication with fresh oil.
d. Pressure circular lubrication with oil and petrol mixture.
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Theoretical tasks
3.49) What engine is shown in the diagram in picture N14 depending on the camshaft
mounting place
a. OHC (overhead camshaft).
b. OHV (overhead valves).
c. DOHC (double overhead
camshaft).
d. CIH (camshaft in head).
Picture N14
3.50) What happens when the valve thermal gap is too small
a. Valve does not close when the engine is getting warm.
b. Cylinder filling coefficient is reduced.
c. Valve noise is increased.
d. Open valve position duration is getting shorter.
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Theoretical tasks
Powertrain – Chapter 4
4.01) Which combination is responsible for the conversion of torque and rotation speed
a.
b.
c.
d.
change gear and differential gear
clutch and drive shaft
differential gear and clutch
change gear and axle gear
4.02) Identify the clutch system shown here.
a.
b.
c.
d.
one disc dry clutch with screw springs
multi disc clutch
one disc dry clutch with diaphragm spring
two disc clutch
4.03) What is the function of a diaphragm spring in a friction clutch
a.
b.
c.
d.
producing the contact force
producing the press out strength
producing the coupling slack
limiting the pedal force
4.04) What type of friction is applicable in a dry clutch during drive off
a.
b.
c.
d.
revolving friction
adhesion
hydrodynamic friction
sliding friction
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4.05) Which type of clutch is shown here
a.
b.
c.
d.
electromagnetic clutch
clutch by cable pull
pneumatic clutch
hydraulic clutch
4.06) Which statement describing the clutch is correct
a.
b.
c.
d.
deflect the power flow, increase the torque
transmit the torque, enable soft driveaway
increase rotation speed, absorb rotation vibrations
transmit torque and rotation speed
4.07) Which type of clutch construction is shown in the drawing
a.
b.
c.
d.
screw spring clutch
Haldex - clutch
dog (jaw) clutch
viscose clutch
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4.08) Which component of the clutch disc absorbs vibrations during rotation
a.
b.
c.
d.
rubbing equipment with torsion springs
low vibration friction pads
elastic spring elements between the friction pads
axial damper springs in the hub
4.09) Indentify the components numbered correctly in this drawing.
a.
1 – master cylinder
bearing
3 – slave cylinder
5 – throw out
b.
1 – slave cylinder
3 – master cylinder
6 – throw out lever
c.
1 – slave cylinder
lever
4 – throw out bearing
d.
3 – master cylinder
bearing
5 – throw out lever
7 – throw out
7 – throw out
4.10) Which qualities in a clutch enable a soft and smooth drive off
a.
b.
c.
d.
soft clutch pads
springing elements between the pads
rubbing equipment in the hub
soft torsion springs
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4.11) Indetify which answer allocates the components correctly.
a. 1 – membrane spring
2 – flywheel
3 – friction pad
8 – throw-out bearing
b. 1 – membrane spring
3 – friction pad
5 – clutch disc
6 – pressure plate
c.
2 – clutch disc
6 – pressure plate
7 – membrane spring
8 – throw-out bearing
d.
2 – flywheel
4 – crankshaft
6 – pressure plate
7 – membrane spring
4.12) What is the lock value in a Haldex clutch
a.
b.
c.
d.
between 0% and 100%
maximum 50 %
between 40% and 80%
always 100%
4.13) What is the function of the joint shafts in a motor vehicle
a.
b.
c.
d.
to transmit the momentum of torques, enable angle changes
enable displacements exchange motor rotation speeds
enable angle changes possible, increase motor rotation speeds
enable changes to length, change direction of rotation
4.14) Which synchronous joint allowes the greatest angle of deflection
a.
b.
c.
d.
homokinetic joint
simple cardan joint
ball joint
polygon rubber joint
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4.15) Allocate the numbered components of the pictures in the correct group of letter
a. 1 – cardan joint
2 – tripod joint
3 – ball joint
4 – homokinetic joint
b. 1 – cardan joint
2 – tripod joint
3 – homokinetic joint
4 – ball joint
c.
2 – tripod joint
3 – ball joint
1 – homokinetic joint
4 – cardan joint
d.
4 – ball joint
3 – homokinetic joint
2 – cardan joint
1 – tripod joint
4.16) Which joints enables axial movement
a.
b.
c.
d.
double joints
fixed joints
homokinetic joints
cardan joints
4.17) The parts of which differential lock are displayed in this picture
a.
b.
c.
d.
shiftable differential lock
lamella differential lock
torsen differential lock
planet wheel differential lock
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Theoretical tasks
4.18) The parts of which differential lock are displayed in this picture
a.
b.
c.
d.
shiftable differential lock
lamella differential lock
torsen differential lock
planet wheel differential lock
4.19) Which axle gear causes the reversal of the power flow by 90 degrees
a.
b.
c.
d.
planetary wheel – axle gear
conical wheel – axle gear
spur wheel – axle gear
coaxial axle gear
4.20) Identify the answer with the correct position numbers.
a.
axle gear part 2 + 3
–
differential gear part 5 + 7
b.
axle gear part 1 + 3
–
differential gear part 5 + 7
c.
axle gear part 5 + 3
–
differential gear part 2 + 6
d.
axle gear part 3 + 4
–
differential gear part 5 + 1
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Theoretical tasks
4.21) Which of the following answers assign the components correctly
a. 2 – front axle drive
3 –differential lock
4 – manual gear
7 – rear axle drive
b. 2 – rear axle drive
3 – manual gear
5 – differential gear
7 – rear axle drive
c. 3 – manual gear
4 – differential lock
5 – differential gear
1 – rear axle drive
d. 4 – front axle drive
5 – differential lock
6 – manual gear
7 – manual gear
4.22) What is the purpose of the gearbox in a car
a.
b.
c.
d.
to increase torque and power
to generate and expand torques
to change torques and speed
to change power and speed
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4.23) Which pair of gear comprises the third gear ratio
a.
b.
c.
d.
Z1 and Z2
Z3 and Z4
Z5 and Z6
Z7 and Z8
4.24) Which gearbox is shown in the picture
a.
b.
c.
d.
sequential gearbox
double - clutch gearbox
equiaxed gear
non - alignment gear
4.25) The synchronizer in a manual transmission makes constant velocity by the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Synchronous ring and Synchronizer sleeve
Main shaft and Countershaft
Drive shaft an Countershaft
Synchronizer sleeve and gear wheel
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4.26) Indentify the answers with the position numbers assigned correctly
a.
synchronizing key part 1
–
synchronizer sleeve part 2
b.
synchronizer sleeve part 1
–
shift keying part 4
c.
synchronous ring part 4
–
gear wheel part 1
d.
shifter fork part 5
–
synchronous ring part 1
4.27) Identify from the picture the represented synchronisation.
a.
b.
c.
d.
double synchronisation
internal synchronisation
external synchronisation
Porsche synchronisation
4.28) Why do you use helical gears in a manual transmission
a.
b.
c.
d.
less noise
easier to change gears
shift more easily
cheaper to produce
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4.29) What is a usual gear ratio of a car axle drive
a.
fast gear ratio 0.4 – 0.8
b.
direct gear ratio 1:1
c.
slow gear ratio 3.0 to 4.5
d.
slow gear ratio 5.6 to 9.5
4.30) Finish the following statement. In the manual transmission shown in the picture
shifting into fifth gear
a.
b.
c.
d.
the synchronizer sleeve S2 moves to the right
the synchronizer sleeve S3 moves to the right
the synchronizer sleeve S2 moves to the left
the synchronizer sleeve S2 moves to the left
4.31)
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4.31) Which answers correlates to the picture correctly
a. coaxial gearbox
4 forward gear
3. gear switched
b. uncoaxial gearbox
5 forward gears,
3. gear switched
c. coaxial gearbox
4 forward gears,
1. gear switched
d. coaxial gearbox,
5 forward gears
2. gear switched
4.32) The following picture shows the parts of which type of synchronizer
a.
b.
c.
d.
double synchronization
external synchronization
internal synchronization
Porsche ring synchronization
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4.33) Identify the correct answer to the picture.
a.
gear wheel 5
–
synchroniser ring 1
b.
synchroniser ring 1
–
shift collar 3
c.
synchroniser ring 3
–
gear wheel 5
d.
spacer ring 4
–
gear wheel 7
4.34) Which answer describes the pictured planetary gears correctly
a.
1 - ring gear
2 - planetary gear
3 - planetary gear carrier
4 - sun gear
b.
1 - sun gear
2 - planetary gear
3 - planetary gear carrier
4 - ring gear
c.
1 - sun gear
2 - planetary gear carrier
3 - ring gear
4 - planet gear
d.
1 - ring gear
2 - planetary gear carrier
3 - planetary gear
4 - sun gear
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Theoretical tasks
4.35) Look at the following picture. What type of planetary gear is it
a.
b.
c.
d.
Simpson-planetary gear set
Simple-planetary gear set
Ravigneaux-planetary gear set
Wilson-planetary gear set
4.36) Which answer shows the correct series of numbers in the picture below
a)
1 - pump wheel
2 - turbine
3 - gear shaft
5 - friction pad
b)
1 - pump wheel
2 - turbine
3 - guide wheel
6 - friction pad
c)
1 - pump wheel
2 - guide wheel
4 - overrunning clutch
6 - friction pad
d)
1 - turbine
2 - pump wheel
3 - gear shaft
5 - overrunning clutch
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Theoretical tasks
4.37) When the lockup clutch in the hydraulic torque converter is closed…
a.
b.
c.
d.
the pump-wheel is connected to the stator
the overrunning-clutch of the stator is blocked
the turbine is connected to the stator
the pump is connected to the turbine in positive-mode
4.38) Which part of the hydrodynamic torque converter is connected to the
transmission input shaft
a.
turbine
b.
pump
c.
stator
d.
converter housing
4.39) Which gear is shown in the picture
a.
b.
c.
d.
Staged thrust belt transmission
Change speed gearbox with belt drive
Continuously variable thrust belt transmission
Staged automatic transmission
4.40) Which fluid is commonly used in automatic transmissions
a. AGL (Automatic Gear Lubrication)
b.
ATF (Automatic Transmission Fluid)
c.
ATC (Automatic Transmission Control)
d.
AGF (Automatic Gear Fluid)
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Theoretical tasks
Brakes – Chapter 5
5.01) What is the main role of the retarder
a. It stops the trailer , by which the hauling train (in attached vehicles)
remains in an extended position
b. The stillness of the vehicle in one place (parked vehicle) is more
permanent
c. It spares the service brake on long slopes
d. It is a supporting brake to the parking brake
5.02) What does the basic action of the hydraulic brake depend on
a. The good flow of the brake fluid
b. The increase of pressure in the brake fluid
c. The higroscopic action of the brake fluid
d. The equal effect of the fluid pressure on all sides
5.03) Where is the charging disk located in the master brake cylinder
a. Between the secondary seal and the piston
b. Between the primary seal and the piston.
c. At the connection of the brake circuit on the primary brake circuit
d. Between the secondary and vacuum seal
5.04) In which case is the bunghole for equalizing the level of the central valve in the
brake cylinder closed
a. When the brake is not engaged (the piston is still)
b. When the piston returns while releasing the brake
c. At braking
d. After releasing air from the brakes
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5.05) What is the result of a clogged or because of the bad placement of the piston,
covered bunghole for equalizing the level in the master brake cylinder
a. The brakes are loosened , because the brake fluid goes back to the
leveling reservoir through the filling slot ( fluid reservoir)
b. The brakes stiffen , when the brake fluid is heated and expanded, and
the brakes are not in use, the fluid cannot flow into the fluid reservoir.
c. The servo braking device compensates the reduced braking
d. The heated brake fluid pours out of the leveling slot by which it flows
out of the primary seal into the presurised space , and the brakes
become stiff.
5.06) Which brake cicuits need a pre-pressure valve or a floor valve
a. Disc brakes
b. The brake circuit of drum brakes with round seals, located on the
wheel cylinders
c. Brakes with membrane cylinders
d. The brake circuit of drum brakes with cup seals, located on the wheel
cylinders
5.07) How big is the pressure in the brake circuit of a drum brake
a. 0,2 to 0,5 bar.
b. 0,4 to 1,7 bar.
c. 7 to 8,1 bar.
d. 0 to 10 bar.
5.08) Why is the dual circuit brake system applied
a. So that the drum and disc brakes may be applied
b. To achieve a double brake effect
c. For safety reasons
d. Because of the return flow circuit, the brakes more easily released
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5.09) What does “ fading” mean in regard to the brakes
a. Reducing the braking effect due to the decreasing coefficient of friction
in the friction pad
b. Increasing of the braking effect
c. Uneven braking effect
d. Slanting of the brakes
5.10) What type of brakes are shown on this picture
a. Duplex – brake
b. Servo brake
c. Simplex – brake
d. Duo-duplex -brake
5.11) The brakes on which wheel will fail if in the case of diagonally connected brakes
the seal of the rear right wheel does not clog
a. Only on the rear right wheel
b. On both rear wheels
c. On all four wheels
d. On the front left and rear right wheel
5.12) Which of the following is a disc- brake
a. The Servo – brake
b. The Simplex-brake
c. The Floating-caliper brake
d. The duplex-brake
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5.13) Which of the following statements is true for the duo-servo brake
a. The braking effect when driving forward is weaker than when driving
backward
b. The braking effect when driving forward is the same as when driving
backward
c. It has one brake cylinder with two pistons (they have a double effect)
and one support
d. It has two cylinders with two pistons (they have double effect)
5.14) What is the advantage of the drum brake over the disc brake
a. Protection from dirt
b. Simple replacement of pads
c. Simple solution to the parking brake
d. Constant wear of the pads
5.15) What are the components the seat of a disc brake
a. Two brake pads and a grooved piston
b. Two brake pads and a piston
c. One tight and one loose pad and two pistons
d. Two brake pads and two valves
5.16) How big is the air gap in the piston on the disc brake
a. 0,01 mm.
b. 0,15 mm.
c. 1 mm.
d. 1,5 mm.
5.17) Which feature of the brake fluid is not favorable
a. High boiling temperature
b. Low point of thickening
c. Hygroscopic feature
d. Low viscosity
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5.18) Which signs indicate the wear of the disc brake pads
a. The strength applied on the brake pedal is lesser
b. The strength applied on the brake pedal is greater
c. The pace of the braking pedal is longer
d. The level of the braking fluid in the reservoir falls rapidly
5.19) Which statement regarding the action of the servo-vacuum device is correct
a. The strength applied on the pedal and the atmospheric pressure
increase the braking force
b. The force from the difference of the atmospheric pressure and under pressure increase the force on the pedal
c. The force on the pedal remains the same despite the increased
braking action
d. If the force on the pedal is increased, because of the under-pressure ,
the braking action is enhanced
5.20) Which statement regarding the ABS is correct
a. It ensures that the highest braking force is applied on all wheels
simultaneously
b. It regulates the braking pressure on the wheels depending on the
strength applied on the brake pedal
c. It regulates the braking pressure on each wheel so that the wheels
keep turning ( they don’t block)
d. It adjusts brake pressure so that occasionally there is sliding friction
between the wheel and the road
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5.21) What kind of bond/ connection does the ABS magnetic valve create with the
brake cylinder when it is in the position of reducing the pressure
a. No bond/connection
b. The brake cylinder in the wheel with the brake circuit of the master
cylinder
c. The brake cylinder in the wheel with the pump
d. The brake cylinder in the wheel with the brake fluid reservoir
5.22) How does the ABS electronic control unit determine the sliding of the wheel
a. It compares the number of rotations of the engine with the number of
rotations of the wheel
b. It compares the number of rotations of the wheel with the angle of
placement of the choke butterfly
c. It compares the readings of the sensor for rotations of the vehicle
round its vertical axle with the number of wheel rotations
d. It compares the rotation speed impulses of the wheel to the
recommended impulses
5.23) How does the control unit know when to activate the servo braking device
a. Through the wheel number rotations sensor
b. Through the dislocation sensor
c. Through the brake pedal power sensor
d. Through the position of the choke butterfly
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5.24) Which answer is correct ?
The main components of a servo brake unit are:
a. A control unit of the ABS device, a switch on/ switch off magnet, a
shifting sensor, a separating sensor
b. A control unit of the servo brake unit, magnetic counter , shifting sensor
, a separating sensor
c. A separating sensor, reader of the number of rotations, a switch on/
switch off magnet, a shifting sensor
d. A control unit of the servo brake, a switch on/ switch off magnet, a
shifting sensor, a separating sensor
5.25) What is the role of the four circuit protection valve in the compressed air brake
system
a. To separate the braking circuits
b. To adjust the braking effect to the axel load
c. At the same time the air reservoirs are filled
d. Protect the brakes from blocking
5.26) How is the control valve on the trailer activated in the compressed air brake
system with two air lines
a. By the braking valve on the trailer
b. By the Relay- valve on the towing vehicle
c. By the ALB-regulator (regulator of the braking force)
d. By the valve on the service brake
5.27) Which component is a part of the compressed air brake system
a. Braking force regulator
b. Central valve
c. Service brake valve
d. Underpressure valve
5.28) Which brake may be considered as a third ( additional ) brake ( with no wear
elements )
a. The disc-brake
b. The drum brake
c. The Electric brake ( with wind power )
d. The compressed air brake
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5.29) In cases when the pressure in the ABS regulation has dropped, electricity flows
through the magnetic valve, and the brake fluid ......
a. Is pumped in an appropriate brake circuit
b. Is pumped into the brake fluid reservoir
c. Flows towards the master brake cylinder
d. Flows towards the brake fluid reservoir
5.30) Why does the ABS control in given range
a. Because in that range the lateral traction force with the road is
maximum
b. Because in that range the braking force is maximum
c. Because in that range the braking force and the lateral force are
optimal
d. Because in that range the wheel skids
*Kraft – force
*rollendes Rad – the wheel turns
*stabil – stable
*ABS-Regelbereich – ABS control range
*Bremskraft – braking force
*instabil – unstable
*Seitenführungskraft – lateral traction
*durchdrehendes Rad –spinning of the wheel
*Schlupf – skidding
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5.31) The picture shows this:
a. Hydraulic transmission system
b.A service brake with a double cicuit pneumatic transmission mechanism
c. Hydro pneumatic brake
d. Hydraulic transmission mechanism with a servo unit
5.32) The friction of the brakes transformes the driving power of the vehicle into ……
a. Electricity
b. Heat
c. Pneumatic energy
d. Hydraulic energy
5.33) For better drainage of the heat from braking, brakes suitable for slowing down
are......
a. Hydrodynamic and electromagnetic brakes
b. Drum and disc brakes
c. Brakes made of light metals
d. Regulator of braking force with blockage
5.34) Which assemblies belong to the compressed air braking system
a.
Discharge valve
b.
Central valve
c.
Braking valve of the service brake
d.
Regulator of braking force with blockage
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5.35) In which of the following answers the components of the compressed air
braking system are named correctly
a. 1 Four-circuit protection valve
2 Pressure regulator
3 Reverse valve
4 Air reservoir
b. 1 Four-circuit protection valve
2 Battery pressure valve
3 Antifeezer
4 Air reservoir
c. 1 Four-circuit protection valve
2 Pressure regulator
3 Compressor
4 Air reservoir
d. 1 Four-circuit protection valve
2 Pressure regulator
3 Compressor
4 Antifeezer
5.36) What are the advantages of the brakes with wind power electricity , i.e. retarders
(accelerators) or turbo brakes
a. They brake by disconnecting the fuel flow
b. They brake with no wear of the pads up to a certain speed
c. They brake to a full stop without any wear
d. They brake by closing the exhaust pipe
5.37) When maximum pressure is achieved in the compressed air braking system
through the compressor ....
e. The air is led to the suction side of the compressor
f. The signal light goes on the control panel
g. The pressure regulator discharges the excess air in surrounding area
h. The pressure regulator turns off the compressor
5.38) The label “DOT 4“ is a standard for
a. The transmission oil
b. The engine oil
c. The cooling liquid (antifreeze)
d. The brake fluid
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5.39) What feature of the braking fluid is beneficial
a. High boiling temperature
b. High point of thickening
c. Hygroscopic feature
d. Low viscosity
5.40) Which part is shown in the picture
a. A hydraulic booster of the brake power
b. A pneumatic bosster of the brake power with an auxiliary brake
c. An electric booster of the brake power
d. A hydraulic pair- brake master cylinder
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Chassis – Chapter 6
6.01) What is the name of the angle needed for the side leading force of tyres
a. toe-in difference angle
b. direction deviation angle of tyres
c. bend-in angle of the vehicle
d. tyre leading angle
6.02) What are the advantages of coiled springs when absorbing bumps
a. low weight
b. high self- absorbing capacity
c. ability to absorb forces of the leading tyre
d. high spring expansion
6.03) Driving layer is the tyre protection and it consists of:
a. tyre front and tyre side
b. tyre tread and tyre side
c. tyre tread and cushioning ply
d. tyre tread and tyre head heal
6.04) What is the characteristic of the pneumatic suspension
a. it adjusts the level
b. it has linear characteristic
c. it is expensive
d. it absorbs both longitudial and transversal forces
6.05) Tyre cord is made of:
a. PVC
b. Polyester
c. nylon
d. teflon
6.06) Steering wheel vibrations that increase with the car speed are caused by:
a. unbalanced front wheels
b. incorrect toe- in setting
c. excessive pressure difference of the front tyres
d. excessive difference of the front tyres wear
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6.07) When an unbalanced wheel causes swinging movements, it is caused by:
a. static unbalance
b. radial unbalance
c. axial unbalance
d. dynamic unbalance
6.08) What advantages has the rigid axle
a. little unsprung mass
b. possibility of heavy loads
c. good contact with uneven roads
d. wheels influence each other by the sprung axle
6.09) What kind of vibrations has the transversal axle
a. sliding
b. tilting
c. roiling- turning movement of the vehicle round the transvesal axis
d. tilting of the vehicle
6.10) In what position will be the wheel against the road perpendicular line when the
turning axle is inclined transversally to the longitudial level of the vehicle
a. stub axle back leaning
b. camber angle
c. track
d. caster angle
6.11) What is the task of the stearing trapezoid
a. steering power increase
b. different rotation of the wheels–steer angle
c. parallel position of the wheels
d. camber angle change aligning
6.12) Which wheel parameters influence the steering radius
a. caster angle and stub axle back leaning
b. camber angle and track
c. camber angle and caster angle
d. stub axle back leaning and camber angle
6.13) Which wheel suspension is used for the front axle
a. crank axle with the transversal torsion bar
b. Mc Pherson strut
c. crank axle
d. transversal axle arm strut
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6.14) Which statement about the De- Dion axle is correct
a. differential is connected with the bridge tube
b. wheels are suspended individually
c. wheels are connected by the rigid axle
d. driving shafts and bridge tubes are just one unit
6.15) Which statement about car spring- cushioning is correct
a. bumps on the roads are changed into oscilatory motions
b. unsprung mass should be as little as possible
c. spring- cushioning absorbs the road bumps
d. oscilatory motions should slow down quickly
6.16) Which statement about the progressive spring is correct
a. it has the same hardness
b. it becomes harder under high load
c. it becomes softer under high load
d. it has increasing self- springing
6.17) How to keep small track changes when the wheels are sprung up and down
a. using the transversal arms of different length
b. using the swinging axle
c. changing the steering radius
d. changing the track setting
6.18) Which answer about shock absorbers is correct
a. it absorbs bumps on the road
b. it absorbs spring vibrations and sprung mass
c. it prevents vehicle sinking when braking
d. it prevents vehicle tilting on the road bends
6.19) What are the results of a faulty shock absorber
a. tyre tread wear
b. springs get harder
c. shorter spring push up
d. the vehicle will be higher
6.20) What is the meaning of the letter H on the wheel rim
a. half deep rim
b. wheel rim with a hump on the upper side of the rim that prevents
sliding of the tubeless tyre when it loses its air
c. speed limit
d. wheel rim edge
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6.21) What is the meaning of the marking 80Q on the tyre 185/70 R 13 80 Q
a. 80: transversial section ratio 0,80 Q: tyre quality- a quality tyre
b. 80: loading capacity 450kg
Q: max. speed 160km/h
c. 80: the highest axle loading capacity 800kg Q: transversial section
type
d. 80: production date
Q: max. speed 160km/h
6.22) What does TWI on tyres mean
a. Trans World International
b. loading index
c. tyre wear indicator place
d. tyre standard
6.23) Which answer about leaf springs is correct
a. no progressive design is possible
b. they can lead the wheel
c. they can be fitted on the vehicle longitudially
d. they can be used as stabilizers
6.24) Which statement about the Double Wishbone System is correct
a. in order to minimize the camber angle there is a shorter length of
the top springing arm
b. less components of the system lower the unsprung frame weight
c. uncomfortable driving
d. it is not necessary to check up setting of the wheel gear box regulary
6.25) What are the advantages of torsion bars
a. spring load can be set
b. they substitute stabilizers
c. they can lead the wheel
d. they fulfil bending requirements
6.26) What is the main advantage of the pneumatic springing
a. high running safety
b. good axle leading properties
c. load adaptability by means of pressure change
d. they have no schock absorbers
6.27) What will change if 5,5J+13 wheel is used instead of 4,5+13 one
a. rim width
b. rim diameter
c. rim edge type
d. rim depth
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6.28) What is the U shape stabilizer used for
a. springing comfort improvement
b. vehicle tilting reduction – (Reduce the inclination of the vehicle when
cornering)
c. reduction of vehicle sinking
d. springing effectivity improvement
6.29) Which answer is incorrect
a. leaf springs are bent steels strips of different length assembled from
the shortest to the longest
b. coil springs are special coiled steal bars. When under load they becom
shorter and the outside force is absorbed
c. the shock absorber eliminates oscilation of the spring. It improves
driving comfort, tyre adhesion and the stability of the stearing wheel
d. low stability spring is called a hard spring, high stability spring is called
a soft spring
6.30) Which answer is not correct for the steering wheel turning angle
/King Pin Angle/
a. tyre sliding elimination
b. pressure lowering of the stearing wheel
c. stearing wheel counterreaction lowering
d. straight driving maintaining
6.31) What kind of steering can be seen in the
picture
a. manual rack steering
b. screw and nut with a hydraulic
booster
c. rack steering and electronic
regulation
d. rack steering and electrical booster
6.32) Which of the following parameters are to be set up on the balancing machine
a. tyre width, rim width, rim diameter
b. max. speed of the tyre
c. rim width and diameter, tyre height
d. rim width and diameter, distance between the rim and the balancing
machine
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6.33) Tyre profile number is:
a. ratio of the tyre casing height to its width
b. ratio of the tyre casing height to its width in %
c. ratio of the tyre casing width to the wheel disc size
d. tyre height in mm
6.34) Front axle geometry has these basic parameters:
a. toe- out, caster angle, camber angle, stub axle back leaning
b. toe- in, caster angle, camber angle, stub axle back leaning
c. toe- out or toe- in, camber angle, steering axis inclination, caster
angle
d. toe – in, caster angle, wheel track, steering transmission
6.35) What are the advantages of the stationary dynamic balancing machine
a. it is not necessary to remove the vehicle wheel
b. it is possible to interchange the balanced wheels on the vehicle
c. it balances all the rotated parts on the axle
d. it balances the loads of the front and the back axle
6.36) Shock absorber objective test takes place:
a. on the standing vehicle by springing the car
b. driving and listening
c. it is not necessary, shock absorbers do not wear
d.on the diagnostic equipment without removing shock absorbers or
with shock absorbers removed
6.37)
Steering axis inclination - SAI enables also
a. returning of the wheel to the straight direction
b. taking up the bearing clearance
c. preventing wheel vibration/ shimmy/
d. tyre wear lowering
6.38) Toe- in is set by:
a. steering bar length changing/ connection bars/
b. camber angle changing
c. bearing clearance in the wheel hub
d. the right and the left connecting bars swapping
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6.39) Before setting any front axle geometry parameters, following must
be checked:
a. shock absorber function
b. toe- in
c. vehicle total weight
d. tyre pressure, bearing clearances, clearance of the steering, wheel
run- out
6.40) When removing the coil springs/ Mc Pherson suspension/:
a. they cannot be removed
b. the shock absorber is removed first and then removing tool is used
for the spring
c. a new spring must be always used when the used one has been
removed
d. the whole springing unit is removed, the spring is compressed
followed by the removal of the shock absorber
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Comfort Electronic – Chapter 7
7.01) Mark the component that is not part of the cooling cycle of the A/C with R 134 a
a. A/C compressor
b. Pressure pump
c. Vaporizer
d. Condenser (capacitor)
7.02) According to which criteria is the Taumel disk compressor (automatic A/C)
regulated
a. day - night
b. engine RPM
c. driving speed
d. indoor temperature
7.03) Which component control setting of the A/C system is prerequisite to automatic
regulation of the cooler consumption in the cooling cycle
a. Magnet coupling compressor
b. Engine setting for back pressure valve
c. Fresh air fan
d. Expansion valve
7.04) Which messages apply to the gas pedal (accelerator sensor) on the EDC
a. Last information
b. In the event of a defect, the engine runs at increased RPM in idle gear
c. Kick-down information
d. Loading pressure/stress control information
7.05) In which vehicle with A/C is the condenser without a function; which messages
apply to this situation
a. Pressure in cooling cycle is rising
b. Air conditioning is getting worse
c. Pressure switch turns the compressor off.
d. Pressure in the low-pressure circuit is decreasing
7.06) How can the ASR and ASC-T control, respectively, be achieved
a. Change engine performance
b. Reduce brake performance
c. Intervention in driving of vehicle
d. Intervention of engine brake
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7.07) How can the ASR and ASC-T control, respectively, be achieved
a. Increase of pressure on brake pedal
b. Up to 40 km/hour – short braking intervention on the slipping wheel
c . Intervention in driving of vehicle
d. Intervention of engine brake
7.08) Which emission value is improved by AGR
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Hydrocarbon
c. Nitric oxide
d. Carbon dioxide
7.09) Which messages apply to exhaust gass recycling/recirculation
a. The exhaust gas is recycled and burned the second time over
b. Exhaust gas recycling increases the combustion temperature
increased
c. Exhaust gas recycling reduces the combustion temperature
d. The control unit records the volume of recycled exhaust gas through
the air volume meter
7.10) Which component of the A/C is also called “liquefier”
a. The A/C compressor
b. The condenser
c. The expansion valve
d. The humidifier (evaporator)
7.11) Which system has secondary air injection
a. Relieve of the exhaust system
b. Diagnose check
c. Secondary fuel injection
d. Improvement of exhaust gas emissions
7.12) How can exhaust gas emission be improved in a Diesel engine
a. Improvement through engine management
b. Increase of injection volume
c. By using a better quality filter in engine air intake
d. By using a flame type heater plug
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7.13) What are the benefits of a pre-catalyst
a. Lower catalyst temperature
b. Faster operating temperature of the engine
c. Faster injection timing
d. Better exhaust gas values
7.14) Which exhaust gas value can be improved with the “trap” catalyst (direct fuel
injection)
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Hydrocarbon
c. Nitric oxide
d. Carbon dioxide
7.15) Arrange in proper order (lambda probe older model –spring lambda probe)!
a. 1,2 V greasy mix
b. 1,2 V low-fat mix
c. 0,8 V greasy mix
d. 0,8 V low-fat mix
7.16) How can the alarm system (Bloctronic) be triggered / activated
a. Door contact
b. Break-in detector
c. Glass breakage sensor
d. Tilting detector
7.17) How is or can be the alarm system “sharpened”
a. Self sharpening
b. Transponder
c. Ignition on
d. After alarm activation
7.18) What can be added to bring the temperature of soot combustion in the dirt
particle filter (Peugeot) up to ~ 450°C during regenerating
a. Platinum
b. Rhodium
c. Serine
d. Germanium
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7.19) How to keep track of the soot particle filter in a Peugeot
a. Mileage driven
b. Difference pressure
c. Exhaust gas temperature before and after the catalyst
d. The volume of injected additive
7.20) How are the airbags and seat belts, respectively, activated r
a. Induction sensor
b. HDI control
c. PSI sensor
d. Reed contact
7.21) Which term is associated with “active safety/security”
a. Protection of occupants increased
b. Airbag, seat belt
c. ESP
d. DSC
7.22) What are the benefits of the brake assistant
a. Increases too little braking force by the driver
b. Increases hesitating driver’s braking force
c. Braking pressure augmented up to the ABS limit
d. Spares the vehicle’s brake system from excess stress
7.23) What types of brake assistants are currently available in the market
a.
b.
c.
d.
Electronic brake assistant in brake booster
Mechanical brake assistant in brake booster
Brake assistant integrated in the ABS system
Pneumatically retarded brake booster
7.24) How is brake liquid conducted in the ESP system (electronic stability program),
when it is necessary to apply brakes
a. By means of an ABS - ASR recirculation pump
b. There is a separate independent pump
c. There is also an active underpressure brake booster option
d. The brake liquid flows to the wheel cylinder due to underpressure
7.25) What additional sensors requires the ESP system (electronic stability program),
when it derives from a ABS – ASR system
a. An RPM sensor
b. A steering wheel angle sensor
c. Braking pressure sensor
d. Braking pedal sensor
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7.26) Which task does Gateway take over in the CAN technology
a. Links multiple bus systems together
b. Saves galvanic separation between individual bus systems
c. Turns off all bus nets, if a bus system fails
d. Makes data exchange between individual bus systems possible
7.27) Which task does the EOBD (European On Board Diagnose) take over
a. Permanent monitoring of the catalyst’s functionality
b. Permanent monitoring of the tank system
c. Permanent monitoring of the lambda probes
d. Instant recognition and reporting of substantial emission increases
7.28) Which property is of key importance in the broadband lambda probe
a. It works as a galvanic element
b. It can identify oxygen concentration in a wide area
c. It is designated for two-way catalyst only
d. It can only identify lambda values in the area around Lambda = 1
7.29) How is the “trap” catalyst (direct fuel injection) regenerated
a. Through short-term supply of low-fat mix
b. Through short-term supply of greasy mix
c. Direct fuel injection needs carbon monoxide for regenerating
d. Direct fuel injection needs carbon dioxide for regenerating
7.30) Why should we never use fuel with sulfur content in an OTTO engine with direct
fuel injection
a. Accumulation capacity of the catalyst will drop fast
b. Die aktive Reaktionsoberfläche wird abgedeckt
c. It will change into an open-loop-controlled catalyst
d. The catalyst will be immediately destroyed
7.31) How is the ignition temperature of the soot reached in a vehicle with a soot
particle filter (Peugeot)
a. By using a fuel additive
b. By secondary injection
c. By adding supply intake  increasing engine load
d. By increasing RPM
7.32) Which coolers are used mainly in the A/C systems of personal cars
a. R 12
b. R 404a
c. R 507a
d. R 134a
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7.33) Which sensor reports to ESP a lateral breakaway of the vehicle
a. sensor of steering wheel turn angle
b. sensor of transverse acceleration
c. sensor of wheel rotation
d. sensor of side wind
7.34) What is the reason for using two laid cables in the CAN system
a. As with normal installation : + and – connection. Coiling helps the
cables hold better together.
b. Two cables are used to reduce interference – the same signal is
transmitted in both of them, but in such a way that the momentary sum
of voltage in both = constant.
c. Low importance data are transmitted by Low line and high importance
data are transmitted by High line.
d. It is to makes sure there is connection - in case one cable is
interrupted.
7.35) How does a window control unit detects that a window has got stuck during
closing
a. From window motor current.
b. From time data of the control unit.
c. From load on mounting of the window motor
d. From the revolution counter of the proportional sensor mechanism
7.36) System of protection against theft does not include:
a. immobilizer
b. alarm
c. outside space monitoring
d. inside space monitoring
7.37) Regulation on controlled air-conditioning compressors is performed by:
a. changing of diameter of compressor pistons
b. changing of stroke of compressor pistons
c. slipping of drive coupling
d. change in drive coupling current value
7.38) Which of the following systems can be used for monitoring of pressure in tyres:
a. ABS
b. Engine control system
c. System of automatic transmission control
d. Navigation system
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7.39) Which messages apply to exhaust gas recirculation
a. The exhaust gas is recycled and burned the second time over
b. Recycled gas is not involved in combustion
c. Exhaust gas recirculation increases the combustion temperature
increased
d. The control unit records the volume of recycled exhaust gas through
the air volume meter
7.40) How can the exhaust gas rate in a Diesel engine be improved
a. By using a better quality filter in engine air intake
b. By increasing the injection volume
c. By using a soot particle filter
d. Flame heater plug
7.41) Arrange in proper order (lambda probe older model –spring lambda probe)!
e. 0,2 V greasy mix
f. 0,2 V low-fat mix
g. 1,2 V greasy mix
h. 1,2 V low-fat mix
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Conclusion
This project has been funded with support from the European Commission.
This publication [communication] reflects the views only of the author, and the Commission
cannot be held responsible for any use which may be made of the information contained
therein.
This compendium of tasks is dedicated for the usage of vocational training schools
and helps to evaluate and compare the competencies of car mechanics acquired in
different training environments. The purpose of the compendium is to increase the
attraction of vocational training and to improve the quality of the training.
Physical Principles – Chapter 1
Basic Electrotechnic – Chapter 2
Ignition and Diesel engine – Chapter 3
Tur
Pol
Ziya Kalkavan Maritime Vocational School
Automative Group of Vocational Schools in
Poznań.
Brakes – Chapter 5
Lith Vilnius Car Mechanics and Business School
Vocational school for car mechanic and
Aus carbody worker in Lower Austria
Mac ASUC Boro Petrusevski
Chassis – Chapter 6
Slo
Comfort Electronic – Chapter 7
Cze Secondary automobile and ICT school
Powertrain – Chapter 4
Secondary vocational school
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