Prior Unit Exam Multiple-Choice Questions
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Emergency Medicine
1. What is the purpose of Good Samaritan Laws?
A. To help protect people who voluntarily give care without accepting anything in return
B. To discourage people from helping others in an emergency situation
C. To protect people who give care beyond their level of training
D. None of the above
2. What should you do if the person does not give consent?
A. do not give care but instead call 911
B. give care and call 911
C. give care but do not call 911
D. None of the above
3. The steps to follow in an emergency are:
A. Call--Check--Secure
B. Care--Call--Check
C. Check--Call--Care
D. Check--Care--Defibrillate
4. For which injury or illness should you call 911?
A. The person has a cough and runny nose
B. The person has a stomachache that goes away
C. The person has an earache
D. The person has trouble breathing
5. All of the following are indications that an emergency has occurred except:
A. Breaking glass or screeching tires
B. Children playing and laughing
C. Screaming and moaning
D. Strong odors
6. By following standard precautions to protect yourself and the injured or ill person, you can:
A. Increase the risk of disease transmission
B. Minimize the risk of disease transmission
C. Reduce the number of times you need to wear gloves
D. None of the above
7. What should you do when checking a conscious person?
A. Ask questions
B. Do not touch or move painful, injured areas on the body
C. Get consent to give care
D. All of the above
8. About how many seconds should you check for breathing?
A. No more than 5 seconds
B. No more than 10 seconds
C. No more than 15 seconds
D. No more than 20 seconds
9. You see a woman collapse in front of you while entering the lobby of your office building. You check the scene and
then check the person for consciousness, but she does not respond. What should you do next?
A. Call or have someone call 911
B. Check for breathing
C. Drive the person to the hospital
D. Give 2 rescue breaths
10. You determine that a person may be in shock. Do each of the following except:
A. Give the person water
B. Have the person lie down
C. Keep the person from getting chilled or overheated
D. Monitor the person's condition
11. A woman burned her hand in the lunchroom. You should:
A. cool the burn with large amounts fo fresh running water
B. cover the burn loosely with a dry, sterile dressing
C. remove her from the source of the burn
D. all of the above
12. Which type of injury involves an open wound in which the bone has torn through the skin?
A. Dislocation
B. Open fracture
C. Sprain
D. Strain
13. The general care for a muscle, bone or joint injury includes the following:
A. reduce, insulate, compress and evaluate
B. rest, ibuprofen, cool and evacuate
C. rest , immobilize, cold and elevate
D. none of the above
14. When caring for a person who is having a seizure, you should:
A. place a spoon or wallet between the person's teeth
B. remove nearby objects that could cause injury
C. try to hold the person still
D. all of the above
15. What sudden illness is usually caused by a blockage of blood flow to the brain?
A. diabetic emergency
B. heat related illness
C. heart attack
D. stroke
16. This sudden illness results from too much or too little sugar in the person blood.
A. allergic reaction
B. diabetic emergency
C. seizure
D. stroke
17. Care for a person with heat exhaustion includes the following:
A. Force the person to quickly drink a lot of water
B. Get the person out of the heat and into a cooler place
C. Put more layers of clothing on the person at protection against the heat
D. All of the above
18. Heat-related illnesses include the following:
A. fainting and hyperglycemia
B. heat cramps, heat exhaustion and heat stroke
C. heat cramps, stroke and insulin shock
D. hypoglycemia and sunstroke
19. How should you care for someone with minor frostbite on the fingers?
A. Get the person to a warm environment and then rewarm his or her hands using skin-to-skin contact
B. Have the person shake his or her hands vigorously until feeling is restored
C. Immerse his or her hands in hot water
D. Massage his or her hands vigorously
20. What is the first step in caring for a wound with significant bleeding?
A. Add bulky dressings to reinforce blood-soaked bandages.
B. Apply direct pressure with a sterile or clean dressing
C. Apply pressure at a pressure point
D. Care for shock
21. If an open wound continues to bleed after applying direct pressure:
A. Add additional dressings and continue to apply direct pressure
B. Do not remove any blood-soaked dressings
C. Ensure that 911 has been called
D. All of the above
22. How do you care for a person with a possible head, neck or spinal injury?
A. Move the injured area so that it rests above the person's heart.
B. Move the person into a comfortable position as soon as possible.
C. Support the head in the position you find it. Do not try to align it.
D. None of the above
23. In stroke recognition, FAST means:
A. Face, arm, speech and time
B. Feet, airway, speech and temperature
C. Fever, anxiety, stress and taste
D. Flexibility, asthma, and sudden tightness in the chest
24. A young woman is having trouble breathing and based on your check of the person, you suspect that she is having a
severe allergic reaction to a bee sting. What should you do?
A. After about 15 minutes, call 911
B. Call 911 immediately and care for the person until EMS personnel take over
C. Give the person a cool drink
D. Give the person abdominal thrusts
25. What is a common signal of sudden illness?
A. changes in level of consciousness
B. loss of vision or blurred vision
C. signals of shock
D. all of the above
26. When should you initially ensure that the scene is safe?
A. After I activate the emergency response system
B. After an AED attached to the victim delivers the shock
C. As emergency medical services arrive on the scene
D. When I first see a potential victim
27. Which victim requires CPR?
A. A victim who is unresponsive with no normal breathing and no pulse
B. A victim who is unresponsive but is breathing adequately
C. A victim with a pulse who is having trouble breathing
D. A victim with chest pain and indigestion
28. What is the best way to open the airway of an unresponsive victim with no suspected neck injury?
A. Use the tongue lift--finger sweep
B. Use the head tilt--chin lift
C. Use the head tilt only
D. Use a mask
29. What is the maximum amount of time you should take to check for a pulse?
A. 25 seconds
B. 20 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 10 seconds
30. Which of the following devices or techniques is not recommended for a single rescuer to provide breaths during
CPR?
A. Bag-mask device
B. Mouth-to-barrier device
C. Mouth-to-mask technique
D. Mouth-to-mouth technique
31. What is the recommended depth of chest compressions for an adult victim?
A. At least 1 inch (2.5 cm)
B. At least 2 inches (5 cm)
C. At least 3 inches (7.5 cm)
D. At least 4 inches (10 cm)
32. What should you do when a child victim has a pulse of more than 60/min but is not breathing?
A. Give breaths and chest compressions.
B. Give breaths without chest compressions.
C. Give chest compressions without breaths.
D. Use the AED with child pads.
33. What is the compression-ventilation ratio for 1-rescuer adult CPR?
A. 5:1
B. 15:2
C. 20:2
D. 30:2
34. Why is it important to compress to the appropriate depth during CPR?
A. Adequate depth of compression is needed to create blood flow during compressions.
B. Adequate depth of compression is needed to create air flow into the lungs and adequate oxygenation.
C. Adequate depth of compression is needed to prolong asystole.
D. Adequate dept of chest compression is needed to stimulate spontaneous respirations.
35. What is the recommended rate for performing chest compressions for victims of all ages?
A. At least 40 compressions per minute
B. At least 60 compressions per minute
C. At least 80 compressions per minute
D. At least 100 compressions per minute
36. Which of the following is recommended to minimize the risk of air entering the victim’s stomach (gastric inflation)
during bag-mask ventilation?
A. Give breaths as quickly as you can
B. Give each breath over several seconds
C. Give the largest breaths that you can
D. Give a breath just until you see the chest rise
37. Which of the following statements is true about using an AED for a child less than 8 years of age?
A. Adult pads may be used, but they should be cut in half before application.
B. Adult pads/dose may be used if pediatric pads/dose attenuator are not available.
C. Only 1 adult pad should be used.
D. Infant pads may be used if pediatric pads are not available.
38. What are the correct compression and ventilation rates for 2-rescuer CPR in the presence of an advanced airway in
an adult victim?
A. Compress at a rate of at least 100 per minute, with 1 breath every 6 to 8 seconds.
B. Compress at a rate of at least 60 per minute, with 1 breath every 6 to 8 seconds.
C. Compress at a rate of at least 100 per minute, with 2 breaths every 5 to 10 seconds.
D. Compress at a rate of at least 60 per minute, with 1 breath every 5 to 10 seconds.
39. During 2-rescuer CPR, one rescuer provides chest compressions. What is the role of the second rescuer?
A. Count compressions aloud.
B. Check for a pulse during compressions.
C. Do nothing until the first rescuer needs relief.
D. Maintain an open airway and give breaths.
40. As soon as an AED becomes available, which of the following is the first step you should perform to operate the
AED?
A. Deliver 2 rescue breaths before using the AED.
B. Complete 5 cycles of chest compressions.
C. Place the AED pads on the chest.
D. Turn on the AED.
41. Where should you place your hands to perform chest compressions on an adult?
A. On the upper portion of the abdomen
B. In the center of the breastbone
C. On the lower half of the breastbone
D. On the upper half of the breastbone
42. What should you do after the AED delivers a shock?
A. Immediately check the carotid pulse for no more than 10 seconds.
B. Immediately restart CPR, beginning with chest compressions.
C. Wait for the AED to reanalyze the rhythm.
D. Provide 2 breaths to the victim.
43. If a victim of foreign-body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive, after you send someone to activate the
emergency response system, what is the next recommended action?
A. Call the victim's doctor.
B. Perform abdominal thrusts.
C. Perform blind finger sweeps.
D. Start CPR, beginning with compressions.
44. What is the compression-ventilation ratio for 2-rescuer child CPR?
A. 5:1
B. 15:2
C. 20:2
D. 30:2
45. What should you do when administering breaths by using a bag-mask device for a child who is not breathing but
does have a pulse?
A. Give breaths at a rate of 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds.
B. Position the child on his or her stomach.
C. Squeeze the bag as often as possible.
D. Avoid performing a head tilt.
46. What is the recommended depth of compressions for an infant victim?
A. At least one fourth the depth of the chest, approximately 1 inch (2.5 cm)
B. At least one third the depth of the chest, approximately 1.5 inches (4 cm)
C. At least one half the depth of the chest, approximately 2 inches (5 cm)
D. At least two thirds the depth of the chest, approximately 3 inches (8 cm)
47. What should you observe when trying to determine if rescue breaths for an infant victim are effective?
A. Visible rise of the stomach with each rescue breath
B. Visible rise of the chest with each rescue breath
C. Complete compression of the ventilation bag
D. Air leaking around the ventilation mask
48. What is the compression-ventilation ratio for 2-rescuer infant CPR?
A. 5:1
B. 15:2
C. 20:2
D. 30:2
49. What is the preferred technique for providing chest compressions during 2-rescuer CPR for an infant?
A. The 2 thumb–encircling hands technique
B. The 2-finger technique
C. The 1-hand technique
D. The 2-hand technique
50. What is the best action to relieve severe choking in a responsive infant?
A. Kneel behind the infant and perform abdominal thrusts (perform the Heimlich maneuver).
B. Give 2 breaths, repositioning the airway after each breath.
C. Begin cycles of 5 back slaps, followed by 5 chest thrusts.
D. Start CPR immediately.
The Toe and Foot
1. A "Runner's Bump" or "Pump Bump" is an injury to what type of anatomical structure?
A. Ligament
B. Tendon
C. Bursa
D. Bone
E. None of the above
2. The MOST common MOI for an ingrown toenail is
A. stubbing the toe
B. the toe repeatedly hitting the end of the shoe
C. a traumatic blow atop the toe
D. improper cutting of the toenail
E. none of the above
3. Hammer toe involves what joint(s)?
Not mallet toe, not claw toe....HAMMER toes. Does this help?
A. PIP and DIP
B. MP, PIP and DIP
C. DIP
D. PIP
E. MP and DIP
4. How can you best prevent getting tinea pedis?
A. Use antifungal medications like creams and powders
B. Wear sandals or flip flops in public areas like locker rooms and ATR's
C. Wear shoes that are not made of synthetic materials
D. See a doctor
E. Determine whether you are genetically immune or not
5. Which of the following injuries can be both acute AND overuse in its MOI?
A. Subungual hematoma
B. Turf toe
C. Jones Fracture
D. Retrocalcaneal bursitis
E. Morton's Neuroma
6. This fracture is a stress fracture of a metatarsal.
A. Jones fracture
B. Smith fracture
C. March fracture
D. Avulsion fracture
E. Reed fracture
7. Proper biomechanics of the foot are critical to an athlete because
A. the arches help absorb shock.
B. it is an important lever that allows the body to be propelled forward.
C. poor biomechanics can lead to injuries in other areas of the body.
D. A and B only
E. All of the above
The Ankle and Lower Leg
1. The tissue surrounding long bones to which muscles typically attach.
A. Fascia
B. Periosteum
C. Syndesmosis
D. Interosseous Membrane
2. This is a very palpable structure on the lateral aspect of the lower leg, just inferior to the knee joint.
A. Tibial Tuberosity
B. Tibial Plateau
C. Fibular Head
D. Lateral Malleolous
3. Which of the following is NOT a lateral ankle ligament?
A. Anterior Talofibular Ligament
B. Anterior Tibiofibular Ligament
C. Posterior Talofibular Ligament
D. Calcaneofibular Ligament
4. The muscle most frequently responsible for causing shin splints, particularly those occurring more laterally, is the:
A. Gastrocnemius
B. Soleous
C. Posterior Tibialis
D. Anterior Tibialis
E. Peroneous Longus
5. A condition resulting from a direct blow to the lower leg, resulting in immediate swelling and an increase in pressure
within the lower leg, requiring a 911 call to transport the patient.
A. Acute compartment syndrome
B. Exercise-induced compartment syndrome
C. A contusion
D. A fibular fracture
E. None of the above would require a 911 call
6. If a stress fx is suspected in an athlete, what type of imaging would be most effective in detecting the fracture?
A. X-ray
B. MRI
C. Bone scan
D. CT scan
E. Stress fx cannot be imaged
7. An athlete comes to you c/o pn in their lower leg when they workout. P the workout their pn subsides and it does not
hurt as much to walk around. They seem to be tender to palpation about the tibial ridge. They have pn and weakness in
dorsiflexion when you manually muscle test them. All other actions actively, passively or resistively appear to be norm.
What is likely their injury?
A. Medial Tibial Stress Syndrome
B. Exercise-Induced Compartment Syndrome
C. Acute Compartment Syndrome
D. Achilles Tendonities
E. None of the Above
8. Which of the following bones is a non-weight bearing bone?
A. Tibia
B. Tibula
C. Fibula
D. Fibia
E. Talus
9. The gastrocnemius muscle is primarily responsible for what action in the ankle?
A. Dorsiflexion
B. Plantarflexion
C. Inversion
D. Eversion
E. Supination
10. If you wanted to stress the ATF ligament, you would perform which special test?
A. Anterior Drawer Test
B. Posterior Drawer Test
C. Heel Strike Test
D. Leg Squeeze Test