Ques : Wegeners Granulomatosis is a multisystem disease characterized by involvement of
respiratory tract and renal system. The diagnostic test for WG is Cytoplasmic – ANCA. This antibody
is directed against which protein of Neutrophil.
Myeloperoxidase
Catalase
Protein C
Proteinase 3
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Most common cause of Venous Thrombosis is
Factor V Leiden deficiency.
Prothrombin gene mutation
Factor C deficiency
Factor S deficiency.
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : The common pathological manifestation of renal involvement in Sjogrens Syndrome is
Membranous Glomerulonephritis
Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis
Tubulointestitial Disease
Amyloidosis
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : A 45 year old tailor, Diabetic, present to emergency department with complaints of acute
chest discomfort and shortness of breath since last 1 hour. On examination, patient is anxious and
tachypneic. HR – 110/min and blood pressure 90/60 mm of Hg. Auscultation of chest is clear. A 12
lead ECG reveals RBBB with ST depressions in leads V1 to V3. The next step in investigation would
be.
Cardiac Enzyme Panel
Coronary Angiogram
Wait and watch
Contrast CT Chest
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Wernicke’s Encephalopathy is characterized by all of the following except
Opthalmoplegia
Intention Tremor
Ataxia
Global Aphasia
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Which of the following is a Prion – Protein Induced disease
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis
Fatal Familial Insomnia
Progressive Multifocal Encephalopathy
Tropical Spastic Paraperesis.
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : The most important step in Cardio – Pulmonary Resuscitation which has implication on
recovery is
Intubation and Ventilation
Effective chest compression
Inj Adrenaline
DC shock
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : All of the following have mortality benefit when given in patients of heart failure except
Carvedilol
Enalapril
Digoxin
Eplerenone
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Prominent X and Y descent in JVP is seen in which of the following conditions.
Constrictive Pericarditis
Cardiac Tamponade
RV MI
Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : All of the following go in favor of Prerenal Azotemia except
Fractional Excretion on Na < 1 %
BUN/Plasma Creatinine > 20:1
Urinary Sodium < 20 meq/L
Urine Osmolality < 350 mosmol/L H2O
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : All of the Following cause High Anion Gap Acidosis except
GI Bicarbonate Loss
Lactic Acidosis
Methanol Toxicity
Diabetic Ketoacidosis
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : What is the water deficit in a 70 kg man with serum sodium of 160 meq/L.
3L
4L
5L
6L
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Absolute contraindications to thrombolytic therapy in STEMI include all of the following
except
Aortic Dissection
History of Intracranial Hemorrhage
Ischemic Stroke < 3 months
Active Peptic Ulcer Disease
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : All of the following are true regarding Cystic Fibrosis except.
Autosomal Recessive Disorder
CFTR gene is located on chromosome seven
A sweat chloride concentration of < 60 mmol/L is consistent with the diagnosis of CF
Pulmonary Involvement is most common
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : All of the following are true regarding Tegicycline except.
Mechanism of action involves Inhibition of translation of proteins
Contraindicated in pregnant and lactating women
Bactericidal for E coli and Klebsiella
Exhibits in-vivo activity against Methicillin Resistant Staph aureus
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : All of the following are true about normal hemodynamic parameters except
Cardiac Output = SV x HR
Cardiac Index = CO x BSA
SVR = [(MAP – RAP)/CO] x 80
Stroke Volume = CO/HR
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Calculate the Alveolar – Arterial Oxygen difference in a 35 year old man on room air with
following ABG parameters; PaO2 60 mm of Hg, PaCo2 50 mm of Hg, HCO3 – 30 meq/L.
25
27.5
30
32.5
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Tube thoracostomy is indicated in patients with pleural effusion in which of the following
situations
Pleural Fluid pH > 7.2
Pleural Fluid Glucose > 40
Positive Gram Stain in pleural fluid
Tubercular Pleural Effusion
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Beck’s Triad of Cardiac Tamponade includes all of the following except
Raised JVP
Prominent X Descent
Hypotension
Muffled Heart Sounds
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Currently, HbA1c is used for Diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus. The diagnostic cut off is
> 5.7
> 6.5
> 7.2
> 7.5
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : All of the following are effective in treatment of Multi Drug Resistant Enteric Fever except
Amikacin
Ceftriaxone
High Dose Ciprofloxacin
Azithromycin
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Which of the following is the best investigation for diagnosis small (< 0.5 cm) pancreatic
malignancies
Contrast CT Abdomen with Pancreatic Protocol
Endoscopic Ultrasound
MRI Abdomen
Angiography
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Virchow’s Triad includes all of the following except
Epithelial Injury
Hypercoagulability
Venous Stasis
Vessel Wall Injury
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Drug of Choice for treatment of Severe Leptospirosis is
Crystalline Penicilline
Tertacycline
Erythromycin
Ceftriaxone
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : All of the following conditions lead to development of high output shock except
Sepsis
Acute Liver Failure
Hyperthyroidism
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Ovary develops from:
Mullerian duct
Genital ridge
Genital tubercle
Mesonephric duct
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Epoophoron is:
Vestigeal structure of urogenital sinus
Remnant of wolffian duct
Unfused portion of mullerian duct
Urogenital sinus
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Uterine artery is a branch of:
Aorta
Common iliac
Internal iliac
External iliac
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Complete failure of fusion of mullerian ducts will result in:
Uterus didelphys
Arcuate uterus
Subseptate uterus
Bicornuate uterus
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Vaginal smear in old lady will show:
Basal and parabasal cells
Superficial cells
Few intermediate cells
No cells
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Hysteroscopy can diagnose all except
Asherman’s syndrome
Septate uterus
Adenomyosis
Tb endometritis
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Best indicator of ovarian reserve is:
FSH
Estradiol
FSH/LH
LH
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Cornification index or eosinophilic index indicates:
Progesterone effect
Estrogen effect
LH effect
All of above
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Strawberry vagina is seen in:
Candida
Gonorrhoea
Syphilis
Trichomonas
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Consider the following characteristics of vaginal discharge in bacterial vaginosis:
Green and thick
Ph< 4.5
Increase in number of lactobacilli
Whiff test positive
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Most common cause of pid in virgin girls:
Gonococcal
Chlamydial
T. Pallidum
Tubercular
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Most common cause of vvf in India:
Gynaec surgery
Irradiation
Obstructed labour
Trauma
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Which surgical procedure has the highest risk of ureteric injury?
Vaginal hysterectomy
Abdominal hysterectomy
Wertheims hysterectomy
Anterior colporrhaphy
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Treatment of red degeneration of fibroid during pregnancy:
analgesics
Laparotomy
Termination of pregnancy
Removal at cesarean section
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Most sensitive pregnancy test is:
Immunological
Radioimmunoassay
Radioreceptor assay
Elisa
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : All the following may be observed in a normal pregnancy except:
Fall in serum iron conc.
Increase in serum iron binding capacity
Increase in blood viscosity
Increase in blood oxygen carrying capacity
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Amniotic fluid contains high acetyl cholinesterase enzyme. What is the likely cause?
Open neural tube defect
Gastroischisis
Omphalocoele
Osteogenesis imperfect
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : The shortest diameter in fetal head is:
Biparietal diameter
Suboccipito frontal
Occipito frontal
Bitemporal
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Maximum cardiac output during pregnancy is seen in:
1st trimester
2nd trimester
Labour
Immediate post partum
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Which of the following drug is not used in the management of ectopic pregnancy?
Kcl
Methotrexate
Dactinomycin
Misoprostol
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : The fetal decelerations associated with umbilical cord compression are:
Early decelerations
Late decelerations
Variable decelerations
None of the above.
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Ascorbic acid may be associated with all of the following except:
Iron absorption
Bone formation
Acute liver disease when taken in high doses
Wound healing
Participation in hydroxylation reactions
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : The major symptoms of chromium deficiency is impaired glucose tolerance. Chromodulin:
Increases the number of insulin receptors
Facilitates insulin binding to cell receptors
Protects cell receptors by salvaging peroxides
Facilitates the absorption of copper and zinc
Increases the metabolism of homocysteine
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Alcohol impairs both absorption and storage of folate. Megaloblastic erythropoeisis occurs
because cells are arrested in the S phase since DNA synthesis is inhibited. Folate deficiency causes
inhibition of DNA synthesis because tetrahydrofolate is required :
In the synthesis of purine nucleotides and dTMP
In the conversion of homocysteine to methionine
For the utilization of vitamin B12
All of the above
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : COX-2 inhibitors were developed in part, to counter the tendency of of most NSAIDs to cause
GI bleeding. Such bleeding can lead to iron deficiency anemia because iron loss leads to low levels
of heme and decreased globin synthesis. A change that would be expected is:
An increase in serum transferrin
Increase in apoferritin
No change in liver ferritin
Increase in percentage saturation of serum transferring
Increase in hemosiderin
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : When there is deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase:
Tyrosine hydroxylase substitutes for it so phenylalanine levels remain consatant
Tyrosine is synthesized from an alternative pathway
Light skin and hair colour result because the catalyzesthe first step to melanin
Products derived from phenylalanine transamination are excreted
Phenylalanine is catabolised by monoamine oxidase.
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : In the formation of urea from ammonia, all of the following are correct except:
Aspartate supplies one of the nitrogen in urea
It is an energy-utilising process, utilizing several ATPs
Rate of cycle fluctuates with diet
Fumarate is produced
Ornithine transcarbamoylase catalyzes the rate limiting step
Correct Answer : 5
Ques : If the serum of a patient of type I hyperlipidemia were centrifuged, the lipid band would be
found:
At the top of tube
Just below the top layer
Below the top but in the upper half of the tube
About the middle of the tube
Near the bottom of the tube
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : All of the following are correct about double strands in DNA except they:
Can lead to loss of genetic information
Are always involved in homologous recombination
Involved in non-homologous recombination
Associated with heterodimer (Ku) in mammals
Can lead to mutations or improper regulation of gene expression
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Proofreading activity to maintain the fidelity of DNA synthesis :
Occurs after the synthesis is complete
Is a function of 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity intrinsic to DNA polymerases
Requires enzyme distinct from DNA polymerase
Occurs in prokaryotes only
Independent of polymerase activity in prokaryotes
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : In eukaryotic transcription:
RNA Polymerase does not require a template
All RNA is synthesized in the nucleolus
Consensus sequences are the only known promoter elements
Phosphodiester bond formation is favored because there is pyrophosphate hydrolysis
RNA polymerase requires a primer
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : In the cellular turnover of RNA:
Repair is more active than degradation
Regions of more extensive base pairing are susceptible to cleavage
Endonucleases may cleave the molecules starting at 3’ or 5’ end
The products are nucleotides with a phosphate at either the 3’ or 5’OH group
All species except rRNA are cleaved
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : 4-hydroxylation of specific prolyl residues during collagen synthesis requires all except:
Fe2+
A specific amino acid sequence at the site of hydroxylation
ASCORBIC acid
Co-hydroxylation of lysine
Individual alpka chains, not arranged in a triple helix.
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Diphtheria toxin:
Acts catalytically
Releases incomplete polypeptide chain from ribosome
Activates translocase
Prevents release factor from recognition terminal signal
Attacks RNA of large subunit
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Intramembranous ossification differs from endochondral ossification in which one of the
following ways?
Action of osteoblasts
Light microscopic appearance of the adult bone
Ultrastructural appearance of the adult bone
Presence of woven bone early in the ossification process
Microenvironment in which ossification occurs
Correct Answer : 5
Ques : In skeletal muscle contraction, the “powerstroke” is initiated by which one of the following?
The initial binding of ATP to the myosin heads
Release of Pi from the myosin heads
Release of ADP and subsequent addition of an ATP molecule
Detachment of the myosin head from the actin
Phosphorylation of the myosin light chains
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Most direct inguinal hernias occur in older men as the conjoint tendon weakness with
increased abdominal pressure, often a complication of excessive abdominal weight gain. In
contrast, most indirect inguinal hernias occur in which one of the following?
Teenage females
Multiparous women
Newborn boys
Teenage males
Skinny middle – aged men
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : An RNA virus that has a nuclear phase to its replication process is
Coronavirus
Rhabdovirus
Retrovirus
Togavirus
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Antiviral nucleoside analogs
Are effective only against replicating viruses
Include foscarnet
Inhibit replicases
May block viral penetration
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : A premature infant on intravenous nutrients and high – lipid fluids has developed septicemia
that culture out on blood agar only when over laid with sterile olive oil. What is the most likely
causative agent?
Aspergillus
Candida
Ctyptococcus
Malassezia
Sporothrix
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : What is most likely reason level of chloroquine – treated case of Plasmodium vivax
relapsing?
P. vivax has a significant level of chloroquine resistance
P. vivax has a persistent erythrocytic stage
P. vivax has a persistent exoerythrocytic stage (hypnozoite)
Chloroquine is not one of the drugs of choice
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Which of the following protozonas is transmitted primarily by the motile trophozoite form
Balantidium coli
Entamoeba histolytica
Giardia lamblia
Taenia sodium
Trichomonas vaginalis
Correct Answer : 5
Ques : The killer inhibition receptor (KIR) on NK cells detects
Gram – positive bacteria
Gram – negative bacteria
Cells with normal levels of MHC class I
Cells with low levels of MHC class I
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Which of the following statements is incorrect
T cytotoxic cells have the CD8 phenotype
IL – 1 and TNF - a induce selections on the endothelial cells surface
IL – 4, IL – 10, and TGF - b are main causes of excessive inflammation
NK cells can express antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Which of the following bacterial compounds is important in colonization
Diaminopimelic acid
Calcium dipicolinate
“O” antigens
Pilin
Porins
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : A patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome has severe, nonresolving watery
diarrhea. It is not gray or greasy. Acid – fast oocysts are seen in the stools. What is the most likely
causative agent?
Enterohemorrhagic Echerichia coli
Cryptosporidium
Enterotoxic Escherichia coli
Giardia
Salmonella
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : An antibiotic has a b-lactam ring in its structure is
Tetracycline
Cephalosporin
Streptomycin
Erythromycin
Griseofulvin
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Which bacterial gene transfer process would be inhibited by free extracellular exonucleases
Conjugation
Generalised transduction
Specialized transduction
Transformation
Transposition
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : A receptor for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is
CD2
CD3
CD4
CD8
CD25
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : What additional tissues are frequently involved with diphtheria besides the “bull neck” and
the pseudomembranous pharyngitis?
Skin (cutaneous diphtheria)
Kidneys
Heart and nerves
Liver and kidneys
Ears and sinuses
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Which of the following virulence factor is produced by several genera of bacteria that are
notable mucosal colonizers?
Elastase
Hemagglutinin
Immunoglobulin A protease
Mucinase
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : A 65- year old slightly cyanotic man presents to his physician complaining of pruritus and
nose bleeds. A blood test reveals a HCT of 62%, leading to the diagnosis of polycythemia vera.
Treatment includes aspirin to prevent thrombosis and periodic phlebotomy to reduce the
hematocrit. The reduction in hematocrit is beneficial because it does which of the following?
Reduces blood viscosity
Increases arterial oxygen saturation
Reduces blood velocity
Decreases cardiac output
Increases arterial oxygen content
Correct Answer : 1
Explanation : Polycythemia vera is a primary bone marrow disease in which an abnormally large
number of red blood cells are produced. Patients with polycythemia vera often have high blood
pressure (Because of increased blood volume) and cyanosis (Because of increased oxygen
extraction from blood flowing slowly through capillaries). Reduction of the red cell mass by
phlebotomy is the first principle of therapy in polycythemia vera because it reduces blood viscosity,
which removes a major source of complications and may also alleviate systemic hypertension,
pruritus, and splenomegaly.
Ques : An 86-year-old woman develops unilateral vesicular eruption on the trunk in a T8
dermatomal pattern. Staining of the skin scrapings confirms a diagnosis of herpes zoster. The
woman complains of significant pain, as well as increased sensitivity to touch. Which of the
following receptors is responsible for measuring the intensity of a steady pressure on the skin
surface?
Pacinian corpuscle
Ruffini ending
Merkel disk
Meissner corpuscle
Krause ending
Correct Answer : 2
Explanation : The Ruffini ending is a tonic receptor that produces a train of action potentials
proportional to the intensity of pressure applied to the skin. The Pacinian corpuscle is a very rapidly
adapting receptor that fires once or twice in response to skin deformation, but can produce a
continuous train of action potentials if the stimulus is repetitively applied and withdrawn.
Therefore, the Pacinian corpuscle is used to encode vibration.
Ques : A 35-year old man with polycystic kidney disease has a decrease in both GFR and RBF. The
nephrologist wants to administer a drug that will increase both GFR and RBF. GFR and RBF would
both increase if which of the following occurred?
The different and afferent arterioles are both dilated.
The efferent and afferent are both constricted
Only the afferent arteriole is constricted
Only the efferent arteriole is constricted
The afferent arteriole is constricted and the efferent arteriole is dilated
Correct Answer : 1
Explanation : The renal artery pressure and the resistance of the renal vascular bed determine renal
blood flow. Decreasing the resistance of either the afferent or efferent arterioles could increase
RBF. Alternatively, if the resistance of one of these vessels decreased more than the resistance of
the other one increased, RBF would also increase. GFR will increase if glomerular capillary pressure
increases. This can occur if the afferent arteriolar resistance decreases or if the efferent arteriolar
resistance increases.
Ques : A 20-year-old man presents with increasing daytime somnolence. A 24-hour sleep study
showing a sudden onset of rapid eye movement (REM) without previous slow wave sleep confirms
a diagnosis of narcolepsy. REM sleep decreases the secretion of growth hormone. The physiological
secretion of growth hormone is increased by which of the following?
Hypoglycemia
Hyperglycemia
Free fatty acids
Somatostatin
Growth hormone
Correct Answer : 1
Explanation : Synthesis and secretion of growth hormone (GH) by the anterior pituitary is regulated
by a variety of metabolic factors, many of which act to alter the balance between release of growth
hormone releasing hormone (GHRH) and somatostatin (SS) from the hypothalamus. Among the
stimuli that increase GH secretion are: (1) conditions in which there is a deficiency of energy
substrate (e.g. Hypoglycemia, exercise, and fasting); (2) stressful stimuli (e.g. Fever, various
psychological stresses); (3) an increase in arginine and some other amino acids (eg, protein meal);
(4) glucagon; (5) L-dopa and dopamine receptor agonists; (6) estrogens and androgens; and (7)
going to sleep. Stimuli that decrease GH secretion include somatostatin, REM sleep, glucose,
cortisol, free fatty acids, and GH itself.
Ques : A 57-year-old postmenopausal woman takes calcium and vitamin D supplements daily to
prevent osteoporosis. Which of the following best describes vitamin D?
It is a water soluble vitamin.
Deficiency is seen in areas with high sun exposure.
1, 25 (OH) 2 – vitamin D is the physiologically active form of vitamin D.
It is converted to 1, 25 (OH) 2- vitamin D in the liver
1, 25 (OH) 2 vitamin D production increases when PTH secretion decreases.
Correct Answer : 3
Explanation : 1, 25 (OH)2-vitamin D is the physiologically active form of vitamin D and the
conversion to this occurs in the kidney, not the liver. It is a fat soluble vitamin with metabolism
occurring in the skin with exposure to sunlight. When PTH secretion increases, so does the
production of 1,25 (OH)2-vitamin
Ques : Which of the following substance would be expected to cause an increase in arterial blood
pressure?
Saralasin
V1 agonist
Acetylcholine (Ach)
Spironolactone
Phenoxybenzamine
Correct Answer : 2
-adrenergic stimulation. Acetylcholine (Ach), via production of endothelium-derived relaxing factor
(EDRF), causes vasodilation of vascular smooth muscle and reduces blood pressure.-blocking
agent, inhibits the vasoconstrictor effect of Explanation : NV1 agonists simulate the
vasoconstrictor effects of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Because saralasin is an angiotensin
converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, it blocks the production of the vasoconstrictor substance
angiotensin II. Spironolactone, an aldosterone antagonist, blocks the effects of aldosterone to
increase distal tubule Na+ reabsorption, and consequently reduces extracellular fluid (ECF) volume
and blood pressure. Phenoxybenzamine, an
Ques : Which of the following lung volumes or capacities includes the residual volume?
Tidal volume (TV)
Vital capacity (VC)
Inspiratory capacity (IC)
Functional residual capacity (FRC)
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
Correct Answer : 4
Explanation : Residual volume is the volume present in the lungs after maximal expiration, or
expiration of the vital capacity (VC). Therefore, residual volume is not included in the tidal volume
(TV), VC, inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), or inspiratory capacity (IC). The functional residual
capacity (FRC) is the volume remaining in the lung after expiration of a normal TV, and therefore
includes the residual volume.
Ques : Which step in the biosynthetic pathway for thyroid hormones produces thyroxine (T4)?
Iodide (I-) pump
I- ® I2
I2 + tyrosine
Diiodotyrosine (DIT) + DIT
DIT + monoiodotyrosine (MIT)
Correct Answer : 4
Explanation : The coupling of two molecules of diiodotyrosine (DIT) results in the formation of
thyroxine (T4). The coupling of DIT to monoidotyrosine (MIT) produces triiodothyronine (T3).
Ques : A 5 year old child is admitted to the ICU following traumatic brain injury. On D4 of admission
child had a generalized tonic clonic seizure. He also started having polyuria. Labs reports were as
follows Serum Sodium – 108 Meq/l, Serum K – 4.2 Meq/l, Serum urea – 25, Serum creatinine- 0.6 ,
Serum Glucose – 124 mg%, Serum osmolality – 282 Meq/L, Serum Uric Acid – 3.5mmols/L Urine
Sodium - 212 Meq/L, Urine potassium – 40 Meq/L. What is the most appropriate step in
management of this child?
Restrict fluids to 70% of maintenance
Load with IV phenytoin
Replace intravascular volume with sodium chloride, replacing urine sodium losses volume by volume
IV desmopressin therapy
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : All of the below is true about Ataxia telangiectasia except
Oculumotor apraxia is commonly seen
Decreased levels of IgA, IgG and IgE
Telengactectasia appears before ataxia
Children with this condition have 50-100times more chance of developing lymphoreticular malignancies
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : A 7 year old child presents with ambiguous genitalia. On pelvic examination both testis are
palpable in the inguinal canal. There is a bifid scrotum and small phallus. The levels of testosterone
are within normal range for the age of the child. But the DHT: testosterone ratio is low. Which of
the following is true about this patient’s condition?
It is an X-linked recessive condition
It is caused due to end organ resistance of testosterone
Children with this condition must be reared as males whenever possible
Gynecomastia is commonly seen in this condition
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Which of the following is false about Hemphagocytic lymphohistiocytosis?
There is elevation of the serum triglyceride levels
Serum ferritin levels are usually over 10,000
Familial HLH is usually associated with the mutation in perforin protein
All the three cell lines must be depressed to label the condition as HLH
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : A 2 year old child presents with failure to thrive and polyuria. On examination acidotic
respiration is noticed. Child has rachitic changes. Lab values show normal renal function tests.
Arterial blood gas shows pH – 7.2 Po2 – 98 pCO2 – 24 Bicarbonate – 16. Serum electrolytes show
Sodium – 137, Potassium – 4.5, Chloride – 114. Urine PH is 5.0. Urine analysis shows glycosuria
and proteinuria. Which of the following statements is false about this child’s condition?
Ophthalmic evaluation for corneal deposits is a essential part of the work up for this condition
High doses of bicarbonate with phosphorus is the mainstay of treatment
Nephrocalcinosis is commonly seen
This condition can be seen in heavy metal poisoning
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Which of the following is true about ingested foreign bodies?
Button batteries must be removed within 12 hrs of ingestion
Cathartics are used to speed up the removal of foreign bodies
Thin objects more than 10cm in length and thick objects more than 5cm in length must be removed
Foreign bodies are rarely radio-opaque
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Which of the following statements is false about perinatally acquired Varicella infection?
Neonates have a particularly high mortality if a susceptible mother contracts Varicella around the time of delivery
Limb malformations and skin cicatricial scarring are seen in perinatally acquired cases
Every premature infant < 28 weeks born to a mother with active chicken pox must receive VZIg
Newborns whose mothers develop chicken pox during 5 days before and 2 days after delivery must receive VZIG
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Which of the following is true about SLE
Class V renal disease responds poorly to immunosuppressive therapy
Presence of lupus anticoagulant predisposes a child to bleeding by prolonging aPTT
A significant proportion of women with anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies give birth to newborns with neonatal lupus
Children with APLA positive SLE respond well to immunosuppression
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : All of the following drugs can be used in case of Kawasaki Disease refractory to IVIg except
Second dose IVIg
IV methylprednisolone
IV infliximab
IV cyclosporine
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : A 3 day old term neonate presents with lethargy, abdominal distension and bilious vomiting.
On examination, there is tachycardia, tachypnea, abdominal wall erythema and tenderness of
abdomen. Abdominal X-ray shows a large bowel loop in the upper abdomen and multiple air fluid
levels. There is no gas under diaphragm. Which of the following is the most appropriate step in the
management of this child?
Bowel rest and IV antibiotics
Emergent laparotomy
Barium Swallow and follow-through
Serial abdominal X-rays
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Which of the following is a cyanotic heart disease with increased pulmonary flow?
Ebstein’s anomaly
Tricuspid Atresia
Double outlet Right Ventricle
Tetralogy of Fallot
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : All of the following can be classified as peroxisomal disorders EXCEPT
Zellweger syndrome
Rhizomelic chondrodysplasia punctata
Refsum’s disease
GM2 gangliosidosis
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : All of the following are used in the treatment of ADHD EXCEPT
Behavior therapy
Atomoxetine
Haloperidol
Methylphenidate
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : The upper part of the rectum is supplied by superior superior hemorrhoidal artery which is a
branch of
Internal iliac
Internal pudendal
Inferior mesenteric
Superior mesenteric
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : The chromosomal disorder highly associated with Hirschsprung’s Disease is
Turners syndrome
Downs syndrome
Patau syndrome
Edward syndrome
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : A 21 year old presented with malabsorbtion symptoms and his duodenal biopsy revealed
distended macrophages in lamina propria and contains PAS+ve granules. The diagnosis is
Coeliac sprue
B. tropical sprue
Whipples disease
Maltoma
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Malignant risk of adenomatous polyps correlates with all except
Polyp size ( > 4cm)
Degree of dysplasia
Extent of villous component
Location
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : A 21 year old patient on immunosupressive agents presented with a punched out ulcer in the
esophagus.Biopsies taken from the ulcer edge show acantholysis with multinucleated squamous
cells with steel-blue nuclei, the likely cause is
CMV
Herpes
Candida
EBV
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Gilbert syndrome is characterized by all except
Common benign inherited disorder
Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
Jaundice is related to stress (fasting, infection, etc.).
Mechanism: bilirubin glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) deficiency
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : All are true regarding Alagille’s syndrome except
Also called arteriohepatic dysplasia
Autosomal dominant, due to mutations in gene , which encodes a ligand for Notch1
Normal liver, but excess of portal tracts
May survive into adulthood
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Enlarged Kupffer cells and portal macrophages with “crinkled paper” cytoplasm is
characteristic of
Wolman disease
Gauchers disease
Krabbes disease
Fabrys disease
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : The drug which causes persistent cholestasis even after drug withdrawal is
Erythromycin
OCPS
Carbimazole
Terbinafine
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : The coarse granules within lysosomes in a case of Dubin johnson syndrome is considered to
be metabolite of
Nor epinephrine
Epinephrine
Bilirubin
Heme
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : All are true regarding papillary renal cell carcinoma except
Histocytes and intracellular hemosiderin
CK7 positive
CD 10 positive
Trisomy 7 and 17
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : The following are true regarding membranous GN except
Leading cause of NS in adults
Basement membrane spikes noted
EM shows subendothelial deposits
Always rule out secondary causes
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Nephrotic syndrome due to idiopathic FSGS in adults differ from MCD in having all of the
following except
Higher incidence of hematuria
Reduced GFR
Selective proteinuria
Poor response to steroids
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Renal biopsy from a posttransplant patient shows nuclear enlargement of tubular epithelial
cells along with intranuclear inclusions by light microscopy possible cause is
Cyclosporine toxicity
Acute cell mediated rejection
BK virus nephropathy
CMV infection
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : An 63 year old osteoarthritis patient on analgesics developed chronic renal insufficiency. The
pathological findings in this case includes all except
Papillary necrosis
Tubulointerstinal nephritis
Eosinophil rich inflammation
Membranous GN
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : A 20 year old female presented with fever, malaise , arthralgia and malar rash. The finding
with greatest prognostic significance a
Pleuritis
Dermal vasculitis
Perivascular fibrosis in spleen
Glomerular subepithelial immune complex deposition
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : The most important prognostic factor is cresenteric glomerulonephritis is
Size
Cellular
Number
Leaky membrane
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Prolonged treatment with INH leads to deficiency ofPyridoxine
Thiamine
Pantothenic acid
Niacin
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : True regarding Leptospirosis isRats are the main reservoirs
Fluoroquinolones are the drug of choice
Person to person transmission is seen
Hepatorenal syndrome occurs in 50 % cases
Correct Answer : 1
Explanation :
Ques : Regarding post-natal growth of the skull, which statement is false?
The base grows in anteroposterior diameter at the three cartilaginous plates situated between occipital & sphenoid, pre & pos
sphenoid & between the sphenoid & ethmoid
Growth in orbits & ethmoid is completed by the 7th yr of life
Mastoid fontanelle closes by 12th month of life
The two tables & diploe appear at puberty
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Aspirin for Primary Prevention on CAD in Diabetes – Definitely Recommended in
Men > 40 years with HTN
Women > 40 years with HTN
Men > 50 Years with HTN
Women > 50 years with HTN
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : A 50 year old man comes to emergency department with acute pain abdomen. USG abdomen
reveals features suggestive of pancreatitis with Dialated CBD. Laboratory Values are as follows.
Amylase: 3000, T Bil: 4.5, Direct 3.2, SGOT: 442, SGPT: 460, ALP: 546, Creatinine: 1.2, TLC 12500
and Hb: 14 gms/dl. The most definitive treatment would be
Broad Spectrum Antibiotics
IV Fluids and wait and watch
MRCP
ERCP
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Which of the following statements regarding cystic fibrosis is true?
The DF 508 gene is more common in Jewish than Scottish patients
If DF508 is not present, this eliminates carrier risk
DF508 can be used to diagnose 70% of fetuses at risk
With multiple markers, a fetus who has one positive and one negative chromosome 7 has a 1/900 risk of cystic fibrosis
If DF508 is present on one chromosome 7, the fetus must be a carrier of cystic fibrosis
Correct Answer : 4
F508 deletion is present on both chromosomeF508 deletion, oligonucleotype probes will not pick
up 70% of the cases. The chance that a low-risk patient has inherited cystic fibrosis genes from the
father times 70% that the inheritance also comes from the mother; in other words, only
approximately 49% of low-risk cases will be detected. However, if the F508 deletion, carrier
status can never be eliminated because the patient still may have another deletion or DNA change
that causes cystic fibrosis. While an average 70% of individual chromosomes that are carrier
chromosomes for cystic fibrosis have the F508 is considerably lower than for those having
Scottish, Irish, or German ancestries. If a patient does not have the F508 is seen in varying
degrees in carriers of cystic fibrosis. For patients with cystic fibrosis who are black, Jewish or of
Spanish origin, for example, the proportion of cases associated with F508. Explanation : Cystic
fibrosis is the most common autosomal recessive disease seen in the white population and is
particularly prevalent among people of northern European ancestry. In 1986 it was discovered that
the cystic fibrosis gene was on chromosome 7, and in 1989 the exact location of the cystic fibrosis
gene – called the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator – was delineated. Anallysis
shows that approximately 70% of cystic fibrosis is related to a deficiency of the protein associated
with a diagnosable by oligonucleotype probes and is called &F508 deletion chromosome may in
fact carry cystic fibrosis. Family pedigree and history may be helpful, e.g. if there is mother affected
person with tha same chromosome complement; however, there may also be considerable clinical
uncertainty. There are now over 600 known mutations causing cystic fibrosis. With multiple
markers now available, the % of detection with 32 markers approaches 90%, but ther is still great
controversy as to when universal screening of low risk pregnancies will be appropriate. However, a
fetus that is negative / negative is at only a 1/200,000 risk, while a fetus that is positive/negative
is at 1/900.F508 deletion is present on only one chromosome 7, there is still a risk that the nons,
the fetus does have cystic fibrosis. If the
Ques : Prenatal treatment of birth defects will not ameliorate the clinical situation for which of the
following?
Obstructed bladder outflow
Porencephalic cysts
Cardiac arrhythmias
Adrenogenital syndrome
Diaphragmatic hernia
Correct Answer : 2
Explanation : Fetal therapy is not possible for most serious birth defects but has been successful in
a limited number of situations. These include (1) the placement of a suprapubic catheter in utero to
allow urine to escape into amniotic fluid to protect the lungs and kidneys in obstructive uropathies,
(20 the use of maternally administered cardiac medications that pass through the placenta and can
convert selected arrhythmias, (3) dexamethasone steroid suppression of the fetal adrenal gland in
the adrenogenital syndrome, which prevents external genital musculinization in affected females,
and (4) open or endoscopic fetal surgery with fetal laparotomies to correct diaphragmatic hernias,
Treatments for hydrocephaly and porencephalic cysts have been unsuccessful, because these are
usually part of a larger syndromic anomaly, and these treatments have been abandoned.
Ques : Causes massive adrenal enlargement when congenitally deficient, is associated with poor
survival of affected infants, and can lead to the formation of female genitalia in genotypically male
infants. Match the action with appropriate enzyme:
Adenylcyclase
5a-reductase
17b-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
Cholesterol desmolase
21-dehydroxylase
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : An infant born to a heroin addict is likely to exhibit which of the following?
Postmature dates
Onset of withdrawal symptoms after 7 days of life
Hyperirritability and coarse tremors
Constipation
An increased incidence of hyaline membrane disease
Correct Answer : 3
Explanation : Infants born to narcotic addicts are more likely than other children to exhibit a
variety of problems, including perinatal complications, prematurity, and low birth weight. The onset
of withdrawal commonly occurs during an infant’s first 2 days of life and is characterized by
hyperirritability and coarse tremors, along with vomiting, diarrhea, fever, high pitched cry, and
hyperventilation, seizures and respiratory depression are less common. The production of
surfactant can be accelerated in the infant of a heroin-addicted mother.
Ques : Which of the following amino acidopathies can be associated with acute infantile
hemiplegia?
Phenylketonuria
Homocystinuria
Cystathioninuria
Maple syrup urine disease
Histidinemia
Correct Answer : 2
Explanation : Homocystinuria can cause thromboembolic phenomena in the pulmonary and
systemic arteries and particularly in the cerebral vasculature; vascular occlusive disease is, in turn,
one of the many causes of acute infantile hemiplegia. None of the other disorders listed in the
question is associated with acute hemiplegia. Phenylketonuria causes retardation and, on occasion,
seizures; maple syrup urine disease, an abnormality of the metabolism of leucine, leads to seizures
and rapid deterioration of the central nervous system in newborn infants; histidenemia is
associated with speech impairments and other minor neurologic difficulities; and cystathioninuria is
most likely a benign amino aciduria with no effect on the central nervous system.
Ques : Abbey-Estlander flap us used in the reconstruction of:
Buccal mucosa
Lip
Tongue
Palate
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : The most common complication seen in hiatus hernia is:
Oesophagitis
Aspiration penumonitis
Volvulus
Esophageal stricture
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Meniere’s disease is characterized by:
Conductive hearing loss and tinnitus
Vertigo, ear discharge, tinnitus and headache
Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss and headache
Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Fordyce’s (Spots) granules in Oral Cavity arise from:
Mucous glands
Sebaceous glands
Taste buds
Minor salivary glands
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Which of the following locations show collection of pus in ‘quinsy’
Peritonsillar space
Parapharyngeal space
Retropharyngeal space
Within the tonsil
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Which of the following statements best represents Bell’s paralysis?
Hemiparesis and contralateral facial nerve paralysis
Combined paralysis of the facial, trigeminal and abducent nerves
Idiopathic ipsilateral paralysis of the facial nerve
Facial nerve paralysis with a dry eye
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : In a patient who has mitral valve insufficiency, which procedure does not require
prophylactic antibiotic therapy?
Cardiac catheterization
Prostatectomy
Cystoscopy
Tonsillectomy
Periodontal surgery
Correct Answer : 1
Explanation : Although no evidence exists that prophylactic antibiotic therapy prevents
endocarditis, prophylaxis is recommended for all procedures that may generate bacteremias.
Following cardiac catheterization, blood cultures obtained from a distal vein are rarely positive.
Thus, prophylactic antibiotics are not currently recommended for cardiac catheterization.
Bacteremia commonly occurs following other procedures such as periodontal surgery,
tonsillectomy, and prostate surgery.
Ques : An HIV positive patient develops fever and dysphagia; endoscopic biopsy shows yeast and
hypae. Match the clinical description with the most likely etiologic agent:
Candida albicans
Aspergillus flavus
Coccidioides immitis
Herpes simplex type 1
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Which of the following is the most effective noninvasive test for the diagnosis of
Helicobacter-associated gastric ulcers?
Culture of stomach contents for H pylori
Detection of H. pylori antigen in stool
Growth of H. pylori from a stomach biopsy
Growth of H. pylori in the stool
IgM antibodies to H pylori
Correct Answer : 2
Explanation : H. pylori antigen tests using an ELISA format and a monoclonal antibody to H. pylori
are as sensitive as culture of the control portion of the stomach. Urea breath tests are also widely
used. H. pylori has an active enzyme (urease) that breaks down radioactive urea. The patient
releases radioactive CO2 if H. pylori are present. H. pylori antibody tests, IgG and IgA, indicate the
presence of H. pylori and usually decline after effective treatment. Culture of stomach contents is
insensitive and not appropriate as a diagnostic procedure for H. pylori. Direct tests such as antigen
or culture of gastric mucosa are preferred because they are the most sensitive indication of a cure.
Ques : Which of the following is the most common portal of entry for C. tetani, the cause of
tetanus?
Gastrointestinal tract
Genital tract
Nasal tract
Respiratory tract
Skin
Correct Answer : 5
Ques : Which of the following is the antibiotic of choice for pneumococcal pneumonia?
Ampicillin
Ceftriaxone
Erythromycin
Penicillin
Vancomycin
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : An autograft is best described by which one of the following statements?
Transplant from one region of a person to another region
Transplant from one person to a genetically identical person
Transplant from one species to the same species
Transplant from one species to another species
Correct Answer : 1
Explanation : Transplantation from one region of a person to another region of that same person is
an autograft and has the best chance of succeeding. When a transplant is done between
monozygotic twins, it is an isograft and has a complete MHC compatibility and a good chance of
success. Allografts are between members of the same species, and xenografts are between
members of different species. Both of these transplants have a high rate of rejection unless
immunosuppression accompanies the transplant.
Ques : Which of the following pharmacokinetic values most reliably reflects the total amount of
drug reaching the target tissue after oral administration?
Peak blood concentration
Time-to-peak blood concentration
Product of the Vd and the first-order rate constant
Vd
Area under the blood concentration time curve (AUC)
Correct Answer : 5
first order ke) also are important in determining the amount of drug that reaches the target tissue.
Only the area under the blood concentration time curve, however, reflects absorption, distribution,
metabolism, and excretion factors; it is the most reliable and popular method of evaluating
bioavailability.Explanation : The fraction of a drug dose absorbed after oral administration is
affected by a wide variety of factors that can strongly influence the peak blood levels and the time
to peak blood concentration. The Vd and the total body clearance (Vd
Ques : Which of the following is the general function or purpose served by all phase I drug
biotransformation reactions?
Add or unmask (expose) functional groups on a substrate, forming more polarmolecules
Cleave azo, carbonyl, hydroxyl, nitro or sulfate moieties from substrates
Convert substrates to metabolites that are less pharmacologically active or less toxic
Generate adequate levels of NADPH for use by other hepatocyte metabolic reactions
Prevent formation of epoxides or free radical forms of substrates
Correct Answer : 1
Explanation : The general outcome of Phase 1 reaction is the formation of one or more metabolites
that are more polar than the substrate; this is accomplished (whether through oxidation,
hydroxylation, deamination, etc.) either by adding or exposing a particular functional group on the
substrate. This increased polarity of the product (s) either facilitates excretion directly or prepares
the product for subsequent conjugation reactions (glucuronidatio, glutathione conjugation, glycine
conjugation etc) by a Phase II reaction. Recall that it is the lipophilicity of drugs that enables them
to pass through biological membranes (e.g. to be absorbed to cause effects), yet this very same
physicochemical property hinders their elimination from the body were it not for phase 1 metabolic
reactions. It is true the most Phase 1 reactions lead to less active or less toxic products, but not all
do. Prodrugs, for example, are pharmacologically inactive substance that are given with the
expectation that they will be metabolized (by a Phase 1 reaction) to the active species that
ultimately causes effects.
Ques : The multinucleate arrangement of skeletal muscle during development is produced by
Duplication of DNA in myoblasts without cytokinesis
Fusion of mononucleate myoblasts
Cell proliferation of myotubes
Hypertrophy of myoblasts
Satellite cell differentiation
Correct Answer : 2
Explanation : The multinucleate organization of skeletal muscle is derived from the fusion process
and not by amitosis (failure of cytokinesis after DNA synthesis). Mitotic activity is terminated after
fusion occurs. In the development of skeletal muscle, myoblasts of mesodermal origin undergo cell
proliferation. Myocyte cell division ceases soon after birth. Myoblasts, which are mononucleate
cells, fuse with each other end to end to form myotubes. This process requires cell recognition
between myoblasts, alignment, and subsequent fusion. Setallite cells are supportive cells for
maintenance of muscle.
Ques : Which of the following correctly pertains to the white rami communicantes?
Each contains visceral afferent neurons
They consist of unmyelinated nerves
They contains postsynaptic neurons
Their neurons always synapse in the sympathetic chain
They occur at nearly every spinal level
Correct Answer : 1
Explanation : Sympathetic outflow occurs between the first thoracic and second lumbar segments
of the spinal cord. The presynaptic sympathetic nerurons originate in the lateral cell columns of the
spinal cord and pass along the thoracic and upper lumbar spinal nerves. These myelinated neurons
leave the respective spinal nerves by white rami communicantes, which convey the sympathetic
neurons to the chain of sympathetic ganglia. Some of the sympathetic neurons pass through the
chain as splanchnic nerves to reach prevertebral ganglia associated with the viscera. Others may
ascend in the cervical portion of the chain or descend to the lower lumbar or sacral portions before
synapse occurs. Visceral afferent neurons conveying sensation from the viscera reach the
sympathetic chain via the splanchnic nerves and then continue along the white rami
communicantes to reach the spinal nerves.
Ques : Prolonged treatment with INH leads to deficiency ofPyridoxine
Thiamine
Pantothenic acid
Niacin
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : True regarding Leptospirosis isRats are the main reservoirs
Fluoroquinolones are the drug of choice
Person to person transmission is seen
Hepatorenal syndrome occurs in 50 % cases
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Diseases transmitted from man to lower vertebrate animals are calledAmphixenoses
Zoo-anthroponoses
Anthropo-zoonoses
Homo-zoonoses
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : A list of all the sampling units in the population, serially numbered, is termed asSampling file
Sampling frame
Sampling reference
Sampling register
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Under NIDDCP and PFA, iodine content at salt consumption level must be
15 ppm
30 ppm
45 ppm
60 ppm
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : For south-Asians, a person having BMI above the following level is considered ‘pre-obese’23
25
27.5
30
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : All of the following are dead-end infections, exceptJapanese encephalitis
Dengue fever
Murine typhus
Kyasanur forest disease
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Use of combined Oral Contraceptives accounts for an increase in risk of –
Breast cancer
Ovarian cancer
Endometrial cancer
None
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Which of the following is not a Millennium Development Goal related to health?
Achieve universal primary immunization
Reduce Child Mortality
Improve maternal Health
Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria and other diseases
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Regarding Road traffic accident deaths, the false statement is-
In India, the rate is 17/lac population
In India, there is no child restraint legislation
In India, the maximum permissible limit of Blood Alcohol Level is 80 mg/dl while driving
The death rate is higher in developing countries than in developed countries
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : In a disaster situation created by earthquake, all of the following are correct exceptThe fatality rate is high
There are overwhelming numbers of casualties requiring extensive treatment
Food scarcity is rare
There is an immediate risk of communicable diseases
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : The legionnaire’s disease outbreak in the summer of 1976 in Philadelphia was a case ofPoint source epidemic
Common source-continuous exposure epidemic
Propagated epidemic
Seasonal epidemic
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Soil acts as reservoir of infection for all of the following exceptTetanus
Anthrax
Coccidiomycosis
Dracunculiasis
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : The test results of HIV ELISA test conducted on Commercial Sex workers are tabulated
below. Which of the values from amongst those given is correctly calculated?
The sensitivity is 90 %
The specificity is 99 %
The positive predictive value is 95 %
The negative predictive value is 99 %
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : As on March, 2011, the smallpox stocks are present inCentre for Disease Control, Atlanta
State Research Centre of Virology and Biotechnology, Koltsovo
Both of the above
None of the above
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Polio is endemic in four countries of the world. Which of these in not one of them?
Afghanistan
Pakistan
Nigeria
Democratic Republic of Congo
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Regarding Typhoid, the correct statement isChronic carriers are those who excrete the bacilli for more than 6 months
Carrier rate is higher amongst males
Phage typing is epidemiologically useful in tracing the source of epidemic
Cell mediated immunity plays minimal role
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : 24th March is celebrates asWorld Water Day
World Meteorological day
World Tuberculosis Day
World Disabled day
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : In Kyasanur Forest Disease, the amplifying host is
Pig
Monkey
Rat
Cattle
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : The most important institution and agreement regulating International trade regime at
present is
Free Trade Agreements (FTA)
Doha Declaration
UN Central Products Classification system (UNCPC)
World Trade Organization (WTO)
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : According to the national health policy, one sub-centre for the hilly areas covers a
population of
3000
5000
1000
4000
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Which of the following is not a characteristic of Indian Census?
International simultaneity
Delimited territory
Universality
Dejure nature
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Under National Health Policy 2002, all of the following diseases were targeted for
eradication / elimination by 2005, except:
Polio
Leprosy
Kala-Azar
Yaws
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Vision 2020 includes all of the following categories, except:
Nutritional blindness
Childhood blindness
Corneal blindness
Diabetic retinopathy
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Giant papillary conjunctivitis is a complication which occurs after wearing
Hard contact lens
Gas permeable contact lens
Soft contact lens
None of the above
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Retinopathy of leukemia includes all the following except
Dilated and tortuous retinal veins
Retinal Hemorrhage
Roth’s spots
Macular degeneration
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Limbal dermoids are characteristic of
Zellweger syndrome
Kearns Sayre syndrome
Crouzon’s syndrome
Goldenhar’s syndrome
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Which of the following glaucoma drugs produces lethargy as a side effect:
Brimonidine
Dorzolamide
Bimatoprost
Dipivefrine
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Which of the following is a tripartite toxin?
Diphtheria toxin
Anthrax toxin
Botulinum toxin
Cholera toxin
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : An infant is brought to the emergency room with hemolytic uremic syndrome and
thrombocytopenia. Stool sample was cultured and non lactose fermenting colonies grown on
Sorbitol MacConkey agar, which also fermented glucose with gas. Which one of the following
bacteria would most likely be isolated from a stool specimen?
Shigella
Salmonella
Aeromonas
E. coli 0157/H7
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : All are true about Superantigen exceptProduced by EBV & HIV
Attaches to αβ position on T cell receptor
Does not require antigen processing by macrophage
Stimulates large number non specific T cells
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Which of the following bacteria causes neonatal meningitis, shows beta haemolysis, CAMP
test positive and motile at 25c only but not at 37c.
S.pyogenes
S.agalactiae
S.pneumoniae
Listeria monocytogenes
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : .N. gonorrhoeae is a fastidious pathogen and found in sites often contaminated with normal
flora. The best medium for isolation is
Sheep blood agar
Löffler’s medium
Modified Newyork medium
Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose medium
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : The bowel contains many microorganisms but the most prevalent bacterium is
B. fragilis
Lactobacillus
S. epidermidis
E. coli
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Which of the following about Salmonella Typhi Vi antigen are correct except
Total absence of VI antibody in a proven case of typhoid carries good prognosis
VI antigen provides a method of epidemiological typing of S.Typhi by phage typing.
VI antigen is strongly immunogenic.
VI antibody is usually present in carriers.
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : All are true about Bacillus anthracis except :
Capsule is made up glutamic acid
Bamboo stick appearance in gram staining
Hemolytic colony in blood agar
Sudan black stain used to demonstrate lipid granules.
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Atypical pneumonia can be caused by the following microbial agents except?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
Legionella pneumophila.
Human Corona virus.
Klebsiella pneumoniae.
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : The antibody that increases in streptococcal skin infection and glomerulonephritis
ASO
Anti DNAse-B
Anti M
Anti streptokinase
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : A patient in an ICU , undergone CSF shunt surgery. His blood culture shows growth of grain
positive cocci which are catalase positive and coagulase negative. The most likely etiological agent
is:
Staplylococcus aureus
Staplylococcus epidermidis
Streptococcus pyogenes
Enterococcus faecalis.
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Pick the wrong statement from the following?
Ludlam’s medium is the selective media for Staphylococcus aureus.
Staphylococcus aureus produces diffusible pigment.
Prompt phosphatase reaction helps to differentiate St. aureus from St. epidermidis
They produce black coloured colonies on potassium tellurite agar
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : All are true about Streptcoccus except-;
In blood agar virulent strains produce a matt colony on fresh isolation
Crystal violet blood agar can be used as a selective media for isolation of Streptococcus pyogenes.
CAMP test can be used for presumptive identification of Streptococcus agalactiae.
Negative PYR test is a characteristic feature of Streptococcus pyogenes.
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Which of the following enzymes are used for liquefaction of thick exudates as in empyema?
Streptokinase & NADase
Streptokinase & Streptodornase
NADase & Hyaluronidase
Streptokinase and N acetyl glucosaminidase
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Which among the following statements about Enterococcus species are not true?
Enterococcus faecium is usually much more antibiotic resistant than E.faecalis
Enterococcus faecalis causes 85-90% of the clinical infections.
VanA phenotype is manifested by inducible high level resistance to both vancomycin and teicoplanin.
VanC phenotype is plasmid mediated.
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Blood sent for culture from an infant, who presented with fever and respiratory distress.
After 24hrs of incubation, blood agar showed α hemolytic colony. On Gram’s stain showed Gram
positive cocci arranged in pairs. Which of the following tests are more likely to be positive?
Novobiocin test
Motility
Catalase
Bile-Solubility
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Lecithinase produced by which of the following bacteria is neutralized by Clostridium
perfringens anti-toxin?
Clostridium novyi
Clostridium bifermentans
Bacillus cereus
Vibrio species
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : The entire following are true of Botulism. Except;
It causes a symmetric descending paralysis
Botulinum toxin acts on GABA neurotransmitter.
All produce neurotoxin except C2 which shows enterotoxic activity
Cl. botulinum can be isolated from food or the patient’s feces.
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : A 25 yrs old male on chronic antibiotic therapy presented with fever, abdominal pain &
diarrhoea associated with occasional blood in stools. Which among the following are true?
Easily isolated in culture
Presence of large central spores
Toxin is neutralized by Clostridium sordelii antitoxin
Vancomycin is the drug of choice
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : One of the following bacteria does not show swarming?
Vibrio alginolyticus
Clostridium tetani
Proteus mirabilis
Morganella morganii
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Which of the following bacterium is used to stimulate immune system
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Mycobacterium bovis
Corynebacterium parvum
Corynebacterium jakeium
Correct Answer : 3
m in diameter) that is variable acid – fast and fluoresces blue under ultraviolet light. The most
likely identification of this organism is which of the following?Ques : A patient with AIDS returns
from Haiti with acute diarrhea. The stool reveals an round organism (8-9
Cryptosporidium hominis
Cyclospora cayetanensis
Enterocytozoon beineusi
Isospora belli
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : A 30-year-old student goes to the emergency room because of fever and anorexia for the
past 3 days. She appears jaundiced. Her liver is enlarged and tender. A laboratory test shows
elvevated aminotransferases. She reports a history of having received hepatitis B vaccine 2 years
ago but has not had hepatitis A vaccine. The results of her hepatitis serologic tests are as follows:
HAV IgM – negative, HAV IgG-positive, HBsAg-negative, HBsAb-positive, HBcAb-negative HCV Abpositive. The most accurate conclusion is that she probably
Has hepatitis A now, has not been infected with HBV, and had hepatitis C in the pas
Has hepatitis A now and has been infection with both HBV and HCV in the past
Has been infected with HAV and HCV in the past and has hepatitis B now
Has been infected with HAV in the past has not been infected with HBV, and has hepatitis C now
Has been infected with HAV and HCV in the past, has not been infected with HBV and has hepatitis E now
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Which of the following viruses causes a mononucleosis-like syndrome, is a common cause of
a congenital infection, and is excreted in the urine?
Cytomegalovirus
Epstein-Barr virus
Human herpesvirus 6
Varicell-zoster virus
Herpes simplex virus type 2
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : A young female presented with lacy linear lesions on tongue since a month with elongation
of nail fold beyond the nail bed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Psoriasis
Geographic tongue
Lichen planus
Candidiasis
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : A primigravida female presents with erythematous rash and lesions with multiple lakes.
Most appropriate treatment is
Corticosteroid
Atretinine
PUVA
Methotrexate
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : 2-year-old child with history of seizures and developmental delay. He has multiple
hypopigmented macule on the back. Diagnosis is
Tuberous sclerosis
NFI
Sturge weber syndrome
Linear sebaceous nervous syndrome
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : A girl is having mild to moderate acne with irregular menses. What is the treatment of
choice
Oral isotretinoin
Oral acitretin
Oral minocycline
Cypoterone acetate
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : 32-year-old farmer with single indurated verrucous ulcer on leg. Diagnosis is
Verruca vulgaris
Tuberculosis verrucosa cutis
Mycetoma
Lichen planus hypertorphicus
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Chemical peeling not used
Carboxylic acid
Kojic acid
Phosphoric acid
Trichlor acetic acid
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Egg on appearance
Tricuspid atresia with VSD
Hypoplastic right ventricle
TOF
TGA
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : A child presented with acute renal failure and complete anuria. Ultrasound study of the
abdomen is normal. Which of the following study would give maximum information in such
situation?
Renal angiography
DTPA scan
IVP
Retrograde pyelography
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : CT scan room door, windows and console room is shielded with
Glass
Tungsten
Steel
Lead
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : True about Stochastic radiation side effect is
Cancer chances increases with increased absorbed done
Causes erythema & cataract
Probability of their occurrence is a function of the dose
Occur by chance and causes genetic effect / mutational change
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Which of the following is not a CT feature of Adrenal Adenoma
Low attenuation
Rare calcification
Homogenous density and well defined borders
Enhances rapidly, contrast stays in for a relatively longer time and washes out late
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Radiation exposure is the least in the following procedure
Micturating cystourethrogram
IVP
Bilateral renogram
Spiral CT for stones
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : A patient is renal failure, which is the material when given along with contrast that is least
harmful
Half normal saline
Fenoldopam
N – acetylcysteine
Normal saline
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Medial lesion at level of wrist causes weakness of all except
Thenar muscles
Adductor pollicis
Middle finger lumbricals
Index finger lumbricals
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : True about Synovial sarcoma is all except
Originate from synovium
Mostly seen in < 50 years age
Occur more common at extra articular site
Knee & foot are common sites of involvement
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Lift off test is done for
Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Subscapularis
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Which of the following about menisci is not true?
Lateral meniscus is more mobile than medical meniscus
Made up of collagen type I
Lateral meniscus covers more area of tibial articular surface than medial
Menisci are composed 75% of water
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Metal on metal articulation is not done in
Primary failure
Young female
Inflammatory arthritis
Revision surgery
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Positive Dial Test of Knee indicates injury to
Medial meniscus
Lateral meniscus
Medical collateral ligament
Posterior corner injury
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Which of the following is a marker for Bad prognosis in Ewing’s sarcoma
Fever
Thrombocytosis
Young age
Raised b2 microglobulin
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Site of initiation in hematogenous osteomyelitis?
Metaphysis
Diaphysis
Epiphysis
At the entry of nutrient artery
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Which stain is used to check Adequate mineralization of osteoid
Tetracylin red
Von kossa stain
Alizarin red
PAS
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Gallows traction is used for
Fracture shaft of femur
Fracture neck of femur
Fracture shaft of tibia
Fracture tibial plafond
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : In case of post amputation limb transplant what is done first
Fixation of bone
Artery ligation
Vein ligation
Nerve ligation
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : A newborn child presents with inverted foot and the dorsum of the foot cannot touch the
anterior tibia. The most probable diagnosis
Congenital vertical talus
Arthrogryposis Multiplex
Congenital Talipes Equino Varus
Cerebral palsy
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : A 40-year-old patient was brought with recent personality changes and behavioral problem.
He had diarrhea since 2 days. On examination there was increased salivation and black blue line on
gum. Fine tremors were also noticed. There is no organmegaly. Likely diagnosis is
Mercury poisoning
Lead poisoning
Arsenic poisoning
Copper poisoning
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : In Aconite poisoning characteristic presentation is
Increased BP
Tingling sensation all over body
Hypersalivation
Skin erythema and rash
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Drug used in narco analysis test
Scoplamine Hcl
Atropine
Opium
Phenobarbabitone
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Primary impact injuries are located at
Chest
Abdomen
Legs
Head
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Path of which of the following bullet can be seen with naked eye followed after shot from
gun
Tendem
Tracer bullet
Dumdum
Incendiary
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Mechanism of injuries caused by lightening is due to all except
Compression effect due to compression of air infront of travelling wave
Direct effect from electric discharge passing to ground
Mechanical effect due to force of displaced air around the flash by heat expansion
Compression of air following the current wave as the blast of air back wards will rarefy
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Widmark formula is for detection of
Time since death
Quantity of alcohol intake
Stature at death
Infliction of injury
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Aluminum phosphide poisoning all are true except
Subendocardial infarcts
Produces phosphine gas
Oesophageal stricture
Inhibits cytochrome oxidase
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Auto run over a child, there is a mark of the tyre tracks, it is an
Patterned bruise
Ectopic bruise
Bruise
Imprint abrasion
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Bleuler’s criteria for schizophrenia includes all except
Ambivalence
Loosening of association
Automatism
Inappropriate affect
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Good prognosis in schizophrenia is indicated by
Soft neurological signs
Affective symptoms
Emotional blunting
Insidious onset
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : A person of 35 years is having firm belief about infidelity involving the spouse and he never
allow her to go out of home alone. He often locks his house, while going office. Inspite of all this he
is persistently suspicious about her character. The probable diagnosis is
Schizophrenia
Delusional parasitosis
Clerambault’s syndrome
Othello syndrome
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Most common cause of mood congruent delusion is
Schizophrenia
Mania
OCD
Depression
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Intense nilhism, somatization, and agitation in old age are the hallmark symptoms of
Involutional melanocholia
Atypical depression
Somatized depression
Depressive stupor
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Which of the following is not a feature of mania
Disorientation
Euphoria
Suicidal tendencies
Pressure of speech
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : A 50 year old male presents with 3 year history of irritability, low mood, lack of interest in
surroundings and general dissatisfaction with everything. There is no significant disruption in his
sleep or appetite. He is likely to be suffering from:
Major depression
No psychiatric disorder
Dysthymia
Chronic fatigue syndrome
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Delirium tremens is characterised by confusion associated with
Autonomic hyperactivity and tremors
Features of intoxication due to alcohol
Sixth nerve palsy
Korsakoff psychosis
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : All of the following decrease craving of alcohol except
Disulfiram
Acamprosate
Naltrexone
Baclofen
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Which of the following drugs has been recently approved for treatment of premature
ejaculation
Escitalopram
Sertraline
Duloxetine
Dapoxetine
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : All of the following can be used in maintainance treatment of opioid dependence except
Naltrexone
Dextropropoxyphene
Methadone
Buprenorphine
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Behaviour therapy to change maladaptive behaviours using response as reinforcers uses the
principle of:
Classical conditioning
Modeling
Social learning
Operant conditioning
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : 20 year old girl Neelu enjoys wearing male clothes. Wearing male clothes give her feeling of
more confidence and after these episodes she is an absolutely normal girl. The likely diagnosis is
Trans-sexualism
Fetihism
Dual role transvestism
Fetihistic Transvestism
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : 85 yrs old ramu presented with nasal bleed;on examination person was too
anaemic.Bleeding didn’t responded to anterior nasal packing.Most common site of bleed in such
clinical situation would be?
Little’s area
Retro-columellar region
Woodruff’s plexus
Both little’s area and retro-columellar region
Correct Answer : 3
Explanation : Woodruff’s plexus Ref– Read the text below Sol • Woodruff’s plexus :appear to be
originated from the posterior pharyngeal wall and are venous in origin.
Ques : Orbital Apex Syndrome is similar to Superior Orbital Fissure Syndrome with added
involvement of :
CN II
CN III
CN IV
CN VI
Correct Answer : 1
Explanation : CN II Sol: Other Complication Superior Orbital Fissure Syndrome • Fixed globe,
dilated pupil (CN III, IV, VI), ptosis, hypesthesia of upper eyelid (CN V1); • Urgent surgical
decompression Orbital Apex Syndrome • Similar to Superior Orbital Fissure Syndrome with added
involvement of optic nerve (papilledema, vision changes)
Ques : Lateral Neck Dissection removes:Levels I–II
Levels I–III
Levels II–IV
Levels II–V
Correct Answer : 3
Explanation : Levels II–IV Ref– Read the text below Sol: Modified Radical Neck Dissection Selective
Neck Dissection • Does not remove all nodal levels (removes only nodal disease at high risk)
Supraomohyoid (Anterolateral) Neck Dissection: • Removes nodal levels I–III (expanded
supraomohyoid removes level IV); indicated for larger oral cancers with a N0 or select N1 (mobile)
neck Lateral Neck Dissection: • Removes nodal levels II–IV; indicated for select supraglottic,
oropharyngeal, hypopharyngeal cancers, typically bilateral Posterior Lateral Neck Dissection: •
Removes nodal levels II–V (also retroauricular and suboccipital nodes); indicated for select
posterior scalp cancers
Ques : Necrotizing lymphadenitis is seen in :
Kimura disease
Kikuchi disease
Hodgkins disease
Castleman’s disease
Correct Answer : 2
Explanation : Kikuchi disease Sol: Kikuchi's disease Kikuchi–Fujimoto disease (KFD), also known as
histiocytic necrotizing lymphadenitis, is a benign and self-limiting disease typically characterized by
the enlargement of regional lymph nodes and accompanied by fever. Kikuchi's disease (histiocytic
necrotizing lymphadenitis) is characterized by histiocytic necrotizing lymphadenitis, usually of the
cervical region. • Generalized lymphadenopathy is occasionally encountered • The disease is
primarily seen in young Japanese women or women of Oriental descent in the third decade of life.
Pediatric, male and elderly patients are occasionally encountered. • Leukopenia is present in 50%
of cases, and atypical lymphocytes may be seen in the peripheral blood smear. Additional features
may include aseptic meningitis, maculopapular or urticarial rash , arthralgia, myalgia,
hepatosplenomegaly, hepatic dysfunction, neuropathy and pulmonary hemorrhage. Biopsy material
reveals paracortical hyperplasia without granulocytic infiltration and a typical 'starry sky' pattern. •
Clinical features may mimic those of lupus erythematosis or lymphoma. • The prognosis is good,
and patients recover after a mean of 3 months. Relapse occurs in 20% of cases. Hydroxychoroquine
and corticosteroids have been advocated by some authorities.
Ques : Anterior blunting of the graft is complication of :
Underlay technique
Overlay technique
Both
None
Correct Answer : 2
Explanation : Overlay technique Sol Tympanoplasty: repair of tympanic membrane typically utilizing
a tissue graft such as temporalis fascia (most common), perichondrium, periosteum, cartilage, vein,
areolar tissue, fat, and dura • Medial (Underlay) Technique: 1. Graft placed under the annulus and
remnant TM and either over or under the malleus, adequate for most TM perforations (especially
smaller posterior perforations) 2. Technically easier, shorter operating time, fewer complications •
Lateral (Overlay) Technique: 1. Graft placed lateral to the annulus,indicated for larger perforations
(especially anterior perforations),and problem perforations; longer operating time; risk of lateral
izing graft and anterior blunting of the graft; requires a longer healing process; risk of entering the
glenoid fossa, greater postoperative CHL
Ques : “T1 glottic cancer limited to middle third of the vocal fold” is an indication for :
Vertical hemilaryngectomy
Horizontal hemilaryngectomy
Radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
Cordectomy via Laryngofissure
Correct Answer : 4
Explanation : Cordectomy via Laryngofissure Ref– Read the text below Sol: • “ T1 glottic cancer
limited to middle third of the vocal fold” is an indication for Cordectomy via Laryngofissure • “T1 or
T2 (limited T3) supraglottic tumors with good pulmonary function tests” is an indication for
Supraglottic Laryngectomy • “T1–T2 glottic carcinomas with good pulmonary function tests” is an
indication for Vertical Partial Laryngectomy
Ques : Type C tympanogram suggest:
Otosclerosis.
Tympanosclerosis
Effusion.
Eustachian tube dysfunction.
Correct Answer : 4
Explanation : Eustachian tube dysfunction. Sol: TYMPANOMETRY Types A: normal peak between 150 and +50 daPa AS: “shallow” peak (reduced compliance), TM stiff, suggests otosclerosis, or
tympanosclerosis AD: “deep” peak (hypercompliant), TM flaccid, suggests ossicular discontinuity or
a monomeric TM B: flat, no peak, nonmobile TM, suggests effusion, perforation, or an open pressure
equalization tube C: peak shifted to a more negative pressure (<-150), retracted TM, suggests
eustachian tube dysfunction
Ques : Least common symptom of acute tonsillitis is:
Sore throat
Odynophagia
Cervical adenopathy
Trismus
Correct Answer : 4
Explanation : Trismus. Sol: Tonsillitis Pathogens: most commonly Group A β-hemolytic
Streptococcus (GABHS). Symptoms : sore throat, fever, chills, odynophagia, trismus, cervical
adenopathy, halitosis, erythema of tonsils and faucial pillars Phases of Tonsillitis: tonsillar
erythema, exudative tonsillitis, follicular tonsillitis (yellow spots corresponding to lymphatic
follicles), cryptic tonsillitis (chronic infection),fibrotic Complications:peritonsillar
abscess,parapharyngeal or retropharyngeal space abscess, rheumatic fever (secondary to an
immune response resulting in carditis, polyarteritis, chorea, erythema marginatum, subcutaneous
nodules), glomerulonephritis (secondary to an immune response resulting in a nephritic
syndrome), sepsis, scarlet fever
Ques : Nitrous oxide is not contraindicated in :
Cochlear surgery
Vitroretinal surgery
Microlaryngeal laser surgery
Exentration
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Which is true regarding Cormack and Lehane grading?
Used for inspection of oral cavity before intubation
Used for estimation of the size of tongue relative to oral cavity
Used for assessment of glottic view during direct laryngoscopy
grade IV corresponds to least intubation difficulty
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : False regarding γ cyclodextrins is:
Directly bind to steroidal non depolarizing muscle relaxants
Do not act on receptors or ion channels
Efficacy of block reversal is maximum for rocuronium and least for pancuronium
require anticholinesterases drugs along with them to prevent side effects
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Potentiation of action of muscle relaxants is maximum with:
Sevoflurane
Halothane
Desflurane
Isoflurane
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : The factor which does not affect the height of spinal blockade is :
Volume of CSF in subarachnoid space
Baricity of drug
Height of patient
Posture of patient during spinal
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : An intravenous agent associated with hemodynamic stability , adrenal suppression,
maintenance of cerebral perfusion pressure with postoperative nausea, vomiting and myoclonus :
Ketamine
Etomidate
Propofol
Opoids
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Agent of choice for obese patients :
Desflurane
Isoflurane
Sevoflurane
Halothane
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Naloxone : untrue is :
Does not reverse the action of buprenorphine
Reverses the action of barbiturate, benzodiazepine, ketamine ,alcohol and nitrous oxide
Antagonism of mu> kappa >delta
Can be safely used in patients with pheochromocytoma, intracranial lesions and myocardial ischemia
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Which is incorrect with regards to xenon?
Minimum cardiovascular side effects
Favours air bubble expansion
Environmental pollutant
Low blood :gas partition coefficient
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Most susceptible nerve fiber to local anesthetics is :
A delta
A gamma
B
C (pain , touch , temp )
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : All are true about pin index system :
Pin index of nitrous oxide is 3,5
It is a safety system to prevent incorrect delivery of gases
Pins are represented in an arc of 60 degree
Pins are present on the cylinder of the specific gas
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Commercial source of Calcitonin is from
Whale sperm
Salmon fish
Recombinant DNA technology
Coli cultures
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Disodium chromoglycate is administered by all the following routes, EXCEPT
Eye drops
Metered dose inhaler (MDI)
DPI (Rotahaler)
Nasal drops
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Antidote for Cocaine toxicity is
Nifedipine
Propranolol
Pyridoxine
Phentolamine
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : All of the following belong to schedule II drugs, EXCEPT
Morphine
Secobarbital
Cannabinoid
Methylphenidate
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : DOC for cryptosporidiosis in an HIV (immunocompromised) patient is
Nitazoxanide
Azithromycin
Paromomycin
Flucytosine
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : DOC for Malleiodosis is
Ceftazidime
Cotrimoxazole
Tetracycline
Voriconazole
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Which of the following is not used to treat vomiting of motion sickness?
Ondansetron
Dimenhydrinate
Scopolamine
Promethazine
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Amphetamine shows which of the following oxidative biotransformation reaction?
Deamination
Desulfurisation
Aliphatic
N,S,O alkylation
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : All of the following drugs can be therapeutically used to treat xerostomia, EXCEPT
Pilocarpine
Cevimeline
Amifostine
Carbachol
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Which of the following vaccine is available as a liposome?
MMR
IRIV
Hib
Oral Typhoid
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Appropriate receptor action of Dopamine is
D1, D2
D1, D2, β1
D1 β1
D1, D2, β1, α1
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Presynaptic α2 blocker used as an antidepressant is
Tizanidine
Dexmedetomidine
Mirtazepine
Moxonidine
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Drug used to treat central diabetes insipidus is
Carbamazepine
Amiloride
Felypressin
Chlorthiazide
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : All the following drugs have a diagnostic use, EXCEPT
Monoclonal antibodies
Methacholine
D-Penicillamine
Phentolamine
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Vd of a drug is 5mg/l. Where is the drug?
Blood
Tissue
ECF
RBC
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : All of the following can cause polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, EXCEPT
Terfenadine
Bupivacaine
Haloperidol
Lignocaine
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate is a
Chelating agent
Stool softener
Carminative
Organophosphorus compound
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : In a normal individual, a tube with a transducer at its tip is swallowed and passed an
unknown distance down the esophagus. Between swallows it records a pressure of 25 mm Hg. A
small amount of water is swallowed. Within 2 seconds, the pressure falls to 5 mm Hg, where it
remains until returning to its resting pressure 6 seconds later. In a patient with achalasia, the
transducer is advanced to the same location. Between swallows, it records a pressure of 30 mm Hg.
After swallowing, the pressure fails to decrease at all. In which of the following sites is the
transducer most likely located?
Esophageal body distal to the diaphragm
B. Esophageal body proximal to the diaphragm
Lower esophageal sphincter
D. Pharynx
Upper esophageal sphincter
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : A 60-year-old man presents to his physician because of progressive dysphagia, first for
solids, then for liquids. Endoscopy reveals a large fungating mass 2 cm above the gastroesophageal
junction. Biopsy of the mass demonstrates glands, extending into the muscular layer, containing
cells with large hyperchromatic nuclei. Which of the following conditions is most likely associated
with development of this mass?
Barrett's esophagus
B. Esophageal rings
Esophageal webs
D. Scleroderma
Sliding hiatal hernia
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : A small bowel fistula will close during a course of bowel rest and total parenteral nutrition if
there is
Active Crohn’s disease
Distal obstruction
Epithelialization of the tract
Radiation enteritis
None of the above
Correct Answer : 5
Ques : Indication for operation in Crohn’s disease include all the following EXCEPT
Intestinal obstruction
Enterovesical fistula
Ileum-ascending colon fistula
Enterovaginal fistula
Free perforation
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : An 80-year-old man who has been bedridden for many years following a stroke presents
with acute onset of abdominal distention, obstipation, and colicky abdominal pain. Abdominal xrays reveal dilated loops of small bowel and a large loop seen as dilated & bent inner tube.
Examination reveals distention with mild direct tenderness but no rigidity or rebound tenderness.
Initial management should consist of
Barium enema examination
Laparotomy with resection of descending colon and descending colostomy
Multiple cleansing enemas to remove impacted feces
Rigid sigmoidoscopy and decompression of the sigmoid colon
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : The most common cause of massive hemorrhage in the lower gastrointestinal tract is
Carcinoma
Diverticulosis
Diverticulitis
Ulcerative colitis
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : A 40 year old lady underwent radical mastectomy for a 2 cm carcinoma of the breast.
Histopathology of axillary nodes removed did not show any Secondaries. the most appropriate
future line of management would be
Periodic follow up for any recurrence and treatment thereof
Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Hormone therapy
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Burst abdomen (abdominal dehiscence) usually present between
3rd – 5th post. Op. day
6-8 post. Op. day
10-14 post. Op. day
After 2 weeks of operation
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : In a Richter’s hernia – The sac contains
a. Omentum
Intestine
A protion of circumference of intestine
Fallopian tube
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Neck of which of the following hernias lie lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels
Indirect inguinal hernia
Direct inguinal hernia
Femoral hernia
Epigastric hernia
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Treatment of choice in cold nodule is
I-131
Hemithyroidectomy
Subtotal thyroidectomy
Wait and watch
Correct Answer : 2
Ques : Surgery in thyroiditis is necessary because
To prevent cancerous degeneration
For relief of pain in the ear
To overcome pressure on the trachea
Cure toxic reaction
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Infant of diabetic mother is likely to have all of the following except
Anemia
Hyperbilirubinemia
Sacral agenesis
Lazy left colon syndrome
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Which of the following is false about diaphragmatic hernia in a newborn ?
More common on right side
A/w polyhydramnios
All children should be intubated immediately after delivery as soon as diagnosis is made
Presence of liver in the thorax affects prognosis
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Single umbilical artery in a NB is associated with
Congenital anomalies
Intestine obstruction
Normal variant
Paraplegia
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : A patient with Apgar scores of 1 and 2 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively, appears hyper-alert
and has hyperactive deep tendon reflexes and mydriasis. The most likely diagnosis is
Stage I hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy
Stage II hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy
Stage III hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy
Kernicterus
Intraventricular hemorrhage
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Jaundice appearing on day 1 of life suggests all of the following EXCEPT
TORCH infection
Erythroblastosis fetalis
ABO incompatibility
Sepsis
Fetal-to-maternal transfusion
Correct Answer : 5
Ques : Direct-reacting hyperbilirubinemia on the 10th day of life suggest all of the following EXCEPT
Cystic fibrosis
Galactosemia
Neonatal hepatitis
Byler syndrome
Gilbert disease
Correct Answer : 5
Ques : True about hypoplastic SGA are all except
Is d/t intrauterine infections, genetic or chromosomal aberration
Growth retardation occurs in early pregnancy
¯in the number of body cells
Prognosis for post natal physical & mental growth is good
They are proportionately smaller
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Complication in SGA infant are all except
Birth asphyxia
Polycythemia
Hypothermia
Hypocalcemia
Hyaline membrane disease
Correct Answer : 5
Ques : In certain studies a sevenfold to tenfold relative risk of infantile hypertrophic pyloric
stenosis has been seen in infants <6 weeks of age treated with
Erythromycin
Cefotaxime
Azithromycin
Clindamycin
Correct Answer : 1
Ques : Commonest complication of Hemophilus influenza meningitis in children is :
Bronchopneumonia
Otitis media
Arthritis
Subdural effusion
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Which of these is not one of the indicators for primary treatment failure in PEM?
Absence of beginning of loss of edema by day 4
Absence of complete loss of edema by day 10
Absence of regaining appetite by day 4
Absence of regaining appetite by day 10
Correct Answer : 4
Ques : Energy requirement by the end of infancy is
60-80Kcal/kg/day
50-60Kcal/kg/day
100-119Kcal/kg/day
150Kcal/kg/day
Correct Answer : 3
Ques : Kwashiorkar in children is characterized by all of the following except
Dermatitis
Flag sign
Edema
Alertness
Correct Answer : 4