MIS 4200 Database & Systems Analysis, Design, and Development
Final Review Questions
Systems Questions
Multiple Choice Questions
1) A group of interrelated procedures used for a business function, with an identifiable boundary,
working together for some purpose, best defines:
a. environment.
b. system component.
c. constraint.
d. interface.
e. system.
2) The organizational role most responsible for the analysis and design of information systems best
describes a:
a. business manager.
b. systems analyst.
c. chief information officer.
d. database analyst.
e. network administrator.
3) Analytical skills:
a. help you work with end users, as well as other analysts and programmers.
b. help you understand the potential and the limitations of information technology.
c. help you manage projects, resources, risk, and change.
d. enable you to understand the organization and its functions, to identify opportunities and
problems, and to analyze and solve problems.
e. promote an understanding of the different types of information systems.
4) Technical skills:
a. help you work with end users, as well as other analysts and programmers.
b. help you understand the potential and the limitations of information technology.
c. help you manage projects, resources, risk, and change.
d. enable you to understand the organization and its functions, to identify opportunities and
problems, and to analyze and solve problems.
5) Management skills:
a. help you work with end users, as well as other analysts and programmers.
b. help you understand the potential and the limitations of information technology.
c. help you manage projects, resources, risk, and change.
d. enable you to understand the organization and its functions, to identify opportunities and
problems, and to analyze and solve problems.
e. promote an understanding of the different types of information systems.
6) Interpersonal skills:
a. help you work with end users, as well as other analysts and programmers.
b. help you understand the potential and the limitations of information technology.
c. help you manage projects, resources, risk, and change.
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d. enable you to understand the organization and its functions, to identify opportunities and
problems, and to analyze and solve problems.
e. promote an understanding of the different types of information systems.
7) In which SDLC phase will the analyst study the organization’s current procedures and the information
systems used to perform tasks?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Systems planning and selection
Systems observation
Systems analysis
Systems design
Systems implementation and operation
8) In which phase will the systems analyst convert the description of the recommended alternative
solution into logical and then physical system specifications?
a. Systems planning and selection
b. Systems conversion
c. Systems analysis
d. Systems design
e. Systems implementation and operation
9) A description of the alternative solution recommended by the analysis team is provided during the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
systems planning and selection phase.
systems analysis phase.
systems design phase.
systems alternative selection phase.
systems implementation and operation phase.
10) A description of the alternative solution recommended by the analysis team is provided during the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
systems planning and selection phase.
systems analysis phase.
systems design phase.
systems alternative selection phase.
systems implementation and operation phase.
11) In which SDLC phase is the information system coded, tested, and installed in the organization?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Systems planning and selection
Systems replacement
Systems analysis
Systems design
Systems implementation and operation
12) Building a scaled-down version of the desired system best describes:
a. prototyping.
b. Agile Methodologies.
c. joint application design.
d. reengineering analysis.
e. rapid application development
13) A systems development methodology created to radically decrease the time needed to design and
implement information systems best describes:
a. Participatory Design (PD).
b. rapid application development.
c. joint application design.
d. CASE.
e. Agile Methodologies
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Match each of the following SDLC phases with its corresponding definition.
a. Systems planning and selection
b. Systems design
c. Systems implementation and operation
d. Systems analysis
14) The phase of the SDLC in which the current system is studied and alternative replacement systems
are proposed. Answer: ___
15) The phase of the SDLC in which the system chosen for development in systems analysis is first
described independently of any computer platform and is then transformed into technology-specific
details from which all programming and system construction can be accomplished. Answer: ___
16) The phase of the SDLC in which an organization’s information system needs are analyzed, and in
which a potential information systems project is identified and an argument for continuing or not
continuing with the project is presented. Answer: ___
Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition.
a.
Technical skills
b. Interpersonal skills
c.
Analytical skills
d. Management skills
17) Enable you to understand the organization and its functions, to identify opportunities and problems,
and to analyze and solve problems. Answer: ___
18) Help you manage projects, resources, risk, and change. Answer: ___
19) Help you work with end users, as well as other analysts and programmers. Answer: ___
20) Help you understand the potential and the limitations of information technology. Answer: ___
--------------------------------------------21)
Research has found that projects identified by top management more often:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
22)
have a narrow, tactical focus.
reflect diversity and have a cross-functional focus.
have a strategic, organizational focus.
will integrate easily with existing hardware and systems.
have a very low systems development priority.
Research has found that projects identified by individual departments or business units most
often:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
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have a narrow, tactical focus.
reflect diversity and have a cross-functional focus.
have a strategic, organizational focus.
will integrate easily with existing hardware and systems.
have a very high systems development priority.
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23)
Potential development projects can be identified by:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
24)
Which of the following possible project sources most often reflects the broader needs of the
organization?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
25)
Potential benefits
Resource availability
Technical difficulty or risks
Strategic alignment
Value chain analysis
The extent to which the project is viewed as helping the organization achieve its strategic
objectives and long-term goals describes:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
28)
Development group
User department
Steering committee
Top management
End user
The extent to which the project is viewed as improving profits, customer service, etc., and the
duration of these benefits best defines which of the following evaluation criteria?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
27)
User department
Development group
IS manager
Top management
Production manager
Which of the following alternative methods for making information systems identification and
selection decisions has as its focus integration with existing systems?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
26)
a steering committee.
top management.
a senior IS manager.
user departments.
all of the above.
potential benefits.
resource availability.
technical difficulty or risks.
strategic alignment.
value chain analysis.
Analyzing an organization’s activities to determine where value is added to products and/or
services and the costs incurred best describes:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
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affinity clustering.
business process reengineering.
value chain analysis.
resource availability.
technical difficulty.
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29)
The objective of the project planning process is the development of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
a baseline project plan.
a Systems Service Request.
entity relationship diagrams.
corporate strategic plan.
an information systems plan.
30)
In order to promote more truthful responses, the general nature of the interview
should not be explained to the interviewee in advance.
T
F
31)
As a general guideline, you should prepare an agenda with approximate time limits
for different sections of the interview.
T
F
32)
Closed-ended questions work well when the major answers to the questions are
known.
T
F
33)
You should use the interview process to set expectations about the new or
replacement system.
T
F
34)
Since observations are unbiased, they are preferable to other requirements
determination techniques.
T
F
35)
While being observed, employees may follow exact procedures more carefully than
they typically do.
T
F
36)
In documents you can find information about special information processing
circumstances that occur irregularly.
T
F
37)
When performing observations, it is best to select typical people and sites as
opposed to atypical people and sites.
T
F
38)
As a systems analyst, it is part of your job to create a document for a missing work
procedure.
T
F
39)
The primary purpose of using JAD in the analysis phase is to collect systems
requirements simultaneously from the key people involved with the system.
T
F
40)
Referencing a JAD session, the sponsor is the individual responsible for organizing
and running a JAD session.
T
F
41)
The prototyping process encourages the formal documentation of system
requirements.
T
F
42)
Rapid process redesign is the search for, and implementation of, radical change in
business processes to achieve breakthrough improvements in products and
services.
T
F
43)
Which of the following is a traditional method of collecting systems requirements?
a. business process reengineering
b. observations
c. Joint Application Design
d. Rapid Application Development
e. prototyping
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44)
Questions in interviews and on questionnaires that have no prespecified answers are:
a. nonspecific questions.
b. closed-ended questions.
c. open-ended questions.
d. investigative questions.
e. exploratory questions.
45)
One advantage of open-ended questions in an interview is:
a. a significant amount of time can be devoted to each interviewee.
b. the interviewee is restricted to providing just a few answers.
c. previously unknown information can result.
d. they work well when the answers to the questions are well known.
e. they are not biased.
46)
Which of the following can be considered an advantage of closed-ended questions?
a. The interviewer can explore unexpected lines of inquiry.
b. Closed-ended questions work well when the major answers to the questions are well
known.
c. The interviewee has a sense of involvement and control in the interview.
d. Closed-ended questions often put the interviewee at ease.
e. Previously unknown information may surface.
47)
Rating a response or idea on some scale, say from strongly agree to strongly disagree, would be
classified as a(n):
a. open-ended question.
b. stratified question.
c. closed-ended question.
d. contemporary question.
e. structured question.
Database Questions
48) Which of the following can be used to run the oralab02.sql script file in SQL Plus? (choose all correct
answers)
a. Execute oralab02.sql
b. @ oralab02.sql
c. Run oralab02.sql
d. Start oralab02.sql
e. None of the above
49) You want to use the INSERT INTO command to add data to all the columns of an Oracle table, but you
don’t remember the order of the columns in the table. What SQL command can you use to verify the
order? Answer: ________________________________________________
50) When you use the CREATE SEQUENCE command to create a sequence, you need to use
a COMMIT command (at a later time) for the sequence to ultimately exist in the database. T
F
51) The SQL CREATE SEQUENCE command is a data manipulation language command.
F
T
52) Which of the following types of joins include a row from table A if it has an equivalent value in the
common column in table B?
a) Inner join
b) Natural join
c) Equijoin
d) All of the above
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53) Table A contains eight rows and table B contains four rows. The output of their Cartesian product
includes ____ rows?
a) 32
b) 12
c) 8
d) 4
54) Which of the following is a SET operator
a) UNITE
b) INTERSEPT
c) SUM
d) None of the above
55) In the following query, which of the following will cause an error to occur?
a)
b)
c)
d)
SELECT f_last, f_first
FROM faculty
WHERE f_id =
(SELECT f_id, super_id
FROM faculty
WHERE rank = ‘Assistant’);
WHERE f_id =
SELECT f_id, super_id
WHERE rank = ‘Assistant’);
None of the above
56) The following statement is an example of what kind of query?
SELECT s_first, s_last
FROM student
WHERE s_id =
(SELECT s_id
FROM enrollment
WHERE grade = ‘A’);
a) Inner query
b) Outer query
c) Self-join query
d) Nested query
57) The following statement is an example of what type of query?
SELECT s_first, s_last, grade, course_sec_id
FROM student s, enrollment e
WHERE s_s_id = e_s_id;
a) Inner query
b) Outer query
c) Self-join query
d) Nested query
58) Which of the following removes the view named FAC from the database?
a) DROP Fa;
b) DROP VIEW Fac;
c) DELETE VIEW Fac;
d) DELETE Fac;
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59) Which of the following is a valid statement?
a) A view is a logical table that prevents a user from accessing the underlying tables
b) An updatable view can be used to delete data from its underlying tables.
c) A view based on only one table can be used to update calculated columns
d) All of the above
60) If you create an inner join query involving table A that contains six rows and table B that contains
four rows, what is the maximum number of rows that can be included in the results?
a) 0
b) 4
c) 6
d) 24
61) In a PL/SQL block, which of the following section(s) is mandatory?
a. Declaration section
b. Execution section
c. Exception section
d. Both a and b
62) What will be the value of the variable second_variable after execution of the following PL/SQL
block?
DECLARE
first_variable NUMBER;
second_variable NUMBER;
BEGIN
second_variable := first_variable * 3;
END;
Answer: _NULL__
63) When attempting to debug a logic error, the first step is to:
a. Use the DBMS_OUTPUT debugging statements to determine the values of the variables
b. Ask your instructor for help
c. Identify the incorrect output variable(s)
64) Based on the order of precedence, what is the result of the following expression: 14 + 8 * 4/2 – 6
a. 24
b. 18
c. -48
d. None of the above
65) Which of the following data type is not classified as a scalar datatype?
a. BOOLEAN
b. BINARY_INTEGER
c. VARCHAR2
d. VARRAY
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66) Identify the line of code containing the error in the following PL/SQL block.
1 DECLARE
2
first_variable NUMBER :=2;
3 BEGIN
4
first_variable := first_variable ^ 3;
5
DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE(‘The value is ’|| first_variable);
6 END;
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
4
6
There is no error
67) Identify the line of code containing the error in the following PL/SQL block.
1 DECLARE
2
second_variable NUMBER DEFAULT 2;
3 BEGIN
4
second_variable := second_variable + 3;
5
DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE(second_variable);
6 END;
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
4
6
There is no error
68) The following PL/SQL block extracts and displays the area code and phone number for a customer.
However it contains a logic error. Identify the error.
DECLARE
curr_phone
VARCHAR2(30) := '9045551897';
curr_areacode
VARCHAR2(30);
curr_number
VARCHAR2(30);
BEGIN
curr_areacode := SUBSTR(curr_phone, 1, 3);
DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE('The area code is: ' ||
curr_areacode);
curr_number := SUBSTR(curr_phone, 4, 6);
DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE('The phone number is: ' ||
curr_number);
END;
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