FP2
Last modified: 19 th January 2016
Differential equations are equations which relate π₯ and π¦ with derivatives. e.g.
The rate of temperature loss is proportional to the current temperature.
ππ ππ‘
= −ππ
The rate of population change is
π proportional to π 1 − where π is
π the current population and π is the limiting size of the population
(the Verhulst-Pearl Model) ππ ππ‘
π
= ππ 1 −
π
Suppose π₯ is GDP (Gross Domestic Product).
Rate of change of GDP is proportional to current GDP.
ππ₯
= ππ₯ ππ‘
As you might imagine, they’re used a lot in physics and engineering, including modelling radioactive decay, mixing fluids, cooling materials and bodies falling under gravity against resistance.
A ‘first order’ differential equation means the equation contains the first derivative ( ππ¦ ππ₯ second derivative or beyond.
) but not the
π₯ and π¦ are said to be ‘separated’ because they are not mixed in the same expression.
ππ¦ ππ₯
1 ππ¦
= π π₯ π π¦
1 ππ₯ π π¦
1 ππ¦ = π π₯ ππ₯ π π¦ ππ¦ = π π₯ ππ₯
Divide through by π(π¦) and times through by ππ₯ .
Slap and integral symbol on the front!
Find general solutions to ππ¦ ππ₯
= 2 π¦ = 2π₯ + πΆ
Find general solutions to ππ¦ ππ₯ π₯
= − π¦
π¦ ππ¦ = −π₯ ππ₯
1
2 π₯ 2 π¦ 2 = −
+ π¦ 2
?
1 π₯ 2
2
= 2πΆ
+ πΆ
If we let π 2 π₯ 2
= 2πΆ , we get
+ π¦ 2 = π 2
Why is it called the general solution?
We have a ‘family’ of solutions as the
?
π¦
So the ‘family of circles’ satisfies this differential equation.
π₯
Find general solutions to ππ¦ ππ₯
= π₯π¦ + π₯ ππ¦
= π₯ π¦ + 1 ππ₯
1 ππ¦ = π₯ ππ₯ π¦ + 1
?
ln π¦ + 1 =
1
2 π₯
2
+ πΆ
1 1 π¦ + 1 = π 2π₯
2
+πΆ
= π 2π₯
2 π
= π΄π where π΄ = π πΆ
1
2π₯
2
πΆ
Find general solutions to ππ¦ ππ₯
= − π¦ π₯
1 π¦ ππ¦ = −
1 ππ₯ π₯ ln |π¦| = − ln π₯ + πΆ ln π₯ + ln |π¦| = πΆ
?
|π₯π¦| = π πΆ = π΄
π΄ π¦ = ± π₯
(a family of rectangular hyperbolae)
Just like at the end of C1 integration, we can fix to one particular solution if we give some conditions.
Find the particular solutions for ππ₯ ππ‘ π₯ = 9 when π‘ = 0 .
= π₯ which satisfy the initial conditions
π₯
−
1
2 ππ₯ = 1 ππ¦
2π₯
1
2 = π‘ + π
2 π₯ = π‘ + π
2 3 = 0 + π → π = 6
2 π₯ = π‘ + 6
2 π‘ + 6 π₯ =
2
= π‘ + 6
4
2
?
Some people (including myself) like to sub in as soon as possible before rearranging.
We will see in a bit how to solve equations of the form ππ¦
+ ππ¦ = π (where π and π ππ₯ are functions of π₯ ). We’ll practice a particular part of this method before going for the full whack.
Find general solutions of the equation π₯
3 ππ¦ ππ₯
+ 3π₯
2 π¦ = sin π₯
We can’t separate the variables. But do you notice anything about the LHS?
π
It’s π π
(π ?
π π) !
Quickfire Questions: π ππ₯ π ππ₯ π₯ 2 π¦ = π π π π π π π¦ sin π₯ = π¬π’π§ π π π π π
?
+ π ππ¨π¬ π
So it appears whatever term ends up on front of the ππ¦ ππ₯ in the integral.
will be on the front of the π¦ π₯ π
4 π₯ ππ¦ ππ₯ ππ¦ ππ₯ ln π₯
+ 4π₯ 3 π¦ → π π π π
+ π ππ¦ ππ₯ π₯
+ π¦ → π¦ π₯
→ π π π π π π
?
π π π ?
π π
Find general solutions of the equation π₯
3 ππ¦ ππ₯
+ 3π₯
2 π¦ = sin π₯ π ππ₯ π₯ 3 π₯ 3 π¦ = sin π₯ π¦ =
πΆ − cos π₯ π₯ 3
Find general solutions of the equation
4π₯π¦ ππ¦
+ 2π¦ 2 = π₯ 2 ππ₯
Find general solutions of the equation
1 ππ¦
−
1 π¦ = π π₯ π₯ ππ₯ π₯ 2 π π¦
?
= π π₯ ππ₯ π¦ π₯
= π π₯ π₯ π¦ = π₯(π
+ πΆ π₯ + πΆ) π ππ₯
2π₯π¦
2
2π₯π¦ 2
=
1
3 π₯
?
= π₯
3
2
+ πΆ
…
But what if we can’t use the product rule backwards?
Find the general solution of ππ¦ ππ₯
− 4π¦ = π π₯
We can multiply through by the integrating factor π π· π π
. This then produces an equation where we can use the previous reverse-product-rule trick (we’ll prove this in a sec).
πΌ. πΉ. = π −4 ππ₯ −4π₯
Then multiplying through by the integrating factor: π −4π₯ ππ¦
− 4π −4π₯ ?
π¦ = π −3π₯ ππ₯
Then we can solve in the usual way: π π¦π ππ₯
−4π₯ π¦π
−4π₯ π¦ = −
1
3 π π₯
= π
−3π₯
= −
1
3 π
?
−3π₯
+ πΆπ
4π₯
+ π
Solve the general equation ππ¦ ππ₯ functions of π₯ .
+ ππ¦ = π , where π, π are
Suppose π(π₯) is the Integrating Factor. As usual we’d multiply by it: ππ¦ π π₯ + π π₯ ππ¦ = π π₯ π ππ₯
If we can use the reverse product rule trick on the LHS, then it would be of the form: π π₯ π ′ ππ¦ ?
ππ₯
Thus comparing the coefficients of the two LHSs:
?
′ π₯ π¦ π₯ = π π₯ π
Dividing by π(π₯) and integrating: π ′ π₯ π π₯ ππ₯ = π ππ₯ ln π π₯
?
π π₯ = π
π ππ₯
Find the general solution of cos π₯ ππ¦ ππ₯
+ 2π¦ sin π₯ = cos 4 π₯
What shall we do first so that we have an equation like before?
ππ¦
+ 2π¦ tan π₯ = cos
3 π₯ ππ₯
?
πΌπΉ = π
2tan π₯ ππ₯
= π = π ln sec
2 sec π
2 π₯ ππ¦ ππ₯ π¦ sec ππ₯ π¦ sec 2
2
+ 2π¦ sec 2 π₯ = sin π₯ + π π₯ tan π₯ = cos π₯ π₯ = cos π₯
?
π¦ = cos π₯ sin π₯ + π
?
π₯
= sec
2 π₯
You could skip to here provided you don’t forget to multiply the
RHS by the IF.
STEP 1: Divide by anything on front of ππ¦/ππ₯
STEP 2: Determine IF
STEP 3: Multiply through by IF and use product rule backwards.
STEP 4: Integrate and simplify.
FP2 June 2011 Q3
Find the general solution of the differential equation ππ¦ π₯ + 5π¦ = ln π₯
, π₯ > 0 ππ₯ π₯
?
Sometimes making a substitution will turn a more complex differential equation into one like we’ve seen before.
Use the substitution π§ = π¦ π₯ to transform the differential equation ππ¦ ππ₯
= π₯
2
+3π¦
2
2π₯π¦
, π₯ > 0 into a differential equation in π§ and π₯ . By first solving this new equation, find the general solution of the original equation, giving π¦
2 in terms of π₯ .
Make π¦ the subject so that we can find ππ¦ ππ₯ and sub π¦ out.
π§ = ππ¦ ππ₯ ππ§ π₯ π¦ π₯
= π₯ ππ₯ ππ§ π₯ = ππ₯
2π§
1 + π§ 2
→ π¦ = π₯π§ ππ§ ππ₯
+ π§ =
1
2π§
+ π§
+ π₯ 2
1
2
2π₯ 2
?
+ 3π₯ π§ = ππ§ =
1 π₯
?
?
2 π§
2π§ ππ₯
2 π§
1 + π§
=
2
…
1 + π§ π¦
2
2
= π₯
2
= π΄π₯
π΄π₯ − 1 ?
1
2π§
+
3
2 π§ Sub in π¦ and ππ¦ ππ₯
Simplify to either get ππ§ ππ₯ ππ§
= π π₯ π π§ or ππ₯
+ ππ§ = π
Sub back π¦ in at the end.
Use the substitution π§ = π¦ −1 to transform the differential equation ππ¦
+ π₯π¦ = π₯π¦ 2
, into ππ₯ a differential equation in π§ and π₯ . Find the general solution using an integrating factor.
π¦ = ππ¦
1
− ππ§ π§ 2 ππ₯
+
− π₯π§ = −π₯ ππ₯
1
, π§ ππ§ π₯ ππ₯
= π§
πΌπΉ = π
−π₯ ππ₯ π π§π π§π ππ₯
−
1
2π₯
2
−
1
2π₯
2
= π
−
1
2π₯
2
= − π₯ π§ 2
+ π π§
1
2
−
1
= π
?
2π₯
= −π₯π
2
−
1
2π₯ ππ§ ππ₯
2
1
2π₯
2 π§ = 1 + ππ
1 π¦ =
1 + ππ
1
2 π₯ 2
The π₯ and π§ are separable here
(but factorising out π₯ ), so we could have done without an IF.
FP2 June 2012 Q7
(a) Show that the substitution π¦ = π£π₯ transforms the differential equation
3π₯π¦ 2 ππ¦
= π₯ 3 πΌ ππ₯
+ π¦ 3 into the differential equation
3π£ 2 π₯ ππ£
= 1 − 2π£ 3 πΌπΌ ππ₯
(b) By solving differential equation (II), find a general solution of differential equation (I) in the form π¦ = π π₯ .
(c) Given that π¦ = 2 at π₯ = 1 , find the value of ππ¦ ππ₯ at π₯ = 1 .
a ?
b ?
c ?