Dr. Davis’s 1QQs
Physiology Fall 2011
1QQ # 1
Name on top edge, back side of paper
Answer on blank side of paper.
If the statement is true, mark it true.
If false, replace the underlined word to make it a true statement.
1. For the negative feedback loop for thermoregulation
a) The hypothalmus is an effector
b) Autonomic nerves are are efferent pathway to
sweat glands
c) Skeletal muscle tone would be increased as a
response to a drop in core body temperature
d) Information about skin temperature is transmitted
through peripheral nerves which are an afferent
pathway
e) Cutaneous arterioles would dilate in response to a
drop in core body temperature.
1QQ # 3 8:30 Section
1. Which of the following are true during the absorptive
phase? (Circle all correct responses.)
a) Amino acids are taken up by muscle tissue.
b) The liver converts glucose to a-ketoacids.
c) Muscle cells polymerize glucose to glycogen.
d) Excess amino acids are converted to triglycerides in
the liver in a multi-stop enzymatic process
e) As plasma glucose levels rise, so does the secretion
of insulin.
f) Adipose tissue converts excess glucose to
triglycerides.
g) Almost all cells use glucose as metabolic fuel.
1 a b c d e
f
g
1QQ # 3 9:30 Section
1. Which of the following are true during the absorptive
phase? (Circle all correct responses.)
a) Amino acids are released by muscle tissue.
b) The liver converts glucose to a-ketoacids.
c) Muscle cells polymerize glucose to glycogen.
d) Excess amino acids are converted to triglycerides in
the liver in a multi-stop enzymatic process
e) As plasma glucose levels rise, secretion of insulin is
diminished.
f) Triglycerides enter adipose tissue cells.
g) Almost all cells use fatty acids as their main
metabolic fuel.
1 a b c d e
f
g
1QQ # 4 8:30 am
1. What changes in hepatocyte metabolism are
produced by glucagon?
2. A) What advise would you give to a person who
is a reactive hypoglycemic and B) provide the
reasons for your advise.
3. Your patients plasma glucose level is 45 mg/dl.
A) What hormone is responsible for her rapid
heart rate, pale clammy skin, and irritability? B)
Why does she have a headache?
1QQ # 4 9:30 am
1. Explain in some detail how beta cells of the Islets of
Langerhans are affected by anticipating an excellent
meal.
2. A) Describe a situation that would lead to the activation
of the sympathetic nervous system. B) How does
sympathetic stimulation affect the secretion from beta
cells in the Islets of Langerhans? C) Why is this
beneficial for the person in terms of fuel supply?
3. After an overnight fast, a patient arrives for an Oral
Glucose Tolerance Test. The first blood sample (even
before ingestion of the Tru-Glu cola shows a plasma
glucose concentration of 150 mg/dl. A) Do you have
the patient drink the Tru-Glu? Why or why not? B)
What might you do next to determine what is “wrong”
with your patient?
1QQ # 5 for 8:30
Each True/False Question counts 2 points. Answer all five.
1. Epinephrine is an amine hormone.
2. If you don’t know which category a hormone belongs to,
the best guess is “peptide.”
3. The thyroid hormones and steroid hormones have
intracellular receptors and affect gene expression and
have long-lasting effects in their target cells.
4. All amine and peptide hormones are transported in the
plasma in two forms: bound and free.
5. Thyroid hormones and steroid hormones are stored in
vesicles and secreted later.
1QQ # 5 for 9:30
Each True/False Question counts 2 points. Answer all five.
1. Dopamine is an amine hormone.
2. If you don’t know which category a hormone belongs to,
the best guess is “steroid.”
3. The thyroid hormones and steroid hormones have cellsurface receptors and usually have long-lasting effects
in their target cells.
4. T3 and T4 and peptide hormones are transported in the
plasma in two forms: bound and free.
5. Catecholamines and peptide hormones are stored in
vesicles and secreted later.
1QQ # 6 for 8:30
Write the number of the one question you choose to answer.
1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
TSH stimulates
The thyroid gland to take up iodide
the synthesis and secretion of thyroglobulin
The uptake of thyroglobulin from the colloid
Follicular cells of the thyroid gland to grow
The hypothalamus to secrete more TRH.
OR
In response to a drop in blood pressure
Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney secrete less renin
Elevated levels of aldosterone stimulate thirst
Newly-formed angiotensin I causes vasoconstriction
Elevated levels of aldosterone promote Na+ retention by the kidneys
The liver produces more Angiotensin II.
1QQ # 6 for 9:30
Write the number of the one question you choose to answer.
1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
TSH stimulates
The thyroid gland to take up iodide
the synthesis and secretion of thyroglobulin
The uptake of thyroglobulin from the colloid
Its target cells to incorporate more Na+/K+ ATPase into their
membranes
The hypothalamus to secrete more TRH.
OR
In response to a drop in blood pressure
Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney secrete less renin
Elevated levels of Angiotensinogen stimulates thirst
Newly-formed angiotensin I causes vasoconstriction
Elevated levels of aldosterone promote Na+ retention by the kidneys
The liver produces more Angiotensin II.
1QQ # for 8:30
Write the number of the one question you choose to answer.
1) Suppose the portal vessel that connects the median eminence to the
adenohypophysis was completely occluded (blocked.) Which
hypothalamic hormone(s) could not reach their target cells?
a) ACTH b) CRH c) DA d) Prolactin
e) TRH
f) TSH g) FHS h) T3
i) GnRH j) ADH
OR
2A Name the hormone normally secreted by hepatocytes.
2B Name the hormone secreted by cells in the adenohypophysis that
stimulates the secretion of the “liver” hormone.
2C Suppose liver cells form a tumor that secretes the “liver” hormone in
an unregulated manner. Assuming cells in the adenohypophysis are
behaving normally, would the levels of the tropic hormone from the
anterior pituitary be normal, high, or low?
1QQ # for 9:30
Write the number of the one question you choose to answer.
1) Suppose the portal vessel that connects the median eminence to the
adenohypophysis was completely occluded (blocked.) Which
hypothalamic hormone(s) could not reach their target cells?
a) Oxytocin b) Prolactin c) DA d) CRH
e) TRH
f) TSH
g) FHS
h) T3 i) GnRH j) ADH
OR
2 Cells in the anterior pituitary gland that secrete TSH
a) have receptors for TRH in their cell membranes
b) can sense the levels of T3 and T4 in the plasma
c) will release more TSH as levels of TRH rise
d) Should release less TSH after a person has been treated with
radioactive iodine
e) Should release less TSH if a person is dosed with exogenous TH.
1QQ # 8 for 8:30
1) A woman presents with elevated plasma levels of ACTH and Cortisol.
Which other symptoms are expected:
a) Low levels of plasma fatty acids
b) Heightened resistance to infection
c) High blood pressure
d) Enlargement of facial bones and hands and feet
e) Random episodes of intense sweating with no apparent “trigger.”
1QQ # 8 for 9:30
1) During a visit with her physician, a woman complains of random
episodes of intense sweating with no apparent “trigger,” high
susceptibility to infection, and very irregular menstrual cycles. She has
elevated blood pressure ( 140/90) and elevated levels of fatty acids in her
plasma. You realize these symptoms are characteristic of
a) menopause
b) acromegaly
c) Primary adrenal insufficiency
d) Hypercortisolemia
e) Primary hypothyroidism.
1QQ # 9 for 8:30 class
1. A) List the four categories of glia cells of the
central nervous system and
B) state which category you would choose to
eliminate from your CNS if you were forced to do
so, being sure to
C) give your reasons for your selection.
2. A) Describe the location and purpose of a growth
cone and
B) how axonal transport is associated with growth
cones.
1QQ # 9 for 9:30 class
1. A) List the four categories of glia cells of the
central nervous system and
B) state which category you would choose to
eliminate from your CNS if you were forced to do
so, being sure to
C) give your reasons for your selection.
2. A) Describe the location and purpose of a growth
cone and
B) how axonal transport is associated with growth
cones.
1QQ # 10 for 8:30 class
1. At resting membrane potential
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
The concentration gradient favors the entry of Na+
The electrostatic driving force favors the entry of Na+
The concentration gradient favors the exit of K+
The electrostatic driving force favors the exit of K+
The membrane is more permeable to Na+ than to K+.
2. Suppose you have a cell with the normal concentrations of
Na+ and K+ on either side of the membrane, and you
were able to make the membrane absolutely and
completely impermeable to Na+.
A) What would the membrane potential be? (include the
units.)
B) What equation would you use to calculate the
membrane potential?
1QQ # 10 for 9:30 class
1. At the equilibrium potential for Na+
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
The concentration gradient favors the entry of Na+
The electrostatic driving force favors the entry of Na+
The concentration gradient favors the exit of K+
The electrostatic driving force favors the exit of K+
The membrane is more permeable to Na+ than to K+.
2. Suppose you have a cell with the normal concentrations of
Na+ and K+ on either side of the membrane, and you
were able to make the membrane absolutely and
completely impermeable to K+.
A) What would the membrane potential be. (include the
units.)
B) What equation would you use to calculate the
membrane potential?
1QQ # 11 for 8:30 class
1. Why doesn’t an action potential reach + 60 mV?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Voltage- gated Na+ channels open and spontaneously close quickly
Voltage-gated K+ channels open a little later than the Na+ channels
Na+ K+ ATPase quickly pumps out the Na+ that enters during an AP
As the membrane approaches +60 mV, the driving force for Na+ entry is
weaker
e) Na+ is not the only permeable ion.
2. Which are the accurate statements regarding V-gated K+
channels?
a)
The more the membrane is depolarized, the more K+ channels will open,
and the membrane will depolarize even more, generating a positive
feedback cycle.
b) These channels inactive after a short open time and can only reopen if
the membrane potential returns to negative values.
c) These channels are “blocked” by lidocaine, xylocaine, and novocaine.
d) These channels close as the membrane repolarizes.
1QQ # 11 for 9:30 class
1. Why doesn’t an action potential reach + 60 mV?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Voltage- gated Na+ channels would be forced “shut” at + 60 mV
Voltage-gated K+ channels open a little sooner than the Na+ channels.
Na+ K+ ATPase quickly pumps out the Na+ that enters during an AP
As the membrane approaches +60 mV, the driving force for Na+ entry is
weaker
e) Na+ channels open only briefly and then quickly inactivate.
2. Which are the accurate statements regarding V-gated K+
channels?
a)
The more the membrane is depolarized, the more K+ channels will open,
and K+ will leave the cell, contributing to repolarization.
b) These channels inactive after a short open time and can only reopen if
the membrane potential returns to negative values.
c) These channels are “blocked” by lidocaine, xylocaine, and novocaine.
d) These channels open shortly after the V-gated Na+ channels open.
1QQ # 12 for 8:30 class
1. Which could cause a larger response in a post-synaptic cell?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Keep V-gated Ca++ channels open longer in the presynaptic cell
Very high frequency of action potentials in the presynpatic cell
Block the reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synpatic cleft
Enhance the reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft into
the presynaptic cell or astrocytes
e) Block the action of enzymes in the synpatic cleft that degrade
neurotransmitters.
2. Which are CORRECT concerning chemical synapses?
a) Chemical synapses are bi-directional.
b) Chemical synapses are ideally suited to synchronize the activity of many
cells.
c) Chemical synapses are far more common than electrical synapses in the
CNS of humans.
d) Chemical synapses depend upon the influx of Ca++ to release
neurotransmitters.
e) At a chemical synapse, the response of the post-synaptic cell is
invariable.
1QQ # 12 for 9:30 class
1. Which could cause a smaller response in a post-synaptic cell?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Keep V-gated Ca++ channels open longer in the presynaptic cell
Very high frequency of action potentials in the presynapatic cell
Increase the reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synapatic cleft
Enhance the reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft into
the presynaptic cell or astrocytes
e) Block the action of enzymes in the synapatic cleft that degrade
neurotransmitters.
2. Which are CORRECT concerning chemical synapses?
a) Chemical synapses are unidirectional.
b) Chemical synapses are ideally suited to synchronize the activity of many
cells.
c) Chemical synapses are far less common than electrical synapses in the
CNS of humans.
d) Chemical synapses depend upon the influx of Ca++ to release
neurotransmitters.
e) At a chemical synapse, the response of the post-synaptic cell is
invariable.
1QQ # 13 for 8:30 class
1. Which will activate muscarinic acetylcholine
receptors?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
acetylcholine
nicotine
muscarine
curare
atropine.
2. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Are metabotropic receptors.
Can be activated with nicotine.
Can be activated with acetylcholine.
Can be blocked with muscarine.
Can be activated with atropine.
1QQ # 14 for 8:30 class
1. Pain and temperature information
a)
b)
c)
d)
Is carried in the spinothalamic tract
Is carried in the dorsal column/medial lemniscal tract
Crosses (decussates) in the spinal cord
Is relayed to the somatosensory cortex via 3rd order neurons in the
thalamus
e) Is carried in the anterolateral tract.
2. Which are true of touch and proprioception pathways?
a) Second order neurons are located in the dorsal column nuclei
b) Axons of first order neurons travel in the spinothalamic tract
c) Axons of first order neurons decussate (cross the midline) in the spinal
cord
d) Axons of second order neurons travel in the medial lemniscus.
e) Axons of first order neurons ascend in the dorsal columns and synapse
onto second order neurons in the dorsal column nuclei.
1QQ # 13 for 9:30 class
1. Which will block muscarinic acetylcholine receptors?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
acetylcholine
nicotine
muscarine
curare
atropine.
2. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Are metabotropic receptors
Can be activated with nicotine
Can be activated with acetylcholine
Can be blocked with muscarine
Can be activated with atropine.
1QQ # 14 for 9:30 class
1. Pain and temperature information
a)
b)
c)
d)
Is carried in the anterolateral tract
Is carried in the dorsal column/medial lemniscal tract
Crosses (decussates) in the medulla
Is relayed to the somatosensory cortex via 3rd order neurons in the
thalamus
e) Is carried in the spinothalamic tract.
2. Which are true of touch and proprioception pathways?
a) First order neurons are located in the dorsal column nuclei
b) Axons of first order neurons travel in the spinothalamic tract
c) Axons of first order neurons decussate (cross the midline) in the spinal
cord
d) Axons of second order neurons travel in the medial lemniscus.
e) Axons of first order neurons ascend in the dorsal columns and synapse
onto second order neurons in the dorsal column nuclei.
1QQ # 15 for 8:30 class
1. Why would you insist that an epidural injection of
lidocaine not be given in the region of cervical
vertebra?
2. Describe the challenges that face neuroscientists who
wish to replace dying or damaged neurons in the brain
with cells donated from elsewhere.
3. You suspect that the neurons in Nucleus X are
communicating with their target cells by releasing NE
as their neurotransmitter. Describe an experiment
that would allow you to test your hypothesis.
4. Use your knowledge of cortical neuroanatomy to
explain why stroke victims very often have deficits
involving the face and hands.
1QQ # 15 for 9:30 class
1. Describe the challenges that face neuroscientists who
wish to replace dying or damaged neurons in the brain
with cells donated from elsewhere.
2. You suspect that the neurons in Nucleus Z are
communicating with their target cells by releasing ACh
as their neurotransmitter. Describe an experiment
that would allow you to test your hypothesis.
3. Use your knowledge of cortical neuroanatomy to
explain why stroke victims very often have deficits
involving the face and hands.
1QQ # 16 for 8:30 class
1. Which of the following are correct statements:
a) Most sympathetic postganglionic axons release NE.
b) Most parasympathetic postganglionic axons release ACh.
c) the urinary bladder will relax if exposed to ACh.
d) axons of parasympathetic neurons are found in thoracic and
lumbar spinal nerves.
e) NE and EPI can cause contraction of arterioles.
2. Which of the following are correct statements:
a) Most sympathetic preganglionic axons release NE.
b) Most parasympathetic postganglionic axons release ACh.
c) intestinal motility and secretion will increase as
parasympathetic activity increases.
d) The vagus nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the
rectum and urinary bladder.
e) Smooth muscles of arterioles have adrenergic and mucarinic
receptors.
1QQ # 16 for 9:30 class
1. Which of the following are correct statements:
a) Sympathetic preganglionic axons use NE as their
neurotransmitter.
b) Most parasympathetic postganglionic axons release ACh.
c) the urinary bladder will contract if exposed to NE.
d) Some cranial nerves have preganglionic sympathetic axons.
e) Smooth muscles and glands typically have adrenergic and
muscarinic receptors.
2. Which of the following are correct statements:
a) Most sympathetic preganglionic axons release NE.
b) Most parasympathetic postganglionic axons release ACh.
c) intestinal motility and secretion will increase as
parasympathetic activity increases.
d) The vagus nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the
rectum and urinary bladder.
e) Smooth muscles of arterioles have adrenergic and mucarinic
receptors.
1QQ # 17 for 8:30 class
1. Which of the following are correct statements:
a) The intensity of a stimulus is proportional to the size of the
graded potential in the receptive membrane.
b) The modality of a stimulus is encoded by which type or types
of sensory receptors are activated.
c) The intensity of a stimulus is encoded by the frequency of
action potentials.
d) Some ascending spinal neurons receive synaptic inputs from
more than one part of the body.
e) Each taste receptor cell has at least two different categories of
tastant receptor proteins.
2. What is the meaning of labeled line in the context of
sensory physiology?
1QQ # 17 for 9:30 class
1. Which of the following are correct statements:
a) The intensity of a stimulus is proportional to the size of the
generator potential.
b) The modality of a stimulus is encoded by which type or types
of sensory receptors are activated.
c) The intensity of a stimulus is encoded by the frequency of
graded potentials.
d) Some ascending spinal neurons receive synaptic inputs from
skin and internal organs.
e) Each hair receptor cell has mechanically-gated and voltagegated ion channels.
2. What is the meaning of the term “adequate stimulus”
and what is the adequate stimulus for a taste receptor
cell?
1QQ # 18 for 8:30 am
Four first-order sensory neurons with
receptive membranes at bottom.
A
B
C
D
1. If the stimulus is applied at the
black bar, which sensory neuron
will have the highest frequency of
action potentials and why?
2. If the stimulus is applied at the
black bar, which sensory neuron
will have the lowest frequency of
action potentials and why?
3. What happens at the region of
the membrane indicated by the
arrow?
Stimulus
Consider the four second-order sensory
neurons (A- D) across the top of the
diagram.
Assume there are interneurons
arranged in a typical pattern that
interconnects these neurons.
1QQ # 18 for
9:30 am
A
B
C
D
1. If the stimulus is applied at the
black bar, which 2nd order neuron
will have the highest frequency of
action potentials and why?
2. If the stimulus is applied at the
black bar, which 2nd order neuron
will have the lowest frequency of
action potentials and why?
Stimulus
1QQ # 19
Write a question that you were prepared to
answer today and provide the answer to that
question.
A more challenging/sophisticated/thoughtprovoking question with its correct answer
earns more points than a simple
memorization-type question.
1QQ # 20 for 8:30 section
Answer one question.
1. Which are characteristics of Slow-Oxidative myofibers?
a) Abundant capillaries nearby
b) ATP is hydrolyzed relatively quickly
c) Abundant glycogen
d) Abundant myoglobin
e) Belong to large motor units.
2. Name the three classes of skeletal myofibers and indicate which type is
best suited to serve as a postural muscle and why.
1QQ # 20 for 9:30 section
Answer one question.
1. Which are characteristics of glycolytic myofibers?
a) Abundant capillaries nearby
b) ATP is hydrolyzed relatively quickly
c) Abundant glycogen
d) Abundant myoglobin
e) Belong to large motor units.
2. Would a marathon runner benefit from supplementing with
creatine? Why or why not?
1QQ # 21 for 8:30 section
Answer one question.
1. Which are characteristics of cardiac myofibers?
a) Ca++ for excitation-contraction coupling originates from
intracellular and extracellular sources
b) Cardiac myofibers have a twitch duration longer than smooth myofibers.
c) Produce action potentials that allow the influx of Ca++ for more than 100 ms.
d) Conduct action potentials to neighboring cells via
gap junctions of intercalated disks
e) Produce tension in proportion to the amount of cytosolic Ca++.
2. What type of myofiber can enter a latch state and what are the advantages
of the latch state?
1QQ # 21 for 9:30 section
Answer one question.
1. Which are characteristics of multi-unit smooth myofibers?
a) Each myofiber is individually innervated by autonomic neurons
b) Can be excited or inhibited by somatic motoneurons
c) Often have pacemaker potentials that result in periodic contractions
d) Are found in the walls of small-diameter blood vessels
e) Belong to large motor units.
2. Which properties of smooth muscle cells make them much better suited for
their role in the walls of hollow organs than skeletal myofibers?
1QQ 27 for 8:30
• Beginning with a loss of 1 liter of blood,
diagram the sequence of events that leads to
a change in the frequency of action potentials
in baroreceptors. (No abbreviations allowed.)
1QQ 27 for 9:30
• Beginning with a loss of 1 liter of blood,
diagram the sequence of events that leads to
a change in the frequency of action potentials
in baroreceptors. (No abbreviations allowed.)
1QQ 28 for 8:30
1. What is the partial pressure of oxygen in
atmospheric air at sea level? What about in
the alveolus? What are these values not
identical?
2. Which has the highest partial pressure of
oxgyen and why: pulmonary arterial blood,
pulmonary venous blood, system arterial
blood?
3. How are bronchioles and arterioles similar?
1QQ 28 for 9:30
1. Inspiration is an “active” event whereas a
normal expiration is a “passive” event. What
does this mean in terms of muscle activity, and
what is responsible for expiration if muscles
aren’t contracting?
2. How would you calculate the partial pressure
of oxygen in the atmosphere at the summit of
Mt. Everest?
3. How are arterioles and bronchioles similar?
1QQ 29 for 8:30
1. For a given bronchopulmonary segment,
by what mechanism is blood flow (Q)
matched to air flow (V)?
2. What is the location and function of
goblet cells?
1QQ 29 for 9:30
1. Describe how a person’s ventilation would
be affected if he had a severely reduced
amount of cartilage in the wall of his
airways.
2. Suppose a region of the lung has very little
air flow (V). How is blood flow (Q) affected
to that region, and by what mechanism is
this accomplished?
3. What is a treatment for obstructive sleep
apnea?
1QQ 30 for 8:30
1. What would alveolar minute ventilation be
in a person who is breathing 10 breaths
per minute and has a typical tidal volume
and typical dead space volume? Show
your work.
2. Suppose a 25 year old man were unable to
produce sufficient levels of surfactant.
Would he have difficulty inhaling?
Exhaling? Why or why not?
1QQ 30 for 9:30
1. What would alveolar minute ventilation be
in a person who is breathing 20 breaths
per minute and has a typical tidal volume
and typical dead space volume? Show
your work.
2. Why do prematurely born infants have
difficulty inhaling but not exhaling?
1QQ 31 for 8:30
1. What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the
tissues surrounding systemic capillaries and list
three conditions lower the affinity of hemoglobin
for oxygen as it passes through these systemic
capillaries.
2. At what arterial partial pressure of oxygen does
ventilation steeply increase in response to further
drops in PO2. Why is this so?
3. Why aren’t the central chemoreceptors
stimulated by lactic acid when metabolism
increases?
1QQ 31 for 9:30
1. What is the partial pressure of oxygen in
the tissues surrounding systemic
capillaries and list three conditions lower
the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen as it
passes through these systemic capillaries.
2. At what arterial partial pressure of oxygen
does ventilation steeply increase in
response to further drops in PO2. Why is
this so?
3. What are the several roles of hemoglobin?
1QQ 32 for 8:30
1. What evidence indicates that the abrupt increase
in ventilation at the onset of exercise is not the
result of negative feedback?
2. Why is the negative feedback system more
sensitive to changes in PaCO2 than PaO2?
3. How is it that hyperventilating immediately before
diving allows a pearl diver to hold his breath for a
longer interval that he would otherwise be able
to?
1QQ 32 for 9:30
1. What evidence indicates that the abrupt increase
in ventilation at the cessation of exercise is not
the result of negative feedback?
2. Why is the negative feedback system more
sensitive to changes in PaCO2 than PaO2?
3. If a normal healthy resting person is breathing
ambient air at sea level and suddenly increases
minute ventilation from 7 L/ min to 10 L/min, what
would happen to their PaCO2 and PaO2?
1QQ 33 for 8:30
1. How does the composition of the ultrafiltrate in
Bowman’s space differ from plasma? If glucose
concentration in the plasma is 70 mg/ml, what
will the glucose concentration be in the
ultrafiltrate in Bowman’s space?
2. What is the location and role of macula densa
cells?
3. Which segments of the nephron are found in the
medulla?
4. What are two ways by which GFR can be
increased?
1QQ 33 for 9:30
1. How does the composition of the ultrafiltrate in
Bowman’s space differ from plasma? If glucose
concentration in the plasma is 100 mg/ml, what
will the glucose concentration be in the
ultrafiltrate in Bowman’s space?
2. What is the location and role of macula densa
cells?
3. Which segments of the nephron are found in the
medulla?
4. What are two ways by which GFR can be
decreased?