1. Which of the following is not a component of the musculoskeletal system
1. Muscles
2. Tendons
3. Fingernails
4. Cartilage
2. Which of the following is a systemic autoimmune disorder characterized by an
inflammatory synovitis that can erode and ultimately destroy the articular cartilage?
1. Gout
2. Rheumatoid arthritis
3. Reiter Disease
4. Bursitis
3. True or false, Rheumatoid Arthritis is usually a symmetrical condition?
True
4. When talking about rheumatoid arthritis, by definition, what is the minimum time of
duration of the symptoms?
1. 5 weeks.
2. 6 weeks.
3. 4weeks.
4. 7 weeks.
5 . A patient is suspected to have rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following tests
is least helpful in making the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis.
1. Rheumatoid factor
2. ESR
3. X-Ray
4. CBC
6. Which condition is a seronegative arthritis that may develop after urethritis,
cervicitis, or dysentery?
1. Rheumatoid arthritis
2. Pseudo gout.
3. Reiter Disease
4. Gout.
7. The deposit of monosodium urate crystal deposition into the synovium and other
tissues is called?
1. Pseudogout
2. Gout
3. Synovitis
4. Rhematoid Arthrtitis
8. Which joint is a commonly involve in pseudogout?
1. Ankle
2. 1st Toe
3. Hand
4. Knee
9. A 54 year old male presents with acute pain in his big toe. He reports he awoke
because of the pain, which is so severe, even a bed sheet touching it hurts. On
examination there is a red, swollen 1st metatarsal joint. The pain prevents movement of
the toe. What is your most likely diagnosis?
1. Cellulitis
2. Septic Joint
3. Gout
4. Pseudogout
XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX
10. Choose the two drugs commonly used to treat acute gout?
1. Colchicine
2. Indomethacin
3. Tylenol
4. Penicillin
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c.
2 and 4
d. 1 and 2
11. Patients with shoulder instability may have recurrent episodes of________?
1. Luxation
2. Fracture
3. Subluxation
4. Deformity
12. Anterior instability can be categorized by the acronym TUBS. Please describe TUBS
1. Traumatic
2. Unidirectional
3. Bankart Lesion.
4. Surgery.
13. Multidirectional instability of the shoulder can be categorized by the acronym
AMBRI—Please describe AMBRI
1. Atraumatic
2. Multidirectional
3. Bilateral
4. Rehabilitation
5. Inferior
14. Assessment of a patient believed to have recurrent instability should include three
tests. Which of the following is not a test for shoulder instability?
1. apprehension test
2. sulcus sign test
3. tinel test
4. jerk test
15. If an anterior dislocation of the shoulder is suspected, which 3 X-ray views are
required?
1. Anterior
2. Posterior
3. Lateral
4. Axillary
a. 1-2-3
b. 2-3-4
c. 1-3-4
d. 1-2-4
16. If a Hill-Sachs lesion is found on an X-ray of the shoulder, what is the most likely
mechanism of injury?
1. Posterior dislocation
2. Anterior dislocation
3. Subluxation
4. Fracture
17. True or False.
In a grade one shoulder AC joint injury, there is a superior separation of the clavicle
from the acromion.
False
18. In a grade three shoulder AC joint dislocation, which two of the following ligaments
are disrupted.
1. Deltoid ligament
2. Acromion ligaments
3. Coracoclavicular ligaments
4. Trapezius ligament.
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 4
19. A 38 year old male presents with pain in his right shoulder. He denies trauma. On
examination, an arm drop test shows the patient is not able to hold the arm in place.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Anterior dislocation
2. Posterior dislocation
3. Rotator cuff tear
4. Bursitis
20. Which rotator cuff muscle is isolated by the Jobe Test?
1. Supraspinatus
2. Infraspinatus
3. Subscapularis
4. Teres minor
21. Which of the following is a side effect of steroid injection?
1. Weakening of the tendon.
2. Pain
3. Redness
4. Swelling
22. What is the maximum number of steroid injections into the subacromial space?
1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1
23. A 35 year old male presents with pain in his right shoulder following a fall on his
shoulder. On examination there is a small deformity at the middle clavicle. Before doing
an X-ray, what examination should be performed?
1. Examination of his neck.
2. Examination of cranial nerves.
3. Neurological exam of the arm.
4. No examination and send him for x-ray.
24. A patient has an uncomplicated clavicle fracture. How would you initially treat this
patient?
1. Send him to orthopedist.
2. Put on an arm sling to reduce pain.
3. Immobilize to entire arm, to prevent any movement.
4. The patient can not suffer, so only give him pain medication.
25. Which nerve is at risk with a fracture of the middle humerus ?
1. Ulnar nerve
2. Median nerve
3. Radial nerve
4. Cubital nerve
26. A mid shaft humerus fracture is suspected. Which 2 X-ray views of the arm are
required?
1. Anterior/posterior
2. Posterior
3. Lateral
4. Oblique
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 4
27. True or false
A patient is suspected to have a medial fracture of the humerus. The only view of the xray required is an anterior/posterior.
False.
28. Which three of the following tests should be done if a brachial plexus injury is
suspected?
1. Light touch.
2. Active movement.
3. Motor power.
4. Deep tendon reflexes.
a. 1-2-3
b. 2-3-4
c. 1-3-4
d. 1-2-4
29. A patient is suspected to have a brachial plexus injury. On examination you find the
patient has bilateral upper extremity burning sensation and radicular symptoms into the
legs. What is your next step treatment?
1. Install a Cervical collar.
2. Send patient for x-ray.
3. Send patient home with anti inflammatory and pain medication
4. Send patient for blood work.
30. A 34 year old male presents with a deformity of his right middle arm. He was lifting a
heavy bag of rice and felt a pop. Bruising is found on his biceps and a deformity. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
1. Mid shaft humerus fracture.
2. Shoulder dislocation
3. Over use of muscles.
4. Rupture of the biceps tendon
31. A SLAP lesion refers to which part of the body?
1. Elbow
2. Wrist
3. Shoulder
4. Arm
32. Which of the following special test is a useful test when diagnosing a SLAP lesion?
1. O’Brien.
2. O’Neil.
3. Obturator.
4. O’Leary.
33. What is the best imaging investigation for a SLAP lesion?
1. Ultra sound
2. X-ray
3. MRI
4. MR Arthrography
34. Which nerve is most likely to get injured with a distal humerus fracture?
1. Ulnar nerve
2. Median nerve
3. Radial nerve
4. Palmar nerve
35. A patient has a positive x-ray showing a fracture of the olecranon. You decide to put
him into a splint. At what degree of fixation should the splint be placed?
1. 10 degree flexion
2. 30 degree flexion
3. 45 degree flexion
4. 90 degree flexion
36. In how many days should a patient be rechecked after being splinted for an
olecranon fracture.
1. 1-5 days
2. 7-10 days
3. 10-14 days
4. 1 month
37. A patient is brought to the Emergency department in extreme pain after a fall on an
outstretched hand (FOOSH). There is a deformity and swelling at the elbow, and he is
unable to bend the elbow. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Fracture of the shoulder.
2. Fracture of the ulna.
3. Dislocation of the elbow.
4. Fracture of the radius.
38. How soon after a dislocation of the elbow should the patient start movement of his
elbow?
1. 1-3 days
2. 3-5 days
3. 5-7 days
4. 7-10 days
39. A 50 year old man reports a gradual onset of pain in the lateral elbow and forearm
during activities involving wrist extension, such as lifting, turning a screwdriver, or using
a hammer. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Medial epicondylitis
2. Lateral epicondylitis
3. Radial nerve Tunnel
4. Ulna nerve Tunnel
40. What is the most important step in treatment of an epicondylitis?
1. Medication
2. Ice treatment
3. Stop or reduce activities
4. Brace
41. Which of the following is not a cause of olecranon bursitis?
1. Trauma
2. Inflammation
3. Infection
4. Genetics
42. Which organism is mostly commonly responsible for infectious olecranon bursitis?
1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Streptococcus
3. Chlamydia
4. Enterococcus
43. True of false.
All patients with rupture of the distal tendon of the biceps should be evaluated for
possible operative repair.
True
44. What is the name of an oblique fracture of the base of the thumb metacarpal that
enters the carpo-metacarpal (CMC) joint?
1. Bennett fracture
2. Alfredo fracture
3. Rolando fracture
4. Bayers fracture
45. A patient has a Bennett fracture of the left thumb. Does he require a referral to
determine if surgery is required?
1. Yes
2. No
46. Which carpal bone is most commonly fractured?
1. Trapezium
2. Trapezoid
3. Lunate
4. Scaphoid
47. Which of the following is the most serious complication of a scaphoid fracture?
1. Pain
2. Arthritis
3. Avascular necrosis
4. Malunion of the fracture
48. How do you treat a patient with a confirmed scaphoid fracture ?
1. short Hand cast
2. thumb spica cast
3. long-arm thumb spica cast
4. short-arm thumb spica cast
49. How long should a scaphoid fracture be casted?
1. 2 weeks
2. 3 weeks
3. 4 weeks
4. 6 weeks
50. A patient has tenderness with palpation in the snuff box. The x-ray is negative.
What is the best treatment for the patient?
1. Send him home with pain medication.
2. Give a splint to patient, and tell him to follow-up if no improvement.
3. Place in a thumb spica splint and follow up in 10-14 days for another x-ray.
4. Ask patient to follow up in 10-14 days for another x-ray.
51. How would you treat the amputed part of a finger amputation?
1. Put finger into ice.
2. Put finger into plastic bag to prevent further contamination.
3. Put finger into Normal saline soaked dressing.
4. Wrap finger with soaked dressing, put it into a plastic bag, then put plastic bag
over ice.
52. For a patient with subungual hematoma, which of the following is the LEAST
suitable tool to treat?
1. Decompression with a 27G needle
2. Decompression with a 18G needle.
3. Heated paper clip.
4. Micro-cautery
53. A 32-year-old male soldier presents with mild volar wrist pain when knitting, and
occasional numbness in his middle and ring fingers while driving. Which physical
examination test is MOST useful to confirm the diagnosis?
1. Carpal tunnel compression test
2. Phalen’s test
3. Tinel’s test
4. Opponens pollicis strength test
54. A patient has a tendon flexor injury to his ring (4th) finger. Should you refer this
patient for surgical opinion?
1. Yes
2. No
55. Which of the following is NOT a sign of a well-established septic flexor
tenosynovitis?
1. fusiform swelling of the finger
2. significant tenderness along the course of the tendon sheath
3. a marked increase in pain on passive extension
4. an extended position of the finger at rest
56. Which of the following should be well documented when a case of septic flexor
tenosynotivitis is suspected?
1. Bruising
2. Old scars
3. Sensation
4. Vascular status
a. 1-2
b. 2-3
c. 3-4
d. 2-4
57. True of false.
Septic flexor tenosynotivitis infections progress slowly; therefore, complications such as
skin loss or loss of the entire finger are impossible.
False
58. A patient with a flexor tenosynotivitis infection has been treated for 2 days with IV
antibiotic, with NO improvement. What should be the next action?
1. Add another kind of IV antibiotic and see if it changes in the next 48 hours.
2. Alternate patient from IV antibiotic to oral antibiotic.
3. Stop all antibiotic as it does not change the patient condition.
4. Refer patient for surgical consult.
59. True or False?
Bite wounds can be treated on an outpatient basis if the joint has not been penetrated,
if there has been no tendon or bony injury, and when medical TREATMENT is sought
within 12 hours of the injury.
True
60. A patient presents after fighting and striking a man in the mouth about 45 minutes
ago. He has an open wound on his hand. A deep laceration, 0.5 cm long is found.
Which of the following should NOT be a part of your treatment?
1. Irrigate the wound with NaCl.
2. Close the wound with suture.
3. Request X-ray to R/O #.
4. Give a tetanus booster.
61. When next should this patient be rechecked?
1. 24 hours
2. 5 days
3. 7-10 days
4. Only if required
62. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for DeQuervain's tenosynovitis,?
1. Finkelstein Test
2. Tinel Test
3. Phalen Test.
4. Crepitus test.
63. Which of the following conditions is the most common malignant neoplasm of the
hand?
1. Squamous cell carcinomas
2. Chondrosarcomas
3. Malignant melanomas
4. Lipomas
64. Which of the following best describes a posterior dislocation of the hip?
1. Affected leg is the same length, with hip in a position of abduction and external
rotation.
2. Affected leg is longer, hip in abduction and external rotation.
3. Affected leg is short and the hip is fixed in a position of flexion, adduction, and
internal rotation
4. Affected leg is longer, hip is in a position of flexion, adduction, and internal
rotation
65. Which of the following described best an anterior dislocation of the hip?
1. the hip assumes a position of mild flexion, abduction, and external rotation
2. the hip assumes a neutral position, with abduction and external rotation
3. the hip assumes a position of mild flexion, adduction and external rotation
4. the hip assumes a position of mild flexion, abduction, and internal rotation
66. Why is it important to reduce a hip dislocation as soon as possible?
1. To decrease the level of pain.
2. To decrease the deformity.
3. To decrease the risk of osteonecrosis.
4. To decrease the risk of further dislocation.
67. Which of the following best describes a stable ring fracture of the pelvis?

Stable pelvic ring fractures generally involve only one side of the ring

A bilateral fracture of the superior and inferior pubic ramus is a stable injury

A fracture of superior and inferior pubic rami combined with a fracture of the
sacrum or ilium is considered an unstable pelvic fracture

Stable pelvic ring fractures are generally those that involve two sides of the ring.
68. You suspect a patient of having a pelvic fracture. What the two status tests should
you perform.
1. Respiratory system status.
2. Hemodynamic status.
3. Muscular system status.
4. Neurovascular status.
a. 1-2
b. 2-3
c. 3-4
d. 2-4
69. Which pelvis radiography view identifies most fractures?
1. Lateral view
2. AP view
3. AP and lateral view.
4. Oblique view.
70. After a pelvic fracture, which condition are patients at most risk for?
1. Length discrepancy.
2. Arthritis.
3. Venous thromboembolic disease.
4. Arterial insufficiency
71. Which of the following is not a treatment for pelvic fractures associated with minor
injuries?
1. Analgesics
2. Gait training
3. Cast
4. Weight bearing with a walker
72. Pelvic fractures are normally caused by high energy mechanisms of Injury. What
should be your first concerns in the initial treatment of this injury.
1. Hemodynamic resuscitation.
2. Pain control.
3. X-ray.
4. Lab testing.
73. Which of the following is the largest risk factor when considering a hip fracture?
1. Alcool.
2. Smoking
3. Age
4. Gender
74. Patients with a displaced femoral neck or intertrochanteric fracture lie with the limb
in which position?
1. Externally rotated, abducted, and shortened.
2. Internally rotated, abducted, and shortened.
3. Externally rotated, abducted, and longer.
4. Internally rotated, abducted and longer.
75. Which of the following is not a physical examination while suspecting a mid shaft
femur fracture?
1. Inspect for deformity, swelling, and open injuries
2. Evaluate vascular status of the limb distal to the fracture
3. Assess function of the femoral, peroneal, and posterior tibial nerves
4. Assess function of the sciatic nerve.
76. Which of the following are initial treatment for a mid shaft femur fracture?
1. Pain control and dressing
2. Splinting and traction
3. Antibiotic for open fracture
4. Crutches.
77. Which condition presents with the following symptoms: a dull, aching pain in the
groin, lateral thigh, or buttocks region. The pain is often episodic, with patients
experiencing morning stiffness.
1. Fracture of the hip
2. Bursitis.
3. Muscle sprain
4. Inflammatory arthritis
78. Which of the movement is usually lost at first in adult with hip joint disease?
1. Flexion.
2. Extension.
3. Internal rotation.
4. External rotation.
79. Which of the following is not a treatment for inflammatory hip arthritis?
1. NSAID
2. Physical Therapy
3. Antibiotic
4. Exercise to increase Range of motion.
80. True or false:
LATERAL FEMORAL CUTANEOUS NERVE SYNDROME causes motor nerve dysfunction,
because the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve is a motor nerve.
False
81. Which of the following is not a symptom of lateral femoral cutaneous syndrome?
1. Pain
2. dysesthesia in the anterolateral thigh
3. dysethesia in the lateral thigh that sometimes extends to the lateral knee
4. Swelling at hip level.
82. You are following up a patient treated for lateral femoral cutaneous syndrome. The
x-ray is normal, patient is on conservative treatment for 3 weeks, but there is no change
into his condition. What would you like to do next?
1. Referred him to neurology.
2. Referred him to internal medicine.
3. Order a CT scan or MRI
4. Order another X-ray.
83. True or false, you can cure Osteoarthritis of the hip with a treatment of pain control,
and referral to physical therapy.
False, there is no cure.
84. True of false,
In the condition os osteonecrosis, the use of 1 or 2 doses of corticosteroids can result in
osteonecroisis.
True
85. What is one of the earliest signs of Osteonecrosis of the femoral head?
1. Sclerosis
2. Pain
3. Swelling
4. Redness
86. You suspect an injury to a patients hamstring, to confirm the diagnosis what
would you see on physical exam?
1. Flexion on the knee followed by extension of the hip
2. Extension on the hip followed by a extension of the knee
3. Flexion of the hip followed by extension of the knee
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87. Contusion (hemorrhage) in the quadriceps muscle may progress in which of the
following conditions?
1. Myositis ossificans
2. Myositis
3. Ossificans
4. None of the above
88. Which of the following is NOT an initial treatment for hamstring injury?
1. Rest
2. Elevation
3. Stretching exercise
4. Ice and compressive wraps
89. Which of the following is a essential finding when suspecting a greater trochanter
bursitis?
1. Point tenderness over the lateral greater trochanter
2. Pain in resisted hip abduction
3. Pain with hip flexion
4. Pain on palpation of abductors
90. You are evaluating a patient presenting for Injury to his right knee. The patient
states he was walking and did not notice the uneven ground and his leg kind of over
extended. The patient is unable to weight bare. On examination you notice a positive
Lachman’s test. What is most likely the diagnosis?
1. Posterior cruciate ligament tear.
2. Anterior cruciate ligament tear.
3. Median Collateral ligament tear.
4. Lateral Collateral ligament tear.
91. Which of the following is the initial treatment for an ACL injury?
1. Compress bandages
2. Referral to Orthopedist
3. RICE
4. Range of motion exercises.
92. Which of the following ligaments are within the knee joint?
1. Anterior cruciate ligament
2. Medial collateral ligament
3. Lateral collateral ligament
4. Posterior cruciate ligament
a. 1-2
b. 1-4
c. 1.3
d. 2-3
93. You are treating a patient for a lateral collateral ligament sprain (grade III). The
patient is doing well with the conservative treatment of NSAIDs, exercise and a brace.
How long should the patient keep his brace while doing high risk activities?
1. 1 month
2. 3 month
3. 6 month
4. 12 month
94. The muscles of the lower leg are divided by fibrous septae into four compartments.
Which of the following is not a leg compartment?
1. Anterior
2. Lateral
3. Medial
4. Deep posterior
5.
95. What condition gives you severe leg pain that is out of proportion to what would
otherwise be expected, and as the condition progresses, the patient also may
experience paresthesias or numbness of the foot?
1. Acute compartment syndrome
2. Muscle cramps
3. Ankle sprain
4. Sciatica
96. True or false.
Patients with an exertional compartment syndrome experience pain at rest.
False
97. Mechanical symptoms such as locking, catching, and popping of the knee, can then
develop in which of the following condition?
1. Bursitis of the knee
2. Lateral Collateral ligament injury
3. Meniscal tear injury
4. Tendinitis of the knee
98. Which of the following are good tests to diagnose a meniscal injury?
1. Apley’s
2. McMurray’s
3. Murphy’s
4. Apple’s
a. 1-2
b. 2-3
c. 3-4
d. 2-4
99. When discussing osteonecrosis of the femoral condyle, the aim of treatment is:
1. Cure the patient
2. Relief the patient’s pain
3. Slow the progression of the disease
4. All of the above.
100. Which of the following condition gives you the following: A constellation of
problems characterized by a diffuse, aching anterior knee pain that increases with
activity?
1. Patellofemoral pain
2. Acute bursitis
3. Tendinitis
4. All of the above
101. What is the name of the test; use to evaluate the patellar instability?
1. Patella tinel test.
2. Patella wave test.
3. Patella apprehension test.
4. Patella moving test.
102. A 38 y/o male, presents to the clinic with pain to the right knee, after being in a car
accident. The patient was not wearing his seat belt and says his knee hit the dashboard.
On examination you notice a positive posterior drawer. What is the diagnosis?
1. Anterior cruciate ligament tear.
2. Posterior cruciate ligament tear.
3. Supra patellar ligament tear.
4. Posterior collateral ligament tear.
103. You have a 60 y/o female, presenting with pain to her right knee. Patient reports
falling on her knee two days ago. On examination you notice a defect of the patellar
tendon and the patient is NOT able to perform a straight leg raise. What is most likely
the diagnosis?
1. Patella tendon rupture
2. Patella tendonitis
3. Patella bursitis
4. Quadriceps tendonitis
104. How would you treat a patient with complete quadriceps tendon rupture?
1. Pain medication and fu in one week.
2. Immobilization for one month and follow up as needed.
3. Cast and follow in 6 weeks.
4. Referred to orthopedics for surgical repair.
105. You are seeing a patient for pain into his left leg. On examination the Thomas Test
is positive. What is most likely the diagnosis.
1. Ankle sprain.
2. Tendinitis of the Achilles tendon
3. Bursitis of the Achilles tendon
4. Rupture of the Achilles tendon.
106. Who am I? A hyperkeratotic lesion of the skin that forms in response to excessive
pressure over a bony prominence.
1. Wart
2. Callus
3. Blister
4. Bunionnette
107. How would you treat a stable fracture of the distal fibula?
1. Treated with a non weight-bearing cast for 4-6 weeks.
2. Treated with a weight-bearing cast or brace for 4 to 6 weeks.
3. Treated with a weight-bearing cast or brace for 6-8 weeks.
4. Treated with a non weight-bearing cast for 4-6 weeks.
108. What is the treatment for an unstable but non-displaced fracture of the distal
fibula?
1. Requires a non-weight-bearing short or long leg cast 2-3 weeks.
2. Requires a non-weight-bearing short or long leg cast 6-8 weeks.
3. Requires a weight-bearing short or long leg cast for 2-3 weeks.
4. Requires a weight-bearing short or long leg cast for 4-6 weeks.
109. What is the treatment for a non-displaced metatarsal neck fractures?
1. Treated with a long leg cast or brace.
2. Treated with a short leg cast.
3. Treated with a fracture brace.
4. Treated with a wooden-sole shoe.
a. 1-2-3
b. 2-3-4
c. 2-3
d. 1-3-4
110. When talking about fracture of the 5th metatarsal, which zone most likely require
surgical treatment.
1. 2
2. 1
3. 3
4. 4
111. Where on the body is a Lisfranc fracture-dislocation located?
1. Foot
2. Leg
3. Hand
4. Arm
112. What is the treatment for a non-displaced Lisfranc fracture-dislocation?
1. Treated with a weight-bearing cast for 6-8 weeks, followed by use of rigid arch
support for 6 months.
2. Treated with a weight-bearing cast for 6-8 weeks, followed by use of rigid arch
support for 3 months.
3. Treated with a non-weight-bearing cast for 6 to 8 weeks, followed by use of a
rigid arch support for 3 months.
4. Treated with a non-weight-bearing cast for 6 to 8 weeks, followed by use of a
rigid arch support for 6 months.
113. You have a patient presenting after a fall. Patient is reporting pain of his heel. You
are suspecting a calcaneus fracture. Which other location should you palpate for
tenderness?
1. Tibia-fibula.
2. Lumbar spine.
3. Femur.
4. Thoracic spine.
114. What is the treatment for a non-displaced fracture of the phalanges of the toe?
1. Short Leg cast.
2. Brace.
3. Weight-bearing cast.
4. Buddy Taping.
115. What is a good treatment for stage one ingrown toenail?
1. Warm soaks, proper nail trimming.
2. Initial treatment should include foot soaks along with broad-spectrum oral
antibiotics.
3. With a blunt instrument, insert cotton or waxed dental floss beneath the nail to
lift the edge of the nail from its embedded position.
4. Partial excision of the nail under digital block.
a. 1-2
b. 2-3
c. 3-4
d. 1-3
116. You have patient diagnosed with fungal infection of his toe nail. You decide to treat
the patient with an oral anti fungal agent. What test should you perform, prior to
starting the treatment and during treatment.
1. Complete blood count.
2. Liver function test.
3. Kidney function test.
4. Cholesterol level.
117. For which condition, is the following treatment used for: orthotic device, such as a
silicone, rubber, or felt heel pad, along with a home program of stretching exercises
1. Callus
2. Ankle sprain
3. Plantar Fasciitis
4. Bunion
118. What I am? hyperkeratotic lesions caused by a papillomavirus (HPV) that develops
on the sole of the foot.
1. Callus.
2. Bunion.
3. Athlete’s foot.
4. Plantar warts.
119. What is the most sensitive test to rule out a stress fracture of the foot?
1. Plain radiology.
2. MRI.
3. Bone Scan.
4. Ultra sound.
120. A hammertoe has a flexion deformity at what level?
1. PIP
2. DIP
3. MP
4. All of the above
121. You have a patient presenting with neck pain. The patient was involved in a
motorcycle accident. On examination there is no neurological symptom. You decide to
order x-rays, to rule out fracture. What view are you requesting?
1. A&P view of the neck.
2. Lateral view of the neck.
3. Oblique view of the neck.
4. Odontoid view.
a. 1-2-3
b. 2-3-4
c. 1-2-4
d. 1-3-4
122. How many cervical vertebras must you see on radiography of the neck, before
clearing spinal injury?
1. 5
2. 6
3. 7
4. 8
123. Which of the following is NOT a treatment for cervical sprain?
1. 1 or 2 weeks with a soft cervical collar.
2. Appropriate pain medications, and/or NSAIDs.
3. Use of steroid injection.
4. Muscle relaxants.
124. What is the condition: referred neuropathic pain in the distribution of a cervical
nerve root.
1. Cervical Spain
2. Torticollitis
3. Cervical Radiculopathy
4. Shoulder Bursitis
125. You are suspecting an upper motor neuron lesion, What test could you perform to
evaluate the condition.
1. Hoffman’s sign.
2. Raccoon’s sign.
3. Epley’s sign.
4. Tinels sign.
126. When suspecting a thoracic spinal fracture. What are the main goals for treatment?
1. Referring as soon as possible.
2. Preventing neurologic damage.
3. Restoring stability.
4. Restoring normal function.
a. 1-2-3
b. 2-3-4
c. 1-3-4
d. 1-2-4
127. What is most likely treatment for Cauda Equina Syndrome?
1. Surgery.
2. NSAIDS.
3. Pain Control medication.
4. Limitation in activities.
128. What are the most common symptoms when talking about Cauda Equina
Syndrome?
1. Cannot pee.
2. Cannot walk.
3. Cannot talk.
4. Cannot eat.
129. You are suspecting a patient suffering from compartment syndrome. In how many
hours would you suspect him to develop tissue necrosis?
1. 1-2 hours
2. 2-4 hours
3. 1-4 hours
4. 4-8 hours.
130. The anterior compartment of the leg and the volar aspect of the forearm. Which
areas are the most commonly affected muscular compartments in acute compartment
syndrome.
1. The anterior compartment of the leg.
2. The posterior compartment of the leg.
3. The volar aspect of the forearm.
4. The anterior portion of the forearm.
a. 1-2
b. 2-3
c. 3-4
d. 1-3
131. A compartment syndrome usually is present when the diastolic pressure minus
the intra-compartmental pressure is or equal to how many mm Hg?
1. 40 mm Hg
2. 30 mm Hg
3. 50 mm Hg
4. 20 mm Hg
132. What is the treatment for acute compartment syndrome?
1. Surgical fasciotomy.
2. Compression with bandages.
3. Pain medication.
4. Elevation of the limb.
133. What condition gives you the following: bone infection caused by pyogenic
organisms, tuberculosis, syphilis, and viral or fungal elements.
1. Furuncles
2. Bonisitis
3. Osteomyelitis
4. Compartment syndrome
134. When suspecting an osteomyelitis of a joint, what is the most important step in the
diagnosis?
1. MRI.
2. CT Scan.
3. Site Aspiration.
4. X-ray
135. What is the initial treatment if you are suspecting a patient of having
osteomyelitis?
1. IV antibiotic
2. Oral antibiotic.
3. Wait for lab result.
4. Surgical procedure.
136. If you are suspecting a patient suffering from osteomyelitis. Which bacteria are
usually the causes?
1. Staphyloccus aureus
2. Streptococcus
3. Pneumoccocus
4. Osteomyelococcus
a. 1-2
b. 2-3
c. 3-4
d. 1-3
137. You are evaluating a patient presenting with swelling of the calf. The patient also
reports having some difficulty breathing. On examination you have positive Homan’s
sign. What is most likely the diagnosis?
1. Sprain calf muscle.
2. Achilles tendon rupture.
3. Deep vein thrombosis.
4. Deep artery thrombosis.
138. Which of the following is a treatment for DVT?
1. Warfarin to keep INR in between 1.8 -2.5
2. Warfarin to keep INR in between 2.0-3.0
3. Levonox 30-40 mg q6h prn.
4. Levonox 30-40 mg q 8 h prn.
139. How long should prophylactic treatment be for a Deep Vein Thrombosis with low
molecule weight heparin?
1. 5-10 days
2. 10-14 days
3. 7-10 days.
4. 10-20 days.
140. The following definition describes what condition: disruption in the continuity of
bone that occurs as a result of a direct blow to the bone or an indirect force applied to
the limb
1. Dislocation
2. Sprain
3. Fracture
4. Subluxation
141. Match the definition with the type of fracture
1. Non displaced
__3__Overlapping of fractured bone ends
2. Displace
__5__The amount of bend
3. Bayonnetted
__1__ Fragments are in anatomic alignment
4. Distracted
__4__ Fragments are separated by a gap
5. Angulation
__2_Fragments are not in anatomic alignment
142. Which of the following is not part of the “ R” for treatment of fracture?
1. Radiology
2. Reduction
3. Retention of reduction while achieving union
4. Rehabilitation
143. What is the usual presenting complaint, when talking about bone tumors?
1. Night sweat
2. Weight loss
3. Acute pain
4. Deep aching pain
144. Which of the following is a good diagnostic test for benign bone tumor?
1. Radiography
2. CT Scan
3. MRI
4. Ultrasound
145. Which of the following is a good diagnostic test for malignant bone tumors?
1. Radiography
2. CT Scan
3. MRI
4. Ultrasound
146. Which of the following is the best imaging study to define the extent and
characteristics of a soft-tissue malignancy?
1. Ultrasound
2. MRI
3. Biopsy
4. Ct Scan
147. When talking about pain medication, the first step is to use non-opioid medication.
Which of the following would you use?
1. NSAID
2. Paracetamol
3. Codeine
4. Fentanyl
a. 1-2
b. 2-3
c. 3-4
d. 1-4
148. Inflammation is triggered by chemical mediators. Which of the following is not a
chemical mediator in inflammation?
1. Creatinine
2. Histamine
3. Prostaglandins
4. Bradykinin
149. What is the regular dose of Tylenol for children?
1. 5-10 mg/kg/dose every 4 hours.
2. 10-15 mg/kg/dose every 4 hours.
3. 5-10 mg/kg/dose every 8 hours.
4. 10-15 mg/lbs/dose every 4 hours.
150. Which of the following is the most common agent implicated in analgesic
poisonings.
1. Aspirin
2. Motrin
3. OPioid
4. Tylenol
151. Which of the following is not a medication used in Tylenol over doses?
1. Charcoal
2. Sorbitol
3. Nalaxone
4. N-Acetylcysteine
152. Which of the following medication is not a NSAID?
1. Paracetamol
2. Ibuprofen
3. Naprosyn
4. ASA
153. Which of the following is not a contra-indication for use of NSAID?
1. Peptic Ulcer disease
2. Asthma
3. Kidney failure
4. Already taking Tylenol
154. What is the immediate goal in gout attack treatment?
1. Prevent complications of chronic urate deposition in joints and tissues
2. Decreasing serum uric acid concentrations to prevent future attacks
3. Remove pain and inflammation
4. Increasing uric acid excretion
155. What is the dosage of indomethacin in a gout attack?
1. 100 mg PO TID or QID until relief then 50 mg TID or QID until total resolution
2. 50 mg TID or BID until relief then 25 mg TID or BID until total resolution
3. 50mg TID or QID until relief then 25mg TID or QID until total resolution
4. 50 mg TID or BID until relief then 50 mg TID or QID for 5 days.
156. (Need questions from FTA’s for opiod, as the slides are only in Dari)