2. Solving Schrödinger’s Equation Superposition 2 i r, t 2 r, t V r, t r, t t 2m •Given a few solutions of Schrödinger’s equation, we can make more of them •Let 1 and 2 be two solutions of Schrödinger’s equation •Let c1 and c2 be any pair of complex numbers •Then the following is also a solution of Schrödinger’s equation r, t c11 r, t c2 r, t •We can generalize this to an arbitrary number of solutions: r, t cn n r, t n •We can even generalize to a continuum of solutions: r , t d c r , t 2A. The Free Schrödinger’s Equation We know a lot of solutions 2 •Consider the free Schrödinger equation: i r, t 2 r, t •We know a lot of solutions of this equation: t 2m 2 2 k ik r it r, t exp ik r i k 2t 2m r, t e 2m •By combining these, we can make a lot more solutions* d 3k 2 r, t c k exp i k r i k t 2m 3/2 2 •The function c(k) can be (almost) any function of k •This actually includes all possible solutions *The factor of (2)3/2 is arbitrary and inserted here for convenience. In 1D, it would be (2)1/2 We can (in principle) always solve this problem Goal: Given (r,t = 0) = (r), find (r,t) when no potential is present r, t •Set t = 0: d 3k 2 2 c k exp i k r i k t 2m 3/2 r d 3k 2 ik r c k e 3/2 •This just says that c(k) is the Fourier transform of (r) d 3r ik r c k k r e 3/2 2 •Substitute it in the formula above for (r,t) and we are done •Actually doing the integrals may be difficult Sample Problem A particle in one dimension with no potential has wave function at t = 0 given by x Nx exp 12 Ax 2 What is the wave function at arbitrary time? •Need 1D versions of these formulas: x, t c k dx x eikx 2 dk c k exp ikx i k 2t 2m 2 2 2 B B B Ax Bx From Appendix: x e dx exp 3/2 exp B A 4 A 2 A 4 A 2 ik N ik N 2 1 Find c(k): c k exp 1 x dx exp 3/2 2 Ax ikx 1 2 2 2 A 2 4 2 A 2 k2 Nik c k 3/2 exp A 2A Sample Problem (2) A particle in one dimension with no potential has wave function at t = 0 given by x Nx exp 12 Ax 2 What is the wave function at arbitrary time? k2 Nik c k 3/2 exp A 2A dk x, t c k exp ikx i k 2t 2m 2 2 2 B B Ax Bx xe dx 3/2 exp • Now find (x,t): 2 A 4 A k2 dk Nik 2 x, t exp exp ikx i k t 2m 3/2 2 A 2A Ni 2 1 i t 3/2 k dk exp k ikx A 2 2 A 2m Niix 1 i t 3/2 2 A 2 m 2A 2 3/2 2 Nx exp Ax 2 2 2iA t m ix exp 3/2 4 1 2 A i t 2m 1 iA t m 2B. The Time Independent Schrödinger Eqn. Separation of Variables •Suppose that the potential is independent of time: 2 i r, t 2 r, t V r r, t t 2m •Conjecture solutions of the form: r,t r t 2 d i r t t 2 r V r r t •Substitute it in dt 2m 2 i d 1 2 t r V r E •Divide by (r)(t) t dt 2m r •Left side is independent of r •Right side is independent of t •Both sides are independent of both! Must be a constant. Call it E Solving the time equation i d t E t dt 2 1 2 r V r E 2m r •The first equation is easy to solve i d ln t Edt •Integrate both sides i ln t Et t eiEt •By comparison with e-it, we see that E = is the energy •Substitute it back in: r, t r t r eiEt r,t r t The Time Independent Schrödinger Equation 2 1 2 r V r E 2m r •Multiply the other equation by (r) again: r, t r eiEt 2 2m 2 r V r r E r The Strategy for solving •Given a potential V(r) independent of time, what is most general solution of Schrödinger’s time-dependent equation? •First, solve Schrödinger’s time-independent equation •You should find many solutions n(r) with different energies En •Now just multiply by the phase factor •Then take linear combinations r, t cn n r eiEnt n •Later we’ll learn how to find cn Why is time-independent better? 2 i r, t 2 r, t V r, t r, t t 2m 2 2m 2 r V r r E r •Time-independent is one less variable – significantly easier •It is a real equation (in this case), which is less hassle to solve •If in one dimension, it reduces to an ordinary differential equation – These are much easier to solve, especially numerically 2 d2 x V x x E x 2 2m dx 2C. Probability current Probability Conservation * r , t r , t r, t r, t •Recall the probability density is: 2 •This can change as the wave function changes •Where does the probability “go” as it changes? – Does it “flow” just like electric charge does? •Want to show that the probability moves around •Ideally, show that it “flows” from place to place – A formula from E and M – can we make it like this? •To make things easier, let’s make all functions of space and time implicit, not write them i r, t 2 r, t V r, t r, t t 2m 2 r, t J r, t t 2 i 2 V t 2m The derivation (1) 2 •Start with Schrödinger’s equation i 2 V t 2m 2 •Multiply on the left by *: i * * 2 *V t 2m 2 •Take complex conjugate of this i * 2 * V * equation: t 2m 2 * * * 2 2 * i •Subtract: t t 2m •Rewrite first term as a total derivative •Cancel a factor of i •Left side is probability density i * * 2 2 * t 2m i * 2 2 * t 2m The derivation (2) i * 2 2 * t 2m •Consider the following expression: * * •Use product rule on the divergence AB A B A B * * * * * * * 2 2 * •Substitute this in above i * * t 2m •Define the probability current j: •Then we have: j t i j * * 2m Why is it called probability current? i j * * 2m •Integrate it over any volume V with surface S j t 3 3 r , t d r j r , t d r V V t •Left side is P(r V) •Use Gauss’s law on right side d P r V n j r, t dA S dt •Change in probability is due to current flowing out •If the wave function falls off at infinity (as it must) and the volume V becomes all of space, we have d P r anywhere 0 dt V j Calculating probability current i j * * 2m •This expression is best when doing proofs * •Note that you have a real number minus its complex conjugate A A 2i Im A •A quicker formula for calculation is: j Im * •Let’s find and j for a plane wave: m r, t N exp ik r it N exp ik r it N exp ik r it * j m m * Im * m N 2 Im N * exp ik r it N exp ik r it Im N * exp ik r it ikN exp ik r it N * N Im ik k N m m 2 k j m Sample Problem A particle in the 1D infinite square well has wave function x, t a 1/2 sin x a e i1t sin 2 x a e i2t For the region 0 < x < a. Find and j. * a 1 sin x a ei1t sin 2 x a ei2t sin x a e i1t sin 2 x a e i2t a 1 sin 2 x a sin 2 2 x a sin x a sin 2 x a ei2t i1t ei1t i2t 2 1 ei ei 2 cos a 1 sin 2 x a sin 2 2 x a 2sin x a sin 2 x a cos t Sample Problem (2) A particle in the 1D infinite square well has wave function x, t a 1/2 sin x a e i1t sin 2 x a e i2t For the region 0 < x < a. Find and j. j j Im * m Im sin x a ei1t ma * d 2 1 •In 1D: j Im m dx d sin 2 x a ei2t sin x a e i1t sin 2 x a e i2t dx i1t i2t i1t i2t Im sin x a e sin 2 x a e cos x a e 2 cos 2 x a e 2 ma sin x a cos x a 2sin 2 x a cos 2 x a Im 2 i1t i2t i2t i1t ma sin 2 x a cos x a e 2sin x a cos 2 x a e it it Im 2sin x a cos 2 x a e sin 2 x a cos x a e 2 ma Sample Problem (3) A particle in the 1D infinite square well has wave function x, t a 1/2 sin x a e i1t sin 2 x a e i2t j For the region 0 < x < a. Find and j. ma 2 Im 2sin x a cos 2 x a e it sin 2 x a cos x a eit sin t sin 2 x a cos x a 2sin x a cos 2 x a ma a •After some work … j 2 2 3 sin t sin x a 2 ma ma 2 j h 2D. Reflection from a Step Boundary The Case E > V0: Solutions in Each Region •A particle with energy E impacts a step-function barrier I from the left: incident 0 x 0 , 2 transmitted d 2 V x E V x reflected V0 x 0 . 2 II 2m dx Solve the equation in each of the regions 2 •Assume E > V0 2 2 d 2 k ikx E e E •Region I I 2 2m dx 2m 2 2 2 2 k ik x d II e •Region II E V0 E V0 2 2m 2m dx •Most general solution: ikx ikx x Ae Be I – A is incident wave – B is reflected wave II x Ceik x Deik x – C is transmitted wave – D is incoming wave from the right: set D = 0 Step with E > V0: The solution I Aeikx Beikx 2 2 k I k2 E V E 0 ik x incident 2m II Ce 2m transmitted reflected •Schrödinger’s equation: second derivative finite II •(x) and ’(x) must be continuous at x = 0 continuous A B C , continuous ikA ikB ik C ik A B k k A k k B k k k k A C 2k A B A C A B A k k k k k k 2 •We can’t normalize wave functions 2 •Use probability currents! j k m 2 jA k A m jB k B 2 jC k C 2 m m k k R jA k k jB 2 jC 4kk T j A k k 2 Summary: Step with E > V0 2 k2 E 2m k 2 E V0 2m k k R jA k k jB jC 4kk T j A k k 2 2 2 E E V0 R E E V 0 T 4 E E V0 E E V0 V0 I 2 incident reflected 2 8 9 E transmitted II Step with E < V0 •What if V0 > E? 2 2 ikx E k 2m I incident II •Region I same as before I e II e x V0 E 2 2 2m •Region II: we have evanescent reflected 2 d 2 V0 E 2 2m dx I x Aeikx Beikx •Most general solution: 2 2 – A is incident wave x x B II x Ce De ik R 2 – B is reflected wave ik A – C is damped “evanescent” wave – D is growing wave, can’t be normalized •(x) and ’(x) must be continuous at x = 0: R 1 continuous A B C , •No transmission since evanescent wave is damped continuous ikA ikB C A B ik T 0 ik A ik B B A ik Step Potential: All cases summarized •For V0 > E, all is reflected •Note that it penetrates, a little bit into the classically forbidden region, x > 0 •This suggests if barrier had finite thickness, some of it would bet through V0 2 E •Reflection probability: E E V 0 R E E V0 1 T R 2 if V0 E if V0 E V0 E T 1 R 2E. Quantum Tunneling Setting Up the Problem V(x) 0 x 12 d • Barrier of finite height and width: V x V0 1 • Solve the equation in each of the regions V0 x 2 d III II I • Particle impacts from left with E < V0 • General solution in all three regions: - d/2 + d/2 x ikx ikx x x ikx I x Ae Be II x Ce De III x Fe 2 2 k E , • Match and ’ at x = -d/2 and x = d/2 2m ikd 2 ikd 2 d 2 d 2 1 2 d : Ae Be Ce De 2 2 V0 E ikd 2 ikd 2 d 2 d 2 1 2 d : ik Ae Be Ce De 2m 12 d : Ce d 2 De d 2 Feikd 2 12 d : Ce d 2 De d 2 ikFeikd 2 • Solve for F in terms of A Why didn’t I include e-ikx in III? Why did I skip letter E? Skip this Slide – Solving for F in terms of A •Multiply 1 by ik and add to 2 •Multiply 3 by and add to 4 •Multiply 3 by and subtract 4 •Multiply 5 by 2 and substitute from 6 and 7 2 4ik Aeikd 2 ik Fe d eikd 2 ik Fe d eikd 2 2 2 k 2 e d e d Feikd 2 2 ik e d e d Feikd 2 1: Ae ikd 2 Beikd 2 Ce d 2 De d 2 2 : ik Ae ikd 2 Beikd 2 Ce d 2 De d 2 3 : Ce d 2 De d 2 Feikd 2 4 : Ce d 2 De d 2 ikFeikd 2 5: 2ikAeikd 2 ik Ce d 2 ik De d 2 6 : 2 Ce d 2 ik Feikd 2 7 : 2 De d 2 ik Feikd 2 2 Feikd 2 k 2 2 sinh d 2 ik cosh d 2ik eikd A F 2 k 2 sinh d 2ik cosh d Barrier Penetration Results 2ik eikd A F 2 2 k sinh d 2ik cosh d I x Aeikx Beikx III x Feikx 2 2 k2 E , V0 E 2m 2m 2 • We want to know transmission probability 2 jF F 4k 2 2 T 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 jA A k sinh d 4 k cosh d k 2 2 2 • For thick barriers, 4 E V0 E T 2 V0 sinh 2 d 4 E V0 E 4k 2 2 sinh 2 d 4k 2 2 sinh d • Exponential suppression of barrier penetration 1 2 e d e d 12 e d E E 2 d T 16 1 e V0 V0 Unbound and Bound State • For each of the following, we found solutions for any E – No potential – Step potential – Barrier • This is because we are dealing with unbound states, E > V() • Our wave functions were, in each case, not normalizable • Fixable by making superpositions: x, t dk c k k x exp i k 2t 2m • • • • • We will now consider bounds states These are when E < V() There will always only be discrete energy values And they can be normalized Usually easier to deal with real wave functions 2F. The Infinite Square Well Finding the Modes 2 d2 E V 2 2m dx 0 0 x a V x otherwise V(x) • Infinite potential implies wave function must vanish there x 0 x a 0 • • • • 0 a 2 2 d In the allowed region, Schrödinger’s equation is just E 2 2m dx The solution to this is simple: 2 2 k E A cos kx Bsin kx 2m Because potential is infinite, the derivative is not necessarily continuous But wave functions must still be continuous: 2 2 2 nx n B sin 0 0 A 0 E a 2ma 2 a 0 B sin ka 0 ka n x Normalizing Modes and Quantized Energies • We can normalize this wave function: 1 dx B 2 2 a 0 sin 2 nx a dx B 2 nx n x sin for 0 x a a a Bsin nx a 2 1 2 a En B 2 a 2 2 n2 2ma 2 • Note that we only get discrete energies in this case • Note that we can normalize these • Most general solution is then x, t cn n x e iEnt n 1 i 2 n2t 2 nx cn sin exp 2 a n1 a 2 ma The 3D Infinite Square Well 0 if 0 x a , 0 y b , 0 z c E V V x, y , z otherwise 2m 2 • In allowed region: E 2 2m • Guess solution: c nx x ny y nz z x, y, z N sin sin sin a b c • Normalize it: b a – This is product of 1D functions 2 2 8 nx x ny y nz z x, y, z sin sin sin abc a b c • Energy is – This is sum of 1D energies Enx ,ny ,nz 2 2 nx2 2ma 2 2 2 ny2 2mb 2 2 2 nz2 2mc 2 2G. The Double Delta-Function Potential Finding Bound States V x x a x a 1 2 1 2 -a/2 I • First, write out Schrödinger’s Equation: V(x) d2 1 1 E x x x a x 2 2 a x 2 2m dx 2 • Bound states have E < V() = 0 d2 E 2 • Within each region we have: 2m dx II a/2 III 2 e x E 2 2 2m • General solution (deleting the parts that blow up at infinity): I x Ae x II x Be x Ce x III x De x x Dealing with Delta Functions 2 d2 1 1 E x x x a x 2 2 a x 2 2m dx • To deal with the delta functions, integrate Schrödinger’s equation over a small region near the delta function: – For example, near x = +a/2 E a 2 a 2 x dx 2 a 2 2m a 2 V(x) -a/2 I II E a 2 III a 2 d2 1 1 x dx x a x 2 2 a x dx 2 a 2 dx • Do first term on right by fundamental theorem of calculus • Do second term on right by using the delta functions a 2 a/2 x dx 2 12 a 12 a 12 a 2m • Take the limit 0 – Left side small in this limit 0 2 12 a II 12 a 12 a III 2m Simplifying at x = ½a 12 a II 12 a III • Since there is a finite discontinuity in ’, must be continuous at this boundary III 12 a II 12 a 2m 2 12 a I On the right side of the equation above, is that I, II, or III? V(x) -a/2 II a/2 III I x Ae x II x Be x Ce x • Write these equation out De a 2 Be a 2 Ce a 2 III x De x explicitly: 2m a 2 De a 2 Ce a 2 Be a 2 • Substitute first into second: 2 De 2m 2 Be a 2 Ce a 2 2 Be a 2 Be a 2 Ce a 2 a 2 Be m 2 2 a C e 1 B m Repeating at x = – ½a 2 a C e 1 B m II 12 a I 12 a I 12 a II 12 a 2m 2 12 a I x Ae x II x Be x Ce x III x De x • Repeat the steps we did, this time Ae a 2 Be a 2 Ce a 2 at x = –½a 2m a 2 a 2 a 2 a 2 Ae Be Ce Ae • Note these 2 equations are 2 a nearly identical: 2m Be a 2 Ce a 2 2 Ce a 2 Be 1 C 2 m • The only numbers 2 equal to their a 2 a 2 a 2 Be Ce Ce reciprocal are 1 m 2 2 C B a e 1 1 1 e a B C m m Graphical Solution 2 • Right side is two curves, left side is a a 1 e straight line 2 2 m E 2m • Black line always crosses red curve, sometimes crosses green curve, depending on parameters – Sometimes two solutions, sometimes one • Normalize to finish the problem • Note one solution symmetric, one anti-symmetric Right side, plus Right side, minus Left side