CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
CHAPTER 1 EXAM
1
2
3
4
5
6
CCNA4
Which Cisco IOS function can be configured at the distribution layer to filter unwanted traffic
and provide traffic management?
• virus protection
• spyware protection
• VPNs
• access control lists
What are three ways to ensure that an unwanted user does not connect to a wireless network
and view the data?
• Disable SSID broadcasting.
• Configure filters to restrict IP addresses.
• Use authentication between clients and the wireless device.
• Use NetBIOS name filtering between clients and the wireless device.
• Configure strong encryption such as WPA.
• Use a WEP compression method.
Refer to the exhibit. The server broadcasts an ARP request for the MAC address of its default
gateway. If STP is not enabled, what is the result of this ARP request?
• Router_1 contains the broadcast and replies with the MAC address of the next-hop
router.
• Switch_A replies with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
• Switch_A and Switch_B continuously flood the message onto the network.
• Switch_B forwards the broadcast request and replies with the Router_1 address.
Which statement is true about a DMZ in a traditional network firewall design?
• A DMZ is designed to provide service for external access but not for internal access.
• Servers in the DMZ provide limited information that can be accessed from external
networks.
• User access to the DMZ from the Internet and the internal network usually is treated
the same way.
• All servers in the enterprise network should be located in a DMZ because of
enhanced security measures.
The ability to connect securely to a private network over a public network is provided by which
WAN technology?
• DSL
• Frame Relay
• ISDN
• PSTN
• VPN
What address can be used to summarize only networks 172.16.0.0/24, 172.16.1.0/24,
172.16.2.0/24, and 172.16.3.0/24?
• 172.16.0.0/21
• 172.16.0.0/22
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.248
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.254.0
Page 1
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
7
8
9
10
11
12
CCNA4
Centralizing servers in a data center server farm can provide which benefit over a distributed
server environment?
• It keeps client-to-server traffic local to a single subnet.
• Servers located in a data center require less bandwidth.
• It is easier to filter and prioritize traffic to and from the data center.
• Server farms are not subject to denial of service attacks.
Which two considerations are valid when designing access layer security?(Choose two.)
• In a large wireless network, the most efficient method to secure the WLAN is MAC
address filtering.
• DoS attacks are normally launched against end-user PCs and can be mitigated by
installing personal firewalls on all company PCs.
• SSH is more secure than Telnet to administer network devices.
• Disabling unused ports on the switches helps prevent unauthorized access to the
network.
• All Telnet passwords are at least 6 characters long.
Which three functions are performed at the distribution layer of the hierarchical network
model? (Choose three.)
• summarizing routes from the access layer
• allowing end users to access the local network
• providing the gateway of last resort for core layer devices
• preserving bandwidth at the access layer by filtering network functions
• isolating network problems to prevent them from affecting the core layer
• utilizing redundant links for load balancing to increase available bandwidth
A network designer is creating a new network. The design must offer enough redundancy to
provide protection against a single link or device failure, yet must not be too complex or
expensive to implement. What topology would fill these needs?
• star
• full mesh
• partial mesh
• extended star
• hub and spoke
Which two items in a physical WLAN design can be identified through a site survey?
• the types of antennas that are required
• the encryption techniques that are required
• the access point hardware that is required
• the different levels of access that are required
• the connection reliability that is required
What kind of ACL inspects outbound UDP, TCP, and ICMP traffic and allows inbound access
only to traffic that belongs to these established sessions?
• dynamic ACL
• time-based ACL
• reflexive ACL
• lock and key ACL
Page 2
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
CCNA4
Which three statements describe the functions of the Cisco hierarchical network design
model? (Choose three.)
• Route summarization is not necessary at the core and distribution layers.
• The distribution layer is responsible for traffic filtering and isolating failures from
the core.
• Two goals of the core layer are 100 percent uptime and maximizing throughput.
• The access layer provides a means of connecting end devices to the network.
• The distribution layer distributes network traffic directly to end users.
• The core layer usually employs a star topology.
Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the ACL shown have on network traffic, assuming that it
is correctly applied to the interface?
• All traffic to network 172.16.0.0 is denied.
• All TCP traffic is denied to and from network 172.16.0.0.
• All Telnet traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination is denied.
• All port 23 traffic to the 172.16.0.0 network is denied.
• All traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network is denied to any other network.
What are two best practices in wireless LAN design to ensure secure wireless access to the
corporate network?
• Configure APs for broadcast SSID.
• Place APs as far apart as possible.
• Use a separate WLAN for employees.
• Configure WPA.
• Use wireless routers in all IDFs.
Which two statements are true regarding network convergence? (Choose two.)
• In a large network, using the EIGRP or OSPF routing protocols rather than RIPv2
may improve convergence time. • Using STP at the core layer improves convergence
time by allowing the use of redundant links between devices.
• Route summarization improves convergence time by minimizing the size of the
routing table.
• A full mesh topology improves convergence time by allowing load balancing.
• ACLs can be configured to improve convergence time.
What are two mechanisms that provide redundancy for server farm implementations?
• host intrusion prevention systems
• virtual private networks
• network intrusion prevention systems
• Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
• Hot Standby Routing Protocol
Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?
• Frames from Host 1 are dropped, but no other action is taken.
• Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down, and a log message is sent.
• Frames from Host 1 are forwarded, but a log message is sent.
• Frames from Host 1 are forwarded, and the mac-address table is updated.
What is true about implementing a centralized server farm topology?
• requires direct cabling from the MPOE to enhance the performance of servers
• requires the addition of high-capacity switches to each workgroup
• provides defined entry and exit points so that filtering and securing traffic is easier
• allows for placement of workgroup servers at the access layer
Page 3
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
20
21
22
23
24
25
CCNA4
Refer to the exhibit. If the firewall module has been correctly configured using best practices
for network security, which statement is true about the security design for the network?
• Servers in the network are not protected from internal attacks.
• Servers in the DMZ are protected from internal and external attacks.
• Servers in the server farm are protected from internal and external attacks.
• Traffic from the external networks is not able to access the servers in the DMZ.
The network administrator is designing network connectivity for a home teleworker. The
teleworker needs secure access to download and upload documents on the network file
server. What network connection would be most cost efficient while still meeting the security
and connectivity needs of this teleworker?
dedicated leased line connection with a dialup backup link
• Frame Relay connection with a DSL backup link
• DSL VPN connection with a dialup backup link
• ATM connection with a DSL VPN backup link
• DSL connection with no backup link
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements correctly describe the benefits of the network
access layer design that is shown?
• If host A sends a broadcast message, only hosts in VLAN10 receive the broadcast
frame.
• If host A attempts to transmit data at the same time as another host, only hosts in
VLAN10 are affected by the collision.
• Segmenting all voice traffic on a separate VLAN facilitates the implementation of
QoS.
• VLANs improve network performance by facilitating the use of route summarization.
• VLANs at the access layer help guarantee network availability by facilitating load
balancing.
In a well-designed, high-availability network, which device significantly affects the most users
if a failure occurs?
• desktop PC of the user
• large switch in the network core layer
• large switch in the network distribution layer
• small workgroup switch in the network access layer
Refer to the exhibit. Which two devices are part of the access design layer?
• Edge2
• ISP4
• BR4
• FC-AP
• FC-CPE-1
• FC-ASW-2
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to
prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network
while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which
direction should it be applied?
• interface fa0/0, inbound
• interface fa0/0, outbound
• interface fa0/1, inbound
• interface fa0/1, outbound
Page 4
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
CHAPTER 2 EXAM
1
2
3
4
5
6
CCNA4
When should a network baseline be performed within the stages of the Cisco Lifecycle
Services?
 Prepare Phase
 Plan Phase
 Design Phase
 Implement Phase
 Operate Phase
Which two statements are true regarding the response to an RFQ?
 The response should be brief.
 It should strictly conform to the formatting requirements specified by the RFQ.
 Only the items that the contracting company will be addressing should be answered.
 The response helps the customer compare pricing with other potential contractors.
 The response is more complicated than a response to an RFP.
A major corporation has decided to hire someone to upgrade their network infrastructure. A
network consulting company wants the job. What document must the network consulting
company obtain to learn about the business goals, the project scope, the requirements for the
new network and the expected deliverables?
 Business Case
 Project Plan
 Request for Proposal
 Request for Comments
What is the purpose of SNMP?
 to facilitate the exchange of information between devices and the NMS
 to monitor and control IP address allocation in a network
 to report user login to a monitoring station
 to verify traffic throughout the network and keep a log of all activity
A network engineer is analyzing the network of a potential client company to identify
problems and determine whether a network upgrade or addition is needed. Which role in the
sales team is this engineer assuming?
 post-sales field engineer
 pre-sales engineer
 account manager
 network designer
Why is it important to prioritize business goals when developing network design?
 to ensure that the least expensive technologies are implemented first
 to simplify the configuration, administration, and monitoring of the newly installed
network
 to anticipate the effects of changes and growth of the business
 to adhere to the best opportunities to contribute to the success of the business
Page 5
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
7
8
9
10
11
12
CCNA4
Which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services involves proactive management to identify and
resolve issues before the organization is affected?
 Prepare Phase
 Plan Phase
 Design Phase
 Implement Phase
 Operate Phase
 Optimize Phase
During an evaluation of the currently installed network, the IT staff performs a gap analysis to
determine whether the existing network infrastructure can support the desired new features.
At which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach does this activity occur?
 Prepare Phase
 Plan Phase
 Design Phase
 Implement Phase
 Operate Phase
 Optimize Phase
What are two benefits of using a top-down approach instead of a bottom-up approach to
network design? (Choose two.)
 incorporates organizational requirements
 allows for a quick response to a design request
 requires less time up front to create a network design
 clarifies design goals from the perspective of applications and network solutions
 facilitates a design by using devices and technologies that are based on previous
experience
Which two statements best describe the responsibilities of an account manager?
 acts as the primary point of contact between the company and the client
 directs the sales teams and support personnel
 provides technical support to critical clients
 selects the equipment and technologies to be used for the client solution
 acts as the network design lead
Which two items help identify business goals and priorities before a new network project
starts?
 installation
 motivation
 profitability
 trustworthiness
 customer satisfaction
Which software component is installed on network devices that are managed through SNMP?
 management agents
 management stations
 network management protocol
 Management Information Base (MIB)
Page 6
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
13
14
15
16
17
18
CCNA4
What is the purpose of creating a prioritized list of technical requirements?
 defines the project scope
 determines the business profitability
 creates a feasibility report for analysis
 identifies existing and new user groups
What is a purpose of establishing a network baseline?
 It provides a statistical average for network performance.
 It manages the performance of network devices.
 It creates a point of reference for future network evaluations.
 It checks the security configuration of network devices.
A network engineer working for a contracting company is informed of a pre-bid meeting with
a potential client. What purpose does the network engineer have for attending the pre-bid
meeting?
 to submit request for proposal responses
 to discuss proposed installation and monitoring plans
 to perform system-level acceptance tests on the current network
 to clarify project scope and timelines not included in the original request for proposal
 to create a business case outlining reasons for financial investment in a network
upgrade
What is the purpose of preparing a business case?
 to justify the financial investment in implementing the technology change
 to provide an example of a previous job done in the RFP
 to define the technical requirements of the network
 to define timelines and critical milestones
What is the purpose of system-level acceptance testing?
 to develop an installation plan for the newly designed network
 to train end users and support personnel on the newly installed network
 to check that the newly installed network meets the business goals and design
requirements
 to justify the financial investment required to implement the technology change
Which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services strategy is usually completed before an
organization issues a Request For Proposal (RFP) or Request For Quotation (RFQ)?
 Prepare Phase
 Plan Phase
 Design Phase
 Implement Phase
 Operate Phase
 Optimize Phase
Page 7
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
19
20
21
22
CCNA4
A network engineer working for ABC company is writing a response to an RFP for a network
upgrade and must create an executive summary. Which statement describes the basic
components of an executive summary?
 quick overview of the problem, the recommended solution, and the justification for
ABC company doing the job
 detailed description of the solution, including but not limited to, timelines, turn-over
schedule, warranty information, and emergency recovery information
 detailed description of costs including, the cost of software and hardware components,
licensing requirements, labor cost, and other applicable fees
 multiple page document containing additional information such as detailed lists of
equipment required, diagrams, company background information, and insurance
coverage
What is a business constraint that may impact the WAN design of a company?
 company policy regarding specific operating systems on LAN devices
 current monitoring protocols implemented on end-user devices
 non-availability of end users during implementation
 company policy requiring the use of specific vendor networking equipment due to
partnerships
A corporation (client) wants a network upgrade and is putting out a request for services to
various network consulting companies (contractors). Which statement is true concerning the
required RFQ?
 sent from the contractors to the client in response to a RFP
 sent from the client to the contractors along with the RFP to provide more specific
technical details
 sent from the client to the contractors in place of a RFP when the technical
specifications of a project are known
 sent from the contractors to the client outlining reasons for financial investments for
the network upgrade
In a network management architecture, which statement best describes a management
agent?
 standardized database storing network performance parameters
 communication protocol used between a management station and managed device
 host with the management application loaded that is used by the administrator to
monitor and configure network devices
 software running on a managed device to collect network information and allow that
device to be managed by a management station
Page 8
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
CHAPTER 3 EXAM
1
2
3
4
5
CCNA4
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the Cisco IOS file naming convention, what is represented by
the value ipvoicek9 listed in the IOS filename?
 version
 file format
 feature set
 hardware platform
What section of the Network Design Requirements document usually details the physical
areas, applications, and user groups affected by the network upgrade?
 overall project goal
 project scope
 network requirements
 current state of the network
A network design project includes a review of the existing network. What is the purpose of this
phase of the project?
 eliminate the need for a site survey
 shorten the timeframe of the project
 lower the cost of the project by removing redundant links and devices
 determine if the number of applications used within the company can be reduced
 determine what current network devices require upgrades to meet the new
requirements
A production router is reloaded and finishes with a Router> prompt. What two facts can be
determined? (Choose two.)
 POST occurred normally.
 The boot process was interrupted.
 There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.
 A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.
 The router did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.
The new serial interface card for the router arrives and the network technician reads that it is
hot-swappable. What does this mean?
 The card cannot be installed while the router is powered on because static discharge
could damage the card.
 The card cannot be installed until the router is powered off and completely cooled
down.
 The card can be installed while the router is powered on if the router supports this
technology.
 The card is a replacement and must be installed in the same slot as the card it is
replacing.
Page 9
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
6
7
8
9
10
11
CCNA4
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the command shown to gain knowledge
about a poorly documented network. Which two pieces of information can the network
administrator discover from the command output? (Choose two.)
 One connected device has router capability.
 The entire network contains a total of five Cisco devices with CDP enabled.
 None of the directly connected network devices have been configured with an IP
address.
 Device EDGE_2811 is connected to port Fast Ethernet 0/0 on device C3750-24_MDF.
 Five Cisco devices with CDP enabled are directly connected to device C3750-24_MDF.
Refer to the exhibit. The top of the output shows the Cisco Feature Navigator regarding a Cisco
IOS image that the administrator wants to install on a router. Below it is the output from the
show version command for that router. Which statement is true regarding the capacity of the
router to run this Cisco IOS image?
 There is not enough DRAM and flash.
 There is enough DRAM and flash.
 There is enough DRAM but not enough flash.
 There is enough flash but not enough DRAM.
Which two items are objectives of a WLAN design site survey? (Choose two.)
 identify coverage areas
 determine primary AP locations
 determine what AP equipment should be purchased
 determine how many users will access the WLAN
 identify the bottleneck of the LAN infrastructure
A company is beginning to analyze their new Cisco IOS upgrade requirements. What is one of
the router components that a network administrator must consider when selecting a new
Cisco IOS version?
 processor type
 storage space in NVRAM
 interfaces and modules to be supported
 compatibility of the bootstrap version with the new Cisco IOS software
An employee at a company notices that the wireless signal strength indicator on his laptop
fluctuates from good to low. The network administrator decides to do a site survey of that
area. Which three factors need to be included in the survey? (Choose three.)
 type and model number of the WNIC of the laptop
 number of users in the area
 location of the AP
 list of MAC addresses filtered by the AP
 number of simultaneous applications running on the laptop of the employee
 location of walls and filing cabinets in the office
It is important to identify the details of network sections and devices that will be affected or
involved in a new design. This information is included in which section of the Network Design
Requirements Document?
 Project Goal
 Project Scope
 Technical Requirements
 Current State of the Network
Page 10
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
12
13
14
15
16
CCNA4
When planning an IOS upgrade, what are two pieces of information that need to be collected
before selecting the new IOS? (Choose two.)
 amount of installed NVRAM
 model number of the router
 number of interfaces and installed HWICs
 installed Cisco IOS feature set and version
 error statistics for each interface
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is attempting to install a new version of the
IOS on R2. Based on the exhibited output, what are two possible reasons that the transfer
failed? (Choose two.)
 The administrator did not enable TFTP on R2.
 There is not enough flash available to store the new IOS.
 Connectivity between R2 and the TFTP server was not verified.
 The copy command was incorrectly entered.
 The administrator did not verify that the TFTP server is running.
In which section of the Network Design Requirements document would a network consulting
team detail names and IP addresses of important networking components and servers,
provide network diagrams and topologies, and define strengths and weaknesses of the
network?
 network requirements
 project scope
 overall project goal
 state of the network
Refer to the exhibit. If a reload command is issued on router FC-CPE-1, where does the router
first search for the Cisco IOS image?
 NVRAM
 flash
 RAM
 TFTP server
During a wireless site survey, a consultant is determining the hours of peak usage and the
estimated number of users in each location. The consultant is currently in what step of the site
survey process?
 the defining of customer requirements
 the identification of coverage areas
 the determining of preliminary AP locations
 the measurement of signal strength
Page 11
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
17
18
19
20
21
The new network design for AnyCompany must include support of voice and video traffic.
Before upgrading, the network designer checks whether the existing devices can support the
new requirements. Which three items does the designer need to check? (Choose three.)
 number of routers and switches owned by AnyCompany
 routers that will support extra ASICs and WWICs
 size of DRAM and flash on each device
 routers that will support HWICs and VWICs
 system bootstrap version on each router and switch
 modules supported on the loaded Cisco IOS
Refer to the exhibit. Which of the three Cisco IOS images shown will load into RAM?
 The router selects the first image stored in flash.
 The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it is the most recent IOS image.
 The router selects the second Cisco IOS image because it is the smallest IOS image.
 The router selects an image depending on the boot system command in the
configuration.
 The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it contains the advipservicesk9
image.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions would improve the weaknesses of the exhibited
topology, assuming that each access layer segment is in its own subnet? (Choose two.)
 Implement redundant links to each server by adding additional NICs.
 Implement a redundant link from all access layer switches to Admin, Dist, and Server
Farm.
 Implement a backup firewall with a link to a secondary ISP and implement a
redundant link to the DMZ.
 Implement redundant links from the existing firewall to all access layer switches.
 Implement redundant links from the DMZ to Admin and Dist.
Refer to the exhibit. What two items can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
 R2 is a Cisco 2600 device.
 R2 has 22 MB of RAM installed.
 The version of the IOS is 12.3.
 Over 8 MB of NVRAM is installed.
 A new 36 MB IOS file can be installed on the device.
Refer to the exhibit. A network designer has no documentation and is attempting to create a
logical diagram of the network using the output from show commands. What can be
determined from the output shown?




CCNA4
The attached device with the IP address 10.10.10.2 is a switch.
The attached switch is a VTP server in the Toronto domain.
The designer will not be able to telnet to the attached switch.
The Cisco router IOS supports enterprise-level voice and video technologies.
Page 12
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
22
23
24
CCNA4
During a site survey, the network designer noticed that people were accessing the company
wireless network from the parking lot. What should be done to stop the wireless signal from
radiating out into the parking lot?
 change the channel on the wireless AP
 connect the wireless AP to a firewall
 change the type of antenna attached to the AP
 move the wireless AP to a secure VLAN
 move the wireless AP to a port on a Layer 3 switch
A new Cisco IOS version has been copied into flash from a TFTP server. When a reload is issued
to upgrade the Cisco IOS, the router freezes part of the way through the loading process. What
could be the problem?
 There is enough flash but not enough RAM in the router.
 The new HWIC cards have not been installed yet.
 The TFTP server needs to be present during a reload.
 The new Cisco IOS should have been loaded into NVRAM.
 The new bootstrap version is not compatible with the original version on the router.
What are two practices a network technician should follow when installing a new interface
card in a router? (Choose two.)
 Be sure the interface card faceplate does not touch the chassis rear panel.
 Do not tighten the captive screws until the router has been powered on and recognizes
the card.
 Store the blank faceplate inside the card slot to be used if the card is removed.
 Handle the interface card by the edges to avoid static discharge.
 Push the interface card into place until the edge connector is seated securely.
Page 13
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
CHAPTER 4 EXAM
1
2
3
4
5
6
CCNA4
Which technology provides a mechanism for implementing QoS at Layer 2?
 ToS
 CoS
 DSCP
 IP precedence
A database server is configured to purge all data that is 60 days old. Ten data items that are 60
days old are to be purged. However, there is a failure halfway through the transaction, and the
entire transaction is voided. What type of transaction action occurred?
 atomic
 consistent
 durable
 isolated
An analysis of network protocols reveals that RTP and RTCP are being used. What uses these
protocols?
 IDS
 VPN
 WLAN
 firewall
 real-time video
What two Cisco tools can be used to analyze network application traffic? (Choose two.)
• NBAR
• NetFlow
• AutoQoS
• Wireshark
• Custom Queuing
What design strategy should be followed when designing a network that uses video on
demand?
• implement the appropriate routing protocol to ensure that data segments arrive in order
• implement different QoS queues based on the type of video traffic being distributed
• install servers to store the data in a centrally located server farm
• configure queuing in the core routers to ensure high availability
What is the primary goal of QoS?
• classification of traffic
• filtering and queuing voice traffic
• reducing bandwidth requirements
• providing priority service to selected traffic
Page 14
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
7
8
9
10
11
CCNA4
Several web and email servers have recently been installed as part of an enterprise network.
The security administrator has been asked to provide a summary of security features that can
be implemented to help prevent unauthorized traffic from being sent into or out of sensitive
internal networks. Which three features should the security administrator recommend?
(Choose three.)
• firewalls
• priority queuing
• access control lists
• intrusion detection systems
• DHCP
• • 128-bit WEP
When implementing VoIP services, which two design considerations should be
followed?(Choose two.)
• Confirm that network jitter is minimal.
• Use TCP to reduce delays and dropped packets.
• Establish priority queuing to ensure that large data packets are sent uninterrupted.
• Disable real-time protocols to reduce queuing strategy demands.
• Ensure that packet delays do not exceed 150 ms
Which two items can be determined by diagramming internal traffic flow? (Choose two.)
• the type of ISP services needed
• the capabilities of end-user devices
• the areas where network congestion may occur
• the location of VPN servers used to connect teleworkers
• locations where high-bandwidth connections are required
Refer to the exhibit. After configuring QoS, a network administrator issues the command show
queueing interface s0/1. What two pieces of information can an administrator learn from the
output of this command? (Choose two.)
• queue traffic definitions
• priority list protocol assignments
• type of queuing being implemented
• number of packets placed in each queue
• queuing defaults that have been changed
• queuing has not been applied to this interface
Refer to the exhibit. If ACL 150 identifies only voice traffic from network 192.168.10.0/24 and
no other traffic, which queue will voice traffic from other networks use?
• high
• normal
• medium
• default
Page 15
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
12
13
14
15
16
17
CCNA4
The design of an IP telephony system needs to meet the technical requirements to provide a
connection to the PSTN as well as provide high-quality voice transmissions using the campus
network. Which two elements directly affect the ability of the design to meet these
requirements?(Choose two.)
• voice-enabled firewall
• PoE switches and patch panels
• redundant backbone connectivity
• voice-enabled router at the enterprise edge
• separate voice and data VLANs with QoS implemented
Which two network applications are most affected by network congestion and delays?
• IP telephony
• live video webcasts
• audio file downloads
• online banking services
• file archival and retrieval
A customer purchases tickets online and pays using a credit card, but the system goes down
before the transaction is complete. What transaction type retains a record of this transaction
after the system failure so that the customer will still receive the tickets and the credit card
account will be debited accordingly?
• atomic
• consistent
• durable
• isolated
When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can be controlled to
improve performance? (Choose two.)
• link speed
• delay
• packet routing
• jitter
• packet addressing
A company is considering adding voice and video to the data networks. Which two statements
are true if voice and video are added? (Choose two.)
• PoE switches must be purchased.
• More UDP-based traffic flows will be evident.
• Response times will be increased even if QoS is implemented.
• QoS will most likely be implemented to prioritize traffic flows.
• VPNs will most likely be implemented to protect the voice traffic.
Refer to the exhibit. The network design documents include requirements to prevent
switching loops, to provide link-specific failover, and to provide Layer 3 recovery. Which two
protocols would be needed to provide the support?
• HDLC
• HSRP
• PPP
• RSTP
• VTP
Page 16
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
18
19
20
21
22
23
CCNA4
In network design, which technology can be implemented to prioritize traffic based on its
importance and technical requirements?
• STP
• QoS
• RTP
• TCP
• VPN
Which two statements are characteristics of file transfer traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• RTP should be used.
• Traffic is predictable.
• Packets are small in size.
• Transfers are throughput intensive.
• Response-time requirements are low.
• Traffic cannot withstand retransmission delays.
A network design must minimize latency to support real-time streaming applications. Which
two protocols enable control and scalability of the network resources and minimize latency by
incorporating QoS mechanisms? (Choose two.)
• RTCP
• HSRP
• RSTP
• RTP
• RPC
Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the terms on top with its definition on
the bottom?
• A=1, B=3, C=2, D=4
• A=2, B=1, C=4, D=3
• A=2, B=4, C=1, D=3
• A=3, B=2, C=4, D=1
• A=4, B=3, C=1, D=2
• A=4, B=2, C=3, D=1
Which two major differences are associated with IP telephony when compared to traditional
telephony that uses a PBX? (Choose two.)
• manages phones centrally
• utilizes centralized call routing
• creates peer-to-peer relationships between phones
• requires a separate infrastructure to support data transfer
• requires significant manual configuration when adding, moving, or changing phones
A company that has a traditional telephone system wants to convert to IP telephony. Which
two factors should be considered for the design? (Choose two.)
• Digital communications systems have greater noise than analog systems when processing
voice traffic.
• Voice-enabled routers or a server must be used for call control and signaling.
• Voice to IP conversions can cause router overhead.
• Power to the phones can be supplied through properly equipped patch panels or
switches.
• The cost to combine voice and data VLANs can be a considerable amount.
Page 17
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
24
25
CCNA4
When implementing QoS in traffic queues, what is the first step the designer should take to
ensure that traffic is properly prioritized?
• define QoS policies
• define traffic classes
• determine traffic patterns
• identify traffic requirements
• identify networking equipment
Which two traffic types are examples of external traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• A user in the IT department telnets to the core layer router.
• A user in marketing connects to the web server of a competitor.
• A user in the IT department telnets into the access layer switch.
• A user in the services department logs in to a web-based email program.
• A user in accounting connects to an FTP server that is connected to the access layer switch.
Page 18
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
CHAPTER 5 EXAM
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
CCNA4
What is the function of the access layer in the Cisco three-layer hierarchical
internetworkingmodel?
• provides QoS classification and marking
• implements a fast-converging routing protocol
• uses routed interconnections between devices
• aggregates traffic and performs route summarization
What is a primary function of a wireless LAN controller?
• tuning each AP channel for optimal coverage
• providing PoE to the wireless clients
• distributing VLAN information to the wireless clients
• serving as the point of connection between wireless clients and the wired LAN
What is integrated into a Cisco IP phone to reduce the number of ports needed in the wiring
closet?
• hub
• router
• switch
• firewall appliance
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding how the ISP router filters traffic?
• Traffic from the 64.100.0.1 address to any destination on the Internet is denied.
• Traffic from any source address entering the ISP router interface s0/0/0 is permitted.
• Only traffic with a source address of 64.100.0.1/30 is allowed into the ISP router
interface s0/0/0.
• All traffic from the 64.100.0.0/21 network can access the Internet.
• Traffic from any source address can access the 64.100.0.0/21 network.
Which three design requirements are implemented at the access layer? (Choose three.)
• PoE
• VLANs
• high-density routing
• packet filtering
• rapidly converging routing protocols
• QoS traffic classification and marking
When considering converged network designs, it is important to identify appropriate service
demands. What is a concern when preparing a network design to fit this environment?
• business data compensation for sensitivity to noise
• location and placement of firewalls
• voice-level quality of service
• security policy requirements
A network designer is evaluating the network security implementation for an organization.
The designer recommends adding network security devices in front of the server farm,
although network security devices have been deployed in the Enterprise Edge for two years.
What type of attack can be effectively prevented with this recommendation?
• virus attack
• internal attack
• Internet attack
• phishing attack
Page 19
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
CCNA4
Which statement applies to a large network with thousands of nodes?
• Each wireless phone is normally in a separate VLAN for security reasons.
• Multiple firewalls exist throughout the access layer for maximum security protection.
• Firewalls cannot be implemented in the multilayer switches and routers.
• Intrusion detection is more likely to be performed by a separate device rather than
integrated into a switch or router
Using expandable, modular network devices is a key element of what network design criteria?
• availability
• performance
• scalability
• security
What characteristic in a routing protocol allows it to support the network design criteria for
availability?
• CIDR support
• fast convergence
• timed updates
• VLSM suppor
Which network design process identifies where to place access points?
• site survey
• risk assessment
• scalability design
• network protocol analysis
Which two factors should be considered when designing a wireless LAN that provides
seamless roaming capabilities? (Choose two.)
• use of a wireless controller to manage IP addressing
• type of routing protocols
• location of existing wired clients
• coverage
• position of MDF
A state-funded college wants to implement Cisco wireless IP phones for employees to use
while on campus. The college currently has only wired network device access. Which two
devices must be incorporated into the network design to best accommodate roaming for
wireless IP phones?
voice VLAN capable switch
• autonomous AP
• PoE switch
• Cisco wireless LAN controller
• 2960 switch with 48 100-Mb ports
• lightweight access points
What limitations of the 2960 switch prevent it from providing the services needed in the
Distribution layer?
• It is limited to copper connections.
• It does not support QoS.
• It does not support voice VLAN capability.
• It does not support route summarization.
Page 20
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
15
16
17
18
19
Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of having two links connected between the two
switches shown?
• provides redundancy in case one of the switches fails
• provides connectivity to Switch1 when the link to the server fails
• provides connectivity when one of the connections between the switches fails
• provides power to the other switch when the other switch has lost AC power
Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• All traffic is implicitly denied.
• FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
• Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.
To reduce office overhead, a downtown company now requires that their customer service
representatives work from home. All of the employees are located either downtown or in a
nearby suburban area. Each employee requires high speed service and connectivity to the
Internet through their local ISP. Which term describes this WAN service?
• DSL
• ATM
• T1 line
• Frame Relay
A network designer is selecting a WAN technology for connections between the headquarters
of an organization and its branch offices. In this context, what is one advantage of choosing
Frame Relay over a T1 line?
• more secure
• flexible bandwidth
• shared media across the link
• efficiency with fixed length packet size
A company lists this equipment in their network design:
•Two Catalyst 4503 Layer 3 switches
•One 5500 security appliance firewall
•Two Catalyst 6509 switches
•Two lightweight access points
•Two Catalyst 2960 switches
Which two types of devices from the list would be appropriate to use at the access layer to
provide end-user connectivity? (Choose two.)
A company lists this equipment in their network design:
•Two Catalyst 4503 Layer 3 switches
•One 5500 security appliance firewall
•Two Catalyst 6509 switches
•Two lightweight access points
•Two Catalyst 2960 switches
CCNA4
Page 21
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
20
21
22
23
24
25
CCNA4
What type of WAN service is Frame Relay?
• dedicated
• cell switched
• packet switched
• circuit switched
When applying network security, what security measure should be implemented first?
• securing the network devices
• implementing the firewalls or filters at the enterprise edge
• applying security to resources accessed by internal users
• applying ACLs to the interfaces of the routers in the internal network
Which rule should be followed when implementing the security requirements of a network
design?
• Always use a common security plan for all business needs.
• As standard practice, lower access restrictions for users if cost is too high.
• Avoid reducing security in order to add additional network capabilities.
• When possible, implement an IDS to protect users from spam.
What characteristic of a network supports high availability?
• VPNs
• high-bandwidth paths to servers
• redundancy
• wireless management
What are three features of a Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose three.)
• network layer functionality
• redundant power availability
• route summarization
• SNMP
• switch clustering
• inter-VLAN routing
Refer to the exhibit. The branch office needs constant access to the servers in the enterprise
headquarters. Therefore, a backup Frame Relay link is added. A network
• administrator is configuring the routers in the branch office to make sure that when the
backup Frame Relay link is used, only the traffic to access the enterprise headquarters is
allowed. Which statement is true about the routing configuration on branch office edge
routers?
• The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE2.
• The command ip route 128.107.0.0 255.255.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE1.
• The command ip route 128.107.0.0 255.255.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE2.
• The command ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on
BE1.
Page 22
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
CHAPTER 6 EXAM
1
2
3
4
CCNA4
What is a good design practice when developing a hierarchical addressing scheme?
• Address the nodes in the Access Layer and work toward the Core Layer.
• Assign addresses to the Core devices before planning the addressing scheme for the server
farm.
• Determine where statically configured addressing will be implemented.
• Determine what percentage of devices are wired and what percentage of devices are
wireless.
An administrator is configuring IPv6 on a router. The steps that have already been completed
are:
1. Activate IPv6 traffic forwarding.
2. Configure IPv6 addresses.
3. Globally configure RIPng.
What is the remaining step to complete the activation of RIPng?
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate
RIPng on the interfaces.
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then specify which interfaces run RIPng, which
are passive, and which only receive.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 rip name
enable command.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9,
and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.
• Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng
then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.
Refer to the exhibit. A company has decided to add a new workgroup. If the subnetting
scheme for the network uses contiguous blocks of addresses, what subnet is assigned to
WGROUP3?
• 172.16.3.12/29
• 172.16.3.16/29
• 172.16.3.20/29
• 172.16.3.24/29
• 172.16.3.32/29
Which network configuration would require the use of the no auto-summary command?
• with RIP version 1, to enable subnetting on a local network
• with RIP version 2, to enable classful routing
• with RIP version 1, when discontiguous networks exist
• with RIP version 2, when discontiguous networks exist
Page 23
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
5
6
7
8
9
CCNA4
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of router commands is required to turn on unequal-cost load
sharing so that RTRA selects the path A-B-E and the lowest cost path A-C-E to the Internet?
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# variance 2
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# variance 1
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# maximum-paths 2
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# maximum-paths 1
What best describes a discontiguous network?
• combines several classfull networking address
• contains more than one route to a destination
• implements more than one routing protocol
• separated from the rest of the hierarchical group by another network
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the default EIGRP configuration is running on both routers,
which statement is true about Router A reaching the 2.2.2.0/24 network?
• The no auto-summary command needs to be issued to disable automatic summarization.
• The network 2.2.2.0 command needs to be issued to ensure that Router A recognizes the
2.2.2.0 network.
• EIGRP supports VLSM and automatically recognizes the 2.2.2.0 network.
• EIGRP does not support VLSM; therefore it cannot be used with discontiguous networks.
What is a characteristic of IPv6?
• Anycast has been substituted for unicast.
• IPv6 makes use of multicasts and anycasts instead of broadcasts.
• IPv6 uses a 128 digit hexadecimal number displayed in dotted decimal format.
• Each PC in a LAN must have an IPv6 local address that is assigned by an administrator.
With RIPv2, what should be done to avoid routing problems if a discontiguous network exists?
• Configure floating static routes on each router.
• Configure only classful masks on router interfaces.
• Instead of using RIPv2, use EIGRP with default values.
• Enter the no version 2 command in router configuration mode.
• Enter the no auto-summary command in router configuration mode.
• Include subnet masks when configuring the directly connected networks.
Page 24
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
10
11
12
13
14
CCNA4
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants router RTA to send only the
summarized route of 10.10.0.0/16 to RTC. Which configuration accomplishes this?
• RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary
• RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary
• RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
• RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
Which range includes all available networks in the 192.168.8.0/21 network?
• 192.168.8.0/24 – 192.168.14.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 – 192.168.15.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 – 192.168.16.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 – 192.168.17.0/24
Refer to the exhibit. The IT management is adding three VLANs to the wgroup3 switch. The
current subnet will be broken down to support 14 hosts for each of the new VLANs. What will
the new subnet mask be for these VLANs?
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.248
Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet will provide sufficient addresses for the Production network
with minimal waste?
• 172.16.0.192/26
• 172.16.0.192/27
• 172.16.0.224/26
• 172.16.0.160/26
• 172.16.0.144/27
A network administrator is using the 10.0.0.0/8 network for the company. The administrator
must create a masking scheme to support 750 users at the main office and 620 users at the
remote office. What mask should be assigned to the 10.0.0.0/8 network to preserve the most
addresses?
• 255.255.255.0
• /19
• /20
• 255.255.252.0
• /23
• /21
Page 25
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
15
16
CCNA4
A network engineer researched whether there are mechanisms available to help with the
transition from an IPv4 addressing structure to IPv6. What three options did the engineer
find?(Choose three.)
• A protocol translation mechanism allows communication between the IPv4 and IPv6
networks.
• A packet analyzer determines the addressing structure and converts it to the appropriate
IPv4 or IPv6 scheme.
• New Core devices that support IPV6 must be purchased.
• A protocol converter changes IPv4 packets into IPv6 packets and vice versa.
• A dual-stack network design allows both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing to be used on all
network devices.
• Tunneling allows IPv4 packets to be encapsulated so that they can traverse IPv6 networks
and vice versa.
A network administrator is asked to design a new addressing scheme for a corporate network.
Presently, there are 850 users at the head office, 220 users at sales, 425 at manufacturing, and
50 at the research site. Which statement defines the correct VLSM addressing map with
minimal waste using the 172.17.0.0/16 network?
• 172.17.0.0/20 head office
172.17.1.0/21 manufacturing
172.17.1.0/22 sales
172.17.3.0/26 research
• 172.17.48.0/19 head office
172.17.16.0/20 manufacturing
172.17.48.128/25 sales
172.17.48.0/26 research
• 172.17.0.0/22 head office
172.17.4.0/23 manufacturing
172.17.5.0/24 sales
172.17.6.0/26 research
• 172.17.2.0/22 head office
172.17.3.0/23 manufacturing
172.17.4.0/26 sales
172.17.4.128/25 research
Page 26
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
17
18
19
20
21
CCNA4
Refer to the exhibit. What are the broadcast addresses for each subnet?
• Admin – 172.16.31.0
QA – 172.16.1.127
Development – 172.16.2.255
Sales – 172.16.32.255
• Admin – 172.16.31.255
QA – 172.16.1.255
Development – 172.16.3.255
Sales – 172.16.63.255
• Admin – 172.16.31.255
QA – 172.16.1.127
Development – 172.16.3.255
Sales – 172.16.63.255
• Admin – 172.16.31.0
QA – 172.16.1.255
Development – 172.16.2.255
Sales – 172.16.32.255
A network designer is implementing a new network for a company. The designer is using all
new Cisco equipment and has decided to select a hierarchical routing protocol for the
network. The designer wishes to minimize traffic from routing updates but also needs fast
routing convergence in the event of a topology change. Also, the existing IP addressing
scheme requires that the selected protocol support VLSM. Which routing protocol should be
chosen?
• BGP
• RIP v1
• RIP v2
• OSPF
• EIGRP
Refer to the exhibit. What is the first usable IP address that can be assigned to the WGROUP3
switch?
• 172.16.50.96/27
• 172.16.50.97/27
• 172.16.50.98/27
• 172.16.50.99/27
• 255.255.255.0
How many bits make up an IPv6 address?
• 32
• 48
• 64
• 128
What is another format for the IPv6 address 1080:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:1267:01A2?
• 1080::1267:01A2
• 1080:0:0:0:0:1267:01A2
• 1080::0:1267:01A2
• 1080:::::1267.01A2
Page 27
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
22
23
CCNA4
What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
• dynamic address assignment
• automatic route redistribution
• reduced routing update traffic
• easier management of summarization
• automatic summarization at classfull boundaries
Which two are best practices for creating a new IP addressing scheme for a network?
• Plan and allow for significant growth.
• Assign addresses to the access layer before any other layer.
• Plan the entire addressing scheme before assigning any addresses.
• Begin with the access layer network summary addresses and work to the edge.
• Plan the addressing scheme to meet the current minimum requirement needs.
• Implement statically assigned addresses to all hosts in the distribution layer first.
Page 28
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
CHAPTER 7 EXAM
1
2
3
4
5
CCNA4
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a
temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing
the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch
interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that
only the commands shown have been added to the router configuration, what is the source of
the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
• The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.
• The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.
• The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
• The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach
the teacher PC subnet.
Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness
circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
• Provide redundant connections to all end users.
• Add another core switch to increase redundancy.
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
• Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core
switches.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the
DMZ.
Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?
• Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.
• The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.
• Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed
capabilities of the network.
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase
processor use or decrease available bandwidth.
A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient
route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is
useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
• NBAR
• a pilot network
• a route summary
• a network simulator
• a physical topology map
What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for
every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• root
• backup
• alternate
• Designated
Page 29
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
6
7
8
9
10
11
CCNA4
Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must
be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and
interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1
• S1
• R3
• S2
• R5
• S3
Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification
shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
• Test Description
• Test Procedures
• Design and Topology Diagram
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
A network designer must provide a rationale to a customer for a design which will move an
enterprise from a flat network topology to a hierarchical network topology. Which two
features of the hierarchical design make it the better choice?
 lower bandwidth requirements
 reduced cost for equipment and user training
 easier to provide redundant links to ensure higher availability
 less required equipment to provide the same performance levels
 ability to add access layer modules without affecting existing users
For the multiple tests that are required to complete a LAN design test plan, which action
should be taken as a component of every test?
 Verify physical and IP connectivity.
 Demonstrate multiple VLANs.
 Document the operation.
 Demonstrate routing of traffic between separate VLANs.
 Demonstrate 802.1q trunk link operation.
While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and
modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this
information?
• Appendix
• Test Procedures
• Test Description
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
When a switch port is recovering from a failure, which protocol allows the port to transition
directly to the forwarding state?
 BGP
 HSRP
 RSTP
 VPN
 VTP
Page 30
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
CCNA4
How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
• They select the functions that occur at the network core.
• They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.
• They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.
Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the
output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
• Switch1 is the root bridge.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the "Role" column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been
implemented.
• Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree
topology.
Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing
protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
• EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.
• EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.
• EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.
Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of
all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
• discarding
• Forwarding
• learning
• listening
What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when
prototyping network security?
• a firewall at the network edge
• port security at the access design layer
• port security at the distribution design layer
• IP access control lists at the access design layer
Which is the next step in evaluating the performance of a network once the prototype is
configured and basic connectivity is verified?
 Generate different traffic types to see the effects on performance.
 Start testing at Layer 2 by verifying link failure recovery.
 Create a network baseline.
 Trace the packet route through the network.
Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a
host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?
 Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
 Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.
 Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.
 Use the switchport access vlan vlan number command from interface configuration
mode to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.
Page 31
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
19
20
21
22
23
24
CCNA4
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch
in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to
the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network
administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the
home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What
action should the network technician take?
• Add an enable password to the switch.
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
• Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.
• Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.
In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
• the metric used for a particular route
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
• the priority number given to the device for the election process
• the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number
• the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing
A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than
rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design
concept? (Choose two.)
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
• Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
• Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.
• Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.
When implementing RSTP, what is the designation for a port on a nonroot switch that blocks
the port from forwarding?
• alternate
• backup
• designated
• root
Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access.
The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the
ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
• inbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R2
• outbound on S0/0 of R2
Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch
output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics.
Page 32
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
CHAPTER 8 EXAM
1
2
3
4
5
CCNA4
Which statement identifies the IP address design for subinterfaces that are configured for a
Frame Relay network?
• Multipoint configurations require the IP address of each subinterface on each router to be
in its own subnet.
• Multipoint configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to
be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to
be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each
router.
• Multipoint configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each
router.
Which is true regarding Frame Relay LMI?
• The LMI type must be manually configured.
• LMI is a signalling standard between two DCE devices.
• There are three LMI types standardized by ANSI, ITU-T, and Cisco.
• Routers at each end of a Frame Relay virtual circuit must always use the same LMI type.
When identifying VPN requirements for endpoint users, what care must be taken to protect
the network when remote users log in from unsecured public locations?
• Ensure that the user has VPN client software that allows access to all internal resources.
• Ensure that the VPN user traffic does not slow down internally sourced traffic on the
network.
• Ensure that there are no obstacles to hamper the users from accessing all internal
resources.
• Ensure that remote users can only access network resources that are appropriate to their
job function.
A network administrator issued the command show frame-relay pvc. The response from the
router shows the status of a PVC as deleted. What is the reason for this status?
• The DLCI is using the wrong LMI type.
• The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but the circuit is not usable.
• The DLCI configured on the CPE device does not match the DLCI.
What statement correctly defines the purpose of the split horizon rule?
• marks the route unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers
• prevents routers from advertising a network through the interface from which the update
came
• prevents routers from accepting higher cost routes to networks previously marked as
inaccessible before the timer expires
• limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be
discarded
Page 33
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
CCNA4
Which three algorithms can be used to encrypt user data in an IPSec VPN framework?
• 3DES
• AES
• Diffie-Hellman
• DES
• ESP
• SHA
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration shown for R2?
• R2 is configured as the Frame Relay switch.
• R2 is configured as the main site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as the main site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as a remote site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as a remote site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.
Refer to the exhibit. The complete configuration of a Frame Relay interface on the Chicago
router is shown. How does the Chicago router know which DLCI is mapped to the IP address of
the remote router?
• DE
• CIR
• FECN
• Inverse ARP
Refer to the exhibit. Which router command is used to associate a Layer 2 address with the
corresponding Layer 3 address?
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 110
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 112
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 110
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 112
An IP address has been assigned to the S0/0/0 interface of a new Cisco router. The
administrator wishes to quickly test basic connectivity with the serial interface of an adjoining
Cisco router via the use of the default WAN protocol. Which WAN protocol will be used for
this test?
• PPP
• Frame Relay
• DSL
• HDLC
• ATM
What tool can help ease the configuration of VPN servers on routers?
• Cisco SDM
• PIX Firewall
• Cisco VPN Concentrator
• Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances
Which mechanism is used to create a floating static route?
• administrative distance
• cost
• hop count
• passive interface
Page 34
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
13
14
15
16
17
18
CCNA4
Two directly connected routers are able to ping each other through the Serial 0/0/0 interfaces.
A network administrator changes the encapsulation on one router to PPP, and the other is left
at the default value. What statement would appear in the output of the show interfaces
command issued on one of the routers?
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is up
• Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is down
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is down
• Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is up
• Serial 0/0/0 is administratively down, line protocol is down
Refer to the exhibit. Two directly connected routers are unable to ping each other through the
only active serial interfaces. What is the problem?
• The IP addressing scheme is incorrect.
• Loopbacks should be set on R1 and R2.
• PPP encapsulation needs to be configured on R1.
• The bandwidth settings must be the same on R1 and R2.
• A no shutdown command needs to be configured on both serial interfaces.
IPSec operates at which layer of the OSI model?
• application
• network
• datalink
• transport
A company uses serial interfaces on its border router to connect to branch offices through
WAN connections. The security policy dictates that the encapsulation should use PPP with
authentication protocol CHAP. Which statement is true about the configuration requirement
of CHAP?
• Both the username and password are case sensitive.
• Neither the username nor the password is case sensitive.
• The username is case sensitive but the password is not case sensitive.
• The password is case sensitive but the username is not case sensitive.
Which PVC status suggests that the router recognizes the DLCI configured on its interface as
being present on the Frame Relay switch, but the PVC associated with the DLCI is not capable
of end-to-end communication?
• active
• deleted
• inactive
• idle
Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Local LAN printing will use the VPN tunnel.
• The traffic load on the VPN server is increased.
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
• There is a reduced security risk to the corporate network.
• All traffic travels across the VPN tunnel from client to server.
• Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.
Page 35
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
19
20
21
22
23
24
CCNA4
Which bit is set by a Frame Relay switch to inform the source station that there is congestion
on the network?
• BECN
• CIR
• DE
• FCS
• FECN
What is one benefit of using a network simulation software package?
• The network design can be tested before it is actually implemented.
• Simulation software packages are quickly updated to support new network technologies
and devices.
• Simulated devices have the same features as actual devices, allowing for detection of all
potential problems.
• Software packages can simulate all possible network traffic conditions, giving an accurate
prediction of network performance.
Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the
Orlando office to the DC office?
• MAC address of the Orlando router
• MAC address of the DC router
• 192.168.1.25
• 192.168.1.26
• DLCI 100
• DLCI 200
What is used to identify the path to the next frame-relay switch in a Frame Relay network?
• CIR
• DLCI
• FECN
• BECN
Which two statements are true regarding VPN security? (Choose two.)
• Users may only establish a VPN connection from secure locations and never from public
areas.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN do not have to log in to resources on the
network.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN are are considered trusted users on the
network.
• Users may establish a VPN connection from unsecure locations such as airports and hotel
lobbies.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN should have access to all the resources on
the network.
What are two components a network designer considers when planning a VPN? (Choose two.)
• encryption algorithm for privacy and security
• encapsulation protocol to use when creating the VPN tunnel
• switching technology to optimize VPN WAN throughput
• tunneling technology for guarding against data corruption
• routing protocol on the gateway for optimum performance
Page 36
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
CHAPTER 9 EXAM
1
2
3
4
5
CCNA4
The NetworkingCompany team is tasked to prepare an implementation schedule for a
customer. It is determined that the new firewalls and wireless controllers that are specified in
the design cannot be delivered and installed within the agreed upon time frame. The
NetworkingCompany informs the customer of the problem. What two options can the
NetworkingCompany team take to ensure the success of the project?
• plan to add additional staff and resources to shorten the installation time after the new
equipment is delivered
• eliminate redundancy in the design to reduce the amount of equipment that is needed
• renegotiate a new time frame with the customer to accommodate the delay
• delay the installation of the security devices and controllers until a later time
• redesign the network to use only readily available equipment and software
A Cisco 1841 router has been purchased without an agreement for SMARTnet Service. What
two items are guaranteed under the standard warranty?
• access to TAC
• replacement of defective physical media
• advanced replacement of hardware parts
• access to a renewable standard warranty contract
• under normal use, replacement of defective hardware
Which two statements describe factors that influence the layout of aproposal? (Choose two.)
• Proposal layouts are required to use sans serif typefaces.
• A specific proposal layout is followed when one is specified in the RFP.
• A designer chooses the layout if a written RFP does not specify an outline.
• The software that is used to create the proposal dictates the proposal layouts.
• Proposal layouts are required to use a format that is designed by the network engineer.
An upgraded version of a network simulator has been purchased. However, the CD arrived
damaged. How will this loss be covered?
• a hardware warranty
• a software warranty
• the Cisco SMARTnet Service
• an additional service contract
A company informs the account manager that the installation of a new edge router at the
customer remote branch location cannot be done at the scheduled time because of a large
order that the branch office needs to complete. As a result, the end date of the project must
be adjusted to accommodate the additional time. What is the action should the account
manager take?
• Cancel the order for the new edge router.
• Work with designer to redesign the branch network.
• Instruct the technician to complete the install of the router at on the date in the contract.
• Adjust the timeline documentation to show the company how the delay will affect the
project completion date.
• Convince the company to work after hours to complete their large jib since the router
installation project needs to finish on schedule
Page 37
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
6
7
8
9
10
11
CCNA4
Included in a Bill of Materials (BOM) for a SOHO wired implementation is a Cisco 2811 router,
Catalyst 2560 switch, four PCs, three laptops, and a networked printer. Wireless LAN capability
will be implemented on this network. Which two equipment types must be added to the BOM
to implement this request?
• DNS server
• LAN switch
• DHCP server
• wireless access points
• wireless NICs
NetworkingCompany completes the installation of a network upgrade for a retail customer. All
of the onsite tests complete successfully and the customer IT staff approves the results of the
tests. The manager of the retail store contacts NetworkingCompany to inform the company
that the store will not pay for the upgrade until a recently purchased software package is
installed and tested on the network. Which two items that are contained in the proposal can
the account manager refer to when discussing this issue with the store manager?
• the project scope
• the bill-of-material
• the project timeline
• the terms and conditions
• the business goals of the customer
• the evaluation of the current network
What are two characteristics of a phased installation? (Choose two.)
• Implementation schedules are flexible.
• This is commonly referred to as a fork-lift upgrade.
• Implementation should not disrupt services unnecessarily.
• Implementations are isolated from other portions of the network.
• All equipment and services can be installed and tested at the same time.
Upon completion of a proposal, a network design team must sell their ideas to two key
stakeholders. Who are these two stakeholders?
• customers
• licensing boards
• cabling contractors
• internal management
• project implementation team
What service is provided by the standard Cisco warranty?
• software application maintenance
• replacement of defective hardware
• next business day delivery of replacement parts
• access to the Cisco Technical Assistance Center (TAC) 24 hours a day, 7 days a week
Which statement describes a phased installation into an existing network?
• A phased installation generally takes less time and expense than a green-field installation.
• A phased installation is not suitable for large, multi-site network installations or upgrades.
• A phased installation requires detailed planning in order to avoid disruption of user
services.
• A phased installation involves building an entire replacement network and migrating users
over to it.
Page 38
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
12
13
14
15
16
CCNA4
In order to finalize a project proposal, an account manager of a networking company creates
the terms and conditions section. What are two clauses that should be included in this
section?
• cost summary
• installation steps
• change order procedures
• problem resolution process
• maintenance contract quotation
A network installation team is assigned to replace all core switches in an existing data center.
No other upgrades are planned. Which kind of installation is this?
• a new installation
• a fork-lift installation
• a phased installation
• a green field installation
Which proposal section describes the intended routing protocol, security mechanisms, and
addressing for the planned network?
• logical design
• physical design
• executive summary
• implementation plan
• network requirements
The operation of a new branch location network is delayed because a VPN cannot be
configured and established between the branch location and the main office. It is determined
that the router at the main office does not have enough memory and does not have the
correct Cisco IOS version image to support the VPN features. To prevent this delay, this
problem should have been identified and corrected during which part of the design project?
• the preparation of the business case
• the prioritizing of the technical goals
• the characterization of the existing network
• the implementation of the approved design
A customer has just taken delivery of a Cisco 2811 router and Catalyst 3560 switch. Included
with the purchase is the SMARTnet Service. Which two resources are included with SMARTnet
Service? (Choose two.)
• signature file updates
• technical support from TAC
• maintenance releases for OS
• software application major releases
• software application maintenance and minor releases
Page 39
CCNA 4 – INTRODUCING ROUTING AND SWITCHING IN THE ENTERPRISE
17
18
19
AAA Financial Services Company is performing implementation planning for a core switch upgrade. The
company has 200 financial software programmers that work billable hours during the week. They have
critical, scheduled money transfer transmissions that occur at hourly intervals every night. There are
two, two-hour long IT maintenance windows scheduled for software upgrades, one on Saturday and
one on Sunday. The bank advertises online banking as available 24 hours on business days and 21
hours on the weekends. However, a network upgrade that is necessary to replace some switches is
expected to take four hours. Because of rack constraints, this time includes three hours to remove the
old switches before the new switches can be installed and one hour to test the logical configuration.
How should the implementation scheduling be handled
• Defer the software upgrades. Use the Saturday window to perform the hardware
installation. Use the Sunday window to perform the logical testing.
• Coordinate and publish a separate four-hour downtime during Friday to perform the
complete switch installation and testing process. Use the Saturday and Sunday windows to
correct any outage problems after the Friday window.
• Coordinate and publish two, four-hour downtimes incorporating the published Saturday and
Sunday windows. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working
correctly with the old software. Use the Sunday window as a fallback scheduling period if
there are problems necessitating backing out of the Saturday window
• Coordinate and publish an eight-hour downtime incorporating the Saturday window. This
will allow four hours for installation and logical testing, one hour for troubleshooting and
decision, and three hours to roll back to the previous configuration if the new switching
cannot pass the logical testing. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is
proven to be working correctly with the old software.
Which occurrence would indicate a failure of the design phase?
• The incorrect model switches were ordered.
• There is no customer signoff for task completion.
• New requirements are identified after implementation begins.
• The new network capacity is inadequate to support required traffic.
What are two factors that a network designer must take into account when planning a project
timeline?
20
• service installation times
• bandwidth requirements
• availability of technical personnel
• labor costs
• equipment feature sets
What two items are typically included in the executive summary of a proposal? (Choose two.)
• project scope summary
• high-level implementation plan
• quotes for all needed equipment
• technical requirements for the design
• emphasis on the benefits that meet the goals of the customer
21
What are two important guidelines when creating a slide presentation for a meeting with a customer?
• Use all capital letters on words and phrases when possible for added emphasis.
• Provide varied background graphics to enhance viewer interest.
• Use contrasting colors for background and text to aid visibility.
• Change fonts frequently to denote differences in subject matter.
• Use bulleted text to lead the discussion.
CCNA4
Page 40